SSC Selection Post 2025 29 August 2025 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Sandstone
Ashoka's pillars (3rd century BCE) were predominantly carved from Chunar sandstone — a fine-grained, cream/buff- coloured sandstone quarried from Chunar (near Varanasi, Uttar Pradesh). The Chunar sandstone allowed the remarkable mirror-like polish characteristic of Mauryan art. Famous examples include the Lion Capital at Sarnath (now India's national emblem) and the pillars at Lauriya Nandangarh , Rampurwa , and Allahabad.
Option 1 (Marble): Marble is used in Mughal architecture (Taj Mahal); not the material for Ashokan pillars.
Option 2 (Granite): Granite is used in South Indian temple architecture (Pallava, Chola periods); not used for Ashokan pillars.
Option 4 (Basalt): Basalt is a volcanic rock used in some Deccan structures; not the material for Ashokan stone pillars.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
Assertion (A) is TRUE: Post-Mauryan stupas indeed show significant regional variations. The Gandhara school produced stupas with drum-like bases on high plinths; Amaravati stupas in the south feature distinctive limestone carvings and unique medallion art; stupas in Southeast Asia and Central Asia developed cruciform bases, pyramidal superstructures, and other locally adapted forms.
Reason (R) is TRUE: The use of locally available materials — limestone in Andhra, schist and stucco in Gandhara, brick in the Gangetic plains — along with regional building traditions directly shaped distinct stupa styles. Different craftsmen guilds adapting pan-Indian Buddhist iconography to local techniques produced the regional diversity observed.
R correctly explains A: The regional diversity in stupa form (Assertion) is directly caused by the use of diverse local materials and techniques (Reason) — making R the correct explanation of A.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – 1 and 2 both are Correct
Statement 1 (TRUE): Under FIDE rules, when a pawn reaches the 8th rank (promotion), it must be promoted to a queen, rook, bishop, or knight of the same colour . Promotion to a second queen is perfectly legal even if the original queen is still on the board — a player can have two or more queens simultaneously. This is called 'underpromotion' when choosing a non-queen piece.
Statement 2 (TRUE): FIDE castling rules require: (a) neither the king nor the involved rook must have moved previously, (b) no piece between king and rook, (c) the king must not be in check, must not pass through a square under attack, and must not land on a square under attack. All these conditions must be met for castling to be legal.
Both statements accurately reflect FIDE chess rules.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4
A. Joginder Singh Bedi (2 – Silver, Shot Put, Stoke/New York 1984): Joginder Singh Bedi was a multi-sport para-athlete who won medals at the 1984 Paralympics (held at Stoke Mandeville, UK and New York, USA) in field events including shot put.
B. Devendra Jhajharia (1 – Gold, Javelin, Athens 2004): Devendra Jhajharia is India's most decorated para-athlete. He won gold in javelin throw (F46 category) at Athens 2004 Paralympics, setting a world record. He also won gold at Rio 2016 and silver at Tokyo 2020.
C. Rajinder Singh Rahelu (3 – Bronze, Powerlifting 56kg, Athens 2004): Rajinder Singh Rahelu won bronze in powerlifting (56kg category) at the Athens 2004 Paralympics.
D. Bhimrao Kesarkar (4 – Silver, Javelin, Stoke/New York 1984): Bhimrao Kesarkar won silver in javelin throw at the 1984 Paralympics.
Correct matching: A-2, B-1, C-3, D-4 = Option B.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI)
The Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project connects Kolkata port (India) to Sittwe port (Myanmar) via sea, then by inland waterway on the Kaladan River, and finally by road to Mizoram. The Inland Waterways Authority of India (IWAI) was appointed as the Project Development Consultant (PDC) for the Port and Inland Water Transport (IWT) component — leveraging IWAI's expertise in inland waterway infrastructure development and operations.
Option 1 (IPGPL): India Ports Global Private Limited handles overseas port development (Chabahar, etc.); not the PDC for Kaladan IWT component.
Option 2 (JNPT): Jawaharlal Nehru Port Trust manages JNPT in Mumbai; not involved as PDC for the Kaladan project.
Option 4 (Ministry): The Ministry provides policy oversight but is not appointed as PDC for a specific project component.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – To enhance meteorological observations and aid in weather forecasting
INSAT-3DS was launched by ISRO on February 17, 2024 aboard GSLV-F14. It is a dedicated meteorological satellite designed to enhance India's weather forecasting and disaster warning capabilities. Its primary instruments include an Imager (6 spectral bands for atmospheric imaging), a Sounder (19 spectral channels for atmospheric profiling), and a Data Relay Transponder. It supports the India Meteorological Department (IMD) in cyclone tracking, monsoon monitoring, and disaster risk reduction.
Option 1 (Defense satellite communication): INSAT-3DS is a civilian meteorological satellite operated by MoES (Ministry of Earth Sciences); not a defense communication satellite.
Option 2 (DTH broadcasting): DTH services use communication satellites (GSAT series); INSAT-3DS is a weather observation satellite.
Option 4 (Deep-space communications backup): Deep-space communication is handled by ISRO's Deep Space Network; INSAT-3DS is in geostationary orbit for Earth observation.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
Assertion (A) is TRUE: ISRO's RLV-TD programme is India's foundational effort toward building a fully reusable launch vehicle — critical for reducing cost of access to space. Successful RLV-TD missions (HEX-01 in 2016, LEX-01/02 in 2023, REX in 2024) are building blocks for India's future Two-Stage-to-Orbit (TSTO) reusable vehicle.
Reason (R) is TRUE: RLV-TD missions have been specifically designed to validate technologies essential for reusability: (a) Hypersonic flight — re-entry at Mach 5+ with thermal protection system; (b) Autonomous landing — runway landing using GPS-based navigation (LEX missions at Aeronautical Test Range, Chitradurga ); (c) Structural resilience of the winged body during atmospheric re-entry.
R correctly explains A: The technological capabilities being demonstrated (hypersonic flight, autonomous landing, structural resilience) are precisely what make RLV-TD the cornerstone of India's reusable space access — R directly explains A.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Twirl
Ghoomar (also spelled Ghumar ) is a traditional folk dance of Rajasthan, primarily performed by women of the Bhil tribe and later adopted by Rajput women. The word ' Ghoomar ' or ' Ghoomna ' comes from the Rajasthani/Hindi word meaning 'to twirl' or 'to spin' — referring to the graceful spinning movement that is the hallmark of the dance. Performers wear brightly coloured ghagra -choli (skirts and blouses) that flare outward when they twirl. Ghoomar received global recognition after featuring in the Bollywood film ' Padmaavat ' (2018).
Option 1 (Jump): Ghoomar does not mean jump; it specifically refers to the spinning/twirling motion.
Option 3 (Sing): Ghoomar is a dance, not a singing term; while it is accompanied by folk songs, the word itself means twirl.
Option 4 (Celebrate): While Ghoomar is performed at celebrations, the word itself specifically means to twirl/spin.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Archery
Sheetal Devi is India's armless para-archer from Jammu & Kashmir who shoots using her feet. At the Paris 2024 Paralympics, she competed in para-archery. She had earlier won gold at the Asian Para Games 2022 (Hangzhou) and made history as the world's first armless archer to use a compound bow competitively. Her participation and performance at Paris 2024 brought national attention to para-archery in India.
Option 1 (Shooting): India's para-shooting contingent at Paris 2024 included other athletes; Sheetal Devi specializes in archery.
Option 3 (Badminton): India won multiple medals in para-badminton at Paris 2024 (Nitesh Kumar, Manisha Ramadass, etc.); Sheetal Devi is not a badminton player.
Option 4 (Athletics): Para-athletics was India's strongest event at Paris 2024; Sheetal Devi is specifically an archer.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
Assertion (A) is TRUE: India and Chile signed the Terms of Reference ( ToR ) for a Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) in May 2025. This marked a significant upgrade from the existing India-Chile Preferential Trade Agreement (PTA, signed 2006, expanded 2017), which had limited coverage and underperformed trade expectations. A CEPA covers a far wider scope including services, investment, and digital trade.
Reason (R) is TRUE: The India-Chile Joint Study Group (JSG) completed its report in April 2024, recommending a comprehensive CEPA covering new sectors including digital services, critical minerals (where Chile has vast lithium/copper reserves India needs for energy transition), and MSME cooperation — providing the economic rationale for upgrading from PTA to CEPA.
R correctly explains A: The JSG's recommendation for a broader CEPA (Reason) directly led to and explains the signing of CEPA Terms of Reference (Assertion) — R is the correct explanation of A.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – To rank countries on environmental and climate performance
The Environmental Performance Index (EPI) is published biannually by Yale University (Yale Center for Environmental Law & Policy) and Columbia University. It ranks 180 countries on 58 performance indicators across 11 issue categories covering ecosystem vitality and environmental health — including air quality, water quality, biodiversity, climate change, energy transition, and agriculture. The EPI helps countries identify areas of strength and weakness in environmental policy. India ranked 176th in EPI 2022.
Option 1 (Evaluate GDP growth): GDP is measured by World Bank, IMF, and UN; EPI focuses exclusively on environmental metrics, not economic growth.
Option 2 (Rank environmental NGOs): EPI ranks countries (sovereign nations), not non-governmental organizations.
Option 4 (List polluted cities): WHO's Global Ambient Air Quality Database lists polluted cities; EPI provides country-level environmental performance rankings.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Only 1
Statement 1 (TRUE): Babur (Zahiruddin Muhammad Babur) was indeed of Timurid descent (on his father's side, from Timur/Tamerlane) and Mongol descent (on his mother's side, from Genghis Khan). He founded the Mughal Empire by defeating Ibrahim Lodi at the First Battle of Panipat (1526). This is historically accurate.
Statement 2 (FALSE): This contains two errors. First, Babur was NOT overthrown by Sher Shah — Babur died naturally in 1530. His son Humayun succeeded him. It was HUMAYUN (Babur's son, not Babur himself) who was defeated and overthrown by Sher Shah Suri in 1540. Second, after Sher Shah's Suri dynasty, it was HUMAYUN (not Akbar) who recaptured Delhi in 1555. Akbar (Babur's grandson) succeeded Humayun in 1556.
Only Statement 1 is correct.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Both 1 and 2 are correct
Statement 1 (TRUE): The decade 1911–1921 is known as the 'Great Divide' in Indian demographic history. India's population actually declined during this period — recorded as approximately 303 million in 1911 to 251 million in 1921 (some sources show slight decline or near-stagnation). This was the only census decade in India's recorded history with negative or near-zero population growth.
Statement 2 (TRUE): The influenza pandemic of 1918–19 (Spanish Flu) was catastrophic in India — killing an estimated 12–17 million people in India alone (some estimates go up to 20 million), making India one of the worst-affected regions globally. Combined with famines, plague, and WWI, these factors explain the population decline of the 1911–1921 decade.
Both statements are historically accurate and mutually supportive.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Metallurgical
The metallurgical industry (steel and iron manufacturing) is by far the largest consumer of manganese in India — accounting for over 90% of manganese consumption. Manganese is an essential ingredient in steel production: it acts as a deoxidizer and desulfurizer, improves hardness, strength, and wear resistance of steel. Every tonne of steel requires approximately 6–9 kg of manganese. India is a major producer of manganese ore (Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka).
Option 1 (Photography): Photography uses silver halides; manganese has no significant application in photography.
Option 3 (Match): The match industry historically used phosphorus compounds; some formulations use manganese dioxide as an oxidizer, but this is a negligible fraction of total manganese consumption.
Option 4 (Leather): Leather tanning uses chromium and vegetable tannins; not significant manganese consumption.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – It plays a key role in industrial output and jobs
The textile industry is one of India's oldest and largest industries. It contributes approximately 2.3% to GDP, 7% of industrial output value, and 12% of India's export earnings. It employs over 45 million people directly and 60 million indirectly — making it the second largest employer after agriculture. India is the world's second largest producer of textiles and garments.
Option 1 (Dependent on foreign raw materials): India's textile industry is largely self-sufficient in raw materials — cotton (2nd largest producer globally), jute (largest producer), silk, and wool are domestically available. Some specialty fibers are imported but it is NOT predominantly dependent on foreign raw materials.
Option 2 (Not involved in foreign exchange earnings): Textiles and apparel are among India's top export categories, earning significant foreign exchange — this statement is factually incorrect.
Option 4 (Only manufactures low-value goods): India produces high-value textiles including silk, fine cotton, technical textiles, and branded apparel for export — this statement is incorrect.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Only 1 and 2 are correct
Statement 1 (TRUE): The Great Indian Bustard ( Ardeotis nigriceps) is listed as Critically Endangered on the IUCN Red List. Its population has declined to fewer than 200 individuals, primarily due to habitat loss, hunting, and collision with power lines.
Statement 2 (TRUE): GIBs are found in the arid and semi-arid grasslands of Rajasthan (Desert National Park — primary stronghold), Gujarat (Kutch), Maharashtra ( Nannaj ), Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh. Rajasthan holds over 90% of the surviving population.
Statement 3 (FALSE): The Great Indian Bustard is protected under Schedule I of the Wildlife Protection Act, 1972 — NOT Schedule II. Schedule I provides the highest level of protection, with absolute prohibition on hunting. Schedule II provides lesser protection. GIB's Schedule I status reflects its critically endangered status.
Only Statements 1 and 2 are correct.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – Both 1 and 2
Statement 1 (TRUE): Jupiter's Great Red Spot (GRS) is a massive persistent anticyclonic storm — a high-pressure system rotating counter-clockwise in Jupiter's southern hemisphere — that has been observed for at least 350 years (since the 1600s). It is larger than Earth and is Jupiter's most iconic feature. Recent observations show it has been slowly shrinking.
Statement 2 (TRUE): Mars has exactly two moons — Phobos and Deimos — both of which are small and irregularly shaped (potato-like, non-spherical). Phobos (27km × 22km × 18km) and Deimos (15km × 12km × 11km) are believed to be captured asteroids from the asteroid belt. They lack the mass for gravity to pull them into spherical shapes.
Both statements are scientifically accurate.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Only 1 and 3 are correct
Statement 1 (TRUE): Auxins (particularly IAA — Indole-3-acetic acid) promote apical dominance — the phenomenon where the growing apical bud suppresses the growth of lateral (axillary) buds. High auxin concentrations from the shoot apex inhibit lateral bud growth, maintaining the plant's main axis dominance.
Statement 2 (FALSE): Cytokinins do NOT promote senescence — they DELAY senescence (aging/breakdown) in plant tissues. Cytokinins promote cell division, differentiation, and leaf greenness, and counteract the effects of ageing. It is Abscisic Acid (ABA) that promotes senescence and abscission, not cytokinins .
Statement 3 (TRUE): Ethylene is the primary plant hormone that accelerates fruit ripening. It stimulates the conversion of starch to sugars, softening of cell walls, and colour changes in fruits. Commercial fruit ripening (bananas, mangoes) uses ethylene gas or ethephon (ethylene-releasing compound).
Only Statements 1 and 3 are correct.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – 20 days
Half-life (t½) = 10 days. If 75% decays, 25% remains.
After 1 half-life (10 days): 50% remains (50% decayed).
After 2 half-lives (20 days): 25% remains (75% decayed).
So, for 75% of the sample to decay, 25% must remain, which takes exactly 2 half-lives = 2 × 10 = 20 days.
Verification: N/N₀ = (1/2)^n where n = number of half-lives. 0.25 = (0.5)^n → n = 2. Time = 2 × 10 = 20 days. ✓
Option 1 (5 days): After 5 days (half a half-life), approximately 29% has decayed — far less than 75%.
Option 2 (10 days): After 1 half-life, 50% decays — not 75%.
Option 4 (30 days): After 3 half-lives, 87.5% decays — more than 75%.

Correct Answer: Option 2 – Availability of flat, arid, and sparsely populated land with high insolation
For utility-scale solar farms, the most critical geographical factor balancing land acquisition issues, environmental impact, and energy output is the availability of flat, arid, sparsely populated land with high solar insolation (solar radiation intensity). This combination: (a) minimizes land acquisition conflicts (sparse population, low agricultural value), (b) reduces environmental impact (arid lands have lower biodiversity sensitivity than forests/wetlands), (c) maximizes energy output (high insolation = more solar radiation per unit area). India's Rajasthan, Gujarat, and Ladakh fit this profile — the Bhadla Solar Park (Rajasthan) is the world's largest.
Option 1 (Seismically active zones): Seismic activity poses structural risk to solar infrastructure; geothermal energy is a separate technology — not integrated with solar farms.
Option 3 (Proximity to urban centers): While proximity reduces transmission losses, land near urban centers is expensive and scarce — worsening land acquisition challenges.
Option 4 (Water resources for cleaning): Panel cleaning requires some water, but this is a minor operational consideration, not the most critical geographical factor for siting.

Correct Answer: Option 3 – 75%
Sub-Mission on Agricultural Mechanization (SMAM) is a centrally sponsored scheme by the Ministry of Agriculture & Farmers' Welfare to increase farm mechanization in India. Under SMAM's Kisan Drone promotion component, Farmer Producer Organizations (FPOs) are provided a 75% grant/subsidy for purchasing and demonstrating Kisan Drones (agricultural drones for crop protection, spraying, and monitoring). FPOs receive higher subsidies than individual farmers to enable wider demonstration and adoption.
Option 1 (40%): Individual SC/ST farmers and women farmers receive 50% subsidy; 40% is not a standard SMAM Kisan Drone rate.
Option 2 (50%): Individual farmers from other categories may receive up to 50% subsidy; FPOs receive the higher 75% rate.
Option 4 (100%): 100% grant is provided to Krishi Vigyan Kendras (KVKs) and ICAR institutes for demonstration purposes; FPOs receive 75%.

Correct Answer: Option 1 – Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
Assertion (A) is TRUE: A country can have a high average HDI while still having significant multidimensional poverty among specific regions, ethnic groups, or socioeconomic classes. HDI is a national average that can mask extreme disparities — for example, Gulf countries have high HDI but significant poverty among migrant worker populations; Brazil has high HDI but persistent poverty in favelas.
Reason (R) is TRUE: The HDI is calculated as a geometric mean of three indices (health, education, income) at the national level — producing a single national average. It does not disaggregate data by region, gender, caste, ethnicity, or income quintile, and thus fails to capture how development is distributed within a country.
R correctly explains A: Because HDI is an average masking intra-country inequalities (Reason) , a country with a high HDI average can simultaneously have pockets of high multidimensional poverty (Assertion). R is the direct and correct explanation of A.

Correct Answer: Option 4 – A is false, but R is true
Assertion (A) is FALSE: Double coincidence of wants does NOT enhance transactional efficiency in barter — it is precisely a BARRIER to transactional efficiency. In barter, both parties must simultaneously want what the other has (e.g., a farmer wanting shoes must find a cobbler who wants grain). This requirement makes barter highly inefficient, limiting trade and exchange.
Reason (R) is TRUE: Money eliminates the need for double coincidence of wants by acting as a medium of exchange. Instead of needing to find someone who both has what you want AND wants what you have, money allows any transaction to be split — sell your goods for money, then use money to buy anything from anyone. This is one of the key functions of money that overcomes barter's inefficiency.
Since A is false (double coincidence hinders, not enhances, efficiency) but R is true (money eliminates double coincidence requirement) — Option 4 (D) is correct.

The correct answer is1969.
The first major nationalization of commercial banks in India occurred onJuly 19, 1969. Under the leadership of the then Prime Minister Indira Gandhi, the government brought14 major private commercial banks(each holding deposits of over ₹50 crore) under state ownership.
This decision was a massive economic turning point designed to increase financial inclusion and redirect funds toward neglected priority sectors like agriculture and small-scale industries.
For a quick reference of other dates:
1955:Nationalization of the Imperial Bank of India to form the State Bank of India (SBI).
1969:First major nationalization of 14 commercial banks.
1980:Second phase of nationalization, involving 6 additional banks