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SSC Stenographer 2026 10 September 2026 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 44 GK / GS questions asked in SSC Stenographer 2026 on 10 September 2026 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Medieval History, Static GK, Modern History, Polity, Ancient History, Geography.

📚 44 questions🗓️ 10 September 2026⏰ Shift 2
📥 Full paper PDF
Subjects: Medieval History (1) · Static GK (16) · Modern History (1) · Polity (6) · Ancient History (2) · Geography (4) · Biology (3) · Computer (1) · Physics (4) · Chemistry (1) · Economics (5)

Medieval History (1)

Vijayanagara and Bahmani Kingdoms · Bahmani kingdom

Q1. Which of the following was a major cause of conflict between the Vijayanagara Empire and the Bahmani Sultanate, occasionally escalating into full-scale wars?

  1. (a) Dispute over access to the Arabian Sea ports and control of Gujarat trade
  2. (b) Rival claims over the fertile Raichur Doab and tensions over economic practices like the levy on prostitution
  3. (c) Religious proselytization campaigns initiated by Bahmani rulers in Tamil regions
  4. (d) Succession disputes within the Vijayanagara royal family exploited by Bahmani allies
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Rival claims over the fertile Raichur Doab and tensions over economic practices like the levy on prostitution

Answer: Option 2 — Rival claims over the fertile Raichur Doab and tensions over economic practices like the levy on prostitution
The Raichur Doab — the fertile tract between the Krishna and the Tungabhadra — was the standing bone of contention between Vijayanagara and the Bahmani Sultanate.
It was rich in soil, diamonds and trade routes, so border friction over it repeatedly grew into full war.
Revision note — Vijayanagara and the Bahmani Sultanate
• Vijayanagara was founded in 1336 by Harihara I and Bukka I of the Sangama dynasty, with its capital at Hampi on the south bank of the Tungabhadra.
• The Bahmani kingdom was founded in 1347 by Alauddin Hasan Bahman Shah, with its capital first at Gulbarga and later at Bidar.
• The Raichur Doab lies between the Krishna and Tungabhadra rivers and formed the Bahmani kingdom's southern frontier; both states claimed it for nearly two centuries.
• Krishnadeva Raya of the Tuluva dynasty (1509–1529) defeated Ismail Adil Shah of Bijapur in the Battle of Raichur, 1520, and captured the Raichur fort.
• The Bahmani state broke into five Deccan Sultanates — Bijapur, Ahmadnagar, Golconda, Bidar and Berar — whose combined armies destroyed Vijayanagara at the Battle of Talikota, 1565.
• In Vijayanagara usage the kings were called Narapati (lord of men), the Deccan Sultans Ashvapati (lord of horses) and the Odisha rulers Gajapati (lord of elephants).
Do not mix these up
• Battle of Raichur (1520) vs Battle of Talikota (1565) — Vijayanagara won at Raichur under Krishnadeva Raya; it was destroyed at Talikota by the allied Sultanates.
• Bahmani Sultanate vs Delhi Sultanate — the Bahmani was an independent Deccan kingdom founded in 1347 after a revolt against Muhammad bin Tughlaq, not a province of Delhi.
Also asked from this topic: the founder of the Bahmani kingdom in 1347 (Alauddin Hasan Bahman Shah); the ruler defeated in the Battle of Raichur (Adil Shah of Bijapur); the title Narapati used for the Vijayanagara Rayas.

Static GK (16)

Music and Musical Instruments · Carnatic music

Q2. Who is revered as the "Pitamaha of Karnataka Sangeeta" (Grandfather of Carnatic Music) for systematizing its pedagogy and devotional compositions?

  1. (a) Tyagaraja
  2. (b) Annamacharya
  3. (c) Purandara Dasa
  4. (d) Basavanna
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Purandara Dasa

Answer: Option 3 — Purandara Dasa
Purandara Dasa (1484–1564) is called the Pitamaha — grandfather or father — of Carnatic music because he built its teaching system.
He graded the beginner's lessons into sarale varase, janta varase and alankaras, the sequence still taught first today.
Revision note — Carnatic music and its makers
• Purandara Dasa composed thousands of kirtanas and devaranamas in Kannada, adopted raga Mayamalavagaula as the beginner's scale, and was a saint of the Haridasa movement of Karnataka.
• The Trinity of Carnatic music is Tyagaraja (1767–1847), Muthuswami Dikshitar (1775–1835) and Shyama Shastri (1762–1827); all three raised the kriti to its highest form.
• Tyagaraja composed the five Pancharatna Kritis, sung every year at the Tyagaraja Aradhana at Thiruvaiyaru.
• Annamacharya (1408–1503) of Tirupati wrote about 32,000 sankirtanas in Telugu praising Lord Venkateswara.
• The 72-melakarta scheme of parent scales was given by Venkatamakhi in the 17th-century Chaturdandi Prakashika.
• The earlier treatise Swaramela-kalanidhi (1550 CE) was written by Ramamatya, a scholar of the Vijayanagara court.
• Basavanna (12th century) was not a musician of this line — he was the Lingayat social reformer of Karnataka known for vachana literature.
Do not mix these up
• Purandara Dasa vs the Carnatic Trinity — Purandara Dasa is the Pitamaha who created the teaching method; the Trinity of Tyagaraja, Dikshitar and Shyama Shastri came three centuries later.
• Kriti vs bandish — the kriti is the fixed composition of Carnatic music; its Hindustani counterpart is the bandish.
Also asked from this topic: the year of Purandaradasa's advent (1484); who codified the method of Carnatic music (Purandara Dasa); the song form of the Haridasa movement (Devara Nama); the composer of the Pancharatna Kritis (Tyagaraja).
Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q3. What distinguishes Bharata Natyam from other Indian classical dance forms?

  1. (a) Use of martial techniques and battle stances
  2. (b) Acrobatics and puppet-like movements
  3. (c) Temple origins, expressive gestures, and rhythmic footwork
  4. (d) Folk elements with drum-based storytelling
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Temple origins, expressive gestures, and rhythmic footwork

Answer: Option 3 — Temple origins, expressive gestures, and rhythmic footwork
Bharatanatyam grew out of the devadasi temple tradition of Tamil Nadu and is built on abhinaya (expression) joined to crisp adavu footwork.
That combination of temple origin, hand gestures and rhythmic feet is what marks it off from the other seven classical forms.
Revision note — Bharatanatyam and the classical dances
• Bharatanatyam is the oldest Indian classical dance, of Tamil Nadu, earlier called Sadir or Dasiattam.
• It is codified from the Natya Shastra of Bharata Muni and the Abhinaya Darpana of Nandikeshvara.
• Its repertoire, the margam, opens with Alarippu — "to adorn with flowers" — and runs through Jatiswaram, Shabdam, Varnam, Padam and Tillana.
• The Natya Shastra divides dance into Nritta (pure movement without expression), Nritya (expression) and Natya (drama).
• Rukmini Devi Arundale revived it in the 20th century and founded Kalakshetra at Chennai in 1936; E. Krishna Iyer led the earlier revival campaign.
• The eight classical dances are Bharatanatyam (Tamil Nadu), Kathak (north India), Kathakali and Mohiniyattam (Kerala).
• The rest are Kuchipudi (Andhra Pradesh), Odissi (Odisha), Manipuri (Manipur) and Sattriya (Assam).
• By earliest reference the order is Bharatanatyam (200 BCE) → Kathak (8th–9th century CE) → Manipuri (15th century) → Mohiniyattam (19th century).
Do not mix these up
• Bharatanatyam vs Kathakali — Kathakali of Kerala uses martial stances drawn from Kalaripayattu and elaborate face make-up; Bharatanatyam does not.
• Bharatanatyam vs Kuchipudi — both are south Indian and share Carnatic music, but Kuchipudi of Andhra Pradesh began as a dance-drama with spoken dialogue and the famous plate dance.
Also asked from this topic: the state where Bharatanatyam originated (Tamil Nadu); the meaning of Alarippu (to adorn with flowers); the Natyashastra term for movement without expression (Nritta).
Space, Defence and Technology · Space tourism and commercial spaceflight

Q4. Which of the following statements regarding the current landscape and challenges of space tourism is incorrect?

  1. (a) Suborbital space tourism flights like those offered by Blue Origin and Virgin Galactic allow passengers to experience microgravity for a few minutes without completing a full orbit around Earth.
  2. (b) Orbital space tourism missions, such as those launched by SpaceX, require significantly higher velocities and pose greater life-support and radiation protection challenges than suborbital flights.
  3. (c) International treaties such as the Outer Space Treaty (1967) clearly define the legal liability and regulatory framework for commercial space tourists in all jurisdictions.
  4. (d) One of the major technological challenges in scaling space tourism is developing reusable spacecraft that can endure multiple launches while ensuring passenger safety and cost-effectiveness.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) International treaties such as the Outer Space Treaty (1967) clearly define the legal liability and regulatory framework for commercial space tourists in all jurisdictions.

Answer: Option 3 — International treaties such as the Outer Space Treaty (1967) clearly define the legal liability and regulatory framework for commercial space tourists in all jurisdictions.
This is the incorrect statement, and the question asks for it.
The Outer Space Treaty of 1967 binds states, not private tourists.
It says nothing about ticketed passengers or a uniform liability regime, and there is still no single international law on space tourism.
Revision note — Space law and space tourism
• The Outer Space Treaty, 1967 makes space the province of all mankind and bars any state from claiming sovereignty over a celestial body.
• It also forbids weapons of mass destruction in orbit and makes a state internationally responsible for its nationals' space activities.
• Four later treaties follow it — the Rescue Agreement (1968), the Liability Convention (1972), the Registration Convention (1975) and the Moon Agreement (1979), which very few states have ratified.
• The boundary of space is usually taken as the Karman line at 100 km; the United States counts 80 km for awarding astronaut wings, which is why suborbital operators differ on who is an "astronaut".
• Suborbital flights (Blue Origin's New Shepard, Virgin Galactic's SpaceShipTwo) cross that line, give 3 to 5 minutes of weightlessness and come straight down; they never reach orbital velocity.
• Orbital flight needs about 7.8 km/s and far more life support and radiation shielding; SpaceX's Crew Dragon flew the all-civilian Inspiration4 mission in 2021.
• Gopichand Thotakura became the first Indian space tourist on Blue Origin's NS-25 suborbital flight in 2024.
• ISRO's planned Bharatiya Antariksh Station, whose first module model was unveiled in 2025, lists space tourism among its long-term uses.
Do not mix these up
• Suborbital vs orbital — a suborbital flight only goes up and down past the Karman line; an orbital flight must reach about 7.8 km/s to keep falling around the Earth.
• Outer Space Treaty (1967) vs Liability Convention (1972) — the Treaty sets principles; the Convention fixes the compensation a launching state owes for damage.
Also asked from this topic: Blue Origin's first orbital rocket (New Glenn, January 2025); the objective of India's Bharatiya Antariksh Station (research and future space tourism, 2025); India's first private launch vehicle (Vikram-S, 2022).
Space, Defence and Technology · International space missions and agencies

Q5. What are the groundbreaking scientific goals of NASA's Parker Solar Probe, and which technological innovations enable it to survive the extreme conditions near the Sun?

  1. (a) To map solar wind origins and study the Sun's corona by flying closer than any previous mission, utilizing a carbon-composite heat shield and autonomous thermal regulation systems.
  2. (b) To deploy a fleet of mini-satellites into Venus's orbit for atmospheric studies, using solar sails and cryogenic cooling.
  3. (c) To observe solar flares from Earth's orbit and relay data via geostationary satellites, employing advanced adaptive optics for atmospheric correction.
  4. (d) To land a probe on the Sun's surface to measure magnetic fields directly, using a reinforced titanium hull and liquid helium cooling.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) To map solar wind origins and study the Sun's corona by flying closer than any previous mission, utilizing a carbon-composite heat shield and autonomous thermal regulation systems.

Answer: Option 1 — To map solar wind origins and study the Sun's corona, using a carbon-composite heat shield and autonomous thermal control
The Parker Solar Probe flies straight through the Sun's corona to find where the solar wind is born.
It survives by keeping a carbon-composite heat shield pointed at the Sun automatically, so the instruments sit in its shadow.
Revision note — Parker Solar Probe and solar missions
• Launched by NASA on 12 August 2018 and named after Eugene Parker, who predicted the solar wind in 1958 — NASA's first mission named for a living scientist.
• Its Thermal Protection System is about 11.4 cm of carbon foam between carbon-composite faces; the front reaches roughly 1,370 degree C while the payload stays near 30 degree C.
• In December 2024 it passed about 6.1 million km from the Sun's surface at about 690,000 km/h — the closest and fastest any human-made object has travelled.
• It uses repeated gravity assists at Venus to tighten its orbit; the corona it studies is far hotter (over 1 million degree C) than the visible photosphere below it.
• India's Aditya-L1, launched on 2 September 2023 by PSLV-C57, observes the Sun from a halo orbit around Lagrange point L1, about 1.5 million km from Earth.
• Aditya-L1's ASPEX payload measures the solar wind, SUIT images the photosphere and chromosphere in ultraviolet, and SoLEXS studies solar X-rays.
Do not mix these up
• Parker Solar Probe vs Aditya-L1 — Parker flies into the corona; Aditya-L1 watches the Sun from a distance, parked at L1.
• Corona vs photosphere — the photosphere is the visible surface where sunspots form; the corona is the faint outer atmosphere seen during a total eclipse.
Also asked from this topic: the agency behind the Parker Solar Probe (NASA); the part of the Sun that Aditya-L1 studies (corona); its payload that monitors the solar wind (ASPEX).
Space, Defence and Technology · Space situational awareness and debris

Q6. Which of the following statements about space debris is incorrect?

  1. (a) Space debris consists primarily of defunct satellites, spent rocket stages, and fragments from collisions.
  2. (b) The Kessler Syndrome refers to a scenario where the density of space debris is high enough to cause a cascade of collisions, exponentially increasing debris.
  3. (c) Space debris poses a threat only to satellites in geostationary orbit (GEO) and is negligible in low Earth orbit (LEO).
  4. (d) International guidelines, such as those by the Inter-Agency Space Debris Coordination Committee (IADC), recommend post-mission disposal of satellites to mitigate debris creation.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Space debris poses a threat only to satellites in geostationary orbit (GEO) and is negligible in low Earth orbit (LEO).

Answer: Option 3 — Space debris poses a threat only to satellites in geostationary orbit (GEO) and is negligible in low Earth orbit (LEO)
This is the statement that is incorrect, and therefore the answer.
Low Earth orbit is the most crowded and most dangerous debris region: most satellites, spent stages and collision fragments sit there, and objects meet at relative speeds of about 10 km/s.
Revision note — Space debris and its management
• Debris is made of defunct satellites, spent rocket stages, mission junk and collision fragments; over 36,000 objects larger than 10 cm are catalogued (ESA, 2024).
• Low Earth Orbit (LEO) runs up to about 2,000 km altitude; Geostationary Orbit (GEO) is at 35,786 km. LEO holds the bulk of the debris and of the collision risk.
• The Kessler Syndrome, proposed by NASA scientist Donald J. Kessler in 1978, is the runaway cascade in which each collision creates fragments that cause further collisions.
• The two biggest debris events were China's anti-satellite test on Fengyun-1C in 2007 and the 2009 Iridium-33 and Kosmos-2251 collision.
• The IADC, formed in 1993, frames the mitigation guidelines, including the 25-year rule for removing a satellite from LEO after its mission ends.
• India tracks debris through Project NETRA and the IS4OM centre at Bengaluru, and targets Debris Free Space Missions by 2030.
• India's ASAT test, Mission Shakti (27 March 2019), was fired at a low 283 km so that the fragments decayed quickly.
Do not mix these up
• LEO vs GEO for debris — the danger is concentrated in LEO; GEO is a single crowded ring but with far lower relative speeds.
• Kessler Syndrome vs a single collision — the Kessler Syndrome is the self-sustaining chain reaction, not one impact.
Also asked from this topic: the purpose of ISRO's Space Situational Awareness programme (monitoring debris); the capability of Project NETRA (debris tracking); the altitude of GEO (35,786 km).
Organisations and Headquarters · India's foreign relations and connectivity projects

Q7. The establishment of the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEC) during the 2023 G20 Summit has been viewed as a significant move in shaping international trade routes. Which of the following options best reflects India's strategic advantage in IMEC when compared to China's Belt and Road Initiative (BRI)?

  1. (a) IMEC bypasses the Suez Canal and is backed by Russia
  2. (b) IMEC connects India to Russia directly via Arctic shipping lanes
  3. (c) IMEC enables India to access Europe through a US-backed, secure and rules-based infrastructure
  4. (d) IMEC involves military deployment across the Arabian Peninsula
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) IMEC enables India to access Europe through a US-backed, secure and rules-based infrastructure

Answer: Option 3 — IMEC enables India to access Europe through a US-backed, secure and rules-based infrastructure
IMEC's advantage over the BRI is not the route but the terms: it is a partnership of democracies under the G7's PGII, with transparent financing and shared standards.
The BRI has drawn criticism for opaque loans and debt dependence, as at Hambantota.
Revision note — India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor
• IMEC was announced through an MoU at the G20 New Delhi Summit of 9-10 September 2023, whose theme was Vasudhaiva Kutumbakam — One Earth, One Family, One Future.
• The signatories are India, the United States, Saudi Arabia, the UAE, France, Germany, Italy and the European Union.
• It has two arms: the Eastern Corridor, India to the Arabian Gulf, and the Northern Corridor, the Gulf to Europe.
• It is multi-modal — ship-to-rail transport plus an electricity cable, a clean hydrogen pipeline and a high-speed data cable.
• It sits under the Partnership for Global Infrastructure and Investment (PGII), the G7's answer to China's Belt and Road Initiative, launched by Xi Jinping in 2013.
• IMEC is planned as an alternative to the Suez Canal route, and is projected to cut transit time by about 40 per cent and cost by about 30 per cent.
• At the same New Delhi Summit the African Union was admitted as a permanent member of the G20.
Do not mix these up
• IMEC vs BRI — IMEC is multilateral, US and EU backed and rules-based; the BRI is China-led and financed largely by Chinese loans.
• IMEC vs INSTC — the International North-South Transport Corridor runs India to Russia through Iran and Central Asia via Chabahar and Bandar Abbas; IMEC runs west to Europe.
Also asked from this topic: the purpose of IMEC (a trade route to Europe through the Middle East); the route it replaces (the Suez Canal); the initiative it counters (China's Belt and Road Initiative).
Sports · National championships - venues and winners

Q8. Why was the 2011 National Games in Jharkhand regarded as a technological milestone in the history of the event?

  1. (a) First-time use of e-ticketing and online athlete registration
  2. (b) Live hologram commentary in stadiums
  3. (c) Use of AI bots for scoring evaluation
  4. (d) Digital fan tokens for supporters
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) First-time use of e-ticketing and online athlete registration

Answer: Option 1 — First-time use of e-ticketing and online athlete registration
The 34th National Games were the first edition to put ticketing and athlete entries online, which is modest by today's standards but new for an Indian multi-sport meet in 2011.
Date the technology before you answer — hologram commentary, AI scoring bots and fan tokens all belong to a much later decade.
Revision note — National Games of India
• The 34th National Games were held in Jharkhand from 12 to 26 February 2011, with Ranchi as the main host city.
• The opening ceremony was held at the Birsa Munda Stadium, Ranchi, named after the tribal freedom fighter Birsa Munda, whose birth anniversary, 15 November, is Janjatiya Gaurav Divas.
• The Games trace back to the Indian Olympic Games held at Lahore in 1924; they were later renamed the National Games.
• They are organised by the Indian Olympic Association (IOA) with the host state government, and a state is awarded the Games in advance.
• Recent editions: 35th Kerala 2015, 36th Gujarat 2022, 37th Goa 2023, 38th Uttarakhand 2025.
• At the 38th National Games in Uttarakhand (2025) the Services Sports Control Board topped the table with 121 medals (68 gold), while Maharashtra won the most medals overall (201).
Do not mix these up
• National Games vs Khelo India Youth Games — the National Games are the senior inter-state meet run by the IOA; the Khelo India Youth Games, from 2018, are an age-group meet.
Also asked from this topic: the venue of the 2011 National Games opening ceremony (Birsa Munda Stadium, Ranchi); the team that topped the 38th National Games in 2025 (Services, SSCB).
Sports · Football and hockey

Q9. The role of the goalkeeper in modern hockey has evolved dramatically due to:

  1. (a) Change in jersey color rules
  2. (b) Use of heavier sticks
  3. (c) Introduction of advanced protective gear and aerial attacks
  4. (d) Removal of offside rule
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Introduction of advanced protective gear and aerial attacks

Answer: Option 3 — Introduction of advanced protective gear and aerial attacks
Modern rules permit the aerial ball and the drag-flick at a penalty corner, so the keeper now faces lifted shots at high speed.
That is why full protective gear — helmet, chest guard, leg guards, kickers — became compulsory and reshaped how the position is played.
Revision note — Hockey: the goalkeeper and the game
• A hockey side fields 11 players, one of whom may be a goalkeeper in distinguishing colours; a match is four quarters of 15 minutes.
• Only the goalkeeper may play the ball with any part of the body, and only inside the shooting circle (D).
• The goalkeeper is the one hockey player who must wear a helmet — as do cricket batters, close-in fielders and wicket-keepers, while a cricket bowler does not.
• P. R. Sreejesh, India's goalkeeper in the Tokyo 2020 and Paris 2024 bronze-medal campaigns, received the Padma Bhushan in 2025.
• Mir Ranjan Negi, the India goalkeeper wrongly blamed for a 1982 defeat, inspired the 2007 film Chak De India.
• India have won 8 Olympic hockey golds (1928–1980); the world body FIH was founded in 1924 and is based at Lausanne.
Also asked from this topic: the sportsperson who does not wear a helmet (a cricket bowler); the keeper behind Chak De India (Mir Ranjan Negi).
Sports · Football and hockey

Q10. What is the significance of the Sultan Azlan Shah Cup in Indian hockey history?

  1. (a) It's India's first hosted World Cup
  2. (b) It's the only event India has never won
  3. (c) It serves as a prestigious international annual invitational tournament
  4. (d) It replaced the Champions Trophy
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It serves as a prestigious international annual invitational tournament

Answer: Option 3 — It serves as a prestigious international annual invitational tournament
The Sultan Azlan Shah Cup is an invitational men's hockey tournament at Ipoh, Malaysia, to which a handful of leading teams are invited each year.
India has won it, so option 2 is false, and it is neither a World Cup nor a replacement for the Champions Trophy.
Revision note — Sultan Azlan Shah Cup and Indian hockey
• Begun in 1983 at Ipoh, Perak (Malaysia) and named after Sultan Azlan Shah, a hockey enthusiast who later became the King of Malaysia.
• Held every two years at first and annually since 1998.
• India have won it five times — 1985, 1991, 1995, 2009 and 2010.
• India's only Men's Hockey World Cup title came in 1975 at Kuala Lumpur, beating Pakistan 2–1 in the final.
• The 2010 World Cup final was played at the Major Dhyan Chand National Stadium, New Delhi; the 2023 edition, hosted at Bhubaneswar and Rourkela, was won by Germany.
• The Beighton Cup, started at Kolkata in 1895, is one of the oldest hockey tournaments in India.
Do not mix these up
• Azlan Shah Cup vs Champions Trophy — the Azlan Shah Cup is an invitational event run by Malaysia; the FIH Champions Trophy was an official FIH event for the top-ranked teams, discontinued after 2018.
• Azlan Shah Cup vs Hockey World Cup — the World Cup is the FIH world championship held every four years; the Azlan Shah Cup is always at Ipoh.
Also asked from this topic: the year of India's only Hockey World Cup (1975); the 2023 World Cup winner (Germany); the sport of the Beighton Cup (hockey).
Organisations and Headquarters · International organisations and headquarters

Q11. Which two countries jointly launched the International Solar Alliance (ISA) in 2015?

  1. (a) India and Germany
  2. (b) India and France
  3. (c) India and USA
  4. (d) India and Brazil
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) India and France

Answer: Option 2 — India and France
The International Solar Alliance was launched jointly by India and France on 30 November 2015 at the COP21 climate conference in Paris.
Revision note — International Solar Alliance (ISA)
• Announced by Prime Minister Narendra Modi and President François Hollande on 30 November 2015 at COP21, Paris.
• Headquarters: the National Institute of Solar Energy campus at Gurugram, Haryana — the first treaty-based international organisation headquartered in India.
• Its Framework Agreement came into force on 6 December 2017; membership, first limited to countries between the Tropics of Cancer and Capricorn, was opened to all UN members in 2020.
• The Towards 1000 (TW1000) strategy targets USD 1,000 billion of solar investment by 2030 and clean-energy access for 1,000 million people.
• Ashish Khanna was elected Director General at the 7th Assembly in November 2024, succeeding Ajay Mathur.
• Other India-led bodies: the Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI), launched in 2019, and the Global Biofuels Alliance, launched at the G20 New Delhi summit, 2023.
Do not mix these up
• ISA vs IRENA — ISA is the India–France solar body at Gurugram; IRENA (2009) covers all renewables and sits at Abu Dhabi.
• ISA vs CDRI — both were launched by India, but ISA (2015) is about solar energy and CDRI (2019) about disaster-resilient infrastructure.
Also asked from this topic: India's co-founder in the ISA (France); its headquarters (Gurugram); its Director General elected in 2024 (Ashish Khanna).
Sports · National championships - venues and winners

Q12. The 2024 National Senior Wrestling Championship, noted for introducing electronic scoring systems for the first time, was held in which city and month?

  1. (a) Bhubaneswar, Odisha – February 2024
  2. (b) Bengaluru, Karnataka – December 2024
  3. (c) Panaji, Goa – January 2024
  4. (d) Mumbai, Maharashtra – April 2024
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Bengaluru, Karnataka – December 2024

Answer: Option 2 — Bengaluru, Karnataka – December 2024
The 2024 Senior National Wrestling Championships were held at the Koramangala Indoor Stadium, Bengaluru, on 6–8 December 2024 — the first time Karnataka hosted the event.
The stem's claim that it introduced electronic scoring for the first time is not documented in reports of the event, so learn the venue and month, not that claim.
Revision note — Wrestling: bodies, styles and Indian medals
• The world body is United World Wrestling (UWW), headquartered at Corsier-sur-Vevey, Switzerland; the national body is the Wrestling Federation of India (WFI).
• Olympic wrestling has two styles — freestyle, using the whole body, and Greco-Roman, above the waist only. Women compete in freestyle alone.
• A bout is two periods of three minutes; a win comes by fall (pin), by technical superiority (a 10-point lead in freestyle, 8 in Greco-Roman) or on points.
• The first World Wrestling Championship was held in 1904 at Vienna, Austria, in the Greco-Roman style.
• K. D. Jadhav won bronze at Helsinki 1952, independent India's first individual Olympic medal; Sushil Kumar took bronze in 2008 and silver in 2012, and Yogeshwar Dutt bronze in 2012.
• Sakshi Malik (bronze, Rio 2016) was the first Indian woman wrestler to medal; Ravi Kumar Dahiya took silver and Bajrang Punia bronze at Tokyo 2020; Aman Sehrawat won bronze at Paris 2024.
• UWW suspended the WFI in August 2023 over its delayed elections and lifted the suspension in February 2024.
Do not mix these up
• Freestyle vs Greco-Roman — Greco-Roman bars every hold below the waist and any use of the legs; freestyle allows both.
• Senior Nationals vs World Championship — the Senior Nationals are India's domestic inter-state meet; the World Championships are the UWW world event, first held in 1904.
Also asked from this topic: the year of the first World Wrestling Championship (1904).
Sports · Olympic Games

Q13. In which city did the Paris 2024 Olympics take place, and how many medals did India win?

  1. (a) Tokyo, 6
  2. (b) Paris, 6
  3. (c) Paris, 7
  4. (d) Hangzhou, 5
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Paris, 6

Answer: Option 2 — Paris, 6
The XXXIII Summer Olympic Games were held in Paris, France, and India finished with 6 medals — 1 silver and 5 bronze, no gold.
Revision note — Paris 2024 Olympic Games and India
• Held in Paris from 26 July to 11 August 2024; Paris hosted the Games for the third time (after 1900 and 1924).
• India's tally: 6 medals — 0 gold, 1 silver, 5 bronze — and rank 71 on the medal table.
• The lone silver came from Neeraj Chopra in the men's javelin throw; he had won gold at Tokyo 2020.
• The five bronzes went to Manu Bhaker (women's 10 m air pistol), Manu Bhaker with Sarabjot Singh (10 m air pistol mixed team) and Swapnil Kusale (men's 50 m rifle 3 positions).
• The other two bronzes came from the men's hockey team, which beat Spain 2–1, and Aman Sehrawat in men's 57 kg freestyle wrestling.
• Manu Bhaker became the first Indian since independence to win two medals at a single Olympics; Aman Sehrawat became India's youngest Olympic medallist.
• The United States topped the table with 126 medals (40 gold), ahead of China, also on 40 gold but with 91 medals in all.
Do not mix these up
• Paris 2024 Olympics vs Paris 2024 Paralympics — the Olympics gave India 6 medals; at the Paralympics India won 29, its best ever, including Harvinder Singh's first Indian Paralympic archery gold.
• Paris 2024 (6 medals) vs Tokyo 2020 (7 medals) — Tokyo, not Paris, remains India's best Olympic haul: 1 gold, 2 silver, 4 bronze.
Also asked from this topic: India's Paris 2024 medal composition (1 silver, 5 bronze); its rank (71); the 50 m rifle bronze (Swapnil Kusale); the wrestling bronze (Aman Sehrawat).
Sports · Other sports and tournaments (tennis, chess, badminton, etc.)

Q14. Which Indian city hosted the inaugural Kho Kho World Cup (Jan 2025)?

  1. (a) Mumbai
  2. (b) New Delhi
  3. (c) Chennai
  4. (d) Hyderabad
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) New Delhi

Answer: Option 2 — New Delhi
The first-ever Kho Kho World Cup was staged at the Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium, New Delhi, in January 2025, and India won both the men's and the women's titles.
Revision note — Kho Kho and the 2025 World Cup
• The inaugural Kho Kho World Cup ran from 13 to 19 January 2025 in New Delhi, organised by the International Kho Kho Federation with the Kho Kho Federation of India.
• India beat Nepal in both finals — the men's 54–36 and the women's 78–40.
• The event mascots were Tejas and Tara, and the tournament was played in a league-plus-knockout format.
• Kho kho is a traditional Indian tag-and-pursuit game: a squad of 12 players of whom 9 take the field, played in innings of chasing and defending.
• Kho kho was shown as a demonstration sport at the 1936 Berlin Olympics, and the Kho Kho Federation of India was set up in 1955.
• Kho kho and kabaddi are the two indigenous team games regularly on the National Games programme, and kho kho featured at the 2016 South Asian Games.
Do not mix these up
• Kho kho vs kabaddi — in kho kho the chasing side scores by touching runners from a seated chain; in kabaddi a single raider enters the opponents' half holding a cant.
• Kho Kho World Cup (New Delhi, January 2025) vs Kabaddi World Cup — different sports and different bodies; do not attach the 2025 date to kabaddi.
Also asked from this topic: the host city of the first senior men's Kho Kho World Cup (New Delhi); the winners of the 2025 men's and women's titles (India, beating Nepal in both finals).
Sports · Khelo India Games editions

Q15. Where were the Khelo India Youth Games 2024 held?

  1. (a) Kerala
  2. (b) Mumbai
  3. (c) Tamil Nadu (Chennai, Coimbatore, Madurai, Trichy)
  4. (d) Delhi
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Tamil Nadu (Chennai, Coimbatore, Madurai, Trichy)

Answer: Option 3 — Tamil Nadu (Chennai, Coimbatore, Madurai, Trichy)
The 6th Khelo India Youth Games were held in Tamil Nadu in January 2024, spread over Chennai, Coimbatore, Madurai and Tiruchirappalli — the first time the state hosted them.
Revision note — Khelo India Youth Games
• The 6th edition, officially titled KIYG 2023, ran from 19 to 31 January 2024 across four Tamil Nadu cities; the mascot was Veera Mangai, named after Rani Velu Nachiyar.
• Maharashtra topped the medal tally, as it has in most editions; Tamil Nadu finished among the leading states.
• The Khelo India programme is run by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports; the Games began in 2018 at New Delhi as the Khelo India School Games.
• Entry is by age group — under-17 (school) and under-21 (college) — and winners receive a long-term annual scholarship under the scheme.
• Past hosts: New Delhi (2018), Pune (2019), Guwahati (2020), Panchkula, Haryana (2022), Madhya Pradesh (2023), Tamil Nadu (January 2024) and Bihar (2025).
• Other verticals: Khelo India University Games (first at Bhubaneswar, 2020), Khelo India Winter Games (Ladakh, Jammu and Kashmir) and Khelo India Para Games (New Delhi, December 2023).
Do not mix these up
• Edition year vs year of play — the Games named KIYG 2023 were actually played in January 2024 in Tamil Nadu; the paper may quote either label.
• Khelo India Youth Games vs Khelo India University Games — the Youth Games are for school and college age groups (under-17 and under-21); the University Games are contested by university teams.
Also asked from this topic: the host of the Khelo India Youth Games 2024 (Tamil Nadu); the mascot of the 2025 Bihar edition (Gajasimha); the venue of the first Para Games (New Delhi, 2023).
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q16. The 'Dahi Handi' human pyramid event is central to which festival?

  1. (a) Navratri
  2. (b) Holi
  3. (c) Janmashtami
  4. (d) Ram Navami
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Janmashtami

Answer: Option 3 — Janmashtami
Dahi Handi re-enacts the child Krishna stealing butter: teams of Govindas build a human pyramid to break an earthen pot of curd hung high in the street, on Janmashtami.
Revision note — Janmashtami and Dahi Handi
• Janmashtami marks the birth of Lord Krishna, the eighth avatar of Vishnu, on the eighth day (Ashtami) of the dark fortnight of the month of Bhadrapada.
• It is also called Gokulashtami, Krishnashtami and, in Maharashtra, Gopalkala; the fast is broken at midnight, the hour of Krishna's birth.
• Dahi Handi is the Maharashtra and Gujarat form of the festival; the pyramid-builders are called Govindas, and the Government of Maharashtra recognised Dahi Handi as an adventure sport in 2022.
• Krishna's birthplace is Mathura and his childhood home Gokul and Vrindavan, all in Uttar Pradesh; Dwarka in Gujarat was his later capital.
• Other Krishna-linked celebrations: Raslila at Vrindavan, Lathmar Holi at Barsana, and Govardhan Puja, kept the day after Diwali.
• The Bhagavata Purana and the Gita Govinda of Jayadeva are the chief texts of Krishna devotion, and the Bhagavad Gita is Krishna's counsel to Arjuna in the Mahabharata.
Do not mix these up
• Janmashtami vs Ram Navami — Janmashtami is the birth of Krishna in Bhadrapada; Ram Navami is the birth of Rama on the ninth day of the bright fortnight of Chaitra.
• Dahi Handi vs Garba — Dahi Handi is the Janmashtami pyramid of Maharashtra; Garba and Dandiya Raas are the circular dances of Navratri in Gujarat.
Also asked from this topic: the festival that celebrates the birth of Lord Krishna (Janmashtami).
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q17. “Sea of Poppies,” shortlisted for the Booker Prize, is authored by:

  1. (a) Amitav Ghosh
  2. (b) Salman Rushdie
  3. (c) Vikram Seth
  4. (d) Aravind Adiga
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Amitav Ghosh

Answer: Option 1 — Amitav Ghosh
Sea of Poppies (2008) is the first novel of Amitav Ghosh's Ibis Trilogy; it was shortlisted for the Man Booker Prize in 2008 but did not win.
Revision note — Amitav Ghosh and the Ibis Trilogy
• The Ibis Trilogy follows the opium trade and the First Opium War: Sea of Poppies (2008), River of Smoke (2011) and Flood of Fire (2015), named after the schooner Ibis.
• Other novels by Amitav Ghosh: The Circle of Reason (1986), The Shadow Lines (1988), The Calcutta Chromosome (1995), The Glass Palace (2000), The Hungry Tide (2004) and Gun Island (2019).
• The Shadow Lines won the Sahitya Akademi Award (1989) and The Calcutta Chromosome the Arthur C. Clarke Award; In an Antique Land (1992) is a travelogue-history.
• Ghosh received the Padma Shri in 2007 and the Jnanpith Award in 2018 — the first writer in English to win the Jnanpith.
• The Great Derangement (2016) is his non-fiction argument that literature has failed to confront climate change.
• The Booker Prize 2008 itself was won by Aravind Adiga for The White Tiger; Salman Rushdie won it for Midnight's Children (1981) and Arundhati Roy for The God of Small Things (1997).
Do not mix these up
• Shortlisted vs won — Sea of Poppies was only shortlisted in 2008; the winner that year was The White Tiger by Aravind Adiga.
• Booker Prize vs International Booker Prize — the Booker is for fiction written in English; the International Booker rewards a translated work, as with Heart Lamp (Banu Mushtaq, 2025).
Also asked from this topic: the author of The Shadow Lines, The Calcutta Chromosome and Gun Island (Amitav Ghosh); the writer of the 2008 Booker winner The White Tiger (Aravind Adiga).

Modern History (1)

British Administration and Policies · Press acts and other laws

Q18. The Factories Act of 1881 is often criticized for being more aligned with British economic interests than Indian labor welfare. Which of the following provisions supports this interpretation?

  1. (a) It introduced mandatory weekly holidays and daily work-hour limits for all factory workers.
  2. (b) It prohibited child labor under the age of 14 and regulated adult working hours
  3. (c) It imposed restrictions only on children, without addressing the working conditions of adult laborers.
  4. (d) It ensured minimum wages and union rights for factory workers across British India.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It imposed restrictions only on children, without addressing the working conditions of adult laborers.

Answer: Option 3 — It imposed restrictions only on children, without addressing the working conditions of adult laborers.
The Indian Factories Act of 1881, passed under Lord Ripon, was India's first factory law, and it touched only child labour.
Adult hours, wages and safety were left untouched, which is exactly why it is read as protecting Lancashire's mill interests rather than Indian workers.
Revision note — Early factory legislation in British India
• Factories Act, 1881 (Viceroy Lord Ripon): children below 7 years could not be employed, and children aged 7 to 12 could work at most 9 hours a day.
• The same Act gave child workers 4 holidays a month and required dangerous machinery to be fenced.
• It applied only to factories using power and employing 100 or more workers, so most Indian workplaces fell outside it.
• It said nothing about adult men, wages, or hours for adults — the gap that the criticism rests on.
• The Factories Act of 1891 went further: it set a weekly holiday, limited women to 11 hours a day and raised the child age band to 9–14 years with a 7-hour limit.
• Pressure for these laws came largely from British textile manufacturers in Manchester and Lancashire, who wanted Indian mills denied the advantage of cheap, unregulated labour.
• In independent India, Article 24 of the Constitution prohibits the employment of any child below 14 years in a factory, mine or hazardous occupation.
Do not mix these up
• Factories Act 1881 vs Factories Act 1891 — 1881 covered children only; 1891 was the first to limit women's hours and give a weekly holiday.
• Lord Ripon vs Lord Lytton — Ripon gave the Factories Act 1881 and repealed the Vernacular Press Act in 1882; Lytton had passed it, with the Indian Arms Act, in 1878.
Also asked from this topic: the subject of the Ilbert Bill of 1883 (Indian judges trying European offenders); who repealed the Vernacular Press Act, 1878 (Lord Ripon, 1882); the Article barring children under 14 from factories (Article 24).

Polity (6)

Elections, Parties and Representation · Anti-defection law (Tenth Schedule)

Q19. The 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act of 1985 is considered a landmark in curbing political defections. Which of the following statements accurately reflects the most significant constitutional impact of this amendment?

  1. (a) It inserted the Tenth Schedule in the Constitution, laying down the procedure for the impeachment of the President.
  2. (b) It empowered the President to dismiss Members of Parliament for anti-party activities.
  3. (c) It added the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution, providing the grounds for disqualification of legislators on grounds of defection.
  4. (d) It gave the Election Commission the final authority to decide on disqualifications under the anti-defection law.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It added the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution, providing the grounds for disqualification of legislators on grounds of defection.

Answer: Option 3 — It added the Tenth Schedule to the Constitution, providing the grounds for disqualification of legislators on grounds of defection.
The 52nd Amendment Act, 1985 inserted the Tenth Schedule, the anti-defection law, and amended Articles 101, 102, 190 and 191.
It lays down when an MP or MLA loses the seat for defecting, and the decision rests with the Speaker or Chairman, not the President or the Election Commission.
Revision note — The anti-defection law (Tenth Schedule)
• Added by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985, during the government of Rajiv Gandhi, and in force from 1 March 1985.
• A party member is disqualified if he voluntarily gives up membership of that party.
• He is also disqualified if he votes or abstains against the party whip without prior permission and is not pardoned within 15 days.
• An independent member is disqualified if he joins any political party after being elected; a nominated member is disqualified if he joins a party after six months of taking his seat.
• The Speaker of the House, or the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, decides the question of disqualification.
• In Kihoto Hollohan v. Zachillhu (1992) the Supreme Court held that this decision is open to judicial review.
• The 91st Amendment Act, 2003 deleted the exemption for a one-third split, leaving only a two-thirds merger as a defence, and capped the Council of Ministers at 15 per cent.
• The Tenth Schedule does not apply to the Speaker or Chairman who gives up party membership on election to that office.
Do not mix these up
• Tenth Schedule vs Twelfth Schedule — the Tenth is the anti-defection law (52nd Amendment, 1985); the Twelfth lists the 18 functions of municipalities (74th Amendment, 1992).
• Split vs merger — the one-third split defence was removed in 2003; only a two-thirds merger now saves a defector from disqualification.
Also asked from this topic: the Schedule added for disqualification on defection (Schedule X); the amendment that introduced the anti-defection law (52nd, 1985); what disqualifies an independent MP (joining a party after election).
Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies · Election Commission of India

Q20. Which of the following reflects the correct legal and administrative authority of the Election Commission regarding the preparation of electoral rolls and the inclusion or exclusion of names?

  1. (a) The Election Commission prepares electoral rolls in consultation with state governments and is bound by their recommendations.
  2. (b) The Election Commission can suo motu include names of eligible citizens even without an application.
  3. (c) The Election Commission supervises the preparation and revision of electoral rolls, but actual changes are made through Electoral Registration Officers, and citizens have the right to appeal exclusions.
  4. (d) The President directly maintains the electoral rolls under Article 324 and forwards them to the Election Commission for use.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The Election Commission supervises the preparation and revision of electoral rolls, but actual changes are made through Electoral Registration Officers, and citizens have the right to appeal exclusions.

Answer: Option 3 — The Election Commission supervises the preparation and revision of electoral rolls, but actual changes are made through Electoral Registration Officers, and citizens have the right to appeal exclusions.
Article 324 gives the Election Commission the superintendence, direction and control of electoral rolls, which is supervision, not clerical work.
The actual entry or deletion of a name is done by the Electoral Registration Officer under the Representation of the People Act, 1950, and the elector may appeal against an exclusion.
Revision note — Election Commission and the electoral roll
• Article 324 vests the superintendence, direction and control of elections, and of the electoral rolls, in the Election Commission of India.
• That cover runs to elections to Parliament, the state legislatures and the offices of President and Vice-President.
• The ECI is a constitutional body created by Article 324 itself, not by an Act of Parliament, and it also exercises quasi-judicial powers in election disputes.
• Roll preparation is governed by the Representation of the People Act, 1950, and the Electoral Registration Officer (ERO) of each constituency makes the entries.
• An appeal against an ERO's order lies to the District Magistrate, and then to the Chief Electoral Officer of the state.
• Forms to remember: Form 6 for a new voter, Form 6A for an overseas elector, Form 7 for objection or deletion, and Form 8 for correction, shifting or replacement of the EPIC.
• Article 325 bars any separate roll, or exclusion from one, on grounds of religion, race, caste or sex.
• Article 326 gives universal adult suffrage at 18 years, lowered from 21 by the 61st Amendment, 1988.
• The Chief Election Commissioner holds office for 6 years or up to 65 years of age, whichever is earlier, and can be removed only like a Supreme Court judge.
Do not mix these up
• Election Commission of India vs State Election Commission — the ECI runs Parliament and assembly polls; the SEC (Articles 243K, 243ZA) runs panchayat and municipal polls.
• Chief Electoral Officer vs Chief Election Commissioner — the CEO is the state-level officer supervising rolls in one state; the CEC heads the Commission in Delhi.
Also asked from this topic: the Article establishing the Election Commission (Article 324); its status (a constitutional body); the term of the Chief Election Commissioner (6 years or 65 years of age).
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Financial relations

Q21. In India, the revenue collected from agricultural income tax is allocated to which level of government?

  1. (a) State Governments
  2. (b) Central Government
  3. (c) Collected by State Governments, delivered to Central Government
  4. (d) Collected by Central Government, delivered to State Governments
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) State Governments

Answer: Option 1 — State Governments
Taxes on agricultural income are Entry 46 of the State List in the Seventh Schedule, so a state both levies and keeps the proceeds.
Nothing is passed up to the Centre and nothing is shared down from it.
Revision note — Who taxes agricultural income
• Entry 46, State List (List II) — taxes on agricultural income; Entry 82, Union List (List I) — taxes on income other than agricultural income.
• Article 246 read with the Seventh Schedule divides these law-making powers between Parliament and the state legislatures.
• Agricultural income is exempt from central income tax under Section 10(1) of the Income Tax Act, 1961.
• Article 366(1) defines agricultural income for constitutional purposes as agricultural income as understood in the Indian income-tax law.
• Only a few states actually levy it, mostly on plantation crops such as tea, coffee and rubber — for example Assam, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka and West Bengal.
• For tea, Rule 8 treats 60 per cent of the income as agricultural (taxable by the state) and 40 per cent as business income (taxable by the Centre).
Do not mix these up
• Entry 82 vs Entry 46 — income tax on salaries and business is a Union subject; income tax on agriculture is a State subject.
• Articles 268, 269, 270 — 268: levied by the Union, collected and kept by the states; 269: collected by the Union, assigned to the states; 270: Union taxes shared with the states.
• Agriculture vs agricultural income tax — both are State subjects, but agriculture is Entry 14 and the tax on its income is Entry 46.
Also asked from this topic: what the Seventh Schedule contains (three legislative lists); a subject of exclusive Union power (banking, Entry 45); a State List subject (public order).
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q22. The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with:

  1. (a) Panchayats
  2. (b) Division of powers (lists)
  3. (c) Fundamental Duties
  4. (d) Emergency provisions
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Division of powers (lists)

Answer: Option 2 — Division of powers (lists)
The Seventh Schedule, read with Article 246, divides law-making power between the Union and the States through three lists — the Union List, the State List and the Concurrent List.
Revision note — The Seventh Schedule and the three lists
• Union List — originally 97 subjects (defence, foreign affairs, railways, atomic energy, banking, currency, posts); only Parliament may legislate on them.
• State List — originally 66 subjects (police, public order, prisons, public health, agriculture, local government); normally only the state legislature may legislate.
• Concurrent List — originally 47 subjects (criminal law, marriage and divorce, bankruptcy, trade unions, education, forests), on which both may legislate.
• Under Article 254, if a Union law and a state law clash on a Concurrent subject, the Union law prevails.
• The 42nd Amendment Act, 1976 moved five subjects to the Concurrent List: education, forests, weights and measures, protection of wild animals and birds, and administration of justice.
• Residuary powers — subjects in no list — belong to Parliament under Article 248, a point taken from Canada.
• The three-list scheme came from the Government of India Act, 1935; the Constitution had 8 Schedules in 1949 and has 12 today.
Do not mix these up
• Seventh vs Eleventh and Twelfth Schedules — the Seventh divides Union and State powers; the Eleventh lists the subjects of Panchayats and the Twelfth those of Municipalities.
• Seventh vs Tenth Schedule — the Tenth Schedule is the anti-defection law, and the Ninth holds laws shielded from judicial review.
Also asked from this topic: what Schedule VII contains (three legislative lists); the list education moved to under the 42nd Amendment (Concurrent); the Schedule on Panchayats (Eleventh).
Constitutional Development and Making · Borrowed features - sources of the Constitution

Q23. The office of the Speaker in the Indian Parliamentary system is heavily influenced by:

  1. (a) British Constitution
  2. (b) Canadian Constitution
  3. (c) French Constitution
  4. (d) Irish Constitution
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) British Constitution

Answer: Option 1 — British Constitution
India took the whole Westminster parliamentary model from Britain, and with it the office of the Speaker — a presiding officer who is a member of the House, elected by it, and expected to act above party.
Revision note — The Speaker and what India borrowed from Britain
• From the British Constitution India took parliamentary government, the office of Speaker, the rule of law, single citizenship and cabinet responsibility.
• Britain also gave legislative procedure, parliamentary privileges, bicameralism, the prerogative writs and the office of the CAG.
• Article 93 — the Lok Sabha chooses two of its members as Speaker and Deputy Speaker; Article 94 covers vacation and removal of the office.
• The Speaker can be removed only by a resolution passed by an effective majority of the Lok Sabha after 14 days' prior notice, and under Article 96 does not preside while that motion is debated.
• Article 110(3) — the Speaker certifies a Money Bill, and the decision is final and not open to question in any court.
• The Speaker has a casting vote in a tie (Article 100), presides over a joint sitting (Article 108) and decides disqualification for defection under the Tenth Schedule.
• G. V. Mavalankar was the first Speaker of the Lok Sabha and is called the Father of the Lok Sabha; Meira Kumar was the first woman Speaker (2009).
Do not mix these up
• Speaker of Lok Sabha vs Chairman of Rajya Sabha — the Speaker is a member of the House and votes only to break a tie; the Chairman is the Vice-President, who is not a member of the Rajya Sabha.
• Borrowings from Britain vs from the USA — Britain gave the parliamentary system and the Speaker; the USA gave Fundamental Rights, judicial review and impeachment.
• Britain vs Canada vs Ireland — Canada gave the federation with a strong Centre and residuary powers; Ireland gave the Directive Principles and nomination to the Rajya Sabha.
Also asked from this topic: the source of single citizenship and of the CAG (Britain); the feature that is not British (Fundamental Duties); who certifies a Money Bill (the Speaker).
Union Executive · Attorney General and Solicitor General

Q24. The Attorney-General of India has the right of audience in:

  1. (a) The Supreme Court
  2. (b) The High Courts
  3. (c) All courts in India
  4. (d) Constitutional courts
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) All courts in India

Answer: Option 3 — All courts in India
Article 76(3) gives the Attorney-General the right of audience in all courts in the territory of India — not merely the Supreme Court or the High Courts.
Revision note — Attorney-General of India (Article 76)
• The Attorney-General is the first law officer and chief legal adviser of the Government of India, appointed by the President from persons qualified to be a judge of the Supreme Court.
• No term is fixed by the Constitution; under Article 76(4) he holds office during the pleasure of the President, and his remuneration is fixed by the President.
• Under Article 88 he may speak in and take part in the proceedings of both Houses, any joint sitting and any parliamentary committee he is named to — but he has no right to vote.
• He is not a full-time government servant and may keep private practice, but must not advise against the Government of India.
• He also may not defend an accused in a criminal prosecution, or accept a company directorship, without the government's permission.
• M. C. Setalvad was the first and longest-serving Attorney-General; R. Venkataramani became the 16th Attorney-General in October 2022.
• He is assisted by the Solicitor General and the Additional Solicitors General, who are not constitutional posts, and he is not a member of the Union Cabinet.
Do not mix these up
• Attorney-General vs Advocate General — the AG is the Union's law officer under Article 76, heard in all courts of India; the Advocate General serves a state under Article 165.
• Attorney-General vs Solicitor General — the AG's office is created by the Constitution; the Solicitor General is only a statutory and governmental appointment.
Also asked from this topic: the Article providing for the Attorney-General (Article 76); who appoints him (the President); his tenure (not fixed); the 16th Attorney-General (R. Venkataramani).

Ancient History (2)

Post-Mauryan Period · Art schools (Gandhara, Mathura, Amaravati)

Q25. The anthropomorphic representation of the Buddha first appeared in Indian art through:

  1. (a) Mauryan stone pillars
  2. (b) Amaravati School of art
  3. (c) Gandhara and Mathura schools
  4. (d) Sanchi stupas
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Gandhara and Mathura schools

Answer: Option 3 — Gandhara and Mathura schools
Before the Kushana age the Buddha was shown only by symbols — the footprints, empty throne, wheel, stupa and Bodhi tree.
The Gandhara and Mathura schools of the 1st–3rd century CE were the first to carve him in human form.
Revision note — Gandhara, Mathura and Amaravati
• Gandhara school: north-west India and Afghanistan under the Kushanas, carved in grey schist and stucco.
• Its Buddha shows Hellenistic (Greco-Roman) features — wavy hair, sharp facial lines and toga-like drapery.
• Mathura school: grew independently in Uttar Pradesh in spotted red sandstone, modelling the Buddha on the indigenous Yaksha type.
• Mathura carved Buddhist, Jain and Brahmanical images alike, for Indian and Kushana patrons.
• Amaravati school: on the Krishna river in Andhra Pradesh under the Satavahanas, in white limestone; narrative relief panels rather than free-standing icons.
• The rise of the Buddha image goes with Mahayana Buddhism, which brought Bodhisattva worship and image devotion in the early centuries CE.
• Early Buddhist sculpture runs Bharhut (2nd century BCE) → Sanchi Stupa 1 gateways (1st century BCE–1st century CE) → Mathura (1st–3rd century CE).
• Gandhara finds beyond stone include the gold Bimaran reliquary and the ivory plaques of the Begram hoard in Afghanistan.
Do not mix these up
• Gandhara vs Mathura — Gandhara used grey schist and Hellenistic features; Mathura used red sandstone and the indigenous Yaksha model.
• Aniconic vs anthropomorphic — Bharhut and Sanchi are aniconic, showing the Buddha by symbols; Gandhara and Mathura show him in human form.
Also asked from this topic: the style born of Greek and Indian blending (Gandhara); the difference between the two schools (Mathura's Yaksha style vs Gandhara's Hellenistic features); the order Bharhut → Sanchi → Mathura.
Ancient Art, Culture and Science · Temple architecture styles (Nagara, Dravida, Vesara)

Q26. Which of the given statements correctly describes the term Jagati in a Nagara-style temple?

  1. (a) Jagati is the spire that houses the deity inside.
  2. (b) Jagati is the topmost element of the temple's shikhara.
  3. (c) Jagati refers to the base platform on which the temple is constructed.
  4. (d) Jagati is the sanctum wall that contains inscriptions.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Jagati refers to the base platform on which the temple is constructed.

Answer: Option 3 — Jagati refers to the base platform on which the temple is constructed.
Jagati is the raised plinth or terrace on which the whole Nagara temple stands, and around which devotees walk the pradakshina.
It is a ground-level element and has nothing to do with the tower.
Revision note — Parts of a Nagara temple
• Jagati — the raised platform; adhisthana or pitha — the moulded base of the walls resting on it.
• Garbhagriha — the sanctum, literally womb chamber, holding the chief image; mandapa — the pillared hall; antarala — the vestibule joining the two.
• Shikhara — the curvilinear tower over the sanctum; amalaka — the ribbed disc at its top; kalasha — the pot-shaped finial above the amalaka.
• Bhadra is the central projecting offset of the wall face; karna is the corner projection.
• Nagara shikhara types — latina (rekha-prasada), a tall curved tower on a square base; phamsana, slabs rising in a straight incline; valabhi, wagon-vaulted.
• Nagara temples of north and central India usually have no boundary wall or gopuram; sub-styles include Odisha (rekha deul), Khajuraho and Solanki (Gujarat–Rajasthan).
Do not mix these up
• Shikhara vs vimana — shikhara is the Nagara tower over the sanctum; in Dravida temples that tower is the vimana and the gateway tower is the gopuram.
• Amalaka vs kalasha — the amalaka is the ribbed stone disc; the kalasha is the pot finial that sits on it.
Also asked from this topic: the part housing the main deity (garbhagriha); the element atop the shikhara (amalaka); the main tower of a Dravida temple (vimana).

Geography (4)

Universe and Solar System · Planets and their features

Q27. Which of the following accurately explains the reason Mars loses its atmosphere to space over time?

  1. (a) Excess greenhouse gases causing evaporation
  2. (b) High levels of sulfuric acid clouds
  3. (c) Lack of a global magnetic field to deflect solar wind
  4. (d) Presence of ozone destroying UV shield
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Lack of a global magnetic field to deflect solar wind

Answer: Option 3 — Lack of a global magnetic field to deflect solar wind
Mars has no global magnetic field today, so the solar wind strikes its upper atmosphere directly and strips the gas away into space.
NASA's MAVEN orbiter was sent in 2013 precisely to measure this escape.
Revision note — Mars and the loss of planetary atmospheres
• Mars's internal dynamo shut down about 4 billion years ago as its small core cooled; only weak crustal magnetism survives in patches.
• The Earth keeps its air because the liquid iron-nickel outer core runs a geodynamo, and the resulting magnetosphere deflects the solar wind.
• Mars's atmosphere is now thin — surface pressure about 6 millibar against 1,013 millibar on Earth — and about 95 per cent carbon dioxide.
• Weak gravity helps the loss: Mars has about 38 per cent of Earth's surface gravity and an escape velocity of only 5.0 km/s, against 11.2 km/s for Earth.
• Venus also lacks a global magnetic field, yet keeps a dense atmosphere because it is far more massive; its clouds are of sulphuric acid (H₂SO₄).
• India's Mars Orbiter Mission (Mangalyaan), launched on 5 November 2013, made India the first country to reach Mars orbit on its maiden attempt.
Do not mix these up
• Magnetic shielding vs the greenhouse effect — a missing magnetic field lets the atmosphere escape; the greenhouse effect only traps heat in whatever air is left.
• Mars vs Venus — sulphuric acid clouds and a runaway greenhouse belong to Venus; Mars is cold and nearly airless.
Also asked from this topic: the layer that generates the Earth's magnetic field (outer core); the acid in the atmosphere of Venus (H₂SO₄); India's first interplanetary mission (Mangalyaan).
World Geography · World transport and communication routes

Q28. Why is the Indian Ocean Region critical in global geopolitics?

  1. (a) It is the birthplace of democracy
  2. (b) Over 80% of global oil trade passes through its sea lanes
  3. (c) It is the least militarized zone
  4. (d) It's entirely under UN control
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Over 80% of global oil trade passes through its sea lanes

Answer: Option 2 — Over 80% of global oil trade passes through its sea lanes
About 80 per cent of the world's seaborne oil trade moves through the Indian Ocean's three great chokepoints — the Strait of Hormuz, the Strait of Malacca and Bab-el-Mandeb.
That single fact is what makes the region the energy lifeline of Asia and the focus of naval competition.
Revision note — The Indian Ocean Region
• The Indian Ocean is the third largest ocean, about 20 per cent of the Earth's water surface, and the only ocean named after a country.
• Strait of Hormuz — between Iran and Oman, links the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman; the world's single most important oil chokepoint.
• Strait of Malacca — between Malaysia, Singapore and Indonesia, links the Indian Ocean to the South China Sea; the shortest route from the Gulf to East Asia.
• Bab-el-Mandeb — between Yemen and Djibouti and Eritrea, links the Red Sea to the Gulf of Aden, and so carries traffic to the Suez Canal.
• India's initiatives: IORA (1997, Mauritius), the Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS, 2008), the SAGAR doctrine of 2015, and the Information Fusion Centre-IOR at Gurugram (2018).
• China's presence is described as the String of Pearls — ports such as Gwadar (Pakistan), Hambantota (Sri Lanka) and Kyaukpyu (Myanmar).
Do not mix these up
• Hormuz vs Malacca — Hormuz is the exit from the Persian Gulf; Malacca is the gateway to the Pacific and East Asia.
• IORA vs IONS — IORA (1997) is an economic grouping of Indian Ocean rim states; IONS (2008) is a forum of their navies.
Also asked from this topic: the year IORA was established (1997); the seas Bab-el-Mandeb connects (the Red Sea and the Gulf of Aden); the smallest Indian Ocean island nation (Maldives).
India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Coastal plains

Q29. India's vast coastline stretches for over 7,500 kilometers, significantly impacting its climate, economy, and coastal lifestyles. Which among the following coastal plains is known for its lagoons, backwaters, and comparatively recent geological formation?

  1. (a) Konkan Coast
  2. (b) Coromandel Coast
  3. (c) Malabar Coast
  4. (d) Northern Circars
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Malabar Coast

Answer: Option 3 — Malabar Coast
The Malabar Coast of Kerala is the stretch famous for kayals — lagoons and backwaters such as Vembanad and Ashtamudi.
The Kerala coastal plain is also of comparatively recent geological origin, built up behind sand bars.
Revision note — India's coastal plains
• India's coastline was long quoted as about 7,517 km (mainland about 6,100 km, the rest island groups). Remeasured by the National Hydrographic Office (NHO) and the Survey of India in 2023-24 and officially adopted in 2025, it is now 11,098.81 km — so the stem's "over 7,500 km" still holds.
• Western Coastal Plain, north to south: Kachchh–Kathiawar, Konkan (Maharashtra–Goa), Kannad (Karnataka) and Malabar (Kerala).
• Eastern Coastal Plain, north to south: the Utkal Plain (Odisha), the Northern Circars (Andhra Pradesh) and the Coromandel Coast (Tamil Nadu).
• Vembanad is Kerala's largest kayal and a Ramsar site; the backwaters carry the Nehru Trophy Boat Race and inland navigation.
• The western plain is narrow and submerged, with an indented coast and natural harbours; the eastern plain is broad, emergent and deltaic (Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna, Kaveri).
Do not mix these up
• Malabar vs Coromandel — Malabar is on the west coast in Kerala; Coromandel is the south-eastern coast in Tamil Nadu.
• Backwaters vs east-coast lagoons — Kerala's kayals are brackish backwaters behind sand bars; Chilika (Odisha) and Pulicat (Andhra–Tamil Nadu) are the east coast's great lagoons.
Also asked from this topic: the coast of lagoons and backwaters (Malabar); the west coast north to south (Konkan → Karnataka → Malabar); the state of the Konkan Coast (Maharashtra).
India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Coastal plains

Q30. Which of the following features is common to both the Eastern and Western Coastal Plains of India?

  1. (a) Presence of backwaters and estuaries
  2. (b) Steep cliffs and high wave energy coasts
  3. (c) Rich black soil supporting cotton cultivation
  4. (d) Strategic location for major ports
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Strategic location for major ports

Answer: Option 4 — Strategic location for major ports
Both plains carry major ports — Mumbai, JNPT, Deendayal (Kandla), Mormugao, New Mangalore and Kochi in the west.
In the east lie Kolkata–Haldia, Paradip, Visakhapatnam, Chennai, Kamarajar and V. O. Chidambaranar, so port location is the feature they share.
Revision note — Eastern and Western Coastal Plains compared
• The western plain is narrow (50–100 km) and submerged, with an indented coast that yields natural harbours such as Mumbai and Mormugao.
• The eastern plain is broad (100–130 km), emergent and deltaic, built by the Mahanadi, Godavari, Krishna and Kaveri.
• Backwaters and estuaries belong to the west — the Malabar kayals and the estuaries of the Narmada, Tapi and Mahi; the east-flowing rivers make deltas instead.
• Black (regur) soil for cotton is a Deccan lava soil of Maharashtra, Gujarat and Madhya Pradesh — not a feature of both coasts.
• India has 12 major ports administered by the Centre under the Major Port Authorities Act, 2021; Vadhavan (Maharashtra) was cleared in 2024 as the next one.
Do not mix these up
• Estuary vs delta — the west-flowing Narmada, Tapi and Mahi form estuaries; the east-flowing Godavari, Krishna, Kaveri and Mahanadi form deltas.
• Major port vs minor port — a major port is notified and run by the Union government; non-major (minor) ports come under the state maritime boards.
Also asked from this topic: why the western plain is narrower (the Western Ghats border it); the river with a delta on the east coast (Godavari); the indented coast of natural harbours (Konkan).

Biology (3)

Heredity and Evolution · Chromosomes, genes and DNA

Q31. Which of the following statements best describes the transcriptome, its biological significance, and its distinction from the genome and proteome in cellular function analysis?

  1. (a) The transcriptome refers to the complete set of proteins synthesized by a cell, helping determine the final phenotype regardless of gene expression levels.
  2. (b) The transcriptome comprises only the DNA sequences of coding genes and remains constant across different cell types and developmental stages.
  3. (c) The transcriptome is the full range of RNA molecules—including mRNA, rRNA, tRNA, and non-coding RNAs—transcribed from the genome at a given time, and its dynamic nature allows insight into gene expression regulation, cell differentiation, and disease mechanisms.
  4. (d) The transcriptome includes all epigenetic modifications on DNA and histone proteins that regulate transcription without altering the RNA sequence, making it a part of the permanent genetic code.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The transcriptome is the full range of RNA molecules—including mRNA, rRNA, tRNA, and non-coding RNAs—transcribed from the genome at a given time, and its dynamic nature allows insight into gene expression regulation, cell differentiation, and disease mechanisms.

Answer: Option 3 — The transcriptome is the full range of RNA molecules transcribed from the genome at a given time
The transcriptome is every RNA molecule — mRNA, rRNA, tRNA and non-coding RNAs — present in a cell at one moment.
Unlike the fixed genome it is dynamic, changing with cell type, developmental stage and disease, which is what makes it a window on gene expression.
Revision note — Genome, transcriptome and proteome
• Central dogma: DNA → RNA → protein. Making RNA from DNA is transcription; making protein from mRNA is translation.
• Genome = the complete DNA of an organism. It is the same in every body cell and does not vary with tissue or age.
• Transcriptome = all RNA transcribed at a given time. It is measured by RNA-seq and microarrays and differs from tissue to tissue.
• Proteome = the complete set of proteins a cell makes; epigenome = the chemical marks such as DNA methylation and histone modification that switch genes on and off without changing the DNA sequence.
• RNA polymerase carries out transcription. RNA has the sugar ribose and the base uracil (U); DNA has deoxyribose and thymine (T).
• mRNA carries the message, tRNA brings amino acids to the ribosome, and rRNA builds the ribosome itself.
Do not mix these up
• Transcriptome vs proteome — RNA against protein; the proteome is one step further down the central dogma.
• Transcriptome vs epigenome — methylation and histone marks are the epigenome, not RNA.
• Transcription vs translation — transcription makes RNA from DNA; translation makes protein from RNA.
Also asked from this topic: the flow of genetic information (DNA → RNA → protein); what happens in transcription (DNA is copied into RNA); when the human genome was sequenced (2003).
Biotechnology and Applied Biology · Genetic engineering and recombinant DNA

Q32. Which of the following statements best explains the principle, advancements, and strategic implications of genome sequencing in the context of human health and national bioinformatics policy?

  1. (a) Genome sequencing refers to the artificial synthesis of DNA molecules in a laboratory using CRISPR-Cas9 tools to alter hereditary traits, and is mainly used for synthetic biology rather than studying genetic makeup.
  2. (b) Genome sequencing determines the complete order of nitrogenous bases (A, T, G, C) in an organism's DNA, enabling identification of genetic variants associated with disease predisposition, and has catalyzed personalized medicine and national initiatives like India's "IndiGen" project.
  3. (c) Genome sequencing involves the quantification of gene expression levels in different tissues and does not require DNA samples, making it a non-invasive technique used exclusively for behavioral genetics.
  4. (d) Genome sequencing is primarily focused on identifying protein structures from RNA transcripts, and thus does not contribute to understanding hereditary diseases or pharmacogenomics.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Genome sequencing determines the complete order of nitrogenous bases (A, T, G, C) in an organism's DNA, enabling identification of genetic variants associated with disease predisposition, and has catalyzed personalized medicine and national initiatives like India's "IndiGen" project.

Answer: Option 2 — Genome sequencing determines the complete order of nitrogenous bases (A, T, G, C) in an organism's DNA
Sequencing simply reads the order of the four bases; it does not edit or synthesise DNA.
That read-out reveals the variants linked to disease, which is what makes personalised medicine and national programmes such as IndiGen possible.
Revision note — Genome sequencing in India and the world
• DNA has four nitrogenous bases — adenine (A), thymine (T), guanine (G), cytosine (C) — pairing as A with T and G with C. RNA replaces thymine with uracil (U).
• The Human Genome Project ran from 1990 to 2003 and read about 3.2 billion base pairs; it opened the field of genomics and found roughly 20,000 to 25,000 human genes.
• IndiGen, a CSIR programme launched in 2019, sequenced 1,029 Indian genomes to build a baseline of Indian genetic variation.
• The Genome India Project of the Department of Biotechnology, approved in 2020, sequenced 10,000 Indian genomes; its data was released in January 2025.
• The classic method is Sanger (chain-termination) sequencing, developed by Frederick Sanger; modern work uses Next Generation Sequencing (NGS), which is far faster and cheaper.
• Pharmacogenomics matches a drug and its dose to a patient's genotype — the practical face of personalised medicine.
Do not mix these up
• Sequencing vs gene editing — sequencing only reads the DNA; CRISPR-Cas9 changes it (Nobel Prize in Chemistry, 2020).
• Genome sequencing vs gene expression study — sequencing needs a DNA sample and gives the base order; expression studies measure RNA levels.
• IndiGen vs Genome India Project — CSIR, 1,029 genomes against DBT, 10,000 genomes.
Also asked from this topic: the aim of the Genome India Project (to map Indian genetic diversity); the field human genome sequencing began (genomics); the number of human chromosomes (46).
Ecology and Environment · Energy flow and ecological pyramids

Q33. What is the principal source of energy for life on Earth?

  1. (a) Water
  2. (b) Sunlight
  3. (c) Soil
  4. (d) Wind
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Sunlight

Answer: Option 2 — Sunlight
Almost every food chain begins with green plants trapping sunlight in photosynthesis; water, soil and wind supply raw material or movement, not the energy input.
Revision note — Sunlight, photosynthesis and energy flow
• The Sun's energy comes from the nuclear fusion of hydrogen into helium in its core, at about 15 million degrees Celsius; its surface is near 5,500 degrees Celsius.
• Photosynthesis: 6CO₂ + 6H₂O + light energy → C₆H₁₂O₆ + 6O₂, carried out in the chloroplast with the pigment chlorophyll; oxygen is the by-product.
• Chlorophyll absorbs mainly red and blue light and reflects green, which is why leaves look green; the leaf is called the plant's food factory.
• Green plants are producers (autotrophs); all animals are consumers (heterotrophs) and depend on them, so sunlight is the ultimate source for the whole food chain.
• Only about 1 per cent of the sunlight falling on a leaf is fixed as chemical energy, and Lindeman's ten per cent law says only about 10 per cent of the energy at one trophic level passes to the next.
• Energy flows one way through an ecosystem (sun → producer → consumer → decomposer) while nutrients are recycled — this is why an energy pyramid is always upright.
Do not mix these up
• Energy source vs raw material — sunlight supplies the energy; water and carbon dioxide are the raw materials of photosynthesis, and soil supplies minerals.
• Photosynthesis vs respiration — photosynthesis stores energy and releases oxygen in light; respiration releases energy and consumes oxygen at all times.
Also asked from this topic: the waste product of photosynthesis (oxygen); its first step (absorption of light by chlorophyll); the plant's food factory (the leaf); the green pigment (chlorophyll).

Computer (1)

Networking and Data Communication · Mobile and telecom generations

Q34. Which of the following statements best describes the technological features, benefits, and limitations of Voice over LTE (VoLTE) in modern telecommunication networks?

  1. (a) VoLTE enables voice calls by using traditional circuit-switched networks alongside LTE for data, resulting in simultaneous voice and data with reduced call quality compared to 2G networks.
  2. (b) VoLTE transmits voice calls as data packets over the LTE network using IP Multimedia Subsystem (IMS), allowing higher call quality (HD voice), faster call setup, and simultaneous voice-data services, but requires compatible devices and network infrastructure.
  3. (c) VoLTE relies on Wi-Fi networks exclusively for voice transmission, requiring no cellular coverage and thus primarily used in indoor environments with limited mobility support
  4. (d) VoLTE eliminates the need for any packet switching and uses analog signal transmission over LTE, leading to lower latency but reduced spectral efficiency.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) VoLTE transmits voice calls as data packets over the LTE network using IP Multimedia Subsystem (IMS), allowing higher call quality (HD voice), faster call setup, and simultaneous voice-data services, but requires compatible devices and network infrastructure.

Answer: Option 2 — VoLTE transmits voice calls as data packets over the LTE network using IP Multimedia Subsystem (IMS)
VoLTE (Voice over LTE) carries the voice itself as IP data packets over the 4G LTE network, handled by the IP Multimedia Subsystem (IMS).
That gives HD voice, much faster call setup and voice with data at the same time — but only on a VoLTE-capable handset and network.
Revision note — VoLTE and mobile telecom generations
• Before VoLTE a 4G phone had to drop to the 2G/3G circuit-switched network to make a call (CSFB, Circuit Switched Fallback), breaking the data session. VoLTE keeps everything packet-switched.
• IMS is the core that sets up and manages the call; SIP is the signalling protocol, and the wideband AMR-WB codec is what is marketed as HD voice.
• VoWiFi (Wi-Fi calling) carries the same IMS call over a Wi-Fi link instead of the cellular network — a companion service, not VoLTE itself.
• Generations: 1G analogue voice, 2G digital voice and SMS (GSM), 3G mobile data, 4G LTE all-IP broadband, 5G very high speed and low latency.
• Circuit switching reserves one dedicated path for the whole call; packet switching splits the data into packets routed independently. LTE is entirely packet-switched.
• India's telecom regulator is TRAI, set up in 1997, and the Telecommunications Act, 2023 replaced the colonial Indian Telegraph Act, 1885.
Do not mix these up
• VoLTE vs VoWiFi — VoLTE runs over the cellular LTE network; VoWiFi runs over a Wi-Fi connection.
• VoLTE vs ordinary internet calling apps — VoLTE is a carrier-grade service with priority inside the operator's network; an app is just data traffic.
• Circuit-switched vs packet-switched — a reserved end-to-end path against independently routed packets.
Also asked from this topic: the standard for wired LANs (IEEE 802.3; Wi-Fi is 802.11); what a MAC address identifies (a NIC at the data link layer); the law replaced in 2023 (Telegraph Act, 1885).

Physics (4)

Heat and Thermodynamics · Latent heat and change of state

Q35. Why are pressure cookers faster than open cooking?

  1. (a) Decrease water's boiling point
  2. (b) Maintain uniform temperature
  3. (c) Increase water's boiling point
  4. (d) Improve taste
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Increase water's boiling point

Answer: Option 3 — Increase water's boiling point
A cooker traps the steam, so the pressure inside rises and water can no longer boil at 100 degree C.
It boils at about 120 degree C instead, and food cooks faster because it is being held at a higher temperature.
Revision note — Boiling point and pressure
• The boiling point of a liquid is the temperature at which its vapour pressure equals the surrounding pressure, so raising the pressure raises the boiling point.
• At sea level (1 atmosphere) water boils at 100 degree C = 212 degree F = 373.15 K; the melting point of ice is 0 degree C = 273.15 K.
• A domestic cooker holds about 1 atmosphere of extra pressure (about 15 psi), lifting the boiling point to roughly 120 degree C.
• On a hill station the air pressure is lower, so water boils below 100 degree C and food cooks slowly — the same principle working in reverse.
• The safety valve and the whistle (pressure regulator) release excess steam; without them the rising pressure would burst the vessel.
• Steam at 100 degree C burns worse than water at 100 degree C, because on condensing it releases an extra 2,260 J per gram of latent heat of vaporisation.
Do not mix these up
• Higher temperature vs uniform temperature — the cooker works by raising the boiling point, not merely by spreading heat evenly.
• Boiling vs evaporation — boiling happens throughout the liquid at a fixed temperature; evaporation happens only at the surface, at any temperature.
Also asked from this topic: why a pressure cooker cooks faster (pressure raises the boiling point above 100 degree C); the boiling point of water at sea level (212 degree F).
Heat and Thermodynamics · Laws of thermodynamics and heat engines

Q36. Which condition best describes thermodynamic equilibrium in a closed physical system?

  1. (a) When temperature and pressure fluctuate randomly but chemical composition is constant.
  2. (b) When temperature, pressure, and chemical potential remain uniform and constant throughout the system over time.
  3. (c) When entropy is continuously increasing, causing spontaneous motion.
  4. (d) When all molecular motion stops, and energy becomes zero.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) When temperature, pressure, and chemical potential remain uniform and constant throughout the system over time.

Answer: Option 2 — When temperature, pressure, and chemical potential remain uniform and constant throughout the system over time
Thermodynamic equilibrium means all three sub-equilibria hold at once — thermal (same temperature), mechanical (same pressure) and chemical (same chemical potential, no net reaction or diffusion).
Nothing then changes with time, and there is no net flow of heat, matter or work.
Revision note — Thermodynamic equilibrium and systems
• Thermal equilibrium = uniform temperature; mechanical equilibrium = uniform pressure with no unbalanced force; chemical equilibrium = uniform chemical potential with no net reaction.
• Zeroth law of thermodynamics: two bodies each in thermal equilibrium with a third are in thermal equilibrium with each other. Named by Ralph H. Fowler in 1931, it lets temperature be defined.
• Types of system: an open system exchanges both matter and energy; a closed system exchanges only energy; an isolated system exchanges neither — the ideal thermos flask.
• A diathermic wall lets heat pass between systems; an adiabatic wall blocks all heat exchange.
• At equilibrium the entropy of an isolated system is at its maximum, so it is constant, not rising.
• Pressure, temperature, volume, internal energy and enthalpy are state functions; heat and work are path functions, depending on how the change was brought about.
Do not mix these up
• Thermodynamic equilibrium vs absolute zero — at equilibrium molecules still move; motion is minimum only at 0 K (-273.15 degree C), and even there the energy is not zero.
• Equilibrium vs steady state — at equilibrium there is no net flow at all; a steady state can have a constant but non-zero flow through it.
• Zeroth law vs first law — the zeroth law defines temperature; the first law is the conservation of energy.
Also asked from this topic: who proposed the zeroth law in 1931 (Ralph H. Fowler); the system that exchanges neither matter nor energy (isolated); what a diathermic wall does (lets heat flow).
Heat and Thermodynamics · Laws of thermodynamics and heat engines

Q37. Which of the following best explains why entropy is associated with the "arrow of time" in physical processes?

  1. (a) Entropy measures the speed of chemical reactions, which only occur in one direction.
  2. (b) Entropy always increases in a closed system, providing a direction for time from past to future.
  3. (c) Entropy causes particles to lose mass, making time irreversible.
  4. (d) Entropy controls gravitational force, which cannot be reversed.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Entropy always increases in a closed system, providing a direction for time from past to future.

Answer: Option 2 — Entropy always increases in a closed system, providing a direction for time from past to future
⚠️ Note: option 2 says closed system; strictly, the second law says entropy never decreases in an isolated system — a closed system can lose entropy by giving out heat. Option 2 is still the only option that links entropy to the arrow of time, so the key stands.
Almost every law of physics works equally well forwards and backwards in time.
The second law of thermodynamics is the exception: the entropy of an isolated system never decreases, so the direction of rising entropy marks out past from future — the arrow of time.
Revision note — Entropy and the second law
• Entropy (S) is the measure of disorder or randomness of a system. Its SI unit is joule per kelvin (J/K), and the term was coined by Rudolf Clausius in 1865.
• Second law: for an isolated system change in entropy is greater than or equal to zero. Equality holds only for an ideal reversible process; every real process increases entropy.
• The phrase arrow of time was coined by the astronomer Arthur Eddington in 1928, exactly for this one-way behaviour.
• Boltzmann's relation, S = k log W, links entropy to the number of ways a state can be arranged; k is the Boltzmann constant, 1.38 × 10⁻²³ J/K.
• Consequences of the second law: heat flows hot to cold on its own, no engine can be 100 per cent efficient, and an ideal Carnot engine's efficiency depends only on the two reservoir temperatures.
• Third law: the entropy of a perfect crystal is zero at 0 K, and absolute zero can never actually be reached.
Do not mix these up
• Entropy vs rate of reaction — entropy is a state function measuring disorder; it says nothing about how fast a process runs, which is chemical kinetics.
• First law vs second law — the first law says energy is conserved; the second says it becomes steadily less available for work.
• Spontaneous vs fast — a spontaneous change is one the second law permits, not necessarily a quick one; rusting is spontaneous but slow.
Also asked from this topic: what an ideal heat engine's efficiency depends on (only the reservoir temperatures); which quantity is not a state function (work); Carnot's ideal engine (1824).
Modern Physics and Electronics · X-rays, LASER and photoelectric effect

Q38. The photoelectric effect demonstrated that:

  1. (a) Light behaves only as a wave.
  2. (b) Electrons can be created by heating metal.
  3. (c) Light energy is quantized and delivered in discrete packets, confirming the particle nature of light.
  4. (d) Energy conservation does not apply to photons.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Light energy is quantized and delivered in discrete packets, confirming the particle nature of light.

Answer: Option 3 — Light energy is quantized and delivered in discrete packets, confirming the particle nature of light.
Electrons are emitted only above a threshold frequency, and their maximum kinetic energy rises with frequency, not intensity.
A wave picture cannot explain either result; photons of energy E = hν can.
Revision note — Photoelectric effect
• Observed by Heinrich Hertz in 1887 and explained by Albert Einstein in 1905, who won the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1921 for this work.
• Einstein's photoelectric equation: hν = φ + K.max, so K.max = h(ν − ν₀), where φ is the work function and ν₀ the threshold frequency.
• Intensity decides only how many electrons come out — the photocurrent; frequency decides how fast they come out.
• Below the threshold frequency no electron is emitted, however bright the light, and emission is instantaneous (about 10⁻⁹ s).
• Planck's constant h = 6.626 × 10⁻³⁴ J s; a photon has zero rest mass, energy E = hν and momentum p = h/λ.
• R. A. Millikan verified the equation experimentally in 1916; the effect is used in photocells, solar cells, burglar alarms and light meters.
Do not mix these up
• Intensity vs frequency — raising the intensity raises the number of photoelectrons; raising the frequency raises their kinetic energy.
• Photoelectric effect vs thermionic emission — photoelectrons are freed by light, thermionic electrons by heating the metal. Neither creates electrons; both only release ones already present.
Also asked from this topic: what the photoelectric effect proves (the particle nature of light); whether the kinetic energy depends on intensity (no — on frequency); the rest mass of a photon (0 kg).

Chemistry (1)

Metals and Non-metals · Corrosion and its prevention (galvanisation, etc.)

Q39. Why is stainless steel preferred for kitchen use over iron?

  1. (a) It is lighter
  2. (b) It retains heat better
  3. (c) It resists corrosion
  4. (d) It contains calcium
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It resists corrosion

Answer: Option 3 — It resists corrosion
Stainless steel is an alloy of iron with chromium, and the chromium forms a thin, invisible chromium oxide layer that seals the surface.
Plain iron has no such layer, so in moist kitchen air it rusts.
Revision note — Corrosion, rusting and alloys
• Rust is hydrated iron(III) oxide, Fe₂O₃·xH₂O. Iron rusts only when both oxygen and water are present — not in dry air, and not in boiled water sealed under oil.
• Stainless steel contains iron, carbon and at least about 10.5 per cent chromium, usually with nickel; the chromium oxide film re-forms itself whenever the surface is scratched.
• Galvanisation coats iron with zinc. Zinc is more reactive, so it corrodes first and protects the iron even where the coating is broken — sacrificial protection.
• Other ways to stop corrosion are painting, oiling and greasing, chrome plating, anodising and alloying, all of which keep out air and moisture.
• Common alloys: brass = copper + zinc; bronze = copper + tin; steel = iron + carbon; solder = tin + lead.
• Copper turns green in moist air (basic copper carbonate) and silver goes black (silver sulphide) — corrosion is not confined to iron.
Do not mix these up
• Corrosion resistance vs lightness — stainless steel is about as dense as iron, roughly 7.9 g/cm³; it is not the lighter metal. That role belongs to aluminium.
• Stainless steel vs galvanised iron — stainless steel resists rust because of chromium inside the alloy; galvanised iron is ordinary iron with a zinc coating on top.
Also asked from this topic: the reddish-brown coating on iron (hydrated iron(III) oxide); the method that protects by sacrificing a metal (galvanisation); when iron rusts (moist air, oxygenated water).

Economics (5)

Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Direct taxes

Q40. In the context of India's fiscal policy in 2025, which of the following best describes the rationale behind imposing a windfall tax on certain sectors, and what are the potential economic implications of such a tax?

  1. (a) Windfall tax is levied on companies with consistent losses to boost government revenues without affecting market prices
  2. (b) Windfall tax targets excessive profits earned due to unforeseen external factors (like global commodity price spikes), aiming to redistribute gains; however, it may lead to reduced private investment and production if perceived as punitive or unpredictable
  3. (c) Windfall tax is a fixed annual tax on all corporations irrespective of their profitability to ensure uniform fiscal contribution
  4. (d) Windfall tax exclusively applies to the banking sector to regulate interest rate margins
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Windfall tax targets excessive profits earned due to unforeseen external factors (like global commodity price spikes), aiming to redistribute gains; however, it may lead to reduced private investment and production if perceived as punitive or unpredictable

Answer: Option 2 — a tax on excessive profits from unforeseen external factors, which can deter private investment if seen as punitive
A windfall is a gain a firm did not earn by its own effort or efficiency — it falls into its lap when an outside shock, such as a global commodity price spike, lifts prices.
A windfall tax claws back part of that unearned gain; its cost is that an unpredictable levy weakens the incentive to invest and produce.
Revision note — Windfall tax in India
• India imposed its windfall tax on 1 July 2022, on domestic crude oil production and on exports of petrol, diesel and ATF, after the Russia-Ukraine war sent global crude prices up.
• It was levied as a Special Additional Excise Duty (SAED), and the rates were reviewed every fortnight against international crude prices.
• The government withdrew the windfall tax in December 2024 once crude prices softened — proof that it is a temporary, event-driven levy, not a permanent one.
• The idea is not only India's: the United Kingdom brought in an Energy Profits Levy in May 2022 on North Sea oil and gas producers.
• Under Article 265, no tax may be levied or collected except by authority of law, so even a windfall levy needs statutory backing.
• Economists defend it on the ability-to-pay principle and attack it for policy uncertainty, which raises the risk premium investors demand.
Do not mix these up
• Windfall tax vs corporation tax — corporation tax is a permanent levy on all company profits; a windfall tax is a one-off levy on abnormal profits from an external shock.
• Windfall tax vs cess and surcharge — a cess is raised for an earmarked purpose and a surcharge is a tax on tax; a windfall tax is defined by the source of the profit.
Also asked from this topic: whether corporation tax is a direct or an indirect tax (direct — a tax on company profits); the chairman of the 1991 Tax Reforms Committee (Raja J. Chelliah).
Financial Markets and Institutions · Mutual funds, bonds and financial instruments

Q41. With reference to the role of Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs) in India's infrastructure financing ecosystem in 2025, which of the following statements best captures both their potential benefits and regulatory challenges?

  1. (a) InvITs are mutual funds used solely for investing in startup infrastructure firms, regulated by RBI and designed for short-term returns
  2. (b) InvITs allow sponsors to liquidate unproductive assets and are exempt from SEBI regulations due to their quasi-government status
  3. (c) InvITs are pooled investment vehicles that enable long-term investors to invest in revenue-generating infrastructure assets; while they unlock capital for developers and promote retail participation, challenges in taxation, secondary market liquidity, and operational transparency still limit their full potential
  4. (d) InvITs are leveraged loan instruments issued by banks to finance greenfield infrastructure projects and are protected under sovereign guarantee
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) InvITs are pooled investment vehicles that enable long-term investors to invest in revenue-generating infrastructure assets; while they unlock capital for developers and promote retail participation, challenges in taxation, secondary market liquidity, and operational transparency still limit their full potential

Answer: Option 3 — pooled vehicles holding revenue-generating infrastructure assets, still held back by taxation, thin liquidity and transparency
An InvIT is a trust that pools money from many investors and buys operating, cash-generating infrastructure — toll roads, power transmission lines, gas pipelines, telecom towers.
The developer gets its locked-up capital back, and the investor gets a share of the toll or tariff income.
Revision note — Infrastructure Investment Trusts
• InvITs are governed by the SEBI (Infrastructure Investment Trusts) Regulations, 2014 — the regulator is SEBI, not the RBI.
• The structure has four parties: the sponsor, the trustee, the investment manager and the project manager; the trustee must be independent of the sponsor.
• At least 80 per cent of an InvIT's assets must be in completed, revenue-generating projects, which is why it is not a start-up or greenfield funding route.
• A listed InvIT must distribute at least 90 per cent of its net distributable cash flows to unitholders, at least twice a year.
• India's first listed InvIT was the IRB InvIT Fund (2017); the National Highways Infra Trust (NHIT), sponsored by NHAI, monetises highways under the National Monetisation Pipeline.
• SEBI cut the minimum subscription for publicly issued InvITs to about ₹10,000–₹15,000 in 2021, down from ₹1 lakh, to draw in retail investors.
• The parallel vehicle for real estate is the REIT, under the SEBI (REIT) Regulations, 2014; India's first REIT was Embassy Office Parks (2019).
Do not mix these up
• InvIT vs REIT — an InvIT holds infrastructure assets such as roads and transmission lines; a REIT holds rent-yielding real estate such as office parks.
• InvIT vs mutual fund — a mutual fund buys securities; an InvIT owns the underlying infrastructure asset itself, through special purpose vehicles.
• Brownfield vs greenfield — InvITs are built for brownfield (completed) assets; a greenfield project is a new one still to be built.
Also asked from this topic: the year SEBI framed the Insider Trading Regulations (1992); the year SEBI issued the Underwriters Regulations (1993); the year the NSE began operations (1994).
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · FDI, FPI and FEMA

Q42. The post-1991 reforms permitted greater inflow of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) in several sectors. What was the primary objective of this policy shift?

  1. (a) To promote foreign ownership of Indian public sector units
  2. (b) To bridge the savings-investment gap and facilitate technology and managerial know-how transfer
  3. (c) To replace domestic investment with foreign loans
  4. (d) To ensure full capital account convertibility for the rupee
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To bridge the savings-investment gap and facilitate technology and managerial know-how transfer

Answer: Option 2 — To bridge the savings-investment gap and facilitate technology and managerial know-how transfer
India's domestic savings were too small to fund the investment the economy needed, and FDI is non-debt-creating — it fills that gap without adding to external debt.
It also carries in technology, managerial skill and access to world markets, which a foreign loan does not.
Revision note — FDI and the 1991 reforms
• The New Industrial Policy of 24 July 1991 allowed automatic approval of foreign equity up to 51 per cent in 34 high-priority industries.
• The Foreign Investment Promotion Board (FIPB) cleared proposals outside the automatic route; it was abolished in May 2017 and approvals now go to the administrative ministries.
• FERA, 1973, which treated foreign exchange dealings almost as an offence, was replaced by FEMA, 1999, in force from 1 June 2000.
• FDI policy is framed by the DPIIT under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry; 100 per cent FDI under the automatic route is allowed in many sectors, including coal mining.
• FDI means a lasting interest with management control — conventionally a stake of 10 per cent or more in an enterprise.
• Maharashtra drew the largest share of India's FDI equity inflows in 2024-25, about 31 per cent, followed by Karnataka and Delhi.
Do not mix these up
• FDI vs FPI — FDI brings management control and a lasting interest; foreign portfolio investment buys shares and bonds for returns alone and can leave quickly.
• FDI vs external commercial borrowing — FDI is equity and non-debt-creating; an ECB is a loan that must be repaid with interest.
• Current vs capital account convertibility — the rupee became fully convertible on the current account in 1994; capital account convertibility is still only partial.
Also asked from this topic: the year the FDI limit was liberalised (1991); the top state for FDI equity inflows in 2024-25 (Maharashtra); FDI in coal mining under the automatic route (100 per cent).
Money and Banking · NPAs and banking reforms (Narasimham, SARFAESI, IBC)

Q43. Which of the following was a major recommendation of the Narasimham Committee (1991) in the context of financial sector reforms?

  1. (a) Expansion of directed credit programs and tighter interest rate controls
  2. (b) Nationalization of private banks to ensure state dominance
  3. (c) Reduction of statutory pre-emptions like CRR and SLR to enhance credit availability
  4. (d) Complete privatization of all public sector banks
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Reduction of statutory pre-emptions like CRR and SLR to enhance credit availability

Answer: Option 3 — Reduction of statutory pre-emptions like CRR and SLR to enhance credit availability
Statutory pre-emption is the slice of a bank's deposits the law takes away before the bank can lend anything.
By 1991 the SLR stood at 38.5 per cent and the CRR near 15 per cent, so over half of every deposit was locked up; the committee wanted both cut so that banks could lend.
Revision note — Narasimham Committee and banking reform
• The committee was chaired by M. Narasimham, a former Governor of the RBI; the first report came in 1991 and a second committee reported in 1998.
• It recommended cutting the SLR from 38.5 per cent to 25 per cent over about five years and bringing the CRR down towards 3 to 5 per cent.
• It introduced prudential norms — income recognition, asset classification and provisioning — and with them the formal idea of a non-performing asset (NPA).
• It set a capital adequacy ratio of 8 per cent by March 1996; Narasimham II (1998) raised the target to 9 per cent and urged mergers of strong banks.
• It opened the door to new private sector banks and led to the Board for Financial Supervision (1994) and Debt Recovery Tribunals under the RDDBFI Act, 1993.
• Directed credit was to be reduced, not expanded, and interest rates deregulated — the opposite of tighter control.
• Statutory limits today: the SLR may not exceed 40 per cent under the Banking Regulation Act, and the ceiling and floor on the CRR were removed by the 2006 amendment to the RBI Act.
Do not mix these up
• CRR vs SLR — the CRR is kept in cash with the RBI and earns nothing; the SLR is kept by the bank itself in cash, gold or approved government securities.
• Narasimham vs Chelliah — both committees date from 1991, but Narasimham dealt with the banking sector and Raja J. Chelliah with tax reform.
• Narasimham I (1991) vs Narasimham II (1998) — the first designed the reform; the second reviewed it and pushed consolidation and stronger capital.
Also asked from this topic: the committee behind the SLR and CRR cuts of the 1990s (Narasimham Committee); the major banking reform after 1991 (deregulation of interest rates).
Planning and NITI Aayog · Indian economy at independence and the 1950-90 phase

Q44. What does the term 'Hindu Rate of Growth' signify in the context of India's economic history, and what were the structural factors that contributed to this phenomenon during the pre-liberalization period (1950s-1980s)?

  1. (a) A growth model based on Hindu philosophical principles of minimalism and austerity
  2. (b) A period of high economic growth during the license-permit era, driven by state-led industrialization
  3. (c) A prolonged phase of low and stagnant economic growth averaging around 3–3.5% annually, caused by excessive state control, bureaucratic inefficiencies, and limited private sector participation under a socialist policy framework
  4. (d) A rapid increase in GDP driven by population growth among Hindu-majority states
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A prolonged phase of low and stagnant economic growth averaging around 3–3.5% annually, caused by excessive state control, bureaucratic inefficiencies, and limited private sector participation under a socialist policy framework

Answer: Option 3 — a prolonged phase of low growth of about 3 to 3.5 per cent a year under heavy state control
The phrase describes a rate, not a religion.
From the 1950s to about 1980 India's GDP crawled at roughly 3.5 per cent a year while population grew above 2 per cent, so per capita income rose only about 1.3 per cent a year.
Revision note — The Hindu rate of growth
• The phrase was coined by the economist Raj Krishna of the Delhi School of Economics in 1978.
• He used it to mark India's growth as stubbornly fixed and fatalistic, not to link slow growth to any faith.
• Its structural causes were the licence-permit-quota raj, import substitution behind high tariffs, and the dominance of loss-making public enterprises.
• Low domestic savings and investment and weak farm productivity before the Green Revolution held the rate down further.
• Growth broke out of that band in the 1980s (about 5.6 per cent) and again after the 1991 LPG reforms, reaching 6 to 7 per cent and more.
• The planning model behind the period was the Mahalanobis model of the Second Five Year Plan (1956-61), which put heavy industry first.
• Related terms worth knowing: licence raj, the commanding heights of the economy (Industrial Policy Resolution, 1956) and the plan holiday (1966-69).
Do not mix these up
• The rate vs its cause — Hindu rate of growth names the outcome; the licence-permit raj names the cause.
• Raj Krishna vs P. C. Mahalanobis — Raj Krishna coined the phrase in 1978; Mahalanobis designed the heavy-industry model of the Second Plan.
Also asked from this topic: who coined the phrase 'Hindu rate of growth' (Raj Krishna); the aim of import substitution in the early Plans (to protect infant domestic industries).
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