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Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 29 December 2025 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 48 GK / GS questions asked in Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 on 29 December 2025 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Current Affairs, Modern History, Ancient History, Economics, Static GK, Geography.

📚 48 questions🗓️ 29 December 2025⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Current Affairs (12) · Modern History (5) · Ancient History (1) · Economics (10) · Static GK (10) · Geography (7) · Polity (2) · Medieval History (1)

Current Affairs (12)

Sports - Current · Olympics, Asian Games and Commonwealth Games - current

Q1. At the Paris 2024 Olympics, Manu Bhaker secured a bronze medal in which shooting event?

  1. (a) 10m Air Rifle Mixed Team
  2. (b) 10m Air Pistol Mixed Team
  3. (c) 25m Rapid Fire Pistol
  4. (d) 50m Pistol
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 10m Air Pistol Mixed Team

Manu Bhaker won a bronze medal in the 10m Air Pistol Mixed Team event at the Paris 2024 Olympics, partnering with Sarabjot Singh. She became India's first double- medallist in a single Olympic Games.
(a) Incorrect: She competed in Air Pistol, not Air Rifle events.
(c) Incorrect: She did not win a medal in 25m Rapid Fire Pistol.
(d) Incorrect: 50m Pistol is not an Olympic event at Paris 2024.
State News · State elections and results

Q2. Who is the Leader of the Opposition in Delhi after the 2025 elections?

  1. (a) Atishi Marlena
  2. (b) Arvind Kejriwal
  3. (c) Shelly Oberoi
  4. (d) Bandana Kumari
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Atishi Marlena

After the February 2025 Delhi Assembly Elections, BJP won a majority and AAP moved to the opposition. Atishi Marlena (Atishi) became the Leader of Opposition in the Delhi Legislative Assembly.
(b) Incorrect: Arvind Kejriwal was the Chief Minister when AAP was in power; after the 2025 loss he was not the LoP .
(c) Incorrect: Shelly Oberoi is associated with Delhi Municipal Corporation, not the Assembly opposition.
(d) Incorrect: Bandana Kumari was not elected LoP .
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · Policies, laws and bills

Q3. Which Union Minister introduced the National Sports Governance Bill to improve accountability in sports in 2025?

  1. (a) Kiren Rijiju
  2. (b) Mansukh Mandaviya
  3. (c) Anurag Thakur
  4. (d) Rajeev Chandrasekhar
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Mansukh Mandaviya

Mansukh Mandaviya, Union Minister for Youth Affairs and Sports, introduced the National Sports Governance Bill in 2025 to bring transparency and accountability to national sports federations.
(a) Incorrect: Kiren Rijiju is the Law Minister, not the Sports Minister.
(c) Incorrect: Anurag Thakur was a former Sports Minister and was not holding that portfolio in 2025.
(d) Incorrect: Rajeev Chandrasekhar is not the Sports Minister.
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q4. Which ISRO engine was tested for multi-element ignition under vacuum in early 2025?

  1. (a) Vikas
  2. (b) CE20
  3. (c) SC120
  4. (d) GSLV Mk3 core stage
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) CE20

The CE20 (Cryogenic Engine 20) is ISRO's high-thrust cryogenic engine used in the upper stage of GSLV Mk III (LVM3). In early 2025, ISRO successfully tested the CE20 engine for multi-element ignition under vacuum conditions, advancing its development for future missions.
(a) Incorrect: Vikas is a liquid-propellant engine used in the second stage of PSLV and GSLV Mk I/II.
(c) Incorrect: SC120 is not a standard ISRO engine designation.
(d) Incorrect: GSLV Mk3 core stage uses a different configuration; CE20 is the upper stage engine.
Appointments and Resignations · International appointments

Q5. Which former Governor of the RBI was appointed as India's Executive Director at the International Monetary Fund (IMF) in August 2025?

  1. (a) Urjit Patel
  2. (b) Raghuram Rajan
  3. (c) Shaktikanta Das
  4. (d) Duvvuri Subbarao
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Urjit Patel

Urjit Patel, who served as RBI Governor from 2016 to 2018, was appointed as India's Executive Director at the International Monetary Fund (IMF) in August 2025.
(b) Incorrect: Raghuram Rajan served as RBI Governor from 2013 to 2016.
(c) Incorrect: Shaktikanta Das served as RBI Governor from 2018 to 2024.
(d) Incorrect: Duvvuri Subbarao served as RBI Governor from 2008 to 2013.
Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q6. Who among the following is the Attorney General of India (as of November 2025), who was re-appointed by the President for a two-year extension starting October 1, 2025?

  1. (a) Mukul Rohatgi
  2. (b) K. K. Venugopal
  3. (c) R. Venkataramani
  4. (d) Tushar Mehta
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) R. Venkataramani

R. Venkataramani is the Attorney General of India. He was re-appointed for a two-year extension by the President, starting October 1, 2025. He is the highest law officer of India and represents the Union of India in the Supreme Court.
(a) Incorrect: Mukul Rohatgi served as AG from 2014-17 and 2020-22; not the current AG.
(b) Incorrect: K.K. Venugopal served as AG before Venkataramani.
(d) Incorrect: Tushar Mehta is the Solicitor General of India, not the Attorney General.
Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q7. Which IPS officer of the 1993 batch was appointed Director General of the Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) starting 1st October 2025?

  1. (a) Praveer Ranjan
  2. (b) Rajwinder Singh Bhatti
  3. (c) Praveen Kumar
  4. (d) R. S. Bhatti
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Praveer Ranjan

Praveer Ranjan, an IPS officer of the 1993 batch, was appointed as the Director General of the Central Industrial Security Force (CISF) starting 1st October 2025. CISF is a Central Armed Police Force responsible for security of vital industries.
(b) Incorrect: Rajwinder Singh Bhatti was not the appointed DG CISF on that date.
(c) Incorrect: Praveen Kumar was not the appointed DG CISF.
(d) Incorrect: R.S. Bhatti was not the correct appointee.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · New government schemes and missions

Q8. YUVA 3.0, launched in March 2025, targeted young writers under the age of:

  1. (a) 20 years
  2. (b) 25 years
  3. (c) 30 years
  4. (d) 35 years
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 30 years

YUVA 3.0 (Young, Upcoming and Versatile Authors), the PM's Mentorship Scheme for Aspiring Authors, launched in March 2025, targeted young writers under the age of 30 years. The scheme aims to develop young writing talent in India.
(a) Incorrect: The age limit is 30, not 20.
(b) Incorrect: 25 years is not the correct threshold.
(d) Incorrect: 35 years is above the scheme's age limit.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · New government schemes and missions

Q9. The March 2025 edition of YUVA 3.0 aimed to encourage creative writing in line with which national vision?

  1. (a) "Independent India 2047"
  2. (b) "Skill India Mission 2030"
  3. (c) "Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat"
  4. (d) "Digital India for All"
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) "Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat"

The March 2025 edition of YUVA 3.0 aimed to encourage creative writing aligned with the national vision of 'Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat,' which promotes national unity, integrity, and cultural integration through literature and other platforms.
(a) Incorrect: 'Independent India 2047' is a separate development-focused vision.
(b) Incorrect: Skill India Mission 2030 focuses on vocational training, not creative writing.
(d) Incorrect: 'Digital India for All' is about technology accessibility.
Sports - Current · Venues and hosts

Q10. Where will the 44th Junior National Kho-Kho Championship (Boys & Girls) 2025-26 be held?

  1. (a) Pune, Maharashtra
  2. (b) Bengaluru, Karnataka
  3. (c) Patiala, Punjab
  4. (d) Surat, Gujarat
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Bengaluru, Karnataka

The 44th Junior National Kho-Kho Championship (Boys & Girls) 2025-26 was scheduled to be held in Bengaluru, Karnataka. Kho-Kho is one of the most popular traditional Indian sports with a strong national championship circuit.
(a) Incorrect: Pune is not the venue for this championship.
(c) Incorrect: Patiala is not the venue.
(d) Incorrect: Surat is not the venue.
Sports - Current · Venues and hosts

Q11. What will be the duration of the 44th Junior National Kho-Kho Championship 2025-26?

  1. (a) 1st January to 7th January 2026
  2. (b) 10th January to 14th January 2026
  3. (c) 31st December 2025 to 4th January 2026
  4. (d) 31st January 2026 to 4th February 2026
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 31st December 2025 to 4th January 2026

The 44th Junior National Kho-Kho Championship 2025-26 was scheduled from 31st December 2025 to 4th January 2026, held in Bengaluru, Karnataka.
(a) Incorrect: 1st January to 7th January 2026 is not the correct duration.
(b) Incorrect: 10th to 14th January 2026 is not the correct period.
(d) Incorrect: January 31 to February 4, 2026 is not the correct schedule.
Sports - Current · Venues and hosts

Q12. When and where was the Khelo Chess India Challenger FIDE Rapid Chess Tournament 2025 held?

  1. (a) 1st April to 3rd April 2025, Mumbai
  2. (b) 5th April to 6th April 2025, Madhya Pradesh
  3. (c) 10th April to 12th April 2025, Delhi
  4. (d) 15th March to 17th March 2025, Bangalore
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 5th April to 6th April 2025, Madhya Pradesh

The Khelo Chess India Challenger FIDE Rapid Chess Tournament 2025 was held from 5th April to 6th April 2025 in Madhya Pradesh. This tournament is part of India's broader initiative to promote chess at grassroots level.
(a) Incorrect: The tournament was not held in Mumbai from April 1-3 (candidate's wrong selection).
(c) Incorrect: Delhi from April 10-12 is incorrect.
(d) Incorrect: Bangalore from March 15-17 is incorrect.

Modern History (5)

Socio-Religious Reform Movements · Anti-caste and depressed-class movements

Q13. Who is associated with All India Scheduled Castes Federation, Mooknayak , Bahujan Hitakarini Sabha, and Bahishkrit Bharat?

  1. (a) Mahatma Gandhi
  2. (b) Jyotiba Phule
  3. (c) B.R. Ambedkar
  4. (d) Dayanand Saraswati
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) B.R. Ambedkar

B.R. Ambedkar founded the All India Scheduled Castes Federation (1942), published newspapers Mooknayak and Bahishkrit Bharat, and established Bahujan Hitakarini Sabha to uplift Dalits and backward classes.
(a) Incorrect: Mahatma Gandhi led Congress; he was not associated with these organisations .
(b) Incorrect: Jyotiba Phule founded Satyashodhak Samaj.
(d) Incorrect: Dayanand Saraswati founded Arya Samaj.
Revolt of 1857 · Centres and leaders

Q14. Which region did Kunwar Singh primarily organize resistance against the British?

  1. (a) Uttar Pradesh
  2. (b) Bihar
  3. (c) Madhya Pradesh
  4. (d) Rajasthan
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Bihar

Kunwar Singh (1777–1858) was a leading figure of the 1857 revolt who organised and led resistance against the British primarily in Bihar, particularly around Arrah ( Jagdishpur ) and surrounding areas. He fought at a very old age and is remembered as a great warrior.
(a) Incorrect: His main base of operations was in Bihar, not Uttar Pradesh.
(c) Incorrect: Madhya Pradesh had different leaders like Tatya Tope.
(d) Incorrect: Rajasthan had its own regional leaders during 1857.
Swadeshi, Revolutionaries and Home Rule · HRA, HSRA, Bhagat Singh and Kakori

Q15. Ram Prasad Bismil is best known for his role in which revolutionary event?

  1. (a) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre
  2. (b) Kakori Conspiracy
  3. (c) Chauri Chaura Incident
  4. (d) Quit India Movement
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Kakori Conspiracy

Ram Prasad Bismil was one of the key leaders of the Kakori Conspiracy (also called Kakori Train Robbery) of 1925, where he and other revolutionaries (including Ashfaqullah Khan) looted a train at Kakori near Lucknow to fund the independence movement. He was executed on December 19, 1927.
(a) Incorrect: Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (1919) — Bismil was not a leading organiser of this event.
(c) Incorrect: Chauri Chaura Incident (1922) — Bismil was not directly involved.
(d) Incorrect: Quit India Movement (1942) — Bismil was executed in 1927, 15 years before.
British Administration and Policies · Constitutional Acts under British rule

Q16. What was the impact of the Charter Act of 1853 on the recruitment of civil servants in India?

  1. (a) It limited civil servant recruitment to British nationals and excluded Indians entirely.
  2. (b) It introduced an open competition system for civil servants, allowing Indians to compete.
  3. (c) It abolished the covenanted civil service, leaving no administrative body.
  4. (d) It replaced the competition system with appointments based on seniority alone.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) It introduced an open competition system for civil servants, allowing Indians to compete.

The Charter Act of 1853 introduced the open competitive examination system for recruitment to the Indian Civil Services (ICS), replacing the earlier system of patronage/nomination. This reform theoretically allowed Indians to compete, though examinations were held only in London, which was a practical barrier.
(a) Incorrect: The Act introduced competitive exams — it did not formally exclude Indians.
(c) Incorrect: The Act did not abolish the covenanted civil service; it reformed the recruitment system.
(d) Incorrect: The Act replaced patronage with competition, not with seniority-based appointments.
British Administration and Policies · Constitutional Acts under British rule

Q17. Which of the following was a key feature introduced by the Indian Councils Act of 1861?

  1. (a) The establishment of a unicameral legislative system in India.
  2. (b) The introduction of the portfolio system and decentralization of power.
  3. (c) The complete independence of provincial legislatures.
  4. (d) The appointment of a British monarch as the head of the Indian government.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The introduction of the portfolio system and decentralization of power.

The Indian Councils Act of 1861 introduced the portfolio system, assigning different government departments to individual members of the Viceroy's Executive Council. It also restored legislative powers to Bombay and Madras ( decentralisation ). Lord Canning implemented the portfolio system under this Act.
(a) Incorrect: The Indian legislature had two chambers (Viceroy's Council); it was not unicameral in the modern sense.
(c) Incorrect: Provincial legislatures were not fully independent; they remained under the Viceroy's authority.
(d) Incorrect: The head of the Indian government was the Viceroy, not a British monarch directly.

Ancient History (1)

Sources and Prehistoric India · Chalcolithic cultures

Q18. What was the first metal to be used by humans, leading to the Chalcolithic period?

  1. (a) Iron
  2. (b) Copper
  3. (c) Gold
  4. (d) Bronze
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Copper

Copper was the first metal used by humans, which led to the Chalcolithic (Copper Age) period. The word 'Chalcolithic' comes from Greek ' chalcos ' (copper) + ' lithos ' (stone). This transition period bridged the Stone Age and Bronze Age.
(a) Incorrect: Iron came much later (Iron Age, around 1200 BCE onwards).
(c) Incorrect: Gold was used but it did not define a major age transition.
(d) Incorrect: Bronze (an alloy of copper and tin) came after the Copper Age.

Economics (10)

Industry and Infrastructure · Disinvestment

Q19. What is 'disinvestment'?

  1. (a) The act of investing more money
  2. (b) The act of the government selling its shares in a public sector company
  3. (c) The act of shutting down a company
  4. (d) The act of taking a loan
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The act of the government selling its shares in a public sector company

Disinvestment refers to the process by which the government sells its equity (shares) in public sector enterprises, either partially or completely, to private buyers. It helps raise revenue and reduces the government's role in commercial activities.
(a) Incorrect: That describes investment, not disinvestment.
(c) Incorrect: Shutting down a company is 'winding up' or 'liquidation.'
(d) Incorrect: Taking a loan is 'borrowing,' not disinvestment.
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Deficits (fiscal, revenue, primary)

Q20. A situation where the government's total revenue is more than its total expenditure is called?

  1. (a) Budget Deficit
  2. (b) Budget Surplus
  3. (c) Balanced Budget
  4. (d) Fiscal Debt
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Budget Surplus

A Budget Surplus occurs when the government's total revenue exceeds its total expenditure. This is considered a positive fiscal position as the government has extra funds available.
(a) Incorrect: Budget Deficit = expenditure > revenue (opposite scenario).
(c) Incorrect: Balanced Budget = revenue equals expenditure exactly.
(d) Incorrect: Fiscal Debt is the accumulated total of all past borrowings by the government.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q21. The famous slogan ' Garibi Hatao' (Remove Poverty) was associated with which Five-Year Plan?

  1. (a) Third Plan
  2. (b) Fourth Plan
  3. (c) Fifth Plan
  4. (d) Sixth Plan
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Fifth Plan

The slogan ' Garibi Hatao' (Remove Poverty) was coined by Indira Gandhi during the 1971 general elections. It became the guiding theme of the Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-1979), which focused on poverty alleviation and self-reliance.
(a) Incorrect: The Third Plan (1961-66) focused on agriculture and industry.
(b) Incorrect: The Fourth Plan (1969-74) focused on growth with stability.
(d) Incorrect: The Sixth Plan (1980-85) focused on energy and rural development.
Money and Banking · Commercial banks and bank nationalisation

Q22. Who was the Prime Minister of India when 14 major banks were nationalized in 1969?

  1. (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
  2. (b) Lal Bahadur Shastri
  3. (c) Indira Gandhi
  4. (d) Morarji Desai
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Indira Gandhi

On July 19, 1969, Prime Minister Indira Gandhi nationalized 14 major commercial banks in India. This was a landmark decision aimed at directing bank credit towards priority sectors like agriculture and small industries and reducing economic inequality.
(a) Incorrect: Jawaharlal Nehru died in 1964, well before the 1969 bank nationalization.
(b) Incorrect: Lal Bahadur Shastri died in 1966.
(d) Incorrect: Morarji Desai became PM only in 1977.
Financial Markets and Institutions · SEBI and stock exchanges

Q23. The 'National Stock Exchange' (NSE), established in 1992 as part of India's financial sector reforms, is headquartered in which city?

  1. (a) New Delhi
  2. (b) Kolkata
  3. (c) Mumbai
  4. (d) Chennai
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Mumbai

The National Stock Exchange (NSE) was established in 1992 and is headquartered in Mumbai (Bandra-Kurla Complex). It is India's largest stock exchange by trading volume and the world's largest derivatives exchange.
(a) Incorrect: New Delhi is not the headquarters of NSE.
(b) Incorrect: Kolkata is home to the Calcutta Stock Exchange (CSE).
(d) Incorrect: Chennai has the Madras Stock Exchange, not NSE.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Skill development and employment schemes

Q24. PM Vishwakarma Scheme provides support to artisans and craftspeople belonging to how many trades?

  1. (a) 12 trades
  2. (b) 15 trades
  3. (c) 18 trades
  4. (d) 21 trades
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 18 trades

The PM Vishwakarma Scheme, launched on September 17, 2023, provides support to artisans and craftspeople in 18 traditional trades such as carpentry, boat making, blacksmithing, goldsmithing, pottery, weaving, shoemaking, masonry, and others.
(a) Incorrect: The scheme covers 18, not 12 trades.
(b) Incorrect: 15 trades is an undercount.
(d) Incorrect: 21 trades is an overcount.
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q25. A major criticism of the 1991 reforms is that they benefited which sector the least?

  1. (a) Agriculture
  2. (b) Services (IT)
  3. (c) Manufacturing
  4. (d) Banking
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Agriculture

A major criticism of the 1991 LPG ( Liberalisation , Privatisation , Globalisation ) reforms is that the agriculture sector benefited the least. While IT, services, manufacturing, and banking flourished, agriculture remained largely outside the formal market reforms and continued to face issues like low productivity, farmer debt, and inadequate infrastructure.
(b) Incorrect: The Services (IT) sector benefited enormously from liberalisation .
(c) Incorrect: Manufacturing also benefited significantly from reduced import duties and FDI.
(d) Incorrect: The banking sector benefited from financial sector reforms.
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q26. To secure an emergency loan in 1991, India had to pledge (mortgage) what valuable asset to international banks?

  1. (a) The Taj Mahal
  2. (b) Gold Reserves
  3. (c) Parliament Building
  4. (d) Shares in Indian Railways
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Gold Reserves

During India's 1991 Balance of Payments crisis, the government physically airlifted and pledged approximately 67 tonnes of gold to the Bank of England and Bank of Japan to secure emergency loans from the IMF totalling about $2.2 billion. This drastic step led to major economic reforms.
(a) Incorrect: The Taj Mahal was never pledged.
(c) Incorrect: Parliament Building was never used as collateral.
(d) Incorrect: Railway shares were not pledged to international banks.
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · ADB, AIIB, NDB and other banks

Q27. What does the BRICS New Development Bank primarily finance?

  1. (a) Defense projects
  2. (b) Sustainable infrastructure projects
  3. (c) Space research programs
  4. (d) Cultural festivals
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Sustainable infrastructure projects

The BRICS New Development Bank (NDB), headquartered in Shanghai, primarily finances sustainable infrastructure projects and sustainable development projects in BRICS nations and other emerging economies. This includes renewable energy, transport, water supply, and urban development.
(a) Incorrect: Defense projects are not part of the NDB's mandate.
(c) Incorrect: Space research programs are not NDB's primary focus area.
(d) Incorrect: Cultural festivals are not financed by the NDB.
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · Economic groupings (BRICS, G20, ASEAN)

Q28. What is the Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) under BRICS designed for?

  1. (a) Military funding
  2. (b) Offering liquidity support during payment crises
  3. (c) Funding cultural programs
  4. (d) Supporting space missions
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Offering liquidity support during payment crises

The Contingent Reserve Arrangement (CRA) under BRICS is a framework for providing mutual financial assistance to member countries facing balance of payments problems or short-term liquidity crises (payment crises). It acts as a safety net similar to the IMF, with a reserve pool of $100 billion.
(a) Incorrect: CRA is not for military funding.
(c) Incorrect: CRA does not fund cultural programs.
(d) Incorrect: Space missions are not the purpose of the CRA.

Static GK (10)

Awards and Honours · Nobel Prize and international awards

Q29. 'Amartya Sen', who won the Nobel Prize, is famous in which field?

  1. (a) Physics
  2. (b) Chemistry
  3. (c) Medicine
  4. (d) Economics
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Economics

Amartya Sen won the Nobel Memorial Prize in Economic Sciences in 1998 for his contributions to welfare economics, social choice theory, and his studies on poverty, famines, and human development.
(a) Incorrect: He never worked in or won for Physics.
(b) Incorrect: He has no connection to Chemistry.
(c) Incorrect: He is not associated with Medicine.
Space, Defence and Technology · ISRO - history and centres

Q30. Which of the following best describes the shift in ISRO's manufacturing strategy per the 2023 policy?

  1. (a) ISRO will shut down its production facilities
  2. (b) ISRO will keep research and hand over "mature" systems to private/public companies
  3. (c) ISRO will produce everything and disallow private manufacturing
  4. (d) ISRO will focus only on launchers, not spacecraft
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) ISRO will keep research and hand over "mature" systems to private/public companies

As per ISRO's 2023 manufacturing policy, ISRO will continue to focus on research, development, and innovation, while handing over proven/mature space systems to private and public sector companies for commercial production. This enables industry to take over manufacturing, freeing ISRO for newer technologies.
(a) Incorrect: ISRO is not shutting down; it is expanding research focus.
(c) Incorrect: ISRO is actively encouraging private sector participation.
(d) Incorrect: ISRO develops a full range of space systems, including satellites and spacecraft.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q31. The author-translator duo of Geetanjali Shree and Daisy Rockwell won the International Booker Prize for which book?

  1. (a) At Night All Blood Is Black
  2. (b) Tomb of Sand
  3. (c) The Discomfort of Evening
  4. (d) Flights
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Tomb of Sand

Geetanjali Shree (author) and Daisy Rockwell (translator) won the International Booker Prize 2022 for 'Tomb of Sand,' originally written in Hindi as 'Ret Samadhi.' It was the first Hindi-language novel to win this prestigious prize.
(a) Incorrect: 'At Night All Blood Is Black' by David Diop won the 2021 International Booker Prize.
(c) Incorrect: 'The Discomfort of Evening' by Marieke Lucas Rijneveld won the 2020 International Booker Prize.
(d) Incorrect: 'Flights' by Olga Tokarczuk won the 2018 International Booker Prize.
Awards and Honours · Nobel Prize and international awards

Q32. The 2021 International Booker Prize was awarded to which French novel?

  1. (a) The War of the Poor – Eric Vuillard
  2. (b) At Night All Blood Is Black – David Diop
  3. (c) In Memory of Memory – Maria Stepanova
  4. (d) The Employees – Olga Ravn
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) At Night All Blood Is Black – David Diop

'At Night All Blood Is Black' by David Diop, translated from French by Anna Moschovakis, won the International Booker Prize 2021. The novel is set during World War I and explores the psychology of an African soldier fighting for France.
(a) Incorrect: 'The War of the Poor' by Eric Vuillard was not the 2021 winner.
(c) Incorrect: 'In Memory of Memory' by Maria Stepanova was shortlisted but did not win.
(d) Incorrect: 'The Employees' by Olga Ravn was shortlisted but did not win.
Sports · Asian Games and Commonwealth Games

Q33. How many gold medals did India win at the Asian Games 2023?

  1. (a) 20
  2. (b) 24
  3. (c) 28
  4. (d) 30
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 28

India won 28 gold medals at the Asian Games 2023 (Hangzhou, China), achieving its best-ever performance. India's total medal count was 107, which was also a record.
(a) Incorrect: 20 gold medals was not the final count.
(b) Incorrect: 24 gold medals is an undercount.
(d) Incorrect: India did not reach 30 gold medals.
Sports · Asian Games and Commonwealth Games

Q34. Which Indian wrestler delivered India's only medal at the 1934 Commonwealth Games?

  1. (a) Lila Ram
  2. (b) Rashid Anwar
  3. (c) Bishambar Singh
  4. (d) Uday Chand
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Rashid Anwar

Rashid Anwar won a gold medal in wrestling at the 1934 British Empire Games (Commonwealth Games) held in London. He was the only Indian to win a medal at that edition of the Games.
(a) Incorrect: Lila Ram was a wrestler but not the 1934 medalist.
(c) Incorrect: Bishambar Singh was a wrestler but not the 1934 medalist.
(d) Incorrect: Uday Chand was a wrestler but not the 1934 medalist.
Sports · Number of players and field dimensions

Q35. Which statement about the goal post in hockey is correct?

  1. (a) The height of the goal post is 2.14 meters, and the width is 3.66 meters.
  2. (b) The goal post has a height of 4.66 meters and a width of 2.14 meters.
  3. (c) The goal post is square in shape, with a height and width of 3.66 meters.
  4. (d) The height of the goal post is 3.66 meters, and the width is 2.14 meters.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) The height of the goal post is 2.14 meters, and the width is 3.66 meters.

As per FIH (International Hockey Federation) rules, the hockey goal post dimensions are: Height = 2.14 meters (7 feet) and Width = 3.66 meters (12 feet). These dimensions apply to all international hockey matches.
(b) Incorrect: A height of 4.66 meters is incorrect; the dimensions are reversed and wrong.
(c) Incorrect: The goal post is rectangular, not square shaped.
(d) Incorrect: This reverses the correct dimensions.
Music and Musical Instruments · Hindustani music (ragas, gharanas)

Q36. Which of the following is true about 'Raga Bhairav'?

  1. (a) It is sung in the evening
  2. (b) It is sung during the night
  3. (c) It is sung in the morning
  4. (d) It is sung at midnight
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It is sung in the morning

Raga Bhairav is a morning raga ( Pratah kaal raga), typically sung in the early morning hours, approximately between 6 AM and 9 AM. It belongs to the Bhairav thaat and evokes a mood of devotion, peace, and serenity.
(a) Incorrect: Evening ragas belong to a different category (e.g., Bhimpalasi , Yaman).
(b) Incorrect: Night ragas include Malkauns , Darbari, and Bhairavi.
(d) Incorrect: Midnight ragas are a separate classification.
Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q37. Regarding the Kathakali dance form, which of the following statements is correct?

  1. (a) The faces are primarily painted in colours that match their stories, such as green for Royalty, Divinity and Virtue .
  2. (b) It is distinguished by two styles: the northern thekkan and the southern vadakkan .
  3. (c) The dance is known for its wild steps and gentle upper-body movements.
  4. (d) The dancers utilise raw expressions, body movements, and shoulder gestures to convey emotion.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) The faces are primarily painted in colours that match their stories, such as green for Royalty, Divinity and Virtue .

The correct statement regarding the Kathakali dance form is:
"The faces are primarily painted in colours that match their stories, such as green for Royalty, Divinity and Virtue."
Quick Breakdown:
Color Coding ( Vesham ):ThePacha (Green)makeup is specifically reserved fornoble, divine, and virtuouscharacters. Other colors like red, black, and yellow represent different character temperaments (demonic, forest-dwelling, or spiritual).
Why others are incorrect:
Styles:Kathakali is divided intoKalluvazhiandThekkanstyles, not " thekkan and vadakkan ." (Note:Vadakkantranslates to northern, but it is not the standard classification for Kathakali schools).
Movement:Kathakali is renowned for itshighly disciplined, intricate footworkand complex, codifiedmudras(hand gestures) and facial expressions—not "wild steps."
Expression:It does not use "raw" expressions; rather, it uses ahighly sophisticated, stylized, and codified systemofNavarasas(nine emotions) expressed through the eyes, eyebrows, and facial muscles.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q38. Which theme is highlighted in "Fire Bird," the winner of the JCB Prize for Literature 2023, published by Penguin Random House India?

  1. (a) Meteorological science
  2. (b) Rural displacement and land loss
  3. (c) Genetic modification
  4. (d) Indo-Persian architecture
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Rural displacement and land loss

'Fire Bird' by Perumal Murugan (translated by N. Kalyan Raman), published by Penguin Random House India, won the JCB Prize for Literature 2023. The novel highlights themes of rural displacement, land loss, and caste-based oppression in rural Tamil Nadu, following the story of a young man navigating social hierarchies.
(a) Incorrect: Meteorological science is not the theme of the novel.
(c) Incorrect: Genetic modification is not related to the novel's theme.
(d) Incorrect: Indo-Persian architecture is not a theme in this novel.

Geography (7)

Universe and Solar System · Planets and their features

Q39. Which of the following is the primary reason for Mars' reddish color?

  1. (a) Iron oxide on the surface
  2. (b) High carbon dioxide atmosphere
  3. (c) Water ice presence
  4. (d) Sulfur compounds
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Iron oxide on the surface

Mars appears reddish-orange because its surface soil and rocks contain large amounts of iron oxide (rust / ferric oxide, Fe2O3), which gives it the characteristic red color. That is why Mars is also called the 'Red Planet.'
(b) Incorrect: CO2 atmosphere is colorless and does not cause redness.
(c) Incorrect: Water ice is present at the poles but does not cause the overall reddish hue.
(d) Incorrect: Sulfur compounds are a major feature on planets like Venus, not the cause of Mars' color.
India - Transport and Communication · Inland waterways

Q40. 'National Waterway 1' (NW-1), India's longest waterway, is on which river?

  1. (a) Brahmaputra
  2. (b) Godavari
  3. (c) Ganga
  4. (d) Narmada
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ganga

National Waterway 1 (NW-1) runs along the Ganga river from Allahabad (Prayagraj) to Haldia, covering a length of approximately 1620 km. It is India's longest national waterway.
(a) Incorrect: Brahmaputra is designated as NW-2.
(b) Incorrect: Godavari is part of a different national waterway.
(d) Incorrect: Narmada is designated as NW-30.
India - Drainage System · Dams and river valley projects

Q41. Where is the 'Sardar Sarovar Dam', a major hydroelectric project, located?

  1. (a) Madhya Pradesh
  2. (b) Gujarat
  3. (c) Rajasthan
  4. (d) Maharashtra
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Gujarat

The Sardar Sarovar Dam is built on the Narmada River and is located in the state of Gujarat. It is one of India's largest dams, providing irrigation water and hydroelectric power to Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Rajasthan.
(a) Incorrect: While Madhya Pradesh also has Narmada dams (e.g., Indira Sagar Dam), the Sardar Sarovar Dam is in Gujarat.
(c) Incorrect: Rajasthan is a beneficiary of the project, not the location.
(d) Incorrect: Maharashtra is not the location of this dam.
India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Coastal plains

Q42. The southern part of the Eastern Coastal Plain, in Tamil Nadu, is known as the?

  1. (a) Konkan Coast
  2. (b) Northern Circars
  3. (c) Coromandel Coast
  4. (d) Malabar Coast
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Coromandel Coast

The southern part of the Eastern Coastal Plain that extends along Tamil Nadu is called the Coromandel Coast. It stretches from the Krishna delta in Andhra Pradesh to Cape Comorin (Kanyakumari) in Tamil Nadu.
(a) Incorrect: Konkan Coast is located on the western coastline of India (Maharashtra and Goa).
(b) Incorrect: Northern Circars refers to the northern part of Andhra Pradesh's coastal plain, not Tamil Nadu.
(d) Incorrect: Malabar Coast is the southern stretch of India's western coastline (Kerala).
India - Minerals, Energy and Industries · Industrial regions and cities

Q43. Which city in Uttar Pradesh is world-famous for its glass bangles industry?

  1. (a) Agra
  2. (b) Kanpur
  3. (c) Meerut
  4. (d) Firozabad
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Firozabad

Firozabad in Uttar Pradesh is known as the 'Glass City of India' and is world-famous for manufacturing glass bangles, glassware, and crystal products. It produces nearly 70% of India's glass bangles.
(a) Incorrect: Agra is known for the Taj Mahal, leather goods, and petha sweets.
(b) Incorrect: Kanpur is known for leather products and textiles.
(c) Incorrect: Meerut is known for sports goods and scissors.
India - Minerals, Energy and Industries · Industrial regions and cities

Q44. Which city in Punjab is a major industrial center, known for hosiery, knitwear, and bicycles?

  1. (a) Amritsar
  2. (b) Ludhiana
  3. (c) Jalandhar
  4. (d) Patiala
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ludhiana

Ludhiana is called the 'Manchester of India' and is Punjab's largest industrial city, famous for its hosiery, knitwear, woollen goods, bicycles, sewing machines, and auto parts. It accounts for a large share of India's bicycle and hosiery exports.
(a) Incorrect: Amritsar is known for textiles and the Golden Temple.
(c) Incorrect: Jalandhar is known for sports goods.
(d) Incorrect: Patiala is not specifically known for these industries.
India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Northern Plains

Q45. Which one of the following is identified as a characteristic feature of the Northern Plains that contributes to their very high population densities?

  1. (a) Hilly and rocky terrain
  2. (b) Moderate to low rainfall
  3. (c) Dissected terrain
  4. (d) Flat plains with fertile soils
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Flat plains with fertile soils

The Northern Plains are among the most densely populated regions in the world due to their flat, fertile alluvial land formed by the Indus, Ganga, and Brahmaputra river systems. This favourable terrain supports extensive agriculture, easy transportation, and dense settlements.
(a) Incorrect: Hilly and rocky terrain discourages dense habitation.
(b) Incorrect: Low rainfall reduces agricultural productivity and population support.
(c) Incorrect: Dissected terrain makes agriculture and movement difficult.

Polity (2)

Union Executive · President - powers (executive, legislative, veto, pardon, ordinance)

Q46. The ordinance-making power of the President is equivalent to —

  1. (a) Administrative Power of Cabinet
  2. (b) Judicial Power of the Supreme Court
  3. (c) Executive Power of the Prime Minister
  4. (d) Legislative Power of the Parliament
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Legislative Power of the Parliament

Under Article 123 of the Indian Constitution, the President can promulgate Ordinances when Parliament is not in session. An Ordinance has the same force and effect as an Act of Parliament. Therefore, the ordinance-making power is equivalent to the Legislative Power of Parliament.
(a) Incorrect: Administrative power is different from law-making power.
(b) Incorrect: Judicial power belongs to courts for interpreting laws.
(c) Incorrect: Executive power relates to implementation/administration, not lawmaking.
Polity Miscellaneous · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q47. How many sections are included in the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (2023)?

  1. (a) 120 sections
  2. (b) 170 sections
  3. (c) 200 sections
  4. (d) 250 sections
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 170 sections

The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA) 2023 replaced the Indian Evidence Act 1872. It contains 170 sections (compared to 167 sections in the original Indian Evidence Act). It is one of the three new criminal laws enacted in 2023.
(a) Incorrect: 120 sections is too few.
(c) Incorrect: 200 sections is an overcount.
(d) Incorrect: 250 sections is incorrect.

Medieval History (1)

Mughal Empire · Akbar - conquests and policies

Q48. The siege of Chittor in 1568 was a turning point in Akbar's Rajput campaign. Why was this siege significant for his expansion strategy?

  1. (a) It marked the first Mughal victory over Marathas.
  2. (b) It showed Akbar's policy of religious intolerance.
  3. (c) It broke Sisodia Rajput resistance and secured Chittor.
  4. (d) It led to the annexation of Gujarat into the empire.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It broke Sisodia Rajput resistance and secured Chittor.

Akbar's siege of Chittor (1568) was strategically significant because it broke the resistance of the Sisodia Rajputs (under Udai Singh II, who fled to the Aravalli hills) and secured control over the Rajput stronghold of Chittor. This opened the path for further Mughal expansion into Rajputana.
(a) Incorrect: The siege was against the Sisodia Rajputs , not the Marathas.
(b) Incorrect: Akbar was generally known for religious tolerance (Sulh- i - kul /Din- i -Ilahi); the siege was a political-military decision.
(d) Incorrect: Gujarat was annexed in 1572, separately from the Chittor campaign.
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