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Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 24 December 2025 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 47 GK / GS questions asked in Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 on 24 December 2025 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Polity, Modern History, Economics, Geography, Static GK, Current Affairs.

📚 47 questions🗓️ 24 December 2025⏰ Shift 3
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Subjects: Polity (6) · Modern History (5) · Economics (4) · Geography (7) · Static GK (10) · Current Affairs (11) · Ancient History (3) · Medieval History (1)

Polity (6)

Union Executive · Council of Ministers and Cabinet

Q1. Under which constitutional provision is the principle of Collective Responsibility of the Council of Ministers to the Lok Sabha contained?

  1. (a) Article 73
  2. (b) Article 74(1)
  3. (c) Article 75(3)
  4. (d) Article 77
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Article 75(3)

The correct answer is Article 75(3) (Option 3).
Article 75(3) of the Indian Constitution states that the Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the House of the People (Lok Sabha). This principle of collective responsibility means that all ministers stand and fall together — if a no-confidence motion is passed against the government, all ministers must resign.
Option 1 - Article 73: Article 73 defines the extent of executive power of the Union; it does not deal with collective responsibility.
Option 2 - Article 74(1): Article 74(1) states there shall be a Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President; it does not mention collective responsibility.
Option 4 - Article 77: Article 77 deals with conduct of business of the Government of India; it has no connection with collective responsibility.
Polity Miscellaneous · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q2. Which law has replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC) of 1973 in India?

  1. (a) The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)
  2. (b) The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)
  3. (c) The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA)
  4. (d) The Uniform Civil Code (UCC)
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)

The correct answer is The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS) (Option 2).
The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973. It came into effect on July 1, 2024. BNSS governs the procedural aspects of criminal law in India, including arrest, bail, trial procedures, and investigation.
Option 1 - Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS): The BNS replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, not the CrPC.
Option 3 - Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA): The BSA replaced the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, not the CrPC.
Option 4 - Uniform Civil Code (UCC): The UCC is a proposed civil code relating to personal laws; it has not replaced the CrPC.
Polity Miscellaneous · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q3. In December 2023, the Bharatiya Nyaya (Second) Sanhita removed the offence of sedition and replaced it with a new offence relating to which of the following acts?

  1. (a) Acts disturbing communal harmony
  2. (b) Acts endangering the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
  3. (c) Acts affecting administrative efficiency
  4. (d) Acts causing economic loss to the government
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Acts endangering the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India

The correct answer is Acts endangering the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India (Option 2).
The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 abolished the colonial-era sedition law (Section 124A IPC) and replaced it with Section 152, which criminalises acts that endanger the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India. This includes inciting secession, armed rebellion, or subversive activities against the state.
Option 1 - Acts disturbing communal harmony: While communal harmony is important, the replacement for sedition specifically targets sovereignty and integrity of India, not merely communal disturbance.
Option 3 - Acts affecting administrative efficiency: This is not a category covered by the replacement provision for sedition in the BNS.
Option 4 - Acts causing economic loss to the government: Economic loss is not the focus of the sedition replacement; the BNS Section 152 focuses on sovereignty and national integrity.
Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies · Finance Commission

Q4. Which of the following is the Article of the Indian Constitution that provides for the establishment of a Finance Commission?

  1. (a) Article 280
  2. (b) Article 275
  3. (c) Article 350
  4. (d) Article 350A
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 280

The correct answer is Article 280 (Option 1).
Article 280 of the Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a Finance Commission. The President constitutes a Finance Commission every five years (or earlier) to recommend the distribution of tax revenues between the Centre and states, and among states. The 16th Finance Commission is currently constituted.
Option 2 - Article 275: Article 275 deals with grants-in-aid from the Centre to states; it does not establish the Finance Commission.
Option 3 - Article 350: Article 350 deals with the right to submit representations in any language; it has no connection to the Finance Commission.
Option 4 - Article 350A: Article 350A deals with facilities for instruction in mother-tongue at the primary stage; it is completely unrelated to the Finance Commission.
Judiciary · High Courts

Q5. Which constitutional provision allows Punjab, Haryana & Chandigarh to have a joint High Court?

  1. (a) Article 231
  2. (b) Article 232
  3. (c) Article 233
  4. (d) Article 235
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 231

The correct answer is Article 231 (Option 1).
Article 231 of the Indian Constitution provides for the establishment of a common High Court for two or more states. Under this provision, the Punjab and Haryana High Court serves both the state of Punjab, the state of Haryana, and the Union Territory of Chandigarh — making it a joint High Court under Article 231.
Option 2 - Article 232: Article 232 was a transitional provision about existing High Courts; it is not the provision enabling joint High Courts.
Option 3 - Article 233: Article 233 deals with the appointment of district judges; it does not deal with joint High Courts.
Option 4 - Article 235: Article 235 deals with control over subordinate courts by High Courts; it is not related to establishing joint High Courts.
Special Provisions, Official Language and Miscellaneous Provisions · Special provisions for states (Article 371 series)

Q6. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides special provisions for Nagaland regarding religious or social practices, customary law, and land & resources?

  1. (a) Article 371A
  2. (b) Article 371B
  3. (c) Article 371C
  4. (d) Article 370
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 371A

The correct answer is Article 371A (Option 1).
Article 371A provides special provisions for the state of Nagaland. It protects Naga customary law and procedure, administration of civil and criminal justice involving decisions according to Naga customary law, ownership and transfer of land and its resources, and religious or social practices of the Nagas from any Act of Parliament without a resolution by the Nagaland Legislative Assembly.
Option 2 - Article 371B: Article 371B provides special provisions for Assam, including a committee of Assembly members from the Tribal Areas.
Option 3 - Article 371C: Article 371C provides special provisions for Manipur, relating to the Hill Areas Committee of the Legislative Assembly.
Option 4 - Article 370: Article 370 previously provided special status to Jammu & Kashmir; it was abrogated in August 2019. It did not deal with Nagaland's provisions.

Modern History (5)

British Administration and Policies · Press acts and other laws

Q7. Which case is recognized as the first sedition case in India under Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code (IPC)?

  1. (a) Queen Empress vs. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
  2. (b) Queen Empress vs. Mahatma Gandhi
  3. (c) Queen Empress vs. Jogendra Chunder Bose
  4. (d) Queen Empress vs. Lala Lajpat Rai
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Queen Empress vs. Jogendra Chunder Bose

The correct answer is Queen Empress vs. Jogendra Chunder Bose (Option 3).
The first case filed under Section 124A of the IPC (sedition) was in 1891 against Jogendra Chunder Bose, editor of the Bangabasi newspaper, for an article criticising the Age of Consent Bill. This is recognized as the first sedition case under the IPC in India.
Option 1 - Bal Gangadhar Tilak: Tilak was tried for sedition in 1897 and 1908 for articles in his newspaper Kesari — these were important cases but not the first.
Option 2 - Mahatma Gandhi: Gandhi was tried for sedition in 1922 for articles in Young India; this was not the first sedition case.
Option 4 - Lala Lajpat Rai: Lala Lajpat Rai faced restrictions and deportation but is not the subject of the first sedition case under Section 124A.
Swadeshi, Revolutionaries and Home Rule · Early revolutionary activities

Q8. Which popular Bengali song, written by poet Pitambar Das, immortalized Khudiram Bose's sacrifice?

  1. (a) Ek Baar Bidaye De Ma
  2. (b) Amar Shaheed Khudiram
  3. (c) Desher Mati Amar Mati
  4. (d) Maa Go Tomar Chokher Jol
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Ek Baar Bidaye De Ma

The correct answer is Ek Baar Bidaye De Ma (Option 1).
'Ek Baar Bidaye De Ma' ( একবার বিদায় দে মা ) is a famous Bengali patriotic song written by poet Pitambar Das that immortalized the sacrifice of Khudiram Bose, one of the youngest revolutionaries hanged by the British in 1908. The song became enormously popular after Khudiram's execution and became a symbol of patriotic sacrifice.
Option 2 - Amar Shaheed Khudiram: This is not the specific Pitambar Das composition that immortalised Khudiram's sacrifice.
Option 3 - Desher Mati Amar Mati: This is a different patriotic Bengali song; it is not the Pitambar Das song specifically associated with Khudiram Bose.
Option 4 - Maa Go Tomar Chokher Jol: This is not the famous Pitambar Das poem that immortalized Khudiram Bose's sacrifice.
Swadeshi, Revolutionaries and Home Rule · Chittagong Armoury Raid and other revolutionaries

Q9. Surya Sen, an Indian revolutionary popularly known as Master Da, was born in which place?

  1. (a) Noapara, Chittagong
  2. (b) Dhaka, Bengal Presidency
  3. (c) Barisal, East Bengal
  4. (d) Silchar , Assam
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Noapara, Chittagong

The correct answer is Noapara, Chittagong (Option 1).
Surya Sen, popularly known as 'Master Da,' was born in 1894 in Noapara village in Chittagong (now in Bangladesh). He was a schoolteacher who became one of Bengal's most prominent revolutionary leaders. He organized and led the famous Chittagong Armoury Raid of April 18, 1930 and was executed by the British in 1934.
Option 2 - Dhaka, Bengal Presidency: Surya Sen was not born in Dhaka; he was born in Noapara , Chittagong.
Option 3 - Barisal, East Bengal: Barisal is not the birthplace of Surya Sen.
Option 4 - Silchar , Assam: Silchar , Assam is not associated with Surya Sen's birthplace.
Swadeshi, Revolutionaries and Home Rule · Chittagong Armoury Raid and other revolutionaries

Q10. Who led the Chittagong Armoury Raid on 18 April 1930?

  1. (a) Bhagat Singh
  2. (b) Surya Sen
  3. (c) Ganesh Ghosh
  4. (d) Pritilata Wadedar
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Surya Sen

The correct answer is Surya Sen (Option 2).
Surya Sen (Master Da) led the Chittagong Armoury Raid on April 18, 1930. He commanded a group of revolutionaries who raided the police armoury and auxiliary force armoury in Chittagong, cut telegraph wires, and declared a provisional revolutionary government. The raid was a bold challenge to British colonial rule in Bengal.
Option 1 - Bhagat Singh: Bhagat Singh was involved in the Lahore Conspiracy Case and the bombing of the Central Legislative Assembly; he was not associated with the Chittagong raid.
Option 3 - Ganesh Ghosh: Ganesh Ghosh was one of Surya Sen's key associates who led the police armoury attack but was not the overall commander of the raid.
Option 4 - Pritilata Wadedar : Pritilata Wadedar was a courageous female revolutionary associated with Surya Sen who later led an attack on the Pahartali European Club; she did not lead the Armoury Raid.
British Administration and Policies · Constitutional Acts under British rule

Q11. What was a significant feature of the Government of India Act 1935 regarding civil services?

  1. (a) It introduced complete independence for civil servants.
  2. (b) It allowed civil servants to be dismissed by any government official.
  3. (c) It provided protection of civil servants' rights and privileges.
  4. (d) It ended all civil services in India.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It provided protection of civil servants' rights and privileges.

The correct answer is It provided protection of civil servants' rights and privileges (Option 3).
The Government of India Act 1935 introduced provisions protecting the rights and privileges of civil servants in British India. It guaranteed security of tenure, conditions of service, and remuneration for members of the civil services, ensuring they could not be dismissed or had their service conditions adversely changed without proper procedure.
Option 1 - Complete independence for civil servants: The Act did not grant complete independence; civil servants still operated under the authority of the Crown and the Act's framework.
Option 2 - Dismissed by any government official: The Act actually protected civil servants FROM arbitrary dismissal; it did not enable dismissal by just any official.
Option 4 - Ended all civil services: The Government of India Act 1935 did not abolish civil services; it restructured and protected them as part of establishing provincial autonomy.

Economics (4)

Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · FRBM Act and fiscal policy

Q12. Which of the following is NOT part of fiscal policy?

  1. (a) Tax rates
  2. (b) Open market operations
  3. (c) Subsidies
  4. (d) Government spending
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Open market operations

The correct answer is Open market operations (Option 2).
Fiscal policy involves government decisions on taxation, subsidies, and public expenditure to influence the economy. Open market operations (buying and selling of government securities by the central bank to control money supply) is a monetary policy tool used by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), not fiscal policy.
Option 1 - Tax rates: Tax rates are a core fiscal policy instrument — changes in tax rates directly affect government revenue and consumer spending.
Option 3 - Subsidies: Subsidies are government expenditures that reduce the cost of goods or services for consumers; they are part of fiscal policy.
Option 4 - Government spending: Government spending on infrastructure, welfare, and public services is a primary fiscal policy tool for stimulating economic activity.
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q13. What is one of the main reasons for the slowdown in industrial growth in India after 1991?

  1. (a) Increasing demand for industrial products
  2. (b) Reduced industrial product demand from cheaper imports.
  3. (c) Increased domestic investment in infrastructure
  4. (d) Improved power supply and infrastructure
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Reduced industrial product demand from cheaper imports.

The correct answer is Reduced industrial product demand from cheaper imports (Option 2).
After the 1991 liberalisation , India opened its markets to foreign competition. Cheaper imported goods flooded the domestic market, reducing demand for domestically produced industrial goods. Many industries (especially labour-intensive ones) faced intense competition from cheaper Chinese and other imports, slowing industrial growth.
Option 1 - Increasing demand for industrial products: The period post-1991 saw stagnating domestic demand for some industrial goods due to import competition; increasing demand is the opposite of what caused slowdown.
Option 3 - Increased domestic investment in infrastructure: Infrastructure investment would support industrial growth, not cause slowdown.
Option 4 - Improved power supply and infrastructure: Improved infrastructure generally helps industrial growth rather than slowing it.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q14. Fill in the blank: _______ is known as the architect of Indian planning.

  1. (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
  2. (b) B.R. Ambedkar
  3. (c) C. Subramaniam
  4. (d) Mahalanobis
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Mahalanobis

The correct answer is Mahalanobis (Option 4).
P.C. Mahalanobis (Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis) is known as the architect of Indian economic planning. He was a statistician and economist who designed the Second Five-Year Plan (1956-61), which emphasised heavy industrialisation as the core strategy for economic development. He founded the Indian Statistical Institute (ISI) and developed the Mahalanobis model.
Option 1 - Jawaharlal Nehru: Nehru was the political driver of Indian planning and chaired the Planning Commission, but Mahalanobis is specifically called the 'architect' of the planning model.
Option 2 - B.R. Ambedkar: Ambedkar is known as the architect of the Indian Constitution, not of Indian economic planning.
Option 3 - C. Subramaniam: C. Subramaniam was an important agriculture minister who led the Green Revolution; he is not specifically associated with being the architect of Indian planning.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q15. What were the key reasons for the failure of the Third Five-Year Plan (1961-66)?

  1. (a) Overinvestment in heavy industries
  2. (b) Chinese aggression, Indo-Pak war, and drought
  3. (c) Excessive government intervention
  4. (d) Lack of foreign investment
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Chinese aggression, Indo-Pak war, and drought

The correct answer is Chinese aggression, Indo-Pak war, and drought (Option 2).
The Third Five-Year Plan (1961-66) failed primarily due to three external shocks: (1) the Indo-China War of 1962, which diverted resources to defence ; (2) the Indo-Pakistan War of 1965, causing further economic disruption; and (3) two consecutive droughts (1965-66), severely affecting agricultural output and leading to food shortages. These crises caused India to seek emergency food aid under PL-480 from the US.
Option 1 - Overinvestment in heavy industries: While industrial focus was debated, overinvestment was not identified as the primary cause of the Third Plan's failure.
Option 3 - Excessive government intervention: Government intervention through planning was the norm; this was not cited as the primary reason for failure.
Option 4 - Lack of foreign investment: Foreign investment was not the primary model of the Third Plan; state investment and public sector were central.

Geography (7)

India - Transport and Communication · Expressways and corridors

Q16. What is the primary purpose of the Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways in India?

  1. (a) To enhance connectivity with neighboring countries through highways.
  2. (b) To reduce travel time and distance between major cities in India.
  3. (c) To improve road connectivity between rural areas and urban centers.
  4. (d) To enhance the efficiency of cargo transport across the country.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To reduce travel time and distance between major cities in India.

The correct answer is To reduce travel time and distance between major cities in India (Option 2).
The Golden Quadrilateral is India's largest highway project, connecting the four major metro cities — Delhi, Mumbai, Chennai, and Kolkata — forming a quadrilateral shape. Its primary purpose is to reduce travel time and distance between these major cities, facilitating faster movement of people and goods.
Option 1 - Connectivity with neighboring countries: The Golden Quadrilateral is a domestic highway project connecting Indian cities, not a cross-border connectivity initiative.
Option 3 - Rural-urban connectivity: Rural connectivity is addressed by schemes like Pradhan Mantri Gram Sadak Yojana; the Golden Quadrilateral focuses on inter-city urban connectivity.
Option 4 - Cargo transport efficiency: While cargo transport benefits from the Golden Quadrilateral, the primary purpose is connecting major metro cities, not specifically targeting cargo efficiency.
Universe and Solar System · Earth - shape, size and motions

Q17. How many seconds are there in 1 Solar day?

  1. (a) 86000 sec
  2. (b) 86400 sec
  3. (c) 3600 sec
  4. (d) 7200 sec
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 86400 sec

The correct answer is 86400 sec (Option 2).
One Solar day (mean solar day) = 24 hours = 24 × 60 minutes × 60 seconds = 24 × 3600 = 86,400 seconds. The solar day is the time it takes for the Earth to rotate once relative to the Sun.
Option 1 - 86000 sec: 86000 seconds is not a standard astronomical unit; it does not correspond to one solar day.
Option 3 - 3600 sec: 3600 seconds = 1 hour , which is 1/24th of a day, not a full solar day.
Option 4 - 7200 sec: 7200 seconds = 2 hours, which is 1/12th of a day, not a full solar day.
India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Seasons of India

Q18. Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
Statement 1: During the winter season, cold, dry winds blow from the Himalayas toward the oceans, carrying little moisture.
Statement 2: The cold weather season in India experiences uniformly high temperatures from north to south.

  1. (a) Only Statement 1 is Correct
  2. (b) Only Statement 2 is Correct
  3. (c) Both Statement 1 and 2 are Correct
  4. (d) Neither Statement 1 nor 2 is Correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only Statement 1 is Correct

The correct answer is Only Statement 1 is Correct (Option 1).
Statement 1 is correct: During winter, north-easterly trade winds blow from the Himalayan landmass towards the oceans. These winds are cold and dry because they originate from high pressure areas over the sub-continent and travel over land, carrying very little moisture.
Statement 2 is incorrect: During the cold weather season, there is a significant temperature gradient from north to south. Northern India (especially the Himalayan foothills) experiences very cold temperatures (near freezing), while peninsular India remains relatively warm. Temperatures are NOT uniformly high across the country.
Option 3 - Both correct: Wrong because Statement 2 is factually incorrect about uniform high temperatures.
Option 4 - Neither correct: Wrong because Statement 1 accurately describes the winter wind pattern.
India - Population and Census · Urbanisation and migration

Q19. Migration streams involving movement between states are collectively classified by what term in the dominant streams of the Census 2011 data?

  1. (a) International Migration
  2. (b) Intra-state Migration
  3. (c) Emigration Migration
  4. (d) Inter-state Migration
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Inter-state Migration

The correct answer is Inter-state Migration (Option 4).
In the Census 2011 data, migration streams are classified based on origin and destination. Movement of people between different states within India is classified as Inter-state Migration. This is one of the dominant forms of migration in India, driven by economic opportunities, education, and employment.
Option 1 - International Migration: International migration refers to movement across national borders (to/from other countries), not between Indian states.
Option 2 - Intra-state Migration: Intra-state migration refers to movement within the same state (e.g., from rural to urban areas within one state).
Option 3 - Emigration Migration: Emigration refers to leaving one's own country to settle in another; this is not the term for inter-state migration within India.
Atmosphere and Climate · Climate change and global warming

Q20. The Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS) is a market mechanism for emission reduction. Which entity is designated as the Regulator for this scheme, responsible for regulatory oversight and enforcement?

  1. (a) Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE)
  2. (b) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change ( MoEFCC )
  3. (c) Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC)
  4. (d) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC)

The correct answer is Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC) (Option 3).
Under India's Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS), established under the Energy Conservation (Amendment) Act 2022, the Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC) serves as the regulatory authority responsible for oversight of carbon credit trading. CERC oversees the trading mechanism and ensures fair market practices in the Indian carbon market.
Option 1 - Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE): BEE functions as the administrator and technical body for the CCTS, setting performance norms and issuing carbon credit certificates, but CERC is the designated regulator for trading.
Option 2 - Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change ( MoEFCC ): MoEFCC handles environmental policy broadly but is not the designated regulator for the CCTS trading scheme.
Option 4 - Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI): SEBI regulates India's securities markets; it is not the designated regulator for the Carbon Credit Trading Scheme.
Environment and Protected Areas · Tiger reserves and Project Tiger

Q21. Apart from the upcoming Debrigarh Tiger Reserve and Simlipal National Park, which of the following is one of the major existing tiger reserves in the state of Odisha?

  1. (a) Bandhavgarh National Park
  2. (b) Ranthambore National Park
  3. (c) Satkosia Tiger Reserve
  4. (d) Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Satkosia Tiger Reserve

The correct answer is Satkosia Tiger Reserve (Option 3).
Satkosia Tiger Reserve is one of the major existing tiger reserves in Odisha, located along the Mahanadi river . It was declared a Tiger Reserve in 2007 and is also a wildlife sanctuary. Along with Simlipal and the upcoming Debrigarh Tiger Reserve, Satkosia is one of Odisha's key wildlife conservation areas.
Option 1 - Bandhavgarh National Park: Bandhavgarh is a famous tiger reserve located in Madhya Pradesh, not in Odisha.
Option 2 - Ranthambore National Park: Ranthambore is a major tiger reserve in Rajasthan, not in Odisha.
Option 4 - Periyar Wildlife Sanctuary: Periyar is a famous wildlife sanctuary and tiger reserve in Kerala, not in Odisha.
World Geography · World resources, industries and cities

Q22. Which BRICS country is the largest exporter of oil?

  1. (a) Brazil
  2. (b) Russia
  3. (c) India
  4. (d) South Africa
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Russia

The correct answer is Russia (Option 2).
Among BRICS countries (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa — and new members), Russia is by far the largest exporter of oil. Russia is one of the world's top three oil producers alongside the United States and Saudi Arabia. It exports oil to Europe, China, India, and other countries through pipelines and tankers.
Option 1 - Brazil: Brazil is a significant oil producer and a net exporter, but its export volumes are far lower than Russia's.
Option 3 - India: India is primarily a major oil importer, not an exporter; it imports about 85% of its crude oil requirements.
Option 4 - South Africa: South Africa has very limited oil production and is not a significant oil exporter.

Static GK (10)

Sports · Number of players and field dimensions

Q23. Which of the following statements about the dimensions of a hockey field is correct?

  1. (a) The field is 91.40 meters long and 55 meters wide.
  2. (b) The field is 100 meters long and 60 meters wide.
  3. (c) The field is 91.40 meters long and 60 meters wide.
  4. (d) The field is 100 meters long and 55 meters wide.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) The field is 91.40 meters long and 55 meters wide.

The correct answer is The field is 91.40 meters long and 55 meters wide (Option 1).
According to the international rules of field hockey (FIH), a standard hockey field is 91.40 meters (100 yards) long and 55 meters (60 yards) wide. The field is rectangular with clearly marked sidelines, backlines, and the D-shaped shooting circle.
Option 2 - 100m × 60m: The length of 100m overestimates (it is 91.40m) and the width of 60m is also incorrect (it is 55m).
Option 3 - 91.40m × 60m: While the length is correct, the width of 60m is incorrect; the standard width is 55m.
Option 4 - 100m × 55m: The width of 55m is correct, but the length of 100m is incorrect; the standard length is 91.40m.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q24. Fill in the blank: _______ is a festival observed with fasting by married women for their husbands' well-being, typically celebrated in the Hindu month of Kartik.

  1. (a) Karva Chauth
  2. (b) Holi
  3. (c) Maha Shivaratri
  4. (d) Pongal
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Karva Chauth

The correct answer is Karva Chauth (Option 1).
Karva Chauth is a Hindu festival primarily celebrated in North India during the month of Kartik (October/November). Married women observe a day-long fast from sunrise to moonrise, praying for the long life, prosperity, and well-being of their husbands. The fast is broken after sighting the moon.
Option 2 - Holi: Holi is the festival of colours celebrated on the full moon day of Phalgun; it is not specifically a fasting festival for married women for their husbands' well-being.
Option 3 - Maha Shivaratri: Maha Shivaratri involves fasting but is dedicated to Lord Shiva, not specifically to husbands' well-being.
Option 4 - Pongal: Pongal is a harvest festival from Tamil Nadu celebrated in January; it is not observed with fasting for husbands' well-being in the month of Kartik.
Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q25. Which traditional pose is a characteristic feature of Odissi dance?

  1. (a) Aramandi
  2. (b) Atimandala
  3. (c) Tribhanga
  4. (d) Sama Sthana
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Tribhanga

The correct answer is Tribhanga (Option 3).
The Tribhanga (three-body-bend) is the most iconic and characteristic posture of Odissi classical dance. In this stance, the body is deflected at three points — the head, torso, and pelvis — creating an S-shaped or triple-curved posture. This stance is also seen in ancient Odissi sculptures and reflects the sensuousness of the dance form.
Option 1 - Aramandi : Aramandi is a half-sitting posture used in Bharatanatyam and Kuchipudi; it is not the signature pose of Odissi.
Option 2 - Atimandala : Atimandala refers to a deep plié position used in various classical dance forms; it is not the defining characteristic of Odissi.
Option 4 - Sama Sthana : Sama Sthana is a standing position with equal weight on both feet; it is a neutral stance common across dance forms, not the defining feature of Odissi.
Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q26. Bharatanatyam is a dance form from which region, known for its geometric movements and strong footwork?

  1. (a) Kerala
  2. (b) Karnataka
  3. (c) Andhra Pradesh
  4. (d) Tamil Nadu
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Tamil Nadu

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu (Option 4).
Bharatanatyam is the classical dance form originating from Tamil Nadu, historically performed in Hindu temples. It is known for its geometric body postures, intricate footwork ( nritta ), expressive mime (abhinaya), and rhythmic precision. It evolved from the Sadir dance of the Devadasis in Tamil Nadu temples.
Option 1 - Kerala: Kerala is the birthplace of Kathakali (known for elaborate costumes and make-up) and Mohiniyattam , not Bharatanatyam.
Option 2 - Karnataka: Karnataka is associated with Yakshagana (a theatre-based dance form), not Bharatanatyam.
Option 3 - Andhra Pradesh: Andhra Pradesh is associated with Kuchipudi classical dance, not Bharatanatyam.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Tribal festivals

Q27. Which festival of the Ao Naga tribe serves as a time of recreation and joy after the hard work of clearing fields and sowing seeds?

  1. (a) Tsungrem Mong
  2. (b) Moatsu Mong
  3. (c) Hornbill
  4. (d) Tokhu Emone
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Moatsu Mong

The correct answer is Moatsu Mong (Option 2).
Moatsu Mong is an agricultural festival of the Ao Naga tribe of Nagaland, celebrated in May after the hard work of clearing jhum fields and sowing seeds. It is a time of communal rejoicing, feasting, singing, and dancing, celebrating the completion of the sowing season.
Option 1 - Tsungrem Mong : Tsungrem Mong is also an Ao Naga festival but is associated with a different occasion; it is not specifically the post-sowing celebration.
Option 3 - Hornbill: The Hornbill Festival is a state-level festival of Nagaland celebrated in December to promote inter-tribal cultural exchange; it is not specifically an Ao Naga post-sowing festival.
Option 4 - Tokhu Emone: Tokhu Emone is a post-harvest festival of the Ao Naga tribe celebrated in November after the harvest, not after sowing.
Books and Authors · International books and authors

Q28. Which of the following novels was written by László Krasznahorkai?

  1. (a) Spadework for a Palace
  2. (b) Flesh
  3. (c) The Promise
  4. (d) Demon Copperhead
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Spadework for a Palace

The correct answer is Spadework for a Palace (Option 1).
László Krasznahorkai is a Hungarian author who wrote 'Spadework for a Palace' (originally published in Hungarian as ' Herscht 07769'). He is known for complex, philosophical novels including ' Satantango ' and 'The Melancholy of Resistance.' He won the International Booker Prize and is considered one of the great writers of contemporary European literature.
Option 2 - Flesh: 'Flesh' is not a work by László Krasznahorkai; it is associated with other authors.
Option 3 - The Promise: 'The Promise' is a novel by South African author Damon Galgut, which won the Booker Prize in 2021; it was not written by Krasznahorkai .
Option 4 - Demon Copperhead: 'Demon Copperhead' was written by American author Barbara Kingsolver and won the Pulitzer Prize in 2023; it is not by Krasznahorkai .
Books and Authors · International books and authors

Q29. What is the key theme of 'The Years' by Annie Ernaux, which earned her the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2022?

  1. (a) Historical trauma and memory
  2. (b) Colonialism and diaspora
  3. (c) Gender identity struggles
  4. (d) Postmodern existentialism
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Historical trauma and memory

The correct answer is Historical trauma and memory (Option 1).
'The Years' (Les Années , 2008) by Annie Ernaux is a collective autobiography that traces French history and personal/collective memory from post-WWII to the early 21st century. The key theme is historical trauma, collective memory, and how both personal and societal memories are formed, preserved, and lost over time. It blends autobiography with social history.
Option 2 - Colonialism and diaspora: While Ernaux touches on social issues, 'The Years' is primarily about collective memory of France, not colonialism or diaspora narratives.
Option 3 - Gender identity struggles: While Ernaux's work broadly deals with class and gender, 'The Years' specifically centres on collective memory and historical experience, not gender identity.
Option 4 - Postmodern existentialism: 'The Years' is a sociological and autobiographical work, not primarily a philosophical exploration of existentialism.
Sports · Asian Games and Commonwealth Games

Q30. Which athlete won a bronze medal in 'Sailing - Men's Windsurfer - RS:X' at the 2023 Asian Games?

  1. (a) Eabad Ali
  2. (b) Vishnu Saravanan
  3. (c) Neha Thakur
  4. (d) Ashi Chouksey
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Eabad Ali

The correct answer is Eabad Ali (Option 1).
Eabad Ali, a Pakistani sailor, won the bronze medal in the Men's Windsurfer RS:X event at the 2023 Asian Games held in Hangzhou, China. He is one of Pakistan's prominent sailing athletes.
Option 2 - Vishnu Saravanan: Vishnu Saravanan is an Indian sailor who has represented India in sailing events including the 2020 Tokyo Olympics; he was not the bronze medallist in the Men's Windsurfer RS:X at the 2023 Asian Games.
Option 3 - Neha Thakur: Neha Thakur is an Indian sailor who competes in women's events; she was not the bronze medallist in the Men's Windsurfer RS:X category.
Option 4 - Ashi Chouksey: Ashi Chouksey is an Indian sailor competing in women's events; she was not involved in the Men's Windsurfer RS:X medal at the 2023 Asian Games.
Organisations and Headquarters · International organisations and headquarters

Q31. Which of the following best describes Transparency International's mission?

  1. (a) To reduce inequality and promote fairness in global economies.
  2. (b) To stop corruption and promote transparency, accountability, and integrity.
  3. (c) To regulate unethical business practices and enhance global trade.
  4. (d) To promote sustainable development and reduce global poverty.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To stop corruption and promote transparency, accountability, and integrity.

The correct answer is To stop corruption and promote transparency, accountability, and integrity (Option 2).
Transparency International (TI) is a global non-governmental organisation founded in 1993, headquartered in Berlin. Its core mission is to stop corruption worldwide and promote transparency, accountability, and integrity in governments, businesses, and civil society. It publishes the annual Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI).
Option 1 - Reduce inequality and promote fairness: Reducing inequality is more aligned with organisations like Oxfam or the UNDP; TI specifically focuses on anti-corruption.
Option 3 - Regulate unethical business practices: Business regulation is the domain of competition authorities and trade regulators; TI focuses on exposing and combating corruption.
Option 4 - Promote sustainable development and reduce global poverty: This mission aligns with organisations like the UNDP and World Bank; TI's focus is specifically on anti-corruption.
National Symbols, Firsts and Superlatives · First in India - persons

Q32. Who became the first woman to assume the position of Director General (DG) of the Central Industrial Security Force (CISF)?

  1. (a) Archana Ramasundaram
  2. (b) Nina Singh
  3. (c) Kiran Bedi
  4. (d) Rina Mitra
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Nina Singh

The correct answer is Nina Singh (Option 2).
Nina Singh became the first woman to serve as Director General (DG) of the Central Industrial Security Force (CISF). She is an IPS officer who made history by becoming the head of this central paramilitary force, which provides security to critical infrastructure including airports, nuclear installations, and government buildings.
Option 1 - Archana Ramasundaram : Archana Ramasundaram was the first woman to head the Narcotics Control Bureau (NCB) and also served in senior CRPF positions; she did not become the first woman DG of CISF.
Option 3 - Kiran Bedi: Kiran Bedi was India's first woman IPS officer and made many breakthroughs, but she did not become the first woman DG of CISF.
Option 4 - Rina Mitra: Rina Mitra is a senior IPS officer, but she was not the first woman DG of CISF.

Current Affairs (11)

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · New government schemes and missions

Q33. Which initiative started on 1 January 2025 to provide access to over 13,000 journals for more than 6,300 government academic and R&D institutions?

  1. (a) National Research Library Scheme
  2. (b) One Nation One Subscription
  3. (c) National Digital Library Plus
  4. (d) Open Access India Initiative
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) One Nation One Subscription

The correct answer is One Nation One Subscription (Option 2).
The 'One Nation One Subscription' (ONOS) initiative was launched on 1 January 2025. It provides researchers, students, and faculty at over 6,300 government-funded academic and R&D institutions access to more than 13,000 scientific journals from 30 major international publishers, through a centrally negotiated subscription paid by the Government of India.
Option 1 - National Research Library Scheme: This is not the initiative that was launched on 1 January 2025 for journal access to 6,300 institutions.
Option 3 - National Digital Library Plus: The National Digital Library of India exists as a digital repository but is not the initiative described in the question.
Option 4 - Open Access India Initiative: This is not the specific initiative launched on 1 January 2025 providing journal access to over 6,300 institutions.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q34. On 18th January 2025, the SVAMITVA Scheme marked a major milestone by distributing approximately how many property cards in one day?

  1. (a) 35 lakh
  2. (b) 50 lakh
  3. (c) 65 lakh
  4. (d) 80 lakh
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 65 lakh

The correct answer is 65 lakh (Option 3).
On 18th January 2025, the SVAMITVA (Survey of Villages and Mapping with Improvised Technology in Village Areas) Scheme achieved a landmark by distributing approximately 65 lakh property cards in a single day. This was part of a massive programme to provide property rights to rural households by mapping inhabited land in villages using drone technology.
Option 1 - 35 lakh: 35 lakh undercounts the number of property cards distributed on this milestone day.
Option 2 - 50 lakh: 50 lakh is also below the actual number of property cards distributed on 18 January 2025.
Option 4 - 80 lakh: 80 lakh overstates the number of property cards distributed on this particular day.
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q35. GSLV-F15 marks which number of flight for India's Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle?

  1. (a) 15th
  2. (b) 16th
  3. (c) 17th
  4. (d) 18th
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 17th

The correct answer is 17th (Option 3).
GSLV-F15 was the 17th overall flight of India's Geosynchronous Satellite Launch Vehicle (GSLV). It was launched in January 2025 carrying the NVS-02 navigation satellite for the NavIC constellation. Counting all GSLV flights including developmental (D1, D2, D3) and operational (F01-F15 series), F15 marked the 17th mission.
Option 1 - 15th: The 'F15' in the mission name refers to the 15th flight of the operational Mark-II version, but counting all GSLV flights (including developmental ones) makes it the 17th overall.
Option 2 - 16th: 16th is incorrect; GSLV-F15 was specifically the 17th GSLV flight.
Option 4 - 18th: 18th overcounts the total GSLV missions flown up to GSLV-F15.
Books, Obituaries and Days - Current · Books released

Q36. Rabih Alameddine's 2025 National Book Award-winning work titled 'The True True Story of Raja the Gullible (and His Mother)' focuses primarily on:

  1. (a) A dystopian future in Japan
  2. (b) A reclusive painter in Provence
  3. (c) Family bonds during conflict in Lebanon
  4. (d) A deep-sea cosmic expedition
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Family bonds during conflict in Lebanon

The correct answer is Family bonds during conflict in Lebanon (Option 3).
Rabih Alameddine's 2025 National Book Award-winning novel 'The True True Story of Raja the Gullible (and His Mother)' focuses on family bonds, relationships, and the complex emotional dynamics between mother and son during conflict in Lebanon. Alameddine, a Lebanese-American author, is known for works set against the backdrop of Lebanon and the Middle East.
Option 1 - A dystopian future in Japan: The novel is set in Lebanon and focuses on family dynamics, not a dystopian future in Japan.
Option 2 - A reclusive painter in Provence: The novel does not centre on a painter in France; it deals with Lebanese family life and conflict.
Option 4 - A deep-sea cosmic expedition: This describes a science fiction premise entirely unrelated to Alameddine's literary fiction about Lebanon and family.
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q37. In which event did Pranati Nayak secure a bronze medal at the FIG Antalya World Cup?

  1. (a) Women's 10 m platform
  2. (b) Women's Vault
  3. (c) Women's 3 m springboard
  4. (d) Women's Horizontal Bars
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Women's Vault

The correct answer is Women's Vault (Option 2).
Indian gymnast Pranati Nayak won a bronze medal in the Women's Vault event at the FIG (International Gymnastics Federation) Antalya World Cup. She is one of India's leading artistic gymnasts and has consistently performed well in vault competitions at international events.
Option 1 - Women's 10 m platform: The 10m platform is a diving event, not a gymnastics event; Pranati Nayak competes in artistic gymnastics.
Option 3 - Women's 3 m springboard: The 3m springboard is also a diving event; Pranati Nayak is a gymnast, not a diver.
Option 4 - Women's Horizontal Bars: Horizontal bars is a men's gymnastics apparatus; women compete on uneven bars, not horizontal bars.
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q38. Who finished first in the Women's Vault final at the FIG Antalya World Cup?

  1. (a) Pranati Nayak
  2. (b) Claire Pease
  3. (c) Jayla Hang
  4. (d) Dipa Karmakar
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Jayla Hang

The correct answer is Jayla Hang (Option 3).
Jayla Hang won first place (gold medal) in the Women's Vault final at the FIG Antalya World Cup. Pranati Nayak secured the bronze medal at the same event, while Jayla Hang topped the competition.
Option 1 - Pranati Nayak: Pranati Nayak won bronze in the Women's Vault at the FIG Antalya World Cup; she did not finish first.
Option 2 - Claire Pease: Claire Pease did not win the Women's Vault gold at the FIG Antalya World Cup.
Option 4 - Dipa Karmakar: Dipa Karmakar is a celebrated Indian gymnast known for competing in vault events including the 2016 Rio Olympics (finishing 4th), but she did not win the Women's Vault at the FIG Antalya World Cup.
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q39. Which country is ranked as the world's most peaceful according to the Global Peace Index (GPI) 2025?

  1. (a) Norway
  2. (b) Switzerland
  3. (c) Iceland
  4. (d) New Zealand
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Iceland

The correct answer is Iceland (Option 3).
Iceland has consistently topped the Global Peace Index (GPI) since the index began in 2008. According to the GPI 2025 (published by the Institute for Economics and Peace), Iceland remains the world's most peaceful country due to its extremely low crime rates, no military (only coast guard), political stability, and harmonious society.
Option 1 - Norway: Norway consistently ranks among the top peaceful countries but is ranked below Iceland in the GPI 2025.
Option 2 - Switzerland: Switzerland is known for its neutrality and stability but does not top the GPI 2025 ranking; Iceland holds the top position.
Option 4 - New Zealand: New Zealand frequently ranks in the top five most peaceful countries but Iceland holds the top position in the GPI 2025.
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q40. Which Indian athlete set a world youth record at the 2025 Asian Youth Games?

  1. (a) Ranjana Yadav
  2. (b) Khushi Singh
  3. (c) Priteesmita Bhoi
  4. (d) Anjali Kumari
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Priteesmita Bhoi

The correct answer is Priteesmita Bhoi (Option 3).
Priteesmita Bhoi, an Indian athlete, set a world youth record at the 2025 Asian Youth Games held in Manama, Bahrain, contributing to India's impressive overall medal tally at the Games.
Option 1 - Ranjana Yadav: Ranjana Yadav is an Indian athlete but was not the one who set the world youth record at the 2025 Asian Youth Games.
Option 2 - Khushi Singh: Khushi Singh is an Indian athlete who has competed in international events, but she was not identified as the world youth record-setter at the 2025 Asian Youth Games.
Option 4 - Anjali Kumari: Anjali Kumari is an Indian athlete, but she was not the world youth record-setter at the 2025 Asian Youth Games.
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q41. What was the duration of the 8th Elite Men's National Boxing Championship in 2025?

  1. (a) 1st January to 10th January 2025
  2. (b) 5th January to 12th January 2025
  3. (c) 6th January to 13th January 2025
  4. (d) 10th January to 17th January 2025
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 6th January to 13th January 2025

The correct answer is 6th January to 13th January 2025 (Option 3).
The 8th Elite Men's National Boxing Championship 2025 was held from 6th January to 13th January 2025. This national-level boxing competition brought together top boxers from across India to compete for national titles.
Option 1 - 1st to 10th January 2025: These are not the correct dates for the 8th Elite Men's National Boxing Championship 2025.
Option 2 - 5th to 12th January 2025: These dates do not match the championship's schedule.
Option 4 - 10th to 17th January 2025: These dates are incorrect for the 8th Elite Men's National Boxing Championship 2025.
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q42. Fill in the blank: Group Captain ________ is one of the selected astronaut-designates for the Gaganyaan mission and became the second Indian to travel to space since Rakesh Sharma in 1984, following his flight to the International Space Station (ISS).

  1. (a) Prashanth Nair
  2. (b) Shubhanshu Shukla
  3. (c) Angad Prathap
  4. (d) Sunita Williams
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Shubhanshu Shukla

The correct answer is Shubhanshu Shukla (Option 2).
Group Captain Shubhanshu Shukla, a selected astronaut-designate for ISRO's Gaganyaan human spaceflight mission, became the second Indian to travel to space when he flew to the International Space Station (ISS) in 2025 as part of the Axiom Space mission. This was the first time an Indian astronaut went to space since Wing Commander Rakesh Sharma in 1984.
Option 1 - Prashanth Nair: Group Captain Prashanth Nair is one of the four Gaganyaan astronaut-designates but did not fly to the ISS in 2025.
Option 3 - Angad Prathap: Group Captain Angad Prathap is also a Gaganyaan astronaut-designate but did not fly to the ISS in 2025.
Option 4 - Sunita Williams: Sunita Williams is an American astronaut of Indian origin; she is not an ISRO astronaut and is not a Group Captain in the Indian Air Force.
Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q43. Who was sworn in as the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India on 21st November 2024 by the Hon'ble President of India and assumed office the same day?

  1. (a) Shri Girish Chandra Murmu
  2. (b) Shri K. Sanjay Murthy
  3. (c) Shri Rajiv Mehrishi
  4. (d) Shri Vinod Rai
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Shri K. Sanjay Murthy

The correct answer is Shri K. Sanjay Murthy (Option 2).
Shri K. Sanjay Murthy was sworn in as the 15th Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India on 21st November 2024 by President Droupadi Murmu. He is a retired IAS officer of the Himachal Pradesh cadre (1989 batch) who succeeded Shri Girish Chandra Murmu.
Option 1 - Shri Girish Chandra Murmu: Shri Girish Chandra Murmu was the 14th CAG of India who served before Shri K. Sanjay Murthy; he was not sworn in on 21st November 2024.
Option 3 - Shri Rajiv Mehrishi : Shri Rajiv Mehrishi served as CAG from 2017 to 2020; he was not the one sworn in on 21st November 2024.
Option 4 - Shri Vinod Rai: Shri Vinod Rai served as CAG from 2008 to 2013 and is known for the 2G spectrum audit; he was not sworn in as CAG on 21st November 2024.

Ancient History (3)

Mauryan Empire · Mauryan art and architecture

Q44. Fill in the blank: The _______ statues are an essential example of the Mauryan period's craftsmanship, known for their monumental size and detailed human figures.

  1. (a) Yaksha
  2. (b) Buddha
  3. (c) Lion
  4. (d) Shiva
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Yaksha

The correct answer is Yaksha (Option 1).
Yaksha (male) and Yakshini (female) statues are among the finest examples of Mauryan sculpture, known for their monumental size, high polish (the characteristic Mauryan polish), and lifelike, voluptuous human figures. Famous examples include the Parkham Yaksha and the Didarganj Yakshini. They represent the transition from earlier folk art to sophisticated court art.
Option 2 - Buddha: Realistic Buddha images in sculpture developed primarily during the Gandhara and Mathura periods (Kushana era), not during the Mauryan period when Buddha was depicted symbolically (lotus, footprints, wheel).
Option 3 - Lion: While Mauryan lion capitals (like the Sarnath Lion Capital) are famous, they are not described as 'monumental size with detailed human figures.'
Option 4 - Shiva: Monumental Shiva sculpture did not characterise the Mauryan period; such sculptures became prominent in later periods.
Gupta Empire · Gupta rulers

Q45. What title did Chandragupta II take, which signifies his great power?

  1. (a) Rajaraja
  2. (b) Chakravarti
  3. (c) Vikramaditya
  4. (d) Samrat
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Vikramaditya

The correct answer is Vikramaditya (Option 3).
Chandragupta II of the Gupta dynasty took the title 'Vikramaditya' (Sun of Valour /Power), which signifies his greatness as a powerful king. Under his reign (375-415 CE), the Gupta Empire reached its zenith. He was known for his military conquests (defeating the Shakas) and patronage of arts and learning (the 'Nine Gems' at his court included Kalidasa).
Option 1 - Rajaraja: Rajaraja (King of Kings) was the title associated with Rajaraja Chola I of the Chola dynasty, not Chandragupta II.
Option 2 - Chakravarti: Chakravarti means 'wheel-turner' or universal ruler; while Gupta kings were powerful, Vikramaditya is the specific title associated with Chandragupta II.
Option 4 - Samrat: Samrat is a general term for emperor used by various rulers; Vikramaditya is the specific title most closely associated with Chandragupta II.
Indus Valley Civilisation · Artefacts and findings

Q46. Where have archaeologists found evidence of a ploughed field associated with Early Harappan levels?

  1. (a) Harappa
  2. (b) Kalibangan
  3. (c) Lothal
  4. (d) Mohenjo-Daro
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Kalibangan

The correct answer is Kalibangan (Option 2).
Kalibangan (in Rajasthan) is the site where archaeologists discovered the world's earliest evidence of a ploughed field, dating to the Early Harappan period (circa 2800 BCE). The ploughed furrow marks were found in a grid pattern, providing evidence of systematic agricultural practices in the pre-mature Harappan phase.
Option 1 - Harappa: Harappa (in modern Pakistan) is one of the major Mature Harappan sites but is not specifically associated with the discovery of an Early Harappan ploughed field.
Option 3 - Lothal: Lothal (in Gujarat) is known for its dockyard and bead-making industry; it is not the site of the earliest ploughed field evidence.
Option 4 - Mohenjo-Daro: Mohenjo-Daro (in Pakistan) is a major Mature Harappan city known for the Great Bath and urban planning; it is not associated with the earliest ploughed field evidence.

Medieval History (1)

Vijayanagara and Bahmani Kingdoms · Vijayanagara dynasties and rulers

Q47. Who founded the Vijayanagara kingdom?

  1. (a) Alauddin Hasan and Hasan Gangu
  2. (b) Harihara and Bukka
  3. (c) Krishnadevaraya and Achyuta Raya
  4. (d) Narasimha and Saluva Narasimha
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Harihara and Bukka

The correct answer is Harihara and Bukka (Option 2).
The Vijayanagara Empire was founded in 1336 CE by two brothers, Harihara I (Hakka) and Bukka Raya I. They were former officers of the Hoysala and Kakatiya kingdoms who established the empire on the banks of the Tungabhadra river . The Vijayanagara Empire became one of the greatest empires of medieval India, lasting until 1646 CE.
Option 1 - Alauddin Hasan and Hasan Gangu: These are associated with the Bahmani Sultanate, the rival kingdom to Vijayanagara , not its founders.
Option 3 - Krishnadevaraya and Achyuta Raya: Krishnadevaraya was the greatest ruler of Vijayanagara (r. 1509-29) and Achyuta Raya was his successor; neither founded the empire.
Option 4 - Narasimha and Saluva Narasimha: Saluva Narasimha founded the Saluva dynasty of Vijayanagara (third dynasty) in the late 15th century; he did not found the Vijayanagara Empire itself.
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