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RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 10 June 2025 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 41 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 on 10 June 2025 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Modern History, Current Affairs, Polity, Computer, Miscellaneous, Biology.

📚 41 questions🗓️ 10 June 2025⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Modern History (3) · Current Affairs (9) · Polity (5) · Computer (5) · Miscellaneous (1) · Biology (1) · Economics (5) · Chemistry (2) · Ancient History (2) · Medieval History (1) · Static GK (4) · Geography (3)

Modern History (3)

Revolt of 1857 · Centres and leaders

Q1. Who among the following was an old zamindar from Bihar who joined the rebel sepoys during the Revolt of 1857 and battled with the British for many months?

  1. (a) Ahmadullah Shah
  2. (b) Bakht Khan
  3. (c) Kunwar Singh
  4. (d) Tantia Tope
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Kunwar Singh

Advent of Europeans and British Expansion · English East India Company

Q2. Which of the following companies built Fort St George in Chennai in the 1640s and later established the Madras Presidency in 1684?

  1. (a) Portuguese East India Company
  2. (b) Genoese East India Company
  3. (c) British East India Company
  4. (d) Spanish East India Company
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) British East India Company

Peasant, Tribal and Civil Uprisings · Early civil and tribal revolts

Q3. Which of the following was NOT a tribal revolt?

  1. (a) Santhal Revolt
  2. (b) Tamar Revolts
  3. (c) Farazi Movement
  4. (d) Kherwar Movement
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Farazi Movement

Current Affairs (9)

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · New government schemes and missions

Q4. As of 28 March 2025, approximately how many farmer IDs have been generated under the Digital Agriculture Mission in India?

  1. (a) 4.10 crore
  2. (b) 3.50 crore
  3. (c) 4.85 crore
  4. (d) 1.25 crore
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 4.85 crore

Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q5. Who among the following won the gold medal in the compound mixed team event at the Archery World Cup 2025 Stage 1?

  1. (a) Jyothi Surekha Vennam and Rishabh Yadav
  2. (b) Jyothi Surekha Vennam and Abhishek Verma
  3. (c) Deepika Kumari and Atanu Das
  4. (d) Rishabh Yadav and Ankita Bhakat
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Jyothi Surekha Vennam and Rishabh Yadav

Economy, Banking and Business · RBI and banking updates

Q6. Which bank of India has been awarded the Digital Transformation Award 2025 for digital initiatives—Pravaah and Sarthi by Central Banking, London, United Kingdom?

  1. (a) State Bank of India
  2. (b) Bandhan Bank
  3. (c) Reserve Bank of India
  4. (d) Punjab National Bank
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Reserve Bank of India

International Affairs and Summits · Summits and conferences

Q7. Which city hosted the QS Higher Ed Summit: Middle East in April 2025?

  1. (a) Kuwait City, Kuwait
  2. (b) Riyadh, Saudi Arabia
  3. (c) Dubai, UAE
  4. (d) Doha, Qatar
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Kuwait City, Kuwait

Reports, Indices and Rankings · Reports and their publishers

Q8. How much of OECD sovereign debt is set to mature by 2027, according to the Global Debt Report 2025?

  1. (a) 45%
  2. (b) 65%
  3. (c) 50%
  4. (d) 55%
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 45%

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · New government schemes and missions

Q9. Which of the following statements about the National Mission on Natural Farming (NMNF), launched in 2024, is/are correct?
1. The total approved outlay of NMNF till 2025-26 is ₹1,000 crore.
2. The mission supports the establishment of Bio-input Resource Centres for providing Natural Farming inputs.

  1. (a) Neither 1 nor 2
  2. (b) Only 1
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Only 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Only 2

Awards and Honours - Current · International awards - current

Q10. In March 2025, who became the first Indian to receive the Ramsar Award for ‘Wetland Wise Use’?

  1. (a) Sunita Narain
  2. (b) Jayshree Vencatesan
  3. (c) Medha Patkar
  4. (d) Vandana Shiva
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Jayshree Vencatesan

Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space sector policy, industry and start-ups - current

Q11. What is the primary objective of the Shri S Ramakrishnan Centre of Excellence in Fluid and Thermal Science Research 2025, at IIT Madras?

  1. (a) To develop advanced propulsion systems for launch vehicles
  2. (b) To enhance India's capabilities in satellite navigation systems
  3. (c) To establish a research hub for space-related medical research
  4. (d) To tackle complex thermal challenges in space applications
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) To tackle complex thermal challenges in space applications

Awards and Honours - Current · International awards - current

Q12. Who won the 2024 Nobel Peace Prize for their significant contributions to global peace and disarmament efforts?

  1. (a) Al Gore
  2. (b) Nihon Hidankyo
  3. (c) Antonio Guterres
  4. (d) Greta Thunberg
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Nihon Hidankyo

Polity (5)

Union, Territory and Citizenship · Citizenship Act - acquisition and loss

Q13. Which principle of citizenship did India start following more strictly after the 2003 Amendment?

  1. (a) Universal citizenship
  2. (b) Jus sanguinis (by blood)
  3. (c) Dual citizenship
  4. (d) Jus soli (by birth)
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Jus sanguinis (by blood)

DPSP and Fundamental Duties · Socialistic principles

Q14. Which Article of the Constitution of India states about the directive for states to make provision for public assistance in cases of unemployment?

  1. (a) Article 39
  2. (b) Article 42
  3. (c) Article 41
  4. (d) Article 40
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Article 41

Local Government · 74th Amendment - urban local bodies

Q15. Which body primarily exercises the powers delegated through Article 243W of the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) Municipal Corporations
  2. (b) Panchayati Raj Institutions
  3. (c) State Legislature
  4. (d) Parliament of India
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Municipal Corporations

Local Government · Gram Sabha and three-tier structure

Q16. Which tier of the Panchayati Raj system in India is involved in governing the entire district?

  1. (a) Zila Parishad
  2. (b) Block Samiti
  3. (c) Gram Sabha
  4. (d) Village Panchayat
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Zila Parishad

Judiciary · Judicial review and judicial activism

Q17. Which of the following is a key reason for judicial review in India?

  1. (a) To ensure the supremacy of the Parliament
  2. (b) To protect the supremacy of the Constitution and fundamental rights
  3. (c) To allow the judiciary to make laws
  4. (d) To maintain federal balance between Centre and States
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To protect the supremacy of the Constitution and fundamental rights

Computer (5)

Computer Organisation and Hardware · CPU - ALU, CU and registers

Q18. Which of the following best encapsulates the fundamental difference between the von Neumann and Harvard architectures in computer systems?

  1. (a) The von Neumann architecture is primarily used in modern microcontrollers, while the Harvard architecture is prevalent in general-purpose computers.
  2. (b) The von Neumann architecture utilises separate address spaces for instructions and data, while the Harvard architecture uses a single address space.
  3. (c) The Harvard architecture allows simultaneous fetching of instructions and data, potentially improving performance, while the von Neumann architecture typically fetches them sequentially from the same memory space.
  4. (d) The Harvard architecture employs a more complex control unit compared to the von Neumann architecture.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The Harvard architecture allows simultaneous fetching of instructions and data, potentially improving performance, while the von Neumann architecture typically fetches them sequentially from the same memory space.

Q19. You have applied a specific character style to several instances of a product name throughout a lengthy MS Word document. If you need to change the font and color of all these instances, what is the most efficient method?

  1. (a) Using the 'Find and Replace' function with formatting options
  2. (b) Modifying the definition of the character style
  3. (c) Manually selecting each instance and applying the new formatting
  4. (d) Copying the formatting from one instance using the 'Format Painter' and applying it to others
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Modifying the definition of the character style

Q20. Which tab in MS Word 365 contains options to change page margins, orientation and size?

  1. (a) Home
  2. (b) Layout
  3. (c) Insert
  4. (d) Review
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Layout

Q21. Which of the following best describes the 'Gutter' margin in MS Word 2019?

  1. (a) A margin applied only to odd-numbered pages
  2. (b) The blank space on all four sides of the page
  3. (c) The space at the top of the page for a header
  4. (d) Extra space added for document binding
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Extra space added for document binding

Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Windows features and utilities

Q22. What happens if a user tries to rename a file to the same name as an existing file in the same folder?

  1. (a) Windows displays an error: "A file with this name already exists."
  2. (b) Windows merges the contents of both files.
  3. (c) Windows appends a number to the new filename (e.g., Document (2).txt).
  4. (d) The file extension is automatically changed.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Windows displays an error: "A file with this name already exists."

Miscellaneous (1)

General Miscellaneous · Non-GK items (reasoning or maths) - keep out of GK mocks

Q23. C is the third proportional of 44 and B. If B is the sum of the first three even natural numbers, then find the value of C.
(Round off your answer to two decimal places)

  1. (a) 1.98
  2. (b) 4.58
  3. (c) 3.27
  4. (d) 0.98
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 3.27

Biology (1)

Heredity and Evolution · Chromosomes, genes and DNA

Q24. Standard base pairing in DNA occurs due to which type of bonding?

  1. (a) Covalent bonding
  2. (b) Ionic bonding
  3. (c) Hydrogen bonding
  4. (d) Van Der Waals interactions
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Hydrogen bonding

Economics (5)

Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Poverty - measurement and committees

Q25. What was the poverty rate in India in 2019-21, according to the India National Multidimensional Poverty Index, 2023?

  1. (a) 14.96%
  2. (b) 16.23%
  3. (c) 22.67%
  4. (d) 24.58%
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 14.96%

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · National sample surveys (NFHS, PLFS, NSS) - findings

Q26. According to the 6ᵗʰ Annual Employment-Unemployment Survey conducted by the Labour Bureau, what was the employment rate for women with vocational training?

  1. (a) 36.2%
  2. (b) 41.1%
  3. (c) 52.6%
  4. (d) 46.3%
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 36.2%

Q27. In which year was the World Trade Organization, which has promoted globalisation across nations, established?

  1. (a) 1995
  2. (b) 1991
  3. (c) 2000
  4. (d) 2001
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1995

Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Deficits (fiscal, revenue, primary)

Q28. Effective Revenue Deficit was introduced in the government budgeting during which year?

  1. (a) 2003-04
  2. (b) 2015-16
  3. (c) 2011-12
  4. (d) 2008-09
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 2011-12

Agriculture and Food Security · Green Revolution and other agricultural revolutions

Q29. Which revolution in India is associated with the growth of the fishing industry?

  1. (a) Green Revolution
  2. (b) White Revolution
  3. (c) Blue Revolution
  4. (d) Yellow Revolution
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Blue Revolution

Chemistry (2)

Periodic Classification of Elements · Element facts (names, symbols, atomic numbers)

Q30. Which statement is correct with reference to Neptunium?

  1. (a) It is stable element.
  2. (b) It is non-reactive element.
  3. (c) It was known during Mendeleev’s time.
  4. (d) It is a naturally occurring element found in pitchblende.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) It is a naturally occurring element found in pitchblende.

Atoms, Molecules and Mole Concept · Numericals on mole concept

Q31. A compound has an empirical formula CH₂ and a molar mass of 56 g/mol. Its molecular formula is:

  1. (a) C₄H₈
  2. (b) CH₂
  3. (c) C₃H₆
  4. (d) C₂H₄
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) C₄H₈

Ancient History (2)

Indus Valley Civilisation · Artefacts and findings

Q32. A large number of terracotta toys were found at which site of the Indus Valley Civilization?

  1. (a) Rakhigarhi
  2. (b) Mohenjodaro
  3. (c) Kalibangan
  4. (d) Lothal
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Mohenjodaro

Mauryan Empire · Chandragupta Maurya

Q33. Chandragupta Maurya is said to have converted to:

  1. (a) Christianity
  2. (b) Jainism
  3. (c) Zoroastrianism
  4. (d) Buddhism
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Jainism

Medieval History (1)

Mughal Empire · Mughal architecture

Q34. Which of the following architectures has been built in the 'Charbagh' style?

  1. (a) Qutub Minar
  2. (b) Taj Mahal
  3. (c) Quwwat-ul-Islam mosque
  4. (d) Gumbaj of Bijapur
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Taj Mahal

Static GK (4)

Sports · Sports schemes and campaigns (Khelo India, Fit India)

Q35. In December 2024, which nationwide movement was launched to promote cycling as a sustainable and inclusive fitness activity?

  1. (a) Cycle for Bharat Campaign
  2. (b) Ride for Health India
  3. (c) Fit India Pedal Mission
  4. (d) Fit India Sundays on Cycle
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Fit India Sundays on Cycle

Indian Railways · Railway Board and administration

Q36. What is the primary objective of the Railways (Amendment) Bill, 2024?

  1. (a) To privatise the Indian Railways
  2. (b) To merge the Indian Railway Board Act, 1905 into the Railways Act, 1989
  3. (c) To introduce high-speed bullet trains across India
  4. (d) To establish a new ministry for railway operations
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To merge the Indian Railway Board Act, 1905 into the Railways Act, 1989

Monuments and Heritage · Temples and religious places

Q37. What type of shrine is the Neeramankara Temple located in Nemam, Kerala, in India known to be?

  1. (a) Sarvatobhadra type
  2. (b) Sandhara type
  3. (c) Mandapa type
  4. (d) Nirandhara type
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Sandhara type

Q38. Which Indian state has the largest number of tribal communities classified under Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) as of December 2022?

  1. (a) Chhattisgarh
  2. (b) Jharkhand
  3. (c) Madhya Pradesh
  4. (d) Odisha
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Odisha

Geography (3)

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Peninsular plateau and hills

Q39. Which region is NOT part of the outer boundary of the Peninsular Plateau?

  1. (a) Delhi Ridge
  2. (b) Himalayas
  3. (c) Rajmahal Hills
  4. (d) Gir Range
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Himalayas

India - Population and Census · Demographic concepts and transition

Q40. In the context of India’s population distribution, the term physiological density refers to population per _____.

  1. (a) household
  2. (b) doctor
  3. (c) unit of arable land
  4. (d) hospital bed
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) unit of arable land

India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Forest types and distribution

Q41. Which tree is commonly found throughout the plains of the Thar Desert?

  1. (a) Neem
  2. (b) Teak
  3. (c) Sal
  4. (d) Khejri
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Khejri

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