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RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 17 March 2026 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 41 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 on 17 March 2026 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Computer, Geography, Polity, Modern History, Medieval History, Current Affairs.

📚 41 questions🗓️ 17 March 2026⏰ Shift 1
हिंदी में पढ़ें📥 Full paper PDF
Subjects: Computer (4) · Geography (6) · Polity (6) · Modern History (3) · Medieval History (2) · Current Affairs (8) · Biology (1) · Economics (3) · Static GK (1) · Miscellaneous (1) · Physics (2) · Ancient History (3) · Chemistry (1)

Computer (4)

Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Operating system - functions and types

Q1. Which core component of Windows OS is responsible for handling low-level operations such as memory management and process scheduling?

  1. (a) Windows Kernel
  2. (b) Service Control Manager
  3. (c) Windows Explorer
  4. (d) Task Scheduler
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Windows Kernel

Windows Kernelis the core component that operates at the lowest level of the OS.
Key Functions:
• Memory management (RAM allocation, virtual memory)
• Process scheduling (CPU time allocation to processes)
• Hardware abstraction and device driver management
Other options:
Service Control Manager → manages Windows services
Windows Explorer → file management GUI
Task Scheduler → schedules automated tasks
Answer: Option 1 → Windows Kernel
MS Office and Productivity Tools · Keyboard shortcuts

Q2. A file is selected on the desktop. Pressing the Delete key will mainly:

  1. (a) Rename the file
  2. (b) Copy the file
  3. (c) Remove the file
  4. (d) Open the file
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Remove the file

When a file is selected on desktop:
Delete key moves file toRecycle Bin
File is removed from current location
Other keys:
F2 → Rename,
Ctrl+C → Copy,
Enter → Open
Answer: Option 3 → Remove the file
Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Types of software (system, application, utility)

Q3. Which of the following is an example of Customized Software?

  1. (a) Mozilla Firefox Application
  2. (b) Adobe Photoshop Software
  3. (c) School Management Software
  4. (d) LibreOffice Calc
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) School Management Software

Customized Software:Developed for specific user/organization needs
✓School Management Software→ Built for particular school requirements
Student records, fees, attendance, exams specific to that institution
✗ Mozilla Firefox → General purpose web browser
✗ Adobe Photoshop → Standard image editing tool
✗ LibreOffice Calc → Generic spreadsheet application
Answer: Option 3 → School Management Software
Computer Organisation and Hardware · Output devices

Q4. Under which of the following categories do headphones fall?

  1. (a) Output Device
  2. (b) Storage Device
  3. (c) Input Device
  4. (d) Calculator Device
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Output Device

Headphonesreceive audio signals from computer and convert them to sound waves for listening.
Theyoutputprocessed data (audio) from the system to the user.
Similar output devices: Speakers, Monitors, Printers
Answer: Option 1 → Output Device

Geography (6)

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Islands (Andaman & Nicobar, Lakshadweep)

Q5. Barren Island, which witnessed two eruptions in 2025, is situated in which Union Territory of India?

  1. (a) Dadra & Nagar Haveli and Daman & Diu
  2. (b) Lakshadweep
  3. (c) Puducherry
  4. (d) Andaman & Nicobar Islands
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Andaman & Nicobar Islands

Location: Andaman & Nicobar Islands (UT)
Key Facts:
• Only confirmed active volcano in South Asia
• Located in Andaman Sea, ~135 km NE of Port Blair
• Part of volcanic island arc chain
• Recent eruptions: 1991, 1995, 2005-09, 2017-18, 2025
Answer: Option 4 → Andaman & Nicobar Islands
Atmosphere and Climate · Climate classification and climatic regions

Q6. Which U.S. state experiences a Mediterranean climate that supports the cultivation of fruits, vegetables, and vineyards?

  1. (a) Alaska
  2. (b) Florida
  3. (c) Texas
  4. (d) California
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) California

Mediterranean Climate Characteristics:
Warm, dry summers and mild, wet winters
Key Facts:
California has Mediterranean climate zones
Ideal for grapes, citrus, olives, vegetables
Central Valley and coastal regions support agriculture
Other states: Alaska (cold), Florida (tropical),
Texas (varied but mostly hot/arid)
Answer: Option 4 → California
India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Neighbouring countries and border states

Q7. Which of the following States/Union Territories shares a border with Afghanistan?

  1. (a) Rajasthan
  2. (b) Ladakh
  3. (c) Jammu and Kashmir
  4. (d) Punjab
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ladakh

Afghanistan Border
India shares a 106 km border with Afghanistan through
theWakhan Corridorin Ladakh (UT).
This border exists in the eastern part of Ladakh,
touching Afghanistan's narrow Wakhan strip.
Answer: Option 2 → Ladakh
India - Population and Census · Census 2011 - population and growth

Q8. According to Census 2011, which of the following states showed a negative decadal population growth rate between 2001 and 2011?

  1. (a) Gujrat
  2. (b) Punjab
  3. (c) Kerela
  4. (d) Nagaland
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Nagaland

Negative Growth State: Nagaland
Nagaland showed-0.47%decadal growth rate.
It was the only state with negative population growth in Census 2011.
Other states had positive growth:
Gujarat: 19.17%, Punjab: 13.73%, Kerala: 4.86%
Answer: Option 4 → Nagaland
India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Coastal plains

Q9. Which name is given to the southern stretch of the western coastal plain of India?

  1. (a) Kannad Coast
  2. (b) Malabar coast
  3. (c) Coromandel Coast
  4. (d) Konkan Coast
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Malabar coast

Western Coastal Plain - Southern Stretch
The Western Coastal Plain is divided into three parts:
•Konkan Coast- Northern part (Goa to Daman)
•Kannad /Karnataka Coast- Middle part (Karnataka)
•Malabar Coast- Southern part (Kerala)
The Coromandel Coast lies on theEastern side(Tamil Nadu).
Answer: Option 2 → Malabar coast
Atmosphere and Climate · Temperature distribution and inversion

Q10. Which of the following factors causes Ooty to have cooler summers than Coimbatore, even though both are located at nearly the same latitude?

  1. (a) Coimbatore receives less solar radiation during the year
  2. (b) Ooty is located closer to the sea, while Coimbatore is inland
  3. (c) Ooty is influenced by cold desert winds from the north
  4. (d) Ooty is situated at a higher altitude, leading to lower temperatures
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Ooty is situated at a higher altitude, leading to lower temperatures

Key Factor: Temperature decreases with increase in altitude
Rate: Approximately 6.5°C per 1000m (normal lapse rate)
Ooty: Located at ~2,240m altitude in Nilgiri Hills
Coimbatore: Located at ~400m altitude in plains
Higher altitude → Lower air pressure → Lower temperature
This explains cooler summers in Ooty despite same latitude .
Answer: Option 4 → Ooty is situated at a higher altitude, leading to lower temperatures .

Polity (6)

Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Financial relations

Q11. How do Centre-State financial relations impact the governance in India?

  1. (a) By providing states with unlimited financial resources
  2. (b) By eliminating the need for state budgets
  3. (c) Through mechanisms like the Finance Commission that allocate resources
  4. (d) By centralizing all tax revenues at the Centre
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Through mechanisms like the Finance Commission that allocate resources

Key Constitutional Provisions:
Article 280: Finance Commission set up every 5 years
Commission recommends tax sharing between Centre & States
Financial Mechanisms:
Finance Commission allocates central tax revenues to states
GST Council manages indirect tax coordination
Grants-in-aid under Article 275 for revenue deficit states
Impact on Governance:
Ensures fiscal federalism and resource distribution
States have autonomy but within constitutional framework
Answer: Option 3 → Through mechanisms like the Finance Commission that allocate resources
Union, Territory and Citizenship · Citizenship Act - acquisition and loss

Q12. Under the Citizenship Act, 1955, which section governs the grant of citizenship when a new territory becomes part of India?

  1. (a) Section 6
  2. (b) Section 5
  3. (c) Section 7
  4. (d) Section 9
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Section 7

Section 7: Rights of citizenship of certain persons who have migrated to India from Pakistan
Key provisions related to territorial changes:
• Section 5: Citizenship by registration
• Section 6: Citizenship by naturalization
•Section 7: Citizenship rights when territory becomes part of India
• Section 9: Persons voluntarily acquiring citizenship of a foreign country
Section 7 specifically deals with citizenship rights when new territories are integrated into India.
Answer: Option 3 → Section 7
State Government · Special arrangements (Delhi, Puducherry, J&K)

Q13. As per Article ___________ of the Indian Constitution, from the date of commencement of the Constitution (Sixty-ninth Amendment) Act, 1991, the Union territory of Delhi shall be called the National Capital Territory of Delhi.

  1. (a) 239AB
  2. (b) 239AA
  3. (c) 239AD
  4. (d) 239AC
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 239AA

TheConstitution (Sixty-ninth Amendment) Act, 1991inserted Article 239AA.
Article 239AA provides special provisions with respect to Delhi.
It renamed the Union Territory of Delhi asNational Capital Territory of Delhi.
This article also provides for a Legislative Assembly and Council of Ministers for Delhi.
Answer: Option 2 → 239AA
DPSP and Fundamental Duties · Socialistic principles

Q14. Which of the following objectives is mentioned in Article 39 of the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) To organise agriculture and animal husbandry
  2. (b) To organise village panchayats
  3. (c) To promote equal pay for equal work for both men and women
  4. (d) To ensure equal justice and provide free legal aid
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) To promote equal pay for equal work for both men and women

Article 39: Directive Principles of State Policy
Article 39 mentions principles for securing:
• Right to adequate livelihood (39a)
• Equal distribution of resources (39b)
•Equal pay for equal work for men and women (39d)
• Protection of children and youth (39e,f)
Other options belong to different articles:
Option 1 → Article 48 (Agriculture & Animal Husbandry)
Option 2 → Article 40 (Village Panchayats)
Option 4 → Article 39A (Free Legal Aid)
Answer: Option 3 → To promote equal pay for equal work for both men and women
Preamble, Features, Parts and Schedules · Preamble - amendment and judicial views

Q15. Which constitutional amendment to the Indian Constitution added the term 'Socialist' to the Preamble?

  1. (a) 42nd Amendment, 1976
  2. (b) 1st Amendment, 1951
  3. (c) 26th Amendment, 1971
  4. (d) 44th Amendment, 1978
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 42nd Amendment, 1976

42nd Amendment Act, 1976added three words to the Preamble:
1.Socialist
2.Secular
3.Integrity(added to 'unity')
Enacted during Emergency (1975-77) under Indira Gandhi government.
Called the 'Mini Constitution' due to extensive changes.
Answer: Option 1 → 42nd Amendment, 1976
Union Executive · Council of Ministers and Cabinet

Q16. Which of the following statements is true about the role of Cabinet Ministers in India?

  1. (a) They only assist other ministers in their duties.
  2. (b) They do not attend Cabinet meetings.
  3. (c) They head important ministries like Home, Defence , and Finance.
  4. (d) They are not involved in policy decisions.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) They head important ministries like Home, Defence , and Finance.

Topic:Cabinet Ministers in India
Key Facts:
Cabinet Ministers are senior-most ministers in the Council of Ministers.
They head important ministries like Home, Defence , Finance, External Affairs.
They attend Cabinet meetings and participate in major policy decisions.
They form the core decision-making body of the government.
Answer: Option 3 → They head important ministries like Home, Defence , and Finance.

Modern History (3)

Revolt of 1857 · Centres and leaders

Q17. Who was exiled to Rangoon after the First War of Independence in India?

  1. (a) Nana Sahib
  2. (b) Rani Lakshmibai
  3. (c) Ahmadullah Shah
  4. (d) Bahadur Shah Zafar
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Bahadur Shah Zafar

Bahadur Shah Zafarwas the last Mughal Emperor
He was proclaimed leader of the 1857 revolt in Delhi
After British recaptured Delhi, he was captured
Tried for treason and exiled toRangoon (Burma)in 1858
Died in exile in Rangoon in 1862
Answer: Option 4 → Bahadur Shah Zafar
Rise of Nationalism and Indian National Congress · Moderates - leaders and methods

Q18. Which of the following methods was characteristically adopted by the Moderates during the early phase of the Indian national movement?

  1. (a) Swadeshi Movement
  2. (b) Constitutional reforms
  3. (c) Promotion of Vedic education
  4. (d) Boycott of foreign goods and institutions
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Constitutional reforms

Moderates' Characteristic Methods:
- Constitutional and legal methods
- Petitions, prayers, and resolutions
- Faith in British justice and liberalism
- Gradual reforms through dialogue
Analysis of Options:
Swadeshi Movement & Boycott → Extremist methods (post-1905)
Promotion of Vedic education → Not a political method
Constitutional reforms → Core Moderate approach
Answer: Option 2 → Constitutional reforms
Personalities, Newspapers, Books and Slogans · Slogans and their authors

Q19. Which of the following principle was most emphasized by Bal Gangadhar Tilak during the Extremist Phase?

  1. (a) Swaraj as the birthright of every Indian
  2. (b) Complete armed revolution against the British
  3. (c) Support for communal representation
  4. (d) Exclusive focus on economic reforms
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Swaraj as the birthright of every Indian

Key Principle:
Tilak's famous slogan:"Swaraj is my birthright and I shall have it"
Extremist Ideology:
- Self-rule (Swaraj) through aggressive nationalism
- Mass mobilization using festivals (Ganapati, Shivaji)
- Boycott, Swadeshi, National Education
- Rejected armed revolution; favored passive resistance
Answer: Option 1 → Swaraj as the birthright of every Indian

Medieval History (2)

Early Medieval North India · Chronicles of the period (Rajatarangini, etc.)

Q20. Who is the author of the historical work ' Rajatarangini ', which records the history of Kashmir?

  1. (a) Bilhana
  2. (b) Kalidasa
  3. (c) Kalhana
  4. (d) Bana
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Kalhana

Rajatarangini= 'River of Kings'
Written byKalhanain 12th century CE (1148-1150 AD)
First historical chronicle of Kashmir in Sanskrit
Documents Kashmir rulers from earliest times to 1150 AD
Answer: Option 3 → Kalhana
Early Medieval North India · Tripartite struggle (Palas, Pratiharas, Rashtrakutas)

Q21. Which dynasty ruled over Kannauj during the Tripartite Struggle?

  1. (a) Chalukyas
  2. (b) Rashtrakutas
  3. (c) Gurjara-Pratiharas
  4. (d) Palas - Cholas
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Gurjara-Pratiharas

Three major powers fought for control of Kannauj:
1. Gurjara-Pratiharas (North India)
2. Palas (Eastern India)
3. Rashtrakutas (Deccan)
Gurjara-Pratiharas ultimately ruled Kannauj
Famous rulers: Nagabhata II, Mihira Bhoja
Kannauj was strategic capital of North India
Answer: Option 3 → Gurjara-Pratiharas

Current Affairs (8)

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · Policies, laws and bills

Q22. The revised methodology from 2025 for calculating G̲r̲e̲e̲n ̲ ̲ C̲r̲e̲d̲i̲t ̲ for tree plantation requires certain thresholds before a claim can be submitted. Which is the c̲o̲r̲r̲e̲c̲t ̲ ̲ e̲l̲i̲g̲i̲b̲i̲l̲i̲t̲y ̲ ̲ p̲a̲i̲r ̲?

  1. (a) 5 years of restoration + 60% canopy density
  2. (b) 7 years of restoration + 40% canopy density
  3. (c) 5 years of restoration + 40% canopy density
  4. (d) 3 years of restoration + 30% canopy density
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 5 years of restoration + 40% canopy density

The revised methodology for Green Credit requires:
•Minimum 5 years of restoration/maintenance
•Minimum 40% canopy densityachieved
These thresholds ensure sustainable afforestation
before credits can be claimed under the programme .
Answer: Option 3 → 5 years of restoration + 40% canopy density
Economy, Banking and Business · Budget and economic data - current

Q23. Why did the share of workers in the rural agriculture sector increase during July–September 2025?

  1. (a) Due to urban migration
  2. (b) Because of a decline in manufacturing jobs
  3. (c) Due to Kharif agricultural operations
  4. (d) Because of new government schemes
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Due to Kharif agricultural operations

Rural Agriculture Sector - July-September 2025
Period:July-September= Monsoon season in India
Agricultural Activity:Kharif cropssowing and cultivation
Kharif operations include paddy, maize, cotton, soybean planting
During monsoon, demand for agricultural labor increases significantly
This leads to higher rural workforce participation in agriculture
Answer: Option 3 → Due to Kharif agricultural operations
Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q24. Which mission, announced in August 2025, aims to provide India with a multi-layered indigenous air and missile defence system?

  1. (a) Integrated Air Defence Mission
  2. (b) Mission Sudarshan Chakra
  3. (c) Agni Defence Initiative
  4. (d) Mission Shakti
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Mission Sudarshan Chakra

Mission Sudarshan Chakraannounced in August 2025.
Objective: Multi-layered indigenous air and missile defence system for India.
Named after Lord Vishnu's divine discus symbolizing protection.
Answer: Option 2 → Mission Sudarshan Chakra
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q25. Which of the following athletes clinched the women’s 100m hurdles gold at the World Athletics Championships Tokyo 2025 on 15 September?

  1. (a) Grace Stark
  2. (b) Tobi Amusan
  3. (c) Ditaji Kambundji
  4. (d) Masai Russell
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ditaji Kambundji

Event: Women's 100m Hurdles Final
Date: 15 September 2025
Ditaji Kambundji(Switzerland) won the gold medal.
She defeated strong contenders including Tobi Amusan and Masai Russell.
Answer: Option 3 → Ditaji Kambundji
Economy, Banking and Business · Budget and economic data - current

Q26. By November 2025, non-fossil power accounted for what percentage of the total installed electricity capacity in India?

  1. (a) 40.2%
  2. (b) 51.5%
  3. (c) 60.0%
  4. (d) 45.8%
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 51.5%

Non-fossil power includes: Renewable energy (solar, wind, hydro, biomass) + Nuclear power.
By November 2025, India achieved a significant milestone in its clean energy transition.
Non-fossil power capacity crossed51.5%of total installed electricity capacity.
This reflects India's commitment to renewable energy targets and carbon reduction goals.
Answer: Option 2 → 51.5%
International Affairs and Summits · Bilateral agreements and visits

Q27. Which three countries formed the ACITI Partnership announced in November 2025?

  1. (a) Canada, USA, India
  2. (b) India, Australia, Canada
  3. (c) Australia, Japan, Canada
  4. (d) India, UK, Australia
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) India, Australia, Canada

ACITI = Australia-Canada-India Trilateral Initiative
Focus: Critical minerals, clean energy, technology cooperation
Three member countries: India, Australia, Canada
Answer: Option 2 → India, Australia, Canada
Books, Obituaries and Days - Current · Days and themes - current year

Q28. With reference to the 93rd anniversary celebrations of the Indian Air Force (IAF) in 2025, where was the main ceremonial parade held?

  1. (a) Guwahati
  2. (b) Bengaluru (HAL Complex)
  3. (c) Air Force Station Hindan, Ghaziabad
  4. (d) Delhi Cantonment
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Air Force Station Hindan, Ghaziabad

The Indian Air Force celebrated its 93rd anniversary on8 October 2025.
The main ceremonial parade was held atAir Force Station Hindan, Ghaziabad.
This station is one of the largest airbases of the IAF and regularly hosts the Air Force Day parade.
Answer: Option 3 → Air Force Station Hindan, Ghaziabad
International Affairs and Summits · International organisations - current

Q29. Which 2025 event by the United Nations highlights that member states continue to ratify a variety of multilateral treaties across human rights, the environment, penal law, and the law of the sea, among others?

  1. (a) UN Ocean Conference
  2. (b) Paris Climate Summit
  3. (c) 2025 Treaty Event
  4. (d) UN Biodiversity Summit
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 2025 Treaty Event

The UN organizes periodic Treaty Events where member states
gather to ratify or accede to multilateral treaties.
The2025 Treaty Eventfocuses on treaties covering:
• Human rights
• Environmental protection
• Penal law
• Law of the sea
This event encourages universal participation in UN treaties
and strengthens international legal frameworks.
Answer: Option 3 → 2025 Treaty Event

Biology (1)

Heredity and Evolution · Mendel's laws and experiments

Q30. Which law of Mendel explains the separation of alleles during gamete formation?

  1. (a) Law of Assortment
  2. (b) Law of Variation
  3. (c) Law of Dominance
  4. (d) Law of Segregation
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Law of Segregation

Mendel's Law of Segregation
This law states that paired alleles separate during gamete formation.
Each gamete receives only one allele from each pair.
During meiosis, homologous chromosomes separate.
Each gamete gets one allele randomly.
Answer: Option 4 → Law of Segregation

Economics (3)

Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · FRBM Act and fiscal policy

Q31. During recession, which type of Fiscal Policy should be used?

  1. (a) Expansionary Fiscal Policy
  2. (b) Neutral Fiscal Policy
  3. (c) Stable Fiscal Policy
  4. (d) Contractionary Fiscal Policy
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Expansionary Fiscal Policy

Recession = Low economic growth + High unemployment + Low demand
Expansionary Fiscal Policyis used to boost economy:
→ Increased government spending
→ Tax cuts to increase disposable income
→ Higher public investments
This stimulates demand, creates jobs, and revives growth.
Answer: Option 1 → Expansionary Fiscal Policy
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Housing, sanitation and rural development schemes

Q32. As of February 1, 2025, what percentage of rural households in India had been provided tap water connections under the Jal Jeevan Mission?

  1. (a) 84.15%
  2. (b) 79.74%
  3. (c) 69.34%
  4. (d) 92.67%
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 79.74%

Jal Jeevan Mission (JJM)
Launched: August 15, 2019
Objective: Provide Functional Household Tap Connections (FHTC) to every rural household by 2024
Progress as of February 1, 2025:
79.74% of rural households provided with tap water connections
Over 15.22 crore households covered under the scheme
Aim: 'Har Ghar Jal' (Water for Every Home)
Answer: Option 2 → 79.74%
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Financial inclusion schemes (PMJDY, PMJJBY, PMSBY, APY)

Q33. As of December 2025, under the Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana (PMJDY), eligible account holders can access an overdraft facility of up to:

  1. (a) ₹15,000
  2. (b) ₹8,000
  3. (c) ₹5,000
  4. (d) ₹10,000
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) ₹10,000

Pradhan Mantri Jan-Dhan Yojana (PMJDY)
Launched: August 28, 2014
Overdraft Facility (as of December 2025):
• Eligible account holders can availup to ₹10,000
• Initially started with ₹5,000 limit
• Enhanced to ₹10,000 to increase financial inclusion
Answer: Option 4 → ₹10,000

Static GK (1)

Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Fairs and melas

Q34. Which North Indian fair, held every 12 years, is a major Hindu pilgrimage event at Prayagraj?

  1. (a) Pushkar Mela
  2. (b) Surajkund Mela
  3. (c) Kumbh Mela
  4. (d) Hemis Festival
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Kumbh Mela

Kumbh Melais held every 12 years at Prayagraj (Allahabad).
It is the largest religious gathering in the world.
Held at four locations: Prayagraj, Haridwar, Ujjain, Nashik.
Other options: Pushkar (Rajasthan), Surajkund (crafts fair), Hemis (Ladakh Buddhist festival).
Answer: Option 3 → Kumbh Mela

Miscellaneous (1)

General Miscellaneous · Non-GK items (reasoning or maths) - keep out of GK mocks

Q35. In this question, a question is followed by two statements numbered (I) and (II). You have to decide whether the data provided in the statements is sufficient to answer the question. Read both the statements and decide the appropriate answer.
A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting around a circular table, facing the centre . Who sits to the immediate right of C?
(I) D sits to the immediate left of F. C is the immediate neighbour of A and E.
(II) B sits second to the left of F. C sits second to the right of F.

  1. (a) Data in Statement I alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement II is not.
  2. (b) Data in Statement II alone is sufficient to answer the question while data in statement I is not.
  3. (c) Both statements I and II together (and not statement I alone or statement II alone) are sufficient to answer the question.
  4. (d) Both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Analyzing Statement I:
D sits left of F. C is neighbor of A and E.
C has A and E on both sides, but their positions unclear.
Cannot determine who sits right of C. → Insufficient
Analyzing Statement II:
B sits 2nd left of F. C sits 2nd right of F.
If F is at position 1: C at position 3, B at position 5.
But position 2 (right of C) unknown. → Insufficient
[IMAGE: NTPC GK english Solution_image_514.jpeg]
Combining Both Statements:
From II: C-2nd right of F, B-2nd left of F, D-left of F (from I).
Answer: Option 4 → Both statements I and II together are not sufficient to answer the question.

Physics (2)

Sound and Waves · Nature and types of waves (longitudinal, transverse)

Q36. The waves which can propagate in gases are:

  1. (a) Stationary Waves
  2. (b) Gravity Waves
  3. (c) Transverse Waves
  4. (d) Longitudinal Waves
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Longitudinal Waves

Topic: Wave Propagation in Gases
Gases have no shear modulus (no rigidity).
Only compression and rarefaction can propagate.
Longitudinal waves→ particles vibrate parallel to wave direction
Examples: Sound waves in air
Transverse waves→ need rigid medium (solids only)
Cannot propagate in gases/liquids
Answer: Option 4 → Longitudinal Waves
Gravitation · Free fall

Q37. Free fall corresponds to which type of motion?

  1. (a) Non-uniform motion
  2. (b) Uniform motion
  3. (c) Uniformly accelerated motion
  4. (d) Periodic motion
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Uniformly accelerated motion

Free Fall Motion
In free fall, object falls under gravity alone.
Acceleration = g = 9.8 m/s² (constant)
Since acceleration is constant and non-zero,
velocity increases uniformly with time.
Free fall = Uniformly accelerated motion
Answer: Option 3 → Uniformly accelerated motion

Ancient History (3)

Mahajanapadas and Rise of Magadha · Haryanka dynasty

Q38. According to early Buddhist literature, how many gāmas (villages) were said to exist in the kingdom of Magadha during the reign of King Bimbisāra ?

  1. (a) 1,00,000
  2. (b) 80,000
  3. (c) 60,000
  4. (d) 40,000
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 80,000

King Bimbisāra ruled Magadha (6th century BCE)
According to early Buddhist texts (Jain and Buddhist literature),
Magadha had80,000 gāmas (villages)during his reign
This reflects the prosperity and extent of the kingdom
Answer: Option 2 → 80,000
Indus Valley Civilisation · Town planning and structures

Q39. Which of the following is a significant component of the Harappan citadel?

  1. (a) Grand palaces
  2. (b) Dwelling houses
  3. (c) Huge temples
  4. (d) The Great Bath
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) The Great Bath

The citadel was the fortified upper part of Harappan cities.
Key Facts:
• No grand palaces or huge temples found in Harappan sites
• Dwelling houses were in the lower town, not citadel
•The Great Bathat Mohenjo-daro is most significant citadel structure
• Great Bath: 12m × 7m × 2.4m deep, used for ritual bathing
Answer: Option 4 → The Great Bath
Indus Valley Civilisation · Economy, trade and seals

Q40. Which of the following regions was one of the major sources for copper for the Harappan civilisation ?

  1. (a) Bihar
  2. (b) Maharashtra
  3. (c) Rajasthan
  4. (d) Afghanistan
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Rajasthan

Harappan Civilization - Copper Sources
Major copper sources for Harappans:
•Khetri mines in Rajasthan(primary source)
• Baluchistan region
Khetri belt provided abundant copper ore used for tools, weapons, and ornaments in Indus Valley.
Answer: Option 3 → Rajasthan

Chemistry (1)

Metals and Non-metals · Corrosion and its prevention (galvanisation, etc.)

Q41. Which substance is the primary component of the reddish-brown coating formed on iron articles exposed to moist air?

  1. (a) Iron (II) Oxide ( FeO )
  2. (b) Iron (III) Hydroxide (Fe(OH)3)
  3. (c) Hydrated Iron (III) Oxide (Fe2O3·xH2O)
  4. (d) Iron Sulfate (FeSO4)
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Hydrated Iron (III) Oxide (Fe2O3·xH2O)

When iron is exposed to moist air, it undergoes oxidation.
Process: Fe + O₂ + H₂O →Hydrated Iron (III) Oxide
This forms a reddish-brown coating calledrust.
Chemical formula:Fe₂O ₃· xH₂O(x = variable water molecules)
Answer: Option 3 → Hydrated Iron (III) Oxide ( Fe₂O ₃· xH₂O )
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