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RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 17 March 2026 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 38 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 on 17 March 2026 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Current Affairs, Ancient History, Economics, Polity, Static GK, Geography.

📚 38 questions🗓️ 17 March 2026⏰ Shift 2
हिंदी में पढ़ें📥 Full paper PDF
Subjects: Current Affairs (8) · Ancient History (3) · Economics (3) · Polity (6) · Static GK (2) · Geography (4) · Medieval History (1) · Computer (4) · Biology (3) · Modern History (2) · Physics (1) · Chemistry (1)

Current Affairs (8)

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · Policies, laws and bills

Q1. In December 2025, the PNGRB tariff revamp was expected to cut city gas distribution (CGD) transport costs by how much (in ₹) annually?

  1. (a) 500 crore
  2. (b) 1,000 crore
  3. (c) 750 crore
  4. (d) 2,000 crore
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1,000 crore

Topic:PNGRB Tariff Revamp (December 2025)
PNGRB = Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board
Key Facts:
• Tariff revamp aimed at reducing CGD transport costs
• Expected annual savings:₹1,000 crore
• Benefits city gas distribution companies
Answer: Option 2 → 1,000 crore
Environment and Climate - Current · Disasters and extreme weather events - current

Q2. Which states suffered 30-70% below-normal rainfall in August 2025, contributing to crop stress and water shortages?

  1. (a) Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Maharashtra, Goa, and Gujarat
  2. (b) Rajasthan, Haryana, Sikkim, Assam, Manipur, and Tripura
  3. (c) Ladakh, Arunachal Pradesh, Bihar, UP, Punjab, and the Northeast
  4. (d) Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ladakh, Arunachal Pradesh, Bihar, UP, Punjab, and the Northeast

Regions with30-70% below-normal rainfall:
•Northern States:Ladakh, Punjab, Haryana, UP, Bihar
•Northeast Region:Arunachal Pradesh and other NE states
Impact:Severe crop stress, water shortages, agricultural distress
These regions faced significant monsoon deficit affecting kharif crops.
Answer: Option 3 → Ladakh, Arunachal Pradesh, Bihar, UP, Punjab, and the Northeast
Sports - Current · Cricket - current

Q3. Who was awarded the Player of the Match in the ICC Women's ODI World Cup final in 2025?

  1. (a) Harmanpreet Kaur
  2. (b) Smriti Mandhana
  3. (c) Deepti Sharma
  4. (d) Shafali Verma
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Shafali Verma

ICC Women's ODI World Cup 2025 Final
The final was held in India.
Shafali Vermaplayed a match-winning innings.
She was awardedPlayer of the Matchfor her outstanding performance.
Answer: Option 4 → Shafali Verma
International Affairs and Summits · Summits and conferences

Q4. In which city was the World Conference on Cultural Policies and Sustainable Development – MONDIACULT 2025 held?

  1. (a) Paris, France
  2. (b) Rome, Italy
  3. (c) Barcelona, Spain
  4. (d) Madrid, Spain
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Barcelona, Spain

MONDIACULT 2025
Full Name: World Conference on Cultural Policies and Sustainable Development
Host City:Barcelona, Spain
Organized by: UNESCO
Focus: Cultural policies, sustainable development, and heritage preservation
Answer: Option 3 → Barcelona, Spain
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Technology launches and AI

Q5. On the Eve of the 79th Independence Day in 2025, the Indian government unveiled which AI-powered tool to automatically generate structured minutes of meetings (MoMs) from Gram Sabha or other Panchayat meetings’ audio/video recordings?

  1. (a) GramSattva
  2. (b) SabhaSaar
  3. (c) GramVivaran
  4. (d) SabhaSadan
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) SabhaSaar

On78th Independence Day Eve (2024), the government launchedSabhaSaar.
Purpose: AI-powered tool to auto-generateMinutes of Meetings (MoMs)from Gram Sabha/Panchayat audio/video recordings.
Significance: Enhances transparency and documentation in rural governance.
Answer: Option 2 → SabhaSaar
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Reports and their publishers

Q6. On 27 August 2025, which index reported that global consumer confidence remained unchanged for the second consecutive month, remaining stable at -0.1 points?

  1. (a) J.P.Morgan Global PMI Composite Index
  2. (b) UNDP Human Development Index Score
  3. (c) World Bank Global Findex Database
  4. (d) Ipsos Global Consumer Confidence Index
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Ipsos Global Consumer Confidence Index

On 27 August 2025, theIpsos Global Consumer Confidence Indexreported that global consumer confidence remained unchanged for the second consecutive month at-0.1 points.
Key Facts:
• Ipsos tracks consumer sentiment across multiple countries
• Negative value indicates below-average confidence levels
• Stability suggests no significant change in consumer outlook
Answer: Option 4 → Ipsos Global Consumer Confidence Index
Awards and Honours - Current · International awards - current

Q7. Which of the following individuals was awarded the Nobel Peace Prize 2025 for persistent efforts in promoting democratic rights in Venezuela and striving for a just and peaceful transition from dictatorship to democracy?

  1. (a) Maria Corina Machado
  2. (b) Juan Guaidó
  3. (c) Mary E. Brunkow
  4. (d) Delcy Rodríguez
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Maria Corina Machado

Nobel Peace Prize 2025
Awarded to:Maria Corina Machado
Recognition: Persistent efforts in promoting democratic rights in Venezuela and striving for a just and peaceful transition from dictatorship to democracy.
Key Facts:
• Venezuelan opposition leader and activist
• Advocated for human rights and democratic reforms
• Led peaceful resistance against authoritarian regime
Answer: Option 1 → Maria Corina Machado
Defence and Security - Current · Military exercises - current

Q8. Which country led the Talisman Sabre, 2025, military exercise in which India participated?

  1. (a) Canada
  2. (b) Russia
  3. (c) United Kingdom
  4. (d) Australia
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Australia

Talisman Sabre 2025
Talisman Sabre is abiennial military exerciseled byAustralia and the United States.
India participated for thefirst time in 2025, marking its growing defense cooperation in the Indo-Pacific region.
The exercise involves multiple nations and focuses onjoint military operations, interoperability, and regional security.
Answer: Option 4 → Australia

Ancient History (3)

Indus Valley Civilisation · Economy, trade and seals

Q9. The Harappan civilisation primarily sourced its copper from which region?

  1. (a) Madhya Pradesh
  2. (b) Tamil Nadu
  3. (c) Rajasthan
  4. (d) Karnataka
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Rajasthan

Harappan Copper Sources
Primary copper source:Khetri mines in Rajasthan
Additional sources: Baluchistan region
Archaeological evidence shows extensive copper tools and artifacts from Rajasthan copper belt
Answer: Option 3 → Rajasthan
Sources and Prehistoric India · Megalithic and Iron Age

Q10. Which of the following technological advances enabled the cultivation of heavier, wetter soils in the early Iron Age?

  1. (a) Bronze chisels and spades
  2. (b) Iron ploughshares and axes
  3. (c) Stone microliths and scrapers
  4. (d) Copper sickles and knives
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Iron ploughshares and axes

Iron Age (1200-600 BCE) brought stronger metal tools.
Iron ploughsharescould penetrate heavy, clayey soils.
Iron axescleared dense forests for cultivation.
Bronze/copper/stone tools were too soft for wet, heavy soils.
This enabled expansion into river valleys and fertile plains.
Answer: Option 2 → Iron ploughshares and axes
Post-Gupta Period · Pallavas

Q11. What is the primary material used in the 8th-century CE Kailasanatha Temple at Kanchipuram?

  1. (a) Marble
  2. (b) Brick
  3. (c) Sandstone
  4. (d) Granite
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Sandstone

Kailasanatha Temple, Kanchipuram
Built in 8th century CE by Pallava king Narasimhavarman II.
Primary construction material:Sandstone
One of the finest examples of Pallava architecture.
Features intricate carvings and sculptures in sandstone.
Answer: Option 3 → Sandstone

Economics (3)

Agriculture and Food Security · Crop insurance and farmer schemes

Q12. The Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY) was launched in which year?

  1. (a) 2018
  2. (b) 2016
  3. (c) 2022
  4. (d) 2020
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 2020

Pradhan Mantri Matsya Sampada Yojana (PMMSY)
Launched:10 September 2020
Objective: Blue Revolution through sustainable development of fisheries sector
Implementation Period: FY 2020-21 to FY 2024-25
Budget: ₹20,050 crores
Answer: Option 4 → 2020
Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Sectors of the economy (primary, secondary, tertiary)

Q13. Why do large cities tend to have a higher proportion of tertiary activities in India?

  1. (a) Due to agglomeration and services demand
  2. (b) Because of mining operations
  3. (c) Because of fertile land
  4. (d) Due to lack of primary resources
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Due to agglomeration and services demand

Tertiary sector includes services like banking, trade, transport, education, healthcare, IT, etc.
Key Factors:
1.Agglomeration economies- Concentration of businesses and population creates demand for diverse services
2.Higher income levels- Urban population has greater purchasing power for services
3.Infrastructure availability- Better connectivity and facilities support service industries
Mining (Option 2) and fertile land (Option 3) relate to primary/secondary sectors, not tertiary.
Answer: Option 1 → Due to agglomeration and services demand
Financial Markets and Institutions · Development financial institutions (SIDBI, NHB, EXIM Bank, IFCI)

Q14. Which of the following industrial financing institutions in India was formed in 1990?

  1. (a) Industrial Finance Corporation of India (IFCI)
  2. (b) Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)
  3. (c) Industrial Credit and Investment Corporation of India (ICICI)
  4. (d) Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI)
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)

Industrial Financing Institutions - Formation Years:
IFCI- Established in 1948 (first development finance institution)
ICICI- Established in 1955 (private sector initiative)
IDBI- Established in 1964 (apex institution)
SIDBI- Established onApril 2, 1990(subsidiary of IDBI)
SIDBI was created to promote, finance and develop small-scale industries.
Answer: Option 2 → Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)

Polity (6)

Special Provisions, Official Language and Miscellaneous Provisions · Union Territories administration

Q15. In which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India is it stated that Union Territories are to be administered by the President, who may appoint an administrator to oversee them?

  1. (a) Article 241
  2. (b) Article 240
  3. (c) Article 239
  4. (d) Article 242
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Article 239

Article 239of the Constitution deals with administration of Union Territories.
Key provisions:
• President administers UTs through an Administrator
• Administrator appointed by President with designated title
• Administrator acts as agent of the President
Related Articles:
Article 240 → Power to make regulations for certain UTs
Article 241 → High Courts for Union Territories .
Answer: Option 3 → Article 239
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q16. Which among the following information is NOT a ground for exemption from disclosure of information under RTI Act, 2005?

  1. (a) Sovereignty and integrity of India
  2. (b) Public Interest
  3. (c) Breach of privilege of Parliament
  4. (d) Cabinet papers including records of deliberation
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Public Interest

RTI Act 2005 - Section 8: Exemptions from Disclosure
Section 8 lists grounds where information can beexempted:
• Sovereignty and integrity of India (Section 8(1)(a)) ✓
• Breach of privilege of Parliament (Section 8(1)(c)) ✓
• Cabinet papers including records of deliberation (Section 8(1)(i)) ✓
Public Interestis NOT an exemption ground.
In fact, Section 8(2) allows disclosure even of exempt information ifpublic interest outweighsthe harm.
Answer: Option 2 → Public Interest
Elections, Parties and Representation · Anti-defection law (Tenth Schedule)

Q17. Which action attracts disqualification of an independent MP under the Anti-Defection Law introduced by the 52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985?

  1. (a) Joining any political party after their election
  2. (b) Remaining neutral during debates
  3. (c) Supporting a coalition government
  4. (d) Voting differently from party whip
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Joining any political party after their election

Added10th Scheduleto Constitution to prevent defection.
For Independent MPs:
If an independent member joins any political party after election, they are disqualified.
Options 2 & 3: No disqualification for independent MPs.
Option 4: Applies only to party members, not independents.
Answer: Option 1 → Joining any political party after their election
Fundamental Rights · Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32) and writs

Q18. The power to issue writs for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights is vested in_____ .

  1. (a) Session court and High Courts
  2. (b) District Court and High Courts
  3. (c) Lok Adalat and High Courts
  4. (d) Supreme Court and High Courts
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Supreme Court and High Courts

Article 32:Supreme Court can issue writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights (Part III)
Article 226:High Courts can issue writs for Fundamental Rights AND other purposes.
Both SC and HCs have power to issue five types of writs: Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, Quo Warranto.
Lower courts (Session, District, Lok Adalat) do NOT have writ jurisdiction.
Answer: Option 4 → Supreme Court and High Courts
DPSP and Fundamental Duties · Important DPSP articles (39A, 40, 44, 45, 48A, 50, 51)

Q19. Which of the following is NOT correctly matched with respect to the Directive Principles of State Policy?

  1. (a) Article 41 - Provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief
  2. (b) Article 39A - Equal justice and free legal aid
  3. (c) Article 43A - Participation of workers in management of industries
  4. (d) Article 40 - Organisation of village panchayats
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 41 - Provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief

Article 41- Right to work, education and public assistance in certain cases
Article 42- Provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief
Option 1 incorrectly matches Article 41 with Article 42's provision
Other Articles (Correctly Matched):
Article 39A - Equal justice and free legal aid ✓
Article 43A - Workers' participation in management ✓
Article 40 - Organisation of village panchayats ✓
Answer: Option 1 → Article 41 - Provision for just and humane conditions of work and maternity relief
Fundamental Rights · Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles 25-28)

Q20. Article 25 of the Indian Constitution primarily guarantees which of the following rights?

  1. (a) Cultural and educational rights
  2. (b) Freedom of religion
  3. (c) Right to constitutional remedies
  4. (d) Right to equality before law
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Freedom of religion

Article 25falls under Part III of the Constitution.
It guaranteesFreedom of Conscience and Free Profession, Practice and Propagation of Religion.
Key provisions: Right to freely profess, practice and propagate religion subject to public order, morality and health.
Answer: Option 2 → Freedom of religion

Static GK (2)

Music and Musical Instruments · Carnatic music

Q21. Who among the following is famous for composing kritis known for their contemplative nature and emphasis on capturing the essence of the raga through a slow, richly ornamented style?

  1. (a) Kum arswami Kutti
  2. (b) Ramanuja Srinivasani
  3. (c) Mutthuswami Dikshitar
  4. (d) Thyagaraja Iyengar
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Mutthuswami Dikshitar

Mutthuswami Dikshitar (1775-1835)was one of the Trinity of Carnatic music.
His kritis are known for:
• Contemplative and meditative nature
• Slow tempo (vilambita kala)
• Rich ornamentation and gamakas
• Emphasis on capturing raga essence
• Sanskrit lyrics with devotional depth
He composed around 500 kritis in praise of various deities.
Answer: Option 3 → Mutthuswami Dikshitar
Music and Musical Instruments · Folk music and songs by state

Q22. Match the following Folk Songs with their Origin States.
Folk Song Origin State
1. Panihari a. West Bengal
2. Khongjom Parba b. Rajasthan
3. Wanawan c. Jammu and Kashmir
4. Baul d. Manipur

  1. (a) 1-a, 2-d, 3-b, 4-c
  2. (b) 1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-a
  3. (c) 1-c, 2-d, 3-b, 4-a
  4. (d) 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-a

Folk Songs and Their Origin States:
1. Panihari → Rajasthan (b)
Traditional folk song about women fetching water.
2. Khongjom Parba → Manipur (d)
Ballad commemorating the 1891 Anglo-Manipur War.
3. Wanawan → Jammu and Kashmir (c)
Traditional wedding folk song of Kashmir.
4. Baul → West Bengal (a)
Mystical folk music tradition of Bengal.
Answer: Option 2 → 1-b, 2-d, 3-c, 4-a

Geography (4)

Atmosphere and Climate · Cyclones (tropical and temperate)

Q23. What is the principal destructive force of tropical cyclones on coastlines?

  1. (a) Continuous rainfall
  2. (b) High temperature
  3. (c) Storm surge
  4. (d) Low atmospheric pressure
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Storm surge

Storm Surgeis the abnormal rise of seawater above normal tide level.
Caused by strong cyclonic winds pushing ocean water toward coast.
Can raise sea level by 3-10 meters, causing massive flooding and destruction.
Most deaths and damage in coastal areas occur due to storm surge.
Answer: Option 3 → Storm surge
India - Agriculture · Cropping seasons (kharif, rabi, zaid)

Q24. Wheat is mainly a crop of which season in India?

  1. (a) Zaid
  2. (b) Pre-monsoon
  3. (c) Kharif
  4. (d) Rabi
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Rabi

Cropping Seasons in India:
Kharif:Sown in monsoon (June-July), harvested in Sept-Oct. Examples: Rice, Cotton, Maize.
Rabi:Sown in winter (Oct-Nov), harvested in March-April. Examples: Wheat, Barley, Mustard.
Zaid:Summer crop (March-June). Examples: Watermelon, Cucumber.
Wheatrequires cool climate for growth and warm climate for ripening.
Wheat is sown in October-November and harvested in March-April.
Answer: Option 4 → Rabi
India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Seasons of India

Q25. Which of the following monsoon systems is also known as the retreating monsoon?

  1. (a) Northeast Monsoon
  2. (b) Advancing Monsoon
  3. (c) Western Disturbances
  4. (d) Southwest Monsoon
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Northeast Monsoon

Theretreating monsoonoccurs during October-December when the Southwest Monsoon withdraws from the Indian subcontinent.
As the monsoon retreats, theNortheast Monsoonbecomes active, bringing rainfall to Tamil Nadu and coastal Andhra Pradesh.
This is also called thewinter monsoonorpost-monsoon season.
Answer: Option 1 → Northeast Monsoon
India - Minerals, Energy and Industries · Power plants (thermal, hydro, nuclear, solar, wind)

Q26. Which of the following is the largest solar park in India as of 2025?

  1. (a) Rewa Solar Park
  2. (b) Pavagada Solar Park
  3. (c) Bhadla Solar Park
  4. (d) Kurnool Ultra Mega Solar Park
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Bhadla Solar Park

Bhadla Solar Parkin Rajasthan is India's largest solar park.
Capacity:2,245 MW
Location: Jodhpur district, Rajasthan
Other major solar parks:
Pavagada (Karnataka): 2,050 MW
Kurnool (Andhra Pradesh): 1,000 MW
Rewa (Madhya Pradesh): 750 MW
Answer: Option 3 → Bhadla Solar Park

Medieval History (1)

Medieval Culture, Literature and Travellers · Medieval literature and authors

Q27. Select the INCORRECT combination of the books and their respective authors.

  1. (a) Baburnama – Babur
  2. (b) Gita Govinda – Jayadeva Goswami
  3. (c) Tughlaq Nama – Abul Fazal
  4. (d) Prithiviraj Raso – Chand Bardai
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Tughlaq Nama – Abul Fazal

Book-Author Verification:
Option 1:Baburnama – Babur ✓
Autobiography of Mughal emperor Babur in Chagatai Turkish.
Option 2:Gita Govinda – Jayadeva Goswami ✓
12th century Sanskrit poem on Radha-Krishna by Jayadeva.
Option 3:Tughlaq Nama – Abul Fazal ✗
Incorrect:Tughlaq Nama was written byAmir Khusrau, not Abul Fazal.
Abul Fazal wrote Akbarnama and Ain-i-Akbari.
Option 4:Prithiviraj Raso – Chand Bardai ✓
Epic poem about Prithviraj Chauhan by court poet Chand Bardai.

Computer (4)

Software, Operating Systems and Programming · File extensions and formats

Q28. Which file type is most likely to be classified as a system file in Windows OS?

  1. (a) .zip
  2. (b) .dll
  3. (c) .mp3
  4. (d) .docx
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) .dll

System Files in Windows OS
.dll (Dynamic Link Library)files are core system files
containing code and data used by multiple programs.
Other options:
.zip → Compressed archive file
.mp3 → Audio media file
.docx → Microsoft Word document
DLL files are essential for Windows operation and
located in System32 and other system directories.
Answer: Option 2 → .dll
Computer Memory · Secondary storage devices

Q29. Major storage media, such as CDs and DVDs, use optical technology, while HDDs rely on _______ technology to store bits.

  1. (a) solid-state memory
  2. (b) magnetic field
  3. (c) liquid crystal
  4. (d) semiconductor chip
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) magnetic field

Storage Technologies:
CDs/DVDs → Useoptical technology(laser reads pits/lands)
HDDs (Hard Disk Drives) → Usemagnetic field technology
Data stored as magnetic patterns on rotating platters .
Read/write heads detect magnetic polarity changes .
Note: Solid-state = SSDs, not HDDs .
Answer: Option 2 → magnetic field
Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Popular operating systems

Q30. How do you search for files with partial names in Windows 11?

  1. (a) dollar $
  2. (b) at the rate @
  3. (c) ampersand &
  4. (d) asterisk *
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) asterisk *

In Windows 11,asterisk (*)is used as a wildcard character
to search for files with partial names.
Example:*.txt finds all text files
report* finds all files starting with 'report'
*2024* finds all files containing '2024'
Other symbols ($ @ &) are not used for file search wildcards.
Answer: Option 4 → asterisk *
Computer Organisation and Hardware · Output devices

Q31. A printer receives information from the computer and produces a hard copy on paper. This behavior makes the printer a/an/the:

  1. (a) Input device
  2. (b) Network device
  3. (c) Primary memory
  4. (d) Output device
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Output device

Printer Function Analysis
A printer receives data from computer and produces physical/hard copy output on paper.
Device Classification:
• Input Device: Sends data TO computer (keyboard, mouse)
• Output Device: Receives data FROM computer and displays/prints results
Since printer takes processed information from computer and converts it to tangible form (paper), it is anoutput device.
Answer: Option 4 → Output device

Biology (3)

Ecology and Environment · Sustainable development and Earth's spheres

Q32. The concept of sustainable development became popular after which report (1987)?

  1. (a) Brundtland Report
  2. (b) Earth Report
  3. (c) Kyoto Report
  4. (d) Rio Report
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Brundtland Report

TheBrundtland Report (1987)titled 'Our Common Future' was published by the World Commission on Environment and Development.
It defined sustainable development as 'development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the ability of future generations to meet their own needs.'
This report popularized the concept globally and laid the foundation for the 1992 Rio Earth Summit.
Answer: Option 1 → Brundtland Report
Heredity and Evolution · Monohybrid and dihybrid crosses

Q33. What is the purpose of the Punnett square in genetics?

  1. (a) Predicting the outcomes of genetic crosses
  2. (b) Determining the phenotype of an individual
  3. (c) Identifying the location of a gene on a chromosome
  4. (d) Analysing DNA replication
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Predicting the outcomes of genetic crosses

A Punnett square is a diagram used to predict the genotypes and phenotypes of offspring from a genetic cross.
It shows all possible combinations of alleles from parents.
Helps calculate probability of traits in offspring.
Answer: Option 1 → Predicting the outcomes of genetic crosses
Cell - Structure and Function · Cytoskeleton, cell death and cancer cells

Q34. Which cell organelle is responsible for maintaining cell shape and providing structural support?

  1. (a) Peroxisome
  2. (b) Nucleus
  3. (c) Golgi apparatus
  4. (d) Cytoskeleton
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Cytoskeleton

Cell Organelle: Structural Support
Cytoskeletonis a network of protein filaments.
Functions:
• Maintains cell shape and rigidity
• Provides mechanical support to cell
• Helps in cell movement and division
Components: Microfilaments, Microtubules, Intermediate filaments
Answer: Option 4 → Cytoskeleton

Modern History (2)

Peasant, Tribal and Civil Uprisings · Early civil and tribal revolts

Q35. Majnu Shah is associated with which of the following rebellions?

  1. (a) Indigo Revolt
  2. (b) Fakir–Sannyasi Rebellion
  3. (c) Kol Rebellion
  4. (d) Santhal Rebellion
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Fakir–Sannyasi Rebellion

Majnu Shahwas a prominent leader of the Fakir–Sannyasi Rebellion in Bengal.
This rebellion was led by displaced fakirs (Muslim ascetics) and sannyasis (Hindu monks) against British colonial rule and local zamindars.
The rebellion occurred mainly in Bengal and Bihar during the late 18th century.
Majnu Shah led the fakir groups, while Bhabani Pathak led the sannyasi groups.
Answer: Option 2 → Fakir–Sannyasi Rebellion
Socio-Religious Reform Movements · Raja Ram Mohan Roy and Brahmo Samaj

Q36. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding the Atmiya Sabha?

  1. (a) The Atmiya Sabha laid the foundation for the Brahmo Samaj
  2. (b) The Atmiya Sabha was established in 1824
  3. (c) The Atmiya Sabha was founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy
  4. (d) The Atmiya Sabha was established at Calcutta
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The Atmiya Sabha was established in 1824

Key Facts:
Founded byRaja Ram Mohan Roy in 1815at Calcutta
It was a philosophical discussion society
Laid the foundation forBrahmo Samaj (1828)
Analysis of Options:
Option 1: Correct - It preceded Brahmo Samaj
Option 2:INCORRECT- Established in1815, not 1824
Option 3: Correct - Founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy
Option 4: Correct - Established at Calcutta
Answer: Option 2 → The Atmiya Sabha was established in 1824

Physics (1)

Work, Energy and Power · Potential energy

Q37. Raising an object from the ground results in the storage of which type of energy?

  1. (a) Heat energy
  2. (b) Electrical energy
  3. (c) Kinetic energy
  4. (d) Potential energy
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Potential energy

When an object is raised above the ground, work is done against gravity.
This work gets stored asGravitational Potential Energy (PE).
Formula: PE = mgh
where m = mass, g = gravity, h = height
The higher the object, the more potential energy it stores.
Answer: Option 4 → Potential energy

Chemistry (1)

Physical Chemistry · Gas laws (Boyle, Charles, Avogadro, ideal gas)

Q38. Boyle’s law describes the relationship between ___________.

  1. (a) Volume And Pressure
  2. (b) Energy And Volume
  3. (c) Volume And Temperature
  4. (d) Pressure And Temperature
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Volume And Pressure

States: At constant temperature, pressure of a gas is inversely proportional to its volume.
Formula: P ∝(1)/(V)or PV = constant
Key Point: Temperature remains constant while P and V vary inversely.
Answer: Option 1 → Volume And Pressure
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