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RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 16 March 2026 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 36 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 on 16 March 2026 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Current Affairs, Computer, Physics, Biology, Static GK, Geography.

📚 36 questions🗓️ 16 March 2026⏰ Shift 3
हिंदी में पढ़ें📥 Full paper PDF
Subjects: Current Affairs (5) · Computer (5) · Physics (1) · Biology (1) · Static GK (3) · Geography (5) · Polity (6) · Ancient History (2) · Chemistry (2) · Economics (2) · Medieval History (1) · Modern History (3)

Current Affairs (5)

Environment and Climate - Current · Environmental rules, campaigns and summits - current

Q1. What was the primary objective of the 'Blue Skies 2025' campaign launched in August 2025?

  1. (a) Increase forest cover
  2. (b) Promote solar energy
  3. (c) Reduce urban air pollution
  4. (d) Conserve wetlands
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Reduce urban air pollution

Launched August 2025 as a global air quality improvement initiative.
Primary objective: Reduce urban air pollution in major cities.
Key Facts:
• Aligns with UN Environment Programme goals.
• Targets PM2.5 and PM10 reduction in cities.
• India participates via CPCB data sharing.
• Delhi, Mumbai among highly targeted cities.
Answer: Option 3 → Reduce urban air pollution
State News · State schemes and events

Q2. In December 2025, the Punjab government directed strict enforcement of which policy to safeguard schoolchildren during dense winter fog (mandatory visibility measures, reduced speed, reflectors, headlights and fog lights)?

  1. (a) National Road Safety Policy
  2. (b) Safe School Vehicle Policy
  3. (c) Motor Vehicles Safety Compliance Programme
  4. (d) National School Safety and Security Guidelines
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Safe School Vehicle Policy

Punjab directed strict enforcement of Safe School Vehicle Policy
to protect schoolchildren during dense winter fog.
Mandatory measures:
• Minimum visibility requirements.
• Reduced speed limits near schools.
• Reflectors, headlights and fog lights compulsory.
Answer: Option 2 → Safe School Vehicle Policy
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Reports and their publishers

Q3. According to the 2025 Financial Tracking Services report by the United Nations Office for the Coordination of Humanitarian Affairs, which two contributors ranked higher than UAE in global humanitarian aid?

  1. (a) India and United Kingdom
  2. (b) China and Japan
  3. (c) Morocco and Denmark
  4. (d) United States and European Union
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) United States and European Union

Per the 2025 UN OCHA Financial Tracking Services report, two contributors
ranked HIGHER than UAE in global humanitarian aid:
→ United States and European Union
Key Facts:
• USA is historically the world's largest humanitarian donor.
• EU gives substantial aid through the ECHO (European Civil Protection) mechanism.
• UAE is a major Middle-Eastern donor but ranks below USA and EU.
Answer: Option 4 → United States and European Union
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · Policies, laws and bills

Q4. In 2025, the Supreme Court of India (SC) in the case State of Tamil Nadu v. Governor of Tamil Nadu ruled that a State Governor cannot exercise which of the following over a bill duly passed by the State Legislature?

  1. (a) Pocket Veto
  2. (b) Line-item veto
  3. (c) Conditional assent
  4. (d) Veto only on financial bills
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Pocket Veto

In State of Tamil Nadu v. Governor of Tamil Nadu (2025), the Supreme Court ruled
that a Governor CANNOT exercise Pocket Veto over a State Legislature bill.
Pocket Veto = Indefinitely sitting on a bill without action or communication.
The SC held the Governor must act within reasonable time:
• Give assent, OR • Withhold with reasons, OR • Refer to President.
Related: Article 200 governs Governor's assent to bills.
Answer: Option 1 → Pocket Veto
International Affairs and Summits · Summits and conferences

Q5. In 2025, the 2nd WHO Global Summit on Traditional Medicine officially began on 17 December in which city?

  1. (a) Bangkok
  2. (b) New Delhi
  3. (c) Beijing
  4. (d) Geneva
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) New Delhi

The 2nd WHO Global Summit on Traditional Medicine officially began on
17 December 2025 in NEW DELHI, India.
Key Facts:
• Organised by WHO and Government of India (Ministry of AYUSH).
• First WHO Global Summit on Traditional Medicine was held in Gandhinagar, India in 2023.
• India is a global leader in traditional medicine systems:
Ayurveda, Yoga, Unani, Siddha, Homeopathy (AYUSH).
Answer: Option 2 → New Delhi

Computer (5)

MS Office and Productivity Tools · Keyboard shortcuts

Q6. A student wants to locate a word inside a PDF. Which shortcut helps?

  1. (a) Ctrl + V
  2. (b) Ctrl + C
  3. (c) Ctrl + F
  4. (d) Ctrl + Tab
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ctrl + F

To search for a word inside a PDF:
Ctrl + F → Opens 'Find' toolbar (works in PDF readers, browsers, Word)
Other shortcuts:
Ctrl + V → Paste | Ctrl + C → Copy | Ctrl + Tab → Switch tabs
Ctrl + F is the universal 'Find' shortcut across all applications.
Answer: Option 3 → Ctrl + F
Cyber Security and Viruses · Cyber laws (IT Act 2000) and CERT-In

Q7. Which Ministry was primarily responsible for implementing online child safety initiatives as of December 2025?

  1. (a) Ministry of Social Justice
  2. (b) Ministry of Education
  3. (c) Ministry of Home Affairs
  4. (d) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)

MeitY (Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology) was the primary
ministry implementing online child safety initiatives.
Key Facts:
• IT (Intermediary Guidelines) Rules 2021 mandate removal of harmful content.
• POCSO Act 2012 covers child protection online and offline.
• NCPCR monitors child rights implementation across platforms.
Answer: Option 4 → Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
Computer Fundamentals and History · Applications of computers

Q8. Preparation of report cards, maintaining student records, and creating question papers are actions that are mainly related to which area of computer application?

  1. (a) Space research
  2. (b) Business marketing
  3. (c) Education administration
  4. (d) Automobile control
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Education administration

Report cards, student records, question papers → EDUCATION ADMINISTRATION.
Computer applications by domain:
• Education Admin → student databases, exam software, result processing.
• Business Marketing → CRM, ad platforms, analytics.
• Space Research → simulation, satellite data processing.
• Automobile Control → embedded systems, diagnostics.
Answer: Option 3 → Education administration
Computer Fundamentals and History · Introduction and characteristics of computers

Q9. Which characteristic of a computer system enables it to perform extremely complex calculations within seconds?

  1. (a) Automation
  2. (b) Speed
  3. (c) Versatility
  4. (d) Accuracy
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Speed

Performing extremely complex calculations within seconds = SPEED.
Key computer characteristics:
• Speed → Millions of calculations per second.
• Accuracy → Virtually error-free (mistakes are from input, not the machine).
• Diligence → Works tirelessly without drop in performance.
• Versatility → Handles diverse tasks.
• Automation → Executes tasks automatically once programmed.
Answer: Option 2 → Speed
Computer Fundamentals and History · Applications of computers

Q10. Which computer application is mainly used for booking railway tickets and flight reservations?

  1. (a) Reservation System
  2. (b) Communication
  3. (c) Banking
  4. (d) Education
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Reservation System

Booking railway tickets and flight reservations is handled by
RESERVATION SYSTEMS (also called Booking/Online Ticketing Systems).
Examples:
• IRCTC (Indian Railway Catering and Tourism Corporation) — railway tickets.
• Airlines use Computerised Reservation Systems (CRS/GDS).
Why NOT others:
• Banking → financial transactions.
• Education → student records.
• Communication → emails, messaging.
Answer: Option 1 → Reservation System

Physics (1)

Pressure, Fluids and Properties of Matter · Numericals on pressure and density

Q11. Which of the following will be the pressure of water at the base of a lake of height 20 metres ? (g = 9.8m/s² and Density of water = 1 kg/ litre )

  1. (a) 19,600 Pa
  2. (b) 1,96,000 Pa
  3. (c) 1960 Pa
  4. (d) 196 Pa
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1,96,000 Pa

Formula: Pressure = ρ × g × h
Given: h = 20 m, ρ = 1000 kg/m³ (1 kg/ litre = 1000 kg/m³), g = 9.8 m/s²
P = 1000 × 9.8 × 20 = 1,96,000 Pa
Answer: Option 2 → 1,96,000 Pa

Biology (1)

Heredity and Evolution · Monohybrid and dihybrid crosses

Q12. The F2 generation of a monohybrid cross typically shows which phenotypic ratio?

  1. (a) 1:1
  2. (b) 2:1
  3. (c) 1:2:1
  4. (d) 3:1
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 3:1

In a monohybrid cross (Aa × Aa):
F2 Genotype ratio = 1 AA : 2 Aa : 1 aa (1:2:1)
F2 Phenotype ratio = 3 Dominant : 1 Recessive (3:1)
Because AA and Aa both express the dominant phenotype (3 out of 4),
while aa expresses the recessive phenotype (1 out of 4).
Answer: Option 4 → 3:1

Static GK (3)

Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Painting styles and schools

Q13. Cheriyal scroll painting belongs to which State of India?

  1. (a) Telangana
  2. (b) Andhra Pradesh
  3. (c) Tamil Nadu
  4. (d) Karnataka
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Telangana

Cheriyal scroll painting is a traditional art fromTelanganastate,
originating from Cheriyal village near Siddipet .
Key Facts:
• Narrative scrolls with bold colours depicting mythology.
• Made by the Nakashi community (hereditary painters).
• Received Geographical Indication (GI) tag.
• 45 cm wide, long scroll format with bright natural pigments.
Answer: Option 1 → Telangana
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Tribal festivals

Q14. In which of the following states is the Baishagu festival celebrated by the Boro Kacharis in the month of April?

  1. (a) Assam
  2. (b) Odisha
  3. (c) Bihar
  4. (d) Karnataka
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Assam

Baishagu is a major spring harvest festival celebrated by the Boro Kacharis
in the month of April in ASSAM.
Key Facts:
• One of the most important festivals of the Boro (Bodo) community.
• Celebrated at the beginning of the Baisakh month (Assamese New Year period).
• Involves traditional music, dance, and worship of nature.
• The Boro Kachari tribe is the largest plains tribe of Assam.
Answer: Option 1 → Assam
Music and Musical Instruments · Musical instruments and exponents

Q15. Who among the following is known for his collaboration with international artists and is/was a renowned tabla maestro?

  1. (a) Zakir Hussain
  2. (b) Sajjad Hussain
  3. (c) Hari Prasad Chaurasia
  4. (d) EM Subramaniam
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Zakir Hussain

Ustad Zakir Hussain (1951–2024) was the world's most renowned tabla maestro.
He was celebrated for extensive collaboration with international artists.
Key Facts:
• Son of the legendary Ustad Alla Rakha ( tabla maestro).
• Collaborated with Ravi Shankar, John McLaughlin (Shakti band), Mickey Hart.
• Founded Moment Records; recipient of Padma Shri, Padma Bhushan, Padma Vibhushan.
• Grammy Award winner; known globally as the 'Ambassador of Indian Classical Music'.
Why NOT others:
• Hariprasad Chaurasia → legendary bansuri (flute) player.
• Sajjad Hussain → different musician.
Answer: Option 1 → Zakir Hussain

Geography (5)

India - Population and Census · Census - history and organisation

Q16. The census in India is conducted once in ten years under the legal authority of the Census Act ____________.

  1. (a) 1947
  2. (b) 2010
  3. (c) 1948
  4. (d) 1872
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1948

The Census in India is conducted every 10 years under the Census Act, 1948.
Key Facts:
• Census is a Union Subject (List I, Seventh Schedule).
• Conducted by the Registrar General & Census Commissioner of India.
• First post-independence Census: 1951.
• Last completed Census: 2011.
• 2021 Census was delayed due to COVID-19.
Answer: Option 3 → 1948
India - Agriculture · Cash crops and leading states (cotton, jute, sugarcane, tea, coffee, rubber)

Q17. Which of the following states ranks number one in the production of natural rubber in India in 2023-24?

  1. (a) Andhra Pradesh
  2. (b) Tamil Nadu
  3. (c) Karnataka
  4. (d) Kerala
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Kerala

Kerala is the number one rubber-producing state — accounting for 90%+ of output.
Key Facts:
• Major rubber districts: Kottayam, Kollam, Ernakulam (Kerala).
• India is the 5th largest natural rubber producer globally.
• Rubber Board of India HQ: Kottayam, Kerala.
• Other producers: Tamil Nadu, Karnataka (small share).
Answer: Option 4 → Kerala
World Geography · Continents - facts

Q18. Which of the following continents is NOT crossed by the Equator?

  1. (a) South America
  2. (b) Europe
  3. (c) Africa
  4. (d) Asia
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Europe

The Equator (0° latitude) passes through:
• South America — Ecuador, Colombia, Brazil.
• Africa — Gabon, Congo, DRC, Kenya, Somalia.
• Asia — Indonesia (major landmass of Asia in equatorial region).
NOT crossed by Equator: EUROPE
Europe is entirely in the Northern Hemisphere (above ~35°N latitude).
Answer: Option 2 → Europe
India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Neighbouring countries and border states

Q19. Which island country, along with Sri Lanka, is identified as India’s southern neighbour across the Indian Ocean?

  1. (a) Indonesia
  2. (b) Maldives
  3. (c) Bhutan
  4. (d) Thailand
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Maldives

The two island nations identified as India's southern neighbours are:
Sri Lanka and MALDIVES.
Key Facts:
• Sri Lanka — separated from India by the Palk Strait.
• Maldives — located in the Indian Ocean, southwest of India's tip.
• Maldives consists of ~1,200 coral islands; capital: Malé.
• Bhutan → landlocked, northern neighbour (NOT southern).
• Indonesia and Thailand → Southeast Asia, not southern neighbours .
Answer: Option 2 → Maldives
India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Himalayas - ranges and peaks

Q20. In which region of the Himalayas is the variation in altitude the greatest?

  1. (a) Eastern Himalayan Region
  2. (b) Northern Himalayan Region
  3. (c) Western Himalayan Region
  4. (d) Southern Himalayan Region
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Eastern Himalayan Region

The Eastern Himalayan region has the greatest altitude variation.
Reason:
• In the eastern Himalayas (Arunachal, Sikkim, N-E region),
the mountains rise steeply from the plains (near sea level) to peaks
like Kangchenjunga (8,586 m) over very short horizontal distances.
• This creates extreme altitude variation within a small area.
Answer: Option 1 → Eastern Himalayan regio

Polity (6)

Parliament · Joint sitting

Q21. Article _________ describes the procedure for joint sitting of both Houses of the Parliament in certain cases.

  1. (a) Article 115
  2. (b) Article 104
  3. (c) Article 108
  4. (d) Article 94
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Article 108

Article 108 provides for joint sitting of both Houses when there is a deadlock.
Key Points:
• Joint sitting presided over by the Speaker of Lok Sabha.
• Convened by the President of India.
• Cannot be held for Money Bills or Constitutional Amendment Bills.
• Used only 3 times historically: Dowry Prohibition (1961),
Banking Laws (1978), POTA (2002).
Related Articles:
• Art 94 → Vacation of Speaker/Deputy Speaker.
• Art 104 → Disqualification for voting.
• Art 115 → Supplementary grants.
Answer: Option 3 → Article 108
Judiciary · Subordinate courts

Q22. Which court is considered the highest judicial authority in a district?

  1. (a) Munsif Court
  2. (b) District Court
  3. (c) High Court
  4. (d) Family Court
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) District Court

The DISTRICT COURT is the highest judicial authority in a district.
Court Hierarchy in India:
1. Supreme Court (Apex Court)
2. High Court (State level)
3. District Court (District level — highest in district)
4. Subordinate Courts (Civil/Criminal courts at lower levels)
5. Munsif/Magistrate Courts (lowest level)
Family Court: specialised , deals with matrimonial disputes; NOT the highest.
Answer: Option 2 → District Court
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q23. Which of the following subjects are included in the Union List under the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) Local government, markets, and fairs
  2. (b) Education, forests, and marriage
  3. (c) Defence , foreign affairs, and citizenship
  4. (d) Police, public health, and agriculture
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Defence , foreign affairs, and citizenship

Union List (List I) contains subjects on which only Parliament can legislate.
Option 3 subjects — Defence , Foreign Affairs, Citizenship — are all UNION LIST:
• Defence of India and armed forces → Entry 1
• Foreign affairs → Entry 10
• Citizenship → Entry 17
Why NOT others:
• Local govt, markets, fairs → State List.
• Education, forests, marriage → Concurrent List.
• Police, public health, agriculture → State List.
Answer: Option 3 → Defence , foreign affairs, and citizenship
Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies · Election Commission of India

Q24. Before each general election to the House of the People or to a State Legislative Assembly, the President may appoint Regional Commissioners after:

  1. (a) consultation with the Chief Justice of India
  2. (b) consultation with the Speaker of the Lok Sabha
  3. (c) consultation with the Prime Minister
  4. (d) consultation with the Election Commission
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) consultation with the Election Commission

Before each general election to the House of the People or a State Legislative
Assembly, the President may appoint Regional Commissioners after
CONSULTATION WITH THE ELECTION COMMISSION.
Constitutional basis:
• Article 324 empowers the Election Commission to superintend, direct
and control elections.
• Regional Commissioners assist the Election Commission in managing elections.
• This is done in consultation with the Election Commission — NOT the Prime Minister
or Speaker or Chief Justice.
Answer: Option 4 → consultation with the Election Commission
Judiciary · Judicial review and judicial activism

Q25. Under which Article does the Supreme Court have the power of judicial review?

  1. (a) Article 124
  2. (b) Article 30
  3. (c) Article 32
  4. (d) Article 72
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Article 32

The Supreme Court's power of JUDICIAL REVIEW is derived from Article 32.
Key Points:
• Article 32 gives the right to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of
Fundamental Rights. Dr. Ambedkar called it the 'Heart and Soul of the Constitution'.
• Judicial review is also inherent in Articles 13, 131–136, 143, 226, 246.
• Article 32 specifically empowers SC to issue writs (Habeas Corpus,
Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, Quo Warranto).
Why NOT others:
• Art 124 → Establishment and constitution of Supreme Court.
• Art 30 → Rights of minorities to establish educational institutions.
• Art 72 → Pardoning power of the President.
Answer: Option 3 → Article 32
State Government · State Legislature - Legislative Assembly

Q26. Mr. ABCD wants to become a member of the Legislative Assembly. What is the minimum age prescribed in the Constitution of India so that he becomes a member of the Legislative Assembly?

  1. (a) 25 years
  2. (b) 21 years
  3. (c) 35 years
  4. (d) No Minimum age is prescribed in the Constitution
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 25 years

The minimum age to become a Member of the Legislative Assembly (MLA)
is 25 years, as prescribed in the Constitution of India.
Constitutional Provisions:
• Article 173 → Qualifications for membership of State Legislature.
• A person must be not less than 25 years of age for Vidhan Sabha.
• A person must be not less than 30 years of age for Vidhan Parishad (if any).
Compare:
• Lok Sabha MP → minimum 25 years.
• Rajya Sabha MP → minimum 30 years.
• President → minimum 35 years.
Answer: Option 1 → 25 years

Ancient History (2)

Gupta Empire · Gupta literature and scholars

Q27. Who composed the ‘Prayag Prashasti’ (Allahabad Pillar Inscription), detailing the conquests of Samudragupta?

  1. (a) Banabhatta
  2. (b) Kalidasa
  3. (c) Harisena
  4. (d) Vishakhadatta
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Harisena

Composed by HARISENA — court poet and minister of Samudragupta.
Key Facts:
• Inscribed on the Ashoka Pillar at Prayagraj (Allahabad).
• Praises Samudragupta as 'Kaviraj' (King of poets) and great warrior.
• Lists four categories of conquered kings and kingdoms.
• Harisena was also Mahadandanayaka (Minister of Justice).
Why NOT others:
• Banabhatta → Harshacharita (biography of Harshavardhana).
• Kalidasa → Famous playwright; did NOT write Prayag Prashasti.
• Vishakhadatta → Mudrarakshasa (Sanskrit drama).
Answer: Option 3 → Harisena
Gupta Empire · Gupta literature and scholars

Q28. According to the Prayaga Prashasti, Samudragupta is compared to which god associated with wealth?

  1. (a) Kubera
  2. (b) Indra
  3. (c) Varuna
  4. (d) Yama
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Kubera

According to the Prayaga Prashasti (composed by Harisena),
Samudragupta is compared to KUBERA — the god of wealth.
Key Comparisons in the Prashasti:
• Kubera → god of wealth (Samudragupta's treasury)
• Indra → lord of gods (military prowess)
• Varuna → lord of seas
The inscription calls him equal to Kubera in wealth and generosity.
Answer: Option 1 → Kubera

Chemistry (2)

Matter and its States · States of matter and their properties

Q29. The state of matter where particles are far apart and move randomly and quickly is the:

  1. (a) Solid state
  2. (b) Gaseous state
  3. (c) Liquid state
  4. (d) Plasma state
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Gaseous state

GASEOUS state: particles far apart, move randomly and quickly,
very weak intermolecular forces.
Comparison of states:
• Solid → tightly packed, definite shape and volume.
• Liquid → moderate spacing, takes shape of container.
• Gas → far apart, no fixed shape or volume, high kinetic energy.
• Plasma → super- energised ionised gas (4th state, e.g., stars, lightning).
Answer: Option 2 → Gaseous state
Atoms, Molecules and Mole Concept · Dalton's atomic theory

Q30. Which of the following scientists gave the concept of atomic mass?

  1. (a) J.J. Thomson
  2. (b) Niels Bohr
  3. (c) Ernest Rutherford
  4. (d) John Dalton
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) John Dalton

John Dalton proposed the concept of atomic mass in his Atomic Theory (1808).
Key points of Dalton's Atomic Theory:
• Matter is made of tiny, indivisible particles called atoms.
• Atoms of the same element are identical in mass and properties.
• Atoms of different elements differ in mass.
• He introduced the first atomic mass scale (relative to Hydrogen=1).
Why NOT others:
• J.J. Thomson → discovered electron (1897).
• Niels Bohr → proposed the planetary atomic model (1913).
• Ernest Rutherford → discovered the nucleus (1911).
Answer: Option 4 → John Dalton

Economics (2)

Planning and NITI Aayog · Indian economy at independence and the 1950-90 phase

Q31. Which policy trade-off limited balanced sectoral growth in India during 1951–1991?

  1. (a) Imports vs. exports
  2. (b) Agriculture vs. industry
  3. (c) Private vs. public sector
  4. (d) Services vs. manufacturing
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Agriculture vs. industry

The key policy trade-off that limited balanced sectoral growth was
Agriculture vs. Industry.
Analysis:
• Five-Year Plans heavily focused on heavy industrialisation (Nehru- Mahalanobis model).
• Agriculture was relatively underinvested in the early plans.
• This created an imbalance: industry grew but rural/agricultural sector lagged.
• Food crises (1960s) forced a course-correction (Green Revolution).
Answer: Option 2 → Agriculture vs. industry
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q32. Which of the following is NOT regarded as an advantage of the LPG reforms in India?

  1. (a) Rise in trade restrictions
  2. (b) Expansion of the private sector
  3. (c) Boost in international partnerships
  4. (d) Adoption of advanced technologies
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Rise in trade restrictions

LPG = Liberalisation , Privatisation , Globalisation (1991 economic reforms).
ADVANTAGES of LPG reforms:
• Expansion of private sector and FDI.
• Boost in international trade partnerships.
• Adoption of advanced technologies from abroad.
• Reduction of trade restrictions and import licensing (not increase).
NOT an advantage:
• Rise in trade restrictions → This is the OPPOSITE of what LPG did.
LPG specifically reduced tariffs and trade barriers.
Answer: Option 1 → Rise in trade restrictions

Medieval History (1)

Medieval Culture, Literature and Travellers · Medieval literature and authors

Q33. The Lilatilakam , a 14th-century treatise, played a significant role in establishing the classical status of which Indian language through its grammatical and poetic principles?

  1. (a) Malayalam
  2. (b) Kannada
  3. (c) Tamil
  4. (d) Odia
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Malayalam

Lilatilakam is a 14th-century (c. 1375 CE) Sanskrit treatise that
established the classical grammatical and poetic status of MALAYALAM.
Key Facts:
• Written in Sanskrit, it describes the grammar and poetics of ' Manipravalam '
(a literary blend of Sanskrit and Malayalam).
• Played a key role in establishing Malayalam's literary and classical identity.
• Malayalam was granted Classical Language status by Government of India in 2013.
Answer: Option 1 → Malayalam

Modern History (3)

Peasant, Tribal and Civil Uprisings · Peasant movements (Indigo, Pabna, Deccan riots)

Q34. Who jointly led the first ever no-tax campaign against the British Government in Bengal during the 1838-1848 Farazi Movement?

  1. (a) Sidhu Murmu and Kanhu Murmu
  2. (b) Titu Mir and Syed Ahmad Barelvi
  3. (c) Shariatullah Khan and Dadu Mian
  4. (d) Kunwar Singh and Amar Singh
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Shariatullah Khan and Dadu Mian

The Farazi Movement was a peasant/religious reform movement in Bengal.
The no-tax campaign against the British was jointly led by
Shariatullah Khan (founder) and his son Dadu Mian (Mohammed Mohsin).
Key Facts:
• Shariatullah founded the Farazi Movement based on Islamic reformism.
• Dadu Mian (son) organised peasants against the indigo planters and zamindars.
• They believed paying taxes to British rulers was un-Islamic.
• Movement centred in Faridpur, Dhaka, and Barishal regions (now Bangladesh).
Why NOT others:
• Sidhu-Kanhu → Santhal Rebellion (1855).
• Titu Mir → Wahabi movement in Bengal.
• Kunwar Singh → 1857 Revolt (Bihar).
Answer: Option 3 → Shariatullah Khan and Dadu Mian
Personalities, Newspapers, Books and Slogans · Books and authors of the modern period

Q35. Who wrote the introductory essay to Sarojini Naidu’s 1905 poetry collection The Golden Threshold?

  1. (a) Edmond Gosse
  2. (b) Arthur Symons
  3. (c) W. B. Yeats
  4. (d) Rabindranath Tagore
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Arthur Symons

The introductory essay to Sarojini Naidu's 1905 poetry collection
'The Golden Threshold' was written by ARTHUR SYMONS (British poet and critic).
Key Facts:
• Arthur Symons championed Symbolist poetry; he recognised Naidu's talent.
• Edmund Gosse also mentored Naidu but did NOT write the introduction.
• W.B. Yeats had connections with Indian literature but not this collection.
• Rabindranath Tagore — Indian poet; not connected to this introduction.
Answer: Option 2 → Arthur Symons
Revolt of 1857 · Centres and leaders

Q36. Who played the most significant military role in leading Nana Sahib's forces during the Revolt of 1857 at Kanpur?

  1. (a) Baji Rao II, the last Peshwa and father of Nana Sahib
  2. (b) Azimullah, who was an expert in political propaganda
  3. (c) Bahadur Shah, who appointed Nana Sahib as his Governor
  4. (d) Tantia Tope, known for his guerrilla warfare and patriotic resistance
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Tantia Tope, known for his guerrilla warfare and patriotic resistance

The most significant military role in leading Nana Sahib's forces at Kanpur was
played by TANTIA TOPE (Ramchandra Pandurang Tope).
Key Facts:
• Tantia Tope was Nana Sahib's loyal general and military commander.
• Known for exceptional guerrilla warfare tactics.
• After the fall of Kanpur, Tantia Tope continued guerrilla resistance.
• He is remembered as a patriotic hero and brilliant military tactician.
Why NOT others:
• Baji Rao II → Nana Sahib's father (deceased before 1857).
• Azimullah → Nana Sahib's political advisor, not military commander.
• Bahadur Shah → Led Delhi resistance, not Kanpur.
Answer: Option 4 → Tantia Tope
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