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RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 21 August 2025 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 38 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 on 21 August 2025 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Current Affairs, Geography, Polity, Biology, Modern History, Economics.

📚 38 questions🗓️ 21 August 2025⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Current Affairs (9) · Geography (5) · Polity (5) · Biology (2) · Modern History (2) · Economics (5) · Ancient History (3) · Physics (1) · Medieval History (1) · Static GK (2) · Computer (2) · Chemistry (1)

Current Affairs (9)

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · Court judgments and rulings - current

Q1. What was the Supreme Court's directive regarding the NEET-PG 2025 examination format?

  1. (a) Postpone the examination indefinitely
  2. (b) Conduct the exam in two shifts
  3. (c) Conduct the exam in a single shift
  4. (d) Cancel the examination
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Conduct the exam in a single shift

Books, Obituaries and Days - Current · Days and themes - current year

Q2. On which day is Good Friday observed in 2025?

  1. (a) 14 March
  2. (b) 12 May
  3. (c) 7 June
  4. (d) 18 April
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 18 April

International Affairs and Summits · Summits and conferences

Q3. The currently shelved (as of June 2025) InCyber Forum, a leading cybersecurity conference, was initially set to take place in which US city?

  1. (a) Austin, Texas
  2. (b) Seattle, Washington
  3. (c) San Francisco, California
  4. (d) San Antonio, Texas
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) San Antonio, Texas

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National elections and census updates

Q4. What new facility was introduced by the Election Commission of India (ECI) at polling stations in May 2025?

  1. (a) Online voting portal
  2. (b) Free Wi-Fi for voters
  3. (c) Mobile phone deposit facility
  4. (d) Voter ID kiosks
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Mobile phone deposit facility

Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q5. What is the core objective of the ISRO- European Space Agency (ESA) collaboration in the Axiom-4 mission?

  1. (a) Lunar rover development
  2. (b) Deep-space observation
  3. (c) Communications satellite deployment
  4. (d) Microgravity-based scientific experiments
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Microgravity-based scientific experiments

Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q6. At the 2025 Asian Athletics Championships, which Indian athlete won gold medals in both the men's 5000m and 10,000m events?

  1. (a) Avinash Sable
  2. (b) Tejaswin Shankar
  3. (c) Gulveer Singh
  4. (d) Sachin Yadav
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Gulveer Singh

Awards and Honours - Current · International awards - current

Q7. Which book by Sophie Elmhirst was honoured with the Nero Book of the Year award in 2025?

  1. (a) The Adversary
  2. (b) Flow
  3. (c) Maurice and Maralyn
  4. (d) The Girl with the Seven Lives
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Maurice and Maralyn

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · New government schemes and missions

Q8. Which ministry has introduced a technology-driven initiative called e-Zero FIR on 19 May 2025 to boost India's cybercrime-fighting capabilities?

  1. (a) Ministry of Home Affairs
  2. (b) Ministry of Communications
  3. (c) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
  4. (d) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Ministry of Home Affairs

Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q9. Which of the following organisations conducted the CROPS experiment to study plant growth in space in February 2025?

  1. (a) National Aeronautics and Space Administration (NASA)
  2. (b) European Space Agency (ESA)
  3. (c) Japan Aerospace Exploration Agency (JAXA)
  4. (d) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)

Geography (5)

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Western and Eastern Ghats

Q10. The Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats mark the western and the eastern edges of which plateau?

  1. (a) Chotanagpur Plateau
  2. (b) Malwa Plateau
  3. (c) Shillong Plateau
  4. (d) Deccan Plateau
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Deccan Plateau

World Geography · Countries and international boundaries

Q11. Which province of Pakistan, known for its rich resources but low development, has long witnessed separatist movements and demands for greater autonomy or independence?

  1. (a) Khyber Pakhtunkhwa
  2. (b) Sindh
  3. (c) Punjab
  4. (d) Balochistan
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Balochistan

India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Rainfall distribution

Q12. Which physical feature acts as a barrier to the southwest monsoon winds, causing heavy rainfall on one side and dry conditions on the other?

  1. (a) Western Ghats
  2. (b) Aravalli Range
  3. (c) Satpura Range
  4. (d) Vindhya Range
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Western Ghats

India - Population and Census · Population density

Q13. Population density is calculated as:

  1. (a) number of persons living per unit area
  2. (b) average number of people per family
  3. (c) total number of people in a country
  4. (d) number of children born per year
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) number of persons living per unit area

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Islands (Andaman & Nicobar, Lakshadweep)

Q14. Which islands of India are strategically important due to their location near the Malacca Strait?

  1. (a) Rameswaram Islands
  2. (b) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
  3. (c) Gulf of Kutch Islands
  4. (d) Lakshadweep Islands
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Polity (5)

Judiciary · Supreme Court - jurisdiction (original, appellate, advisory)

Q15. Which of the following falls under the Supreme Court’s original jurisdiction, according to the Constitution of India (Article 131)?

  1. (a) Enforcement of fundamental rights of individuals
  2. (b) Appeals from criminal cases in High Courts
  3. (c) Disputes between States or between a State and the Union
  4. (d) Election petitions against sitting Members of Parliaments
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Disputes between States or between a State and the Union

Union, Territory and Citizenship · Reorganisation of states and new states

Q16. When was the States Reorganisation Act passed, implementing the Commission’s recommendations?

  1. (a) 1959
  2. (b) 1953
  3. (c) 1956
  4. (d) 1954
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1956

Union Executive · Council of Ministers and Cabinet

Q17. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for the Council of Ministers at the Union level?

  1. (a) Article 75
  2. (b) Article 85
  3. (c) Article 65
  4. (d) Article 74
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Article 74

Special Provisions, Official Language and Miscellaneous Provisions · Services under the Union and States (All India Services)

Q18. In which year was the Indian Civil Service (ICS) officially replaced by the Indian Administrative Service (IAS)?

  1. (a) 1949
  2. (b) 1951
  3. (c) 1950
  4. (d) 1947
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 1947

Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q19. Which of the following Amendments made Education a subject in the Concurrent List?

  1. (a) 86ᵗʰ Amendment
  2. (b) 52ⁿᵈ Amendment
  3. (c) 44ᵗʰ Amendment
  4. (d) 42ⁿᵈ Amendment
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 42ⁿᵈ Amendment

Biology (2)

Nutrition and Digestion · Vitamins - sources, functions and deficiency

Q20. Consider the following vitamins.1. Vitamin D2. Vitamin B123. Vitamin K4. Vitamin CWhich of them are water soluble?

  1. (a) Only 2 and 3
  2. (b) Only 1 and 2
  3. (c) Only 2 and 4
  4. (d) Only 1, 2 and 3
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Only 2 and 4

Nutrition and Digestion · Nutrients - carbohydrates, proteins, fats

Q21. Which of the following foods is a source of animal protein?

  1. (a) Pulses
  2. (b) Beans
  3. (c) Eggs
  4. (d) Nuts
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Eggs

Modern History (2)

Socio-Religious Reform Movements · Young Bengal Movement and Derozians

Q22. Henry Vivian Derozio, a teacher at the Hindu College of Calcutta, promoted radical ideas and encouraged his pupils to question all authority. This movement became known as the:

  1. (a) Servants of India Society
  2. (b) Young Bengal Movement
  3. (c) Justice Movement
  4. (d) Social Service League
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Young Bengal Movement

British Administration and Policies · Education policies and commissions

Q23. The introduction of English education in India was promoted through which of the following documents?

  1. (a) Macaulay’s Minute
  2. (b) Pitts India Act
  3. (c) Regulating Act
  4. (d) Charter Act of 1813
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Macaulay’s Minute

Economics (5)

Planning and NITI Aayog · Indian economy at independence and the 1950-90 phase

Q24. Which of the following industries was operational in India at the time of independence?

  1. (a) Iron and steel industry
  2. (b) Electronics industry
  3. (c) Aerospace industry
  4. (d) Automobile industry
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Iron and steel industry

Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Budget-announced schemes and missions

Q25. The 'National Mission on High Yielding Seeds' aims to:

  1. (a) promote organic farming practices
  2. (b) develop cold storage infrastructure
  3. (c) enhance irrigation facilities
  4. (d) increase production of high-quality seeds
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) increase production of high-quality seeds

Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q26. How did globalisation affect India’s economic growth?

  1. (a) Had no effect
  2. (b) Slowed it down
  3. (c) Made it grow faster
  4. (d) Reduced GDP
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Made it grow faster

Planning and NITI Aayog · Indian economy at independence and the 1950-90 phase

Q27. What was the reason for stagnation in the agricultural sector during the colonial rule?

  1. (a) Establishment of large scale industries by the colonial government
  2. (b) Extreme commercialisation of agriculture by the colonial government
  3. (c) Imposition of high taxes on the food grains and cash crops by the colonial government
  4. (d) Various systems of land settlement that were introduced by the colonial government
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Various systems of land settlement that were introduced by the colonial government

Planning and NITI Aayog · Indian economy at independence and the 1950-90 phase

Q28. What percentage of the Indian population was dependent on agriculture around the time of independence?

  1. (a) About 70%
  2. (b) About 90%
  3. (c) About 50%
  4. (d) About 30%
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) About 70%

Ancient History (3)

Post-Mauryan Period · Satavahanas

Q29. Which of the following dynasties initiated the practice of land grants to Brahmanas?

  1. (a) Guptas
  2. (b) Satavahanas
  3. (c) Kushanas
  4. (d) Cholas
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Satavahanas

Ancient Art, Culture and Science · Cave architecture (Ajanta, Ellora, Elephanta, etc.)

Q30. What is the total number of cave structures at the Ajanta Caves location in Maharashtra, India, including the one that was never completed?

  1. (a) Thirty
  2. (b) Thirty-one
  3. (c) Thirty-two
  4. (d) Twenty-nine
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Thirty

Indus Valley Civilisation · Artefacts and findings

Q31. Which of the following is a well-known bronze artefact from the Indus Valley Civilisation, dating to around 2500 BCE?

  1. (a) Stone seal of unicorn from Lothal
  2. (b) Priest‑King statue from Mohenjo‑daro
  3. (c) Painted pottery vase from Dholavira
  4. (d) Dancing Girl statue from Mohenjo‑daro
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Dancing Girl statue from Mohenjo‑daro

Physics (1)

Heat and Thermodynamics · Conduction, convection and radiation

Q32. Which law explains the colours of black bodies including the Sun and other stars in terms of their temperatures?

  1. (a) Snell's Law
  2. (b) Kepler's laws of planetary motion
  3. (c) Wien's Displacement Law
  4. (d) Hooke's Law
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Wien's Displacement Law

Medieval History (1)

Mughal Empire · Humayun and Sher Shah Suri

Q33. Sher Shah divided his empire into shiqqs, equivalent to which administrative division under the Mughals?

  1. (a) Mandal
  2. (b) Pargana
  3. (c) Suba
  4. (d) Sarkar
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Sarkar

Static GK (2)

Space, Defence and Technology · Science and technology missions and schemes

Q34. Which mission by the Indian Government, launched in 2023, aims to develop quantum technologies and has established four Thematic Hubs across premier institutions, as of 2025?

  1. (a) Quantum India Program
  2. (b) Digital India Mission
  3. (c) National Quantum Mission
  4. (d) Tech India Initiative
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) National Quantum Mission

Space, Defence and Technology · Nuclear programme and institutions

Q35. The Atomic Energy Establishment, established at Trombay in 1954, was later renamed as:

  1. (a) Nehru Institute of Atomic Energy
  2. (b) Indian Institute of Nuclear Science
  3. (c) Bhabha Atomic Research Centre
  4. (d) Indira Gandhi Atomic Centre
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Bhabha Atomic Research Centre

Computer (2)

Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Windows features and utilities

Q36. Which option in the Control Panel allows a user to add or remove hardware devices in MS Windows?

  1. (a) Network and Sharing Center
  2. (b) Security and Maintenance
  3. (c) System and Security
  4. (d) Device Manager
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Device Manager

Data Representation and Logic · Computer codes (ASCII, Unicode, BCD, EBCDIC)

Q37. What does the abbreviation ASCII stand for?

  1. (a) American Scientific Code for Internet Integration
  2. (b) American Standard Code for Information Interchange
  3. (c) Automatic System for Coding Interactive Interfaces
  4. (d) Advanced System for Computer Input and Integration
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) American Standard Code for Information Interchange

Chemistry (1)

Environmental Chemistry · Acid rain

Q38. Acid rain is mainly caused due to the presence of which two gases in the atmosphere?

  1. (a) Carbon dioxide and Carbon monoxide
  2. (b) Nitrogen and Methane
  3. (c) Sulphur dioxide and Nitrogen oxides
  4. (d) Oxygen and Hydrogen
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Sulphur dioxide and Nitrogen oxides

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