Home › GK Questions Asked › RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 › 16 June 2026 Shift 1

RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 16 June 2026 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 40 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 on 16 June 2026 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Economics, Polity, Chemistry, Current Affairs, Computer, Modern History.

📚 40 questions🗓️ 16 June 2026⏰ Shift 1
हिंदी में पढ़ें📥 Full paper PDF
Subjects: Economics (4) · Polity (5) · Chemistry (1) · Current Affairs (8) · Computer (4) · Modern History (3) · Geography (5) · Biology (2) · Static GK (2) · Ancient History (4) · Physics (1) · Medieval History (1)

Economics (4)

Q1. The NITI Aayog, created in 2015, replaced the Planning Commission as part of India’s development restructuring. What is the correct full form of NITI?

  1. (a) National Interface for Technological Innovation
  2. (b) National Institution for Transforming India
  3. (c) National Initiative for Traditional Industries
  4. (d) National Independent Think-tank of India
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) National Institution for Transforming India

NITI Aayog - Full Form
NITI Aayog was established on1 January 2015.
It replaced thePlanning Commission(1950-2014).
NITIstands forNational Institution for Transforming India.
It serves as a policy think tank of the Government of India.
Answer: Option 2 → National Institution for Transforming India
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q2. Which of the following has NOT aided in Globalisation of the Indian economy?

  1. (a) Reduction of trade barriers
  2. (b) E-commerce
  3. (c) Emergence of multinational companies in India
  4. (d) Farm subsidies
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Farm subsidies

Topic: Globalisation of Indian Economy
Factors that aided Globalisation:
• Reduction of trade barriers → Opened markets for international trade
• E-commerce → Connected Indian businesses to global markets
• MNCs in India → Brought foreign investment and technology
Farm subsidies:
• Domestic policy tool for supporting farmers
• Does NOT promote international economic integration
• Protects local agriculture, not global trade
Answer: Option 4 → Farm subsidies
Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Sectors of the economy (primary, secondary, tertiary)

Q3. The primary focus of tertiary activities is:

  1. (a) Wealth creation through agriculture
  2. (b) Extraction of natural resources
  3. (c) Transformation of raw materials
  4. (d) Production of intangible goods
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Production of intangible goods

Economic Activities Classification:
Primary:Agriculture, mining, fishing (natural resources)
Secondary:Manufacturing, construction (raw material transformation)
Tertiary:Services sector (intangible goods)
Tertiary Activities Include:
Trade, transport, communication, banking, education, healthcare
These produce services, not physical products
Options 1 & 2 → Primary sector
Option 3 → Secondary sector
Option 4 → Tertiary sector ✓
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Energy and power sector schemes

Q4. Which of the following Government of India schemes was launched in 2017 to achieve universal household electrification by providing electricity connections to all un-electrified households in rural areas and all poor households in urban areas in the country?

  1. (a) Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Gram Jyoti Yojana (DDUGJY)
  2. (b) Saubhagya Scheme (Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana)
  3. (c) Power for All Scheme
  4. (d) Pradhan Mantri Ghar Ghar Bijili Yojana (PMGGBY)
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Saubhagya Scheme (Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana)

Topic: Government Schemes - Electricity
Saubhagya Scheme(Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana)
Launched:September 2017
Objective:Universal household electrification
Target: All un-electrified households in rural areas
Also covers: Poor households in urban areas
DDUGJY focuses on rural infrastructure, not direct connections.
Answer: Option 2 → Saubhagya Scheme (Pradhan Mantri Sahaj Bijli Har Ghar Yojana)

Polity (5)

Preamble, Features, Parts and Schedules · Preamble - text and keywords

Q5. The Preamble declares India to be a Secular State. What is the meaning of this?

  1. (a) Citizens must not practise any religion
  2. (b) State protects all religions equally
  3. (c) State promotes majority religion
  4. (d) Religion is banned by the State
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) State protects all religions equally

Secular State in Indian Constitution
The term 'Secular' was added to the Preamble by the42nd Amendment Act, 1976.
Meaning of Secular State:
• State hasno official religion
• State treatsall religions equally
• Citizens havefreedom to practice any religion
• State maintainsequal distance from all religions
India follows the principle ofSarva Dharma Sambhava(equal respect for all religions).
Answer: Option 2 → State protects all religions equally
Union, Territory and Citizenship · Union and its territory (Articles 1-4)

Q6. Which Article of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to form new states or alter their boundaries?

  1. (a) Article 2
  2. (b) Article 6
  3. (c) Article 3
  4. (d) Article 5
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Article 3

Topic: Indian Constitution - Formation of States
Article 3empowers Parliament to:
• Form new states by separation/merger
• Alter boundaries of existing states
• Change names of states
Note:Article 2 deals with admission of new states
Article 5 & 6 deal with citizenship provisions
Answer: Option 3 → Article 3
Fundamental Rights · Right to Freedom (Articles 19-22)

Q7. According to the Constitution of India, the ‘Right to Freedom’ is specifically guaranteed under which exact set of Articles?

  1. (a) Articles 19, 20, 21 and 22
  2. (b) Articles 14, 15, 16 and 17
  3. (c) Articles 32, 33, 34 and 35
  4. (d) Articles 23, 24, 25 and 26
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Articles 19, 20, 21 and 22

Right to Freedom (Articles 19-22)
Article 19:Six freedoms - speech, assembly, association, movement, residence, profession
Article 20:Protection against conviction for offences
Article 21:Protection of life and personal liberty
Article 22:Protection against arrest and detention
Other options cover different rights:
Articles 14-18 → Right to Equality
Articles 23-24 → Right against Exploitation
Articles 25-28 → Right to Freedom of Religion
Answer: Option 1 → Articles 19, 20, 21 and 22
Judiciary · Judicial review and judicial activism

Q8. Which of the following makes the Judiciary, the guardian of the Constitution?

  1. (a) Independence
  2. (b) Judicial overreach
  3. (c) Service conditions
  4. (d) Judicial review
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Judicial review

Judiciary as Guardian of Constitution
Judicial Reviewis the power of courts to examine the constitutionality of legislative enactments and executive orders.
Through judicial review, courts can declare laws and actions unconstitutional if they violate the Constitution.
This power enables the judiciary to protect fundamental rights and maintain constitutional supremacy.
Article 13, 32, 136, 226, and 227 provide the basis for judicial review in India.
Answer: Option 4 → Judicial review
Preamble, Features, Parts and Schedules · Preamble - amendment and judicial views

Q9. Which of the following cases for the first time held the Preamble to be part of the Constitution?

  1. (a) Golaknath Case, 1967
  2. (b) S.R. Bommai Case, 1994
  3. (c) Kesavananda Bharati Case, 1973
  4. (d) Berubari Case, 1960
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Kesavananda Bharati Case, 1973

Topic: Constitutional Law - Status of Preamble
Berubari Case, 1960:Supreme Court held that Preamble is NOT a part of the Constitution.
Kesavananda Bharati Case, 1973:Supreme Court overruled Berubari decision and declared that Preamble IS a part of the Constitution.
This landmark judgment established the Preamble as an integral part of the Constitution for the first time.
Answer: Option 3 → Kesavananda Bharati Case, 1973

Chemistry (1)

Matter and its States · Physical and chemical changes

Q10. Which of the following is a physical change only?

  1. (a) Crystallization
  2. (b) Combustion
  3. (c) Oxidation
  4. (d) Reduction
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Crystallization

Physical vs Chemical Change
Physical Change:No new substance formed, reversible
Chemical Change:New substance formed, irreversible
Crystallization:Solid crystals form from solution
Only state changes, composition remains same
Example: Salt crystals from salt water
Combustion, Oxidation, Reduction:All chemical changes
New substances formed with different properties
Answer: Option 1 → Crystallization

Current Affairs (8)

Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q11. According to the Women, Peace and Security (WPS) Index 2025/26, what is India's rank out of 181 countries?

  1. (a) 131st
  2. (b) 121st
  3. (c) 111th
  4. (d) 141st
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 131st

Women, Peace and Security (WPS) Index 2025/26
The WPS Index measures women's well-being across three dimensions: inclusion, justice, and security.
Published by: Georgetown Institute for Women, Peace and Security and the Peace Research Institute Oslo (PRIO).
India's Performance:
Rank:131st out of 181 countries
The index evaluates factors like employment, education, parliamentary representation, legal discrimination, and violence against women.
Answer: Option 1 → 131st
Awards and Honours - Current · International awards - current

Q12. Susumu Kitagawa, Richard Robson and Omar M. Yaghi were awarded with Nobel Prize in 2025 for their contributions in which field?

  1. (a) Economic Sciences
  2. (b) Medicine
  3. (c) Chemistry
  4. (d) Physics
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Chemistry

Nobel Prize 2025 - Chemistry
Awarded to: Susumu Kitagawa, Richard Robson, and Omar M. Yaghi
Field:Chemistry
Contribution: Development ofMetal-Organic Frameworks (MOFs)
MOFs are porous crystalline materials with applications in gas storage, catalysis, and drug delivery.
Answer: Option 3 → Chemistry
Awards and Honours - Current · International awards - current

Q13. Which Indian non-profit organization became the first Indian to win the Ramon Magsaysay Award in 2025?

  1. (a) Pratham
  2. (b) Educate Girls
  3. (c) Akshaya Patra
  4. (d) Teach For India
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Educate Girls

Ramon Magsaysay Award 2025
Educate Girlsbecame the first Indian non-profit organization to win the Ramon Magsaysay Award in 2025.
The organization works towards girls' education and enrollment in rural India.
Founded in 2007, it focuses on identifying out-of-school girls and bringing them back to education.
Answer: Option 2 → Educate Girls
Awards and Honours - Current · Sports and film awards - current

Q14. Who among the following was awarded the Col. CK Nayudu Lifetime Achievement Award in the men’s category at the BCCI Naman Awards 2025?

  1. (a) Rahul Dravid
  2. (b) Sourav Ganguly
  3. (c) Sachin Tendulkar
  4. (d) Rohit Sharma
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Sachin Tendulkar

Topic:BCCI Naman Awards 2025
Col. CK Nayudu Lifetime Achievement Awardis the highest honor given by BCCI.
At BCCI Naman Awards 2025,Sachin Tendulkarreceived this award in men's category.
Sachin Tendulkar is regarded as one of the greatest batsmen in cricket history.
Answer: Option 3 → Sachin Tendulkar
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q15. According to the Sustainable Development Report, 2025, what was India’s standing in the SDG Index?

  1. (a) 85th
  2. (b) 99th
  3. (c) 110th
  4. (d) 120th
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 99th

Topic: Sustainable Development Report 2025
India ranked99thin the SDG Index 2025.
The report tracks progress on UN's 17 Sustainable
Development Goals across 193 countries.
India's score reflects challenges in achieving
targets related to poverty, health, and climate.
Answer: Option 2 → 99th

Q16. The Union Territories Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2024, does NOT propose to amend which of the following Acts?

  1. (a) Government of National Capital Territory of Delhi Act, 1991
  2. (b) Representation of the People Act, 1951
  3. (c) Government of Union Territories Act, 1963
  4. (d) Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Representation of the People Act, 1951

Union Territories Laws (Amendment) Bill, 2024
The Bill proposes amendments to:
1.Government of NCT of Delhi Act, 1991- Provisions related to Delhi's governance
2.Government of Union Territories Act, 1963- General UT administration
3.Jammu and Kashmir Reorganisation Act, 2019- J&K UT provisions
The Bill does NOT amend:
Representation of the People Act, 1951- Electoral laws remain unchanged
Answer: Option 2 → Representation of the People Act, 1951
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q17. Which of the following vehicles was used to launch the SpaDex mission by the Indian Space Research Organisation?

  1. (a) GSLV Mk II
  2. (b) GSLV Mk III
  3. (c) SSLV-D2
  4. (d) PSLV-C60
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) PSLV-C60

Topic: SpaDex Mission - ISRO
SpaDex (Space Docking Experiment)was launched on30 December 2024.
Launch Vehicle:PSLV-C60from Satish Dhawan Space Centre, Sriharikota.
Mission objective: Demonstrate in-space docking technology using two small satellites.
PSLV (Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle) is ISRO's workhorse for medium-lift missions.
Answer: Option 4 → PSLV-C60
International Affairs and Summits · Global events and elections

Q18. In 2025, which Danish autonomous territory drew global attention due to strategic interest by major powers, echoing Trump’s 2019 acquisition bid?

  1. (a) Svalbard
  2. (b) Iceland
  3. (c) Faroe Islands
  4. (d) Greenland
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Greenland

Topic: Greenland - Strategic Geopolitical Interest
Key Facts:
Greenland is a Danish autonomous territory located between the Arctic and Atlantic Oceans.
In 2019, President Trump proposed purchasing Greenland from Denmark, which was rejected.
In 2025, Greenland again drew global attention due to its strategic importance - rich mineral resources, Arctic shipping routes, and military positioning.
Major powers (USA, China, Russia) show interest due to climate change opening Arctic passages and rare earth minerals.
Answer: Option 4 → Greenland

Computer (4)

Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Popular operating systems

Q19. Which advanced Task Manager function allows users to analyze process dependencies to identify which background services a program relies on?

  1. (a) Go to Details
  2. (b) Analyze Wait Chain
  3. (c) Open File Location
  4. (d) End Task
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Analyze Wait Chain

Topic: Windows Task Manager - Advanced Functions
Analyze Wait Chainis an advanced diagnostic tool in Task Manager.
It shows process dependencies and identifies which background services
or threads a program is waiting for or relies on.
Useful for troubleshooting hung/frozen applications by revealing
blocking processes and service dependencies.
Answer: Option 2 → Analyze Wait Chain
Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Operating system - functions and types

Q20. Which user interface requires users to type instructions using the keyboard to perform tasks?

  1. (a) Graphical User Interface
  2. (b) Voice-based Interface
  3. (c) Touch-based Interface
  4. (d) Command-based Interface
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Command-based Interface

Topic:Types of User Interfaces
Command-based Interface (CLI): Users type text commands
using keyboard to execute tasks and operations.
Examples: DOS, Unix/Linux Terminal, Command Prompt
Other interfaces:
GUI uses mouse/icons, Voice uses speech, Touch uses screen.
Answer: Option 4 → Command-based Interface
Computer Memory · Secondary storage devices

Q21. Which rewritable optical disc format allows users to erase and update data multiple times?

  1. (a) Central Directory-ReWritable
  2. (b) Computer Disc-ReadWrite
  3. (c) Compact Disc-ReWritable
  4. (d) Controlled Disc-ReWriter
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Compact Disc-ReWritable

Topic:Optical Storage Media
CD-RW (Compact Disc-ReWritable)is a rewritable optical disc format.
Key Features:
• Allows data to be erased and rewritten multiple times (up to 1000 times)
• Uses phase-change technology to alter disc surface
• Standard capacity: 650-700 MB
Other formats: CD-R (write once), DVD-RW, BD-RE (Blu-ray rewritable)
Answer: Option 3 → Compact Disc-ReWritable
Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Popular operating systems

Q22. In the Windows operating system, _________ is the first user-mode process that initializes system sessions and starts essential background services.

  1. (a) Windows Explorer
  2. (b) Task Manager
  3. (c) Control Panel
  4. (d) Session Manager
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Session Manager

Topic: Windows OS Boot Process
During Windows boot, kernel loadsSession Manager (smss.exe).
Session Manager is thefirst user-mode process.
Key Functions:
• Initializes system sessions (Session 0, Session 1)
• Starts critical subsystems (Win32k.sys)
• Launches csrss.exe and wininit.exe
Windows Explorer = GUI shell (not first process)
Task Manager = User utility for monitoring
Control Panel = System settings interface
Answer: Option 4 → Session Manager

Modern History (3)

British Administration and Policies · Press acts and other laws

Q23. The Vernacular Press Act (1878) targeted _____________.

  1. (a) Trade publications against British rule
  2. (b) Hindi educational journals during British rule
  3. (c) English newspapers only
  4. (d) Indian-language newspapers critical of British rule
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Indian-language newspapers critical of British rule

Vernacular Press Act, 1878
Enacted by: Lord Lytton (Viceroy of India)
Purpose: To suppress criticism of British policies in Indian-language newspapers
Target: Newspapers published in Indian languages (vernacular press) that criticized British rule
Impact: English newspapers were exempt; only Indian-language press was controlled
Repealed: 1881 by Lord Ripon
Answer: Option 4 → Indian-language newspapers critical of British rule
Rise of Nationalism and Indian National Congress · Extremists - leaders and methods

Q24. Which period is associated with the Extremist phase of the Indian National Congress?

  1. (a) 1905–1919
  2. (b) 1920–1947
  3. (c) 1947–1950
  4. (d) 1885–1905
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1905–1919

Topic: Indian National Congress - Extremist Phase
The INC had three major phases:
1.Moderate Phase (1885–1905)- Constitutional methods
2.Extremist Phase (1905–1919)- Aggressive nationalism
3.Gandhian Phase (1920–1947)- Mass movements
Extremist Phase (1905–1919):
Started with Partition of Bengal (1905)
Leaders: Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Lala Lajpat Rai, Bipin Chandra Pal
Methods: Boycott, Swadeshi, National Education
Ended around 1919 with rise of Gandhian era
Answer: Option 1 → 1905–1919
Rise of Nationalism and Indian National Congress · Extremists - leaders and methods

Q25. Which feature correctly describes the extremists’ use of religious symbolism?

  1. (a) Cultural symbols like Shivaji and Ganapati were used for political mobilisation.
  2. (b) Ritual worship was introduced into political meetings to replace speeches.
  3. (c) All movements were confined exclusively to Hindu religious gatherings.
  4. (d) Festivals were reorganised to discourage participation from non-Hindu groups
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Cultural symbols like Shivaji and Ganapati were used for political mobilisation.

Topic:Extremist Movement & Religious Symbolism
Key Features:
Leaders like Tilak used cultural symbols (Shivaji, Ganapati)
to mobilize masses for political awakening.
Ganapati Festival (1893) transformed into public celebration
to unite people against British rule.
Shivaji Festival celebrated Maratha pride and resistance.
These werepolitical tools, not religious exclusion.
Answer: Option 1 → Cultural symbols like Shivaji and Ganapati were used for political mobilisation.

Geography (5)

India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Forest types and distribution

Q26. In which kind of forest do the plants remain leafless for most of the year?

  1. (a) Littoral and swamp forest
  2. (b) Montane forest
  3. (c) Tropical thorn forest
  4. (d) Evergreen forests
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Tropical thorn forest

Topic: Forest Types in India
Tropical Thorn Forests:
Found in areas with rainfall <70 cm (semi-arid regions)
Plants have long roots, thick bark, small leaves
Trees remainleafless for most of the yearto conserve water
Common in Rajasthan, Gujarat, MP, UP, Haryana
Examples: Acacia, Palms, Euphorbias, Cacti
Other options: Evergreen (always green), Montane (altitude-based),
Littoral (coastal mangroves) - all retain leaves
Answer: Option 3 → Tropical thorn forest

Q27. Which river forms a fertile region within parts of the Great Indian Desert?

  1. (a) Beas River
  2. (b) Narmada River
  3. (c) Sabarmati River
  4. (d) Ghaggar River
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Ghaggar River

Topic: Rivers of the Great Indian Desert (Thar Desert)
Ghaggar Riveris a seasonal river in Rajasthan and Haryana.
It flows through the northwestern part of the Thar Desert.
Creates fertile alluvial deposits in its basin during monsoon.
Also known asGhaggar-Hakra Riversystem.
Other options: Beas (Punjab), Narmada (Central India), Sabarmati (Gujarat).
Answer: Option 4 → Ghaggar River

Q28. In which of the following Indian states does the maximum portion of the Upper Ganga Plain extend?

  1. (a) West Bengal
  2. (b) Bihar
  3. (c) Haryana
  4. (d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Uttar Pradesh

Upper Ganga Plain - Geographic Extent
The Upper Ganga Plain extends fromHaridwar to Prayagraj.
Major coverage:Uttar Pradesh(most extensive)
Also covers: Parts of Haryana, Delhi, and western UP.
Lower Ganga Plain: Bihar and West Bengal.
Answer: Option 4 → Uttar Pradesh
India - Minerals, Energy and Industries · Metallic minerals and mines

Q29. Kudremukh in Karnataka is famous for the mining of:

  1. (a) Iron Ore
  2. (b) Limestone
  3. (c) Manganese
  4. (d) Copper
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Iron Ore

Kudremukh Mining Region
Location:Chikmagalur district, Karnataka
Famous for:High-grade iron ore deposits
Kudremukh Iron Ore Company Ltd. (KIOCL) operated one of India's largest iron ore mines here until 2005.
The region contains magnetite ore with high iron content.
Answer: Option 1 → Iron Ore
India - Agriculture · Land use pattern and land resources

Q30. Wasteland refers to:

  1. (a) Urban green areas
  2. (b) River valley fertile land
  3. (c) Land covered by forests
  4. (d) Land not suitable for cultivation due to natural or human causes
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Land not suitable for cultivation due to natural or human causes

Wasteland Definition
Wasteland refers to land that isdegradedorunproductivefor cultivation.
Causes include:
• Natural: Salinity, waterlogging, rocky terrain, erosion
• Human: Mining, industrial waste, overgrazing, deforestation
It isnotfertile land, forests, or urban green spaces.
Answer: Option 4 → Land not suitable for cultivation due to natural or human causes

Biology (2)

Tissues · Meristematic tissues

Q31. What is the main characteristic of cells in the meristematic phase of growth in plants?

  1. (a) Active cell division
  2. (b) Maximum cell size
  3. (c) Large vacuoles
  4. (d) Thick cell walls
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Active cell division

Meristematic Tissue Characteristics:
Meristematic cells are found in growing regions of plants (root tips, shoot tips, cambium).
Key Features:
• Cells undergocontinuous and active cell division
• Small cell size with thin cell walls
• Dense cytoplasm with prominent nucleus
• Absent or very small vacuoles
Other options describe mature/permanent tissue cells, not meristematic cells.
Answer: Option 1 → Active cell division
Diseases, Immunity and Health · Deficiency diseases

Q32. The deficiency of which vitamin can lead to night blindness?

  1. (a) Vitamin A
  2. (b) Vitamin C
  3. (c) Vitamin B12
  4. (d) Vitamin D
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Vitamin A

Topic: Vitamin Deficiency Diseases
Vitamin A (Retinol)is essential for vision, especially in low light conditions.
It helps formrhodopsin(visual purple) in retina cells, which enables vision in dim light.
Deficiency causesnight blindness (nyctalopia)- inability to see in poor light.
Other effects: dry eyes, corneal damage, impaired immunity.
Answer: Option 1 → Vitamin A

Static GK (2)

Sports · Olympic Games

Q33. Which of the following countries won the highest number of medals at the Summer Olympics 2024?

  1. (a) India
  2. (b) Australia
  3. (c) United States of America
  4. (d) China
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) United States of America

Summer Olympics 2024 - Paris
Medal Tally (Top Countries):
1.United States- 126 total medals (40 Gold, 44 Silver, 42 Bronze)
2. China - 91 total medals (40 Gold, 27 Silver, 24 Bronze)
3. Great Britain - 65 total medals
4. Australia - 53 total medals
India won 6 medals (1 Silver, 5 Bronze).
Answer: Option 3 → United States of America
Dances · Folk dances by state

Q34. Saang dance is a ritualistic popular traditional folk dance of _____________, reflecting its culture in the true sense.

  1. (a) Haryana
  2. (b) Kerala
  3. (c) Punjab
  4. (d) Sikkim
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Haryana

Topic: Indian Folk Dances
Saang Danceis a traditional folk theatre form ofHaryana.
It is a ritualistic dance-drama that depicts mythological stories,
historical events, and social themes.
Performed during festivals and special occasions, it truly reflects
Haryanvi culture and traditions.
Answer: Option 1 → Haryana

Ancient History (4)

Sources and Prehistoric India · Palaeolithic Age

Q35. Which human species is associated with the Upper Paleolithic cultural phase?

  1. (a) Homo neanderthalensis in European and Asian regions
  2. (b) Homo erectus populations moving out of Africa
  3. (c) Anatomically Modern Homo sapiens across the Old World
  4. (d) Denisovan groups settled in mountain environments
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Anatomically Modern Homo sapiens across the Old World

Upper Paleolithic Period: 50,000-10,000 years ago
Key Features: Advanced stone tools, cave art, symbolic behavior
Associated Species:Anatomically Modern Homo sapiens
Evidence: Lascaux caves (France), Altamira (Spain), sophisticated blade technology
Note: Neanderthals extinct ~40,000 years ago; Homo erectus much earlier
Answer: Option 3 → Anatomically Modern Homo sapiens across the Old World
Indus Valley Civilisation · Artefacts and findings

Q36. Which archaeological site revealed the earliest known public water tank of the ancient world, famously referred to as the Great Bath?

  1. (a) Surkotada
  2. (b) Dholavira
  3. (c) Lothal
  4. (d) Mohenjo-daro
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Mohenjo-daro

Topic: Indus Valley Civilization - Archaeological Sites
TheGreat Bathis located atMohenjo-daro.
Key Facts:
• Dimensions: 12m × 7m × 2.4m deep
• Earliest known public water tank
• Used for ritual bathing purposes
• Built with burnt bricks and waterproof bitumen
Other sites:
Lothal - Dockyard, Dholavira - Water management
Surkotada - Horse bones found
Answer: Option 4 → Mohenjo-daro
Post-Mauryan Period · Sangam Age - Cheras, Cholas, Pandyas

Q37. Who were referred to as Uzhavar in Sangam literature?

  1. (a) Ploughmen
  2. (b) Large landowners
  3. (c) Priests
  4. (d) Slaves
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Ploughmen

Sangam Literature - Social Classification
In Sangam period Tamil society, people were classified based on occupation.
Uzhavarliterally means 'those who plough' in Tamil.
They were thecultivators/ploughmenwho worked on agricultural land.
Large landowners were calledVellalar.
Answer: Option 1 → Ploughmen
Indus Valley Civilisation · Artefacts and findings

Q38. Which of the following Harappan sites is famous for its dockyard?

  1. (a) Nal
  2. (b) Kalibangan
  3. (c) Lothal
  4. (d) Rakhigarhi
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Lothal

Topic: Harappan Civilization - Important Sites
Lothal(Gujarat) is famous for its ancientdockyard.
It was a majortrading portof the Indus Valley Civilization.
The dockyard connected Harappan cities to sea trade routes.
Other sites: Kalibangan (fire altars), Rakhigarhi (largest site), Nal (pottery).
Answer: Option 3 → Lothal

Physics (1)

Sound and Waves · Reflection of sound, echo and reverberation

Q39. What minimum distance should the reflecting surface be for an echo to be heard?

  1. (a) 10 m
  2. (b) 17.2 m
  3. (c) 5 m
  4. (d) 34.2 m
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 17.2 m

Topic:Echo and Sound Reflection
For echo to be heard distinctly, time gap ≥ 0.1 s
Speed of sound in air = 344 m/s (approx)
Distance = Speed × Time
Total distance = 344 × 0.1 = 34.4 m
This is round trip (to surface and back)
Minimum distance to surface = 34.4/2 = 17.2 m
Answer: Option 2 → 17.2 m

Medieval History (1)

Early Medieval North India · Chronicles of the period (Rajatarangini, etc.)

Q40. The historical chronicle Rajatarangini, which presents a detailed account of the kings of Kashmir, was composed by:

  1. (a) Kalhana
  2. (b) Kshemendra
  3. (c) Bilhana
  4. (d) Somadeva
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Kalhana

Topic: Rajatarangini - Historical Chronicle of Kashmir
Rajatarangini(River of Kings) is a metrical historical chronicle of Kashmir.
Composed byKalhanain 12th century CE (1148-1150 CE).
Written in Sanskrit, it records history of Kashmir kings from earliest times to his period.
Considered first historical text in Sanskrit literature.
Answer: Option 1 → Kalhana
← 15 June 2026 Shift 3All shifts16 June 2026 Shift 2 →
📥 PDF of this paper (all subjects, English & Hindi): RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 previous year papers PDF · ▶ Attempt previous year papers as free online tests · 🏆 Free live mock tests · 📰 Daily current affairs quiz