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RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 16 June 2026 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 39 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 on 16 June 2026 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Geography, Computer, Static GK, Current Affairs, Economics, Ancient History.

📚 39 questions🗓️ 16 June 2026⏰ Shift 2
हिंदी में पढ़ें📥 Full paper PDF
Subjects: Geography (5) · Computer (4) · Static GK (4) · Current Affairs (7) · Economics (3) · Ancient History (2) · Modern History (3) · Biology (2) · Physics (2) · Polity (6) · Medieval History (1)

Geography (5)

India - Drainage System · Dams and river valley projects

Q1. Which of the following is a hydroelectric power plant located on a Himalayan river?

  1. (a) Krishnarajasagar Hydroelectric Power Plant
  2. (b) Tehri Dam and Hydroelectric Power Plant
  3. (c) Mettur Hydroelectric Power Plant
  4. (d) Srisailam Hydroelectric Power Plant
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Tehri Dam and Hydroelectric Power Plant

Himalayan Rivers and Hydroelectric Plants
Tehri Dam- Located onBhagirathi River(tributary of Ganga) in Uttarakhand
One of the highest dams in India (260.5 m)
Major hydroelectric project in the Himalayas
Other Options:
Krishnarajasagar - On Kaveri River (Karnataka)
Mettur - On Kaveri River (Tamil Nadu)
Srisailam - On Krishna River (Andhra Pradesh)
Answer: Option 2 → Tehri Dam and Hydroelectric Power Plant
India - Drainage System · Dams and river valley projects

Q2. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is constructed across which of the following rivers?

  1. (a) Godavari
  2. (b) Krishna
  3. (c) Tungabhadra
  4. (d) Bhima
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Krishna

Nagarjuna Sagar Dam
Location: Telangana-Andhra Pradesh border
River:Krishna River
One of the largest masonry dams in the world
Answer: Option 2 → Krishna
India - Drainage System · Tributaries and confluences

Q3. The Pin River constitutes the most important right bank tributary of __________.

  1. (a) Bhaga River
  2. (b) Chandra River
  3. (c) Tsarab River
  4. (d) Spiti River
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Spiti River

Topic: Rivers of Himachal Pradesh
The Pin River is a major tributary in the Spiti Valley region.
It originates from the Pin Parvati Pass and flows through the Pin Valley National Park.
The Pin River joins theSpiti Riverfrom the right bank near the village of Attargo.
The Spiti River itself is a tributary of the Sutlej River.
Answer: Option 4 → Spiti River
Atmosphere and Climate · Pressure belts

Q4. Which statement accurately explains the nature of the Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ)?

  1. (a) It forms a cold frontal region near the Himalayan ranges.
  2. (b) It is an equatorial low-pressure belt where trade winds meet.
  3. (c) It marks a westerly wind system close to the Tropic of Capricorn.
  4. (d) It represents a zone of high pressure located near the poles.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) It is an equatorial low-pressure belt where trade winds meet.

Topic: Inter Tropical Convergence Zone (ITCZ)
ITCZ is alow-pressure beltnear the equator where trade winds from both hemispheres converge.
Northeast trade winds (Northern Hemisphere) and Southeast trade winds (Southern Hemisphere) meet here.
This convergence causes rising air, cloud formation, and heavy rainfall.
ITCZ shifts seasonally - moves north in summer and south in winter, influencing monsoons.
Answer: Option 2 → It is an equatorial low-pressure belt where trade winds meet.
India - Population and Census · Census 2011 - population and growth

Q5. As of 1 March 2001, what was the population of India?

  1. (a) 950 million
  2. (b) 1,210 million
  3. (c) 1,027 million
  4. (d) 1,000 million
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1,027 million

Topic:Census of India 2001
The Census of India is conducted every 10 years.
Census 2001 was conducted with reference date:1 March 2001
Total population recorded:1,027 million (1.027 billion)
This was approximately 102.7 crore people.
Answer: Option 3 → 1,027 million

Computer (4)

Abbreviations and Miscellaneous · Computer abbreviations

Q6. In a computer system, a running program stores currently required data in RAM. What does RAM stand for?

  1. (a) Random Active Memory
  2. (b) Random Access Memory
  3. (c) Read Action Memory
  4. (d) Random Access Mode
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Random Access Memory

Topic: Computer Memory
RAM = Random Access Memory
Key Facts:
• Volatile memory - data lost when power off
• Stores currently running programs and data
• Allows random access to any memory location
Answer: Option 2 → Random Access Memory
Computer Organisation and Hardware · Input devices

Q7. Consider the following statements regarding Input and Output devices and select the correct option. (i) A microphone is an input device that can capture sound, but it cannot output any sound.(ii) The CPU's processing speed is much faster than the data transfer rate of external devices like printers.

  1. (a) (i) True, (ii) False
  2. (b) (i) False, (ii) False
  3. (c) (i) True, (ii) True
  4. (d) (i) False, (ii) True
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) (i) True, (ii) True

Statement Analysis:
(i) Microphone as Input Device:
Microphone captures sound waves and converts them into electrical signals for computer processing.
It is purely aninput device— it cannot output/produce sound.
Statement (i) is TRUE.
(ii) CPU Speed vs External Devices:
CPU processes data atGHz speeds(billions of operations/second).
External devices like printers operate at much slower rates (pages/minute).
This speed mismatch requiresbuffers and spoolingto manage data flow.
Statement (ii) is TRUE.
Answer: Option 3 → (i) True, (ii) True
Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Types of software (system, application, utility)

Q8. Which one of the following best describes system software? Choose the correct option.

  1. (a) Software for playing multimedia files
  2. (b) Software for browsing the internet
  3. (c) Software that manages hardware and provides platform for application software
  4. (d) Software used to create documents
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Software that manages hardware and provides platform for application software

System Software Definition:
System software acts as aninterface between hardware and application software.
Key Functions:
• Manages computer hardware resources
• Provides platform for running application software
• Examples: Operating Systems (Windows, Linux), Device Drivers, Utilities
Other Options:
Options 1, 2, 4 describeapplication software(user-specific tasks).
Answer: Option 3 → Software that manages hardware and provides platform for application software
Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Popular operating systems

Q9. For Windows operating system, choose the correct option that shows the primary difference between Sleep and Hibernate power-saving modes with respect to memory and system state?

  1. (a) Sleep saves system state to disk; Hibernate uses RAM
  2. (b) Hibernate keeps data in RAM; Sleep saves to disk
  3. (c) Both save data to RAM
  4. (d) Sleep keeps data in RAM; Hibernate saves it to disk
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Sleep keeps data in RAM; Hibernate saves it to disk

Windows Power-Saving Modes
Sleep Mode:
• System state kept inRAM(volatile memory)
• Quick resume, low power consumption
• Data lost if power fails
Hibernate Mode:
• System state saved todisk(hiberfil.sys)
• Zero power consumption, slower resume
• Data preserved even after power loss
Answer: Option 4 → Sleep keeps data in RAM; Hibernate saves it to disk

Static GK (4)

Music and Musical Instruments · Musical instruments and exponents

Q10. Which of the following traditional Indian percussion instruments is regarded as the predecessor of the modern Tabla?

  1. (a) Pakhawaj
  2. (b) Thavil
  3. (c) Dhol
  4. (d) Kanjira
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Pakhawaj

Topic: Indian Classical Music Instruments
Pakhawajis a barrel-shaped two-headed drum used in Hindustani classical music.
Historical evolution: Pakhawaj was split into two parts during Mughal era to create the modern Tabla.
The right head (dayan) and left head (bayan) of Pakhawaj became separate drums in Tabla.
Other options: Thavil (South Indian), Dhol (folk), Kanjira (frame drum) - not related to Tabla's origin.
Answer: Option 1 → Pakhawaj
Tribes, Languages and Religions · Classical and scheduled languages

Q11. In which year was the first "Sanskrit Commission" constituted?

  1. (a) 1952
  2. (b) 2013
  3. (c) 1956
  4. (d) 2019
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1956

Topic:Sanskrit Commission
The first Sanskrit Commission was constituted by the Government of India in1956.
It was established to promote and develop the Sanskrit language in India.
The commission made recommendations for Sanskrit education and preservation.
Answer: Option 3 → 1956
Monuments and Heritage · UNESCO World Heritage Sites in India

Q12. Which Indian city, as of October 2025, holds the world’s second-largest collection of Art Deco buildings, including the UNESCO-recognized Oval Maidan precinct with 94 structures?

  1. (a) Kolkata
  2. (b) Indore
  3. (c) Mumbai
  4. (d) Jaipur
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Mumbai

Topic: Art Deco Architecture in India
Key Facts:
Mumbai has world's 2nd-largest Art Deco collection (after Miami).
UNESCO recognizedOval Maidan precinctwith 94 Art Deco structures.
Marine Drive, Churchgate area famous for Art Deco buildings from 1930s-40s.
Answer: Option 3 → Mumbai
Important Days and Themes · National days

Q13. Which day is celebrated as National Youth Day (Birthday of Swami Vivekananda) in India every year?

  1. (a) February 16ᵗʰ
  2. (b) March 20ᵗʰ
  3. (c) January 12ᵗʰ
  4. (d) April 30ᵗʰ
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) January 12ᵗʰ

National Youth Day in India
Celebrated on:January 12thevery year
Commemorates: Birthday ofSwami Vivekananda
First observed: 1985 (declared by Government of India)
Significance: Honors Swami Vivekananda's philosophy and ideals for youth empowerment
Answer: Option 3 → January 12ᵗʰ

Current Affairs (7)

Science, Technology and Space - Current · Technology launches and AI

Q14. Which government department launched the 5G Innovation Hackathon 2025, a six-month initiative aimed at accelerating the development of innovative 5G-powered solutions to address societal and industrial challenges?

  1. (a) NITI Aayog
  2. (b) Department of Science and Technology (DST)
  3. (c) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY)
  4. (d) Department of Telecommunications (DoT)
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Department of Telecommunications (DoT)

5G Innovation Hackathon 2025
Launched by:Department of Telecommunications (DoT)
Key Facts:
• Six-month initiative to develop 5G-powered solutions
• Focuses on societal and industrial challenges
• Part of India's 5G ecosystem development strategy
Answer: Option 4 → Department of Telecommunications (DoT)
International Affairs and Summits · International organisations - current

Q15. Which of the following countries signed the OECD Multilateral Convention in October 2025 to Implement BEPS (Base Erosion and Profit Shifting)?

  1. (a) Russia
  2. (b) Japan
  3. (c) Brazil
  4. (d) India
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Brazil

OECD Multilateral Convention - BEPS
BEPS =Base Erosion and Profit Shifting
InOctober 2025, Brazil signed the OECD Multilateral Convention to implement tax measures preventing base erosion and profit shifting by multinational companies.
This convention helps countries combat tax avoidance strategies that exploit gaps in tax rules.
Answer: Option 3 → Brazil
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · Policies, laws and bills

Q16. From which month and year are the Corporate Average Fuel Efficiency (CAFE-3) norms scheduled to be implemented in India?

  1. (a) April 2028
  2. (b) April 2027
  3. (c) April 2029
  4. (d) April 2026
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) April 2027

Topic:Corporate Average Fuel Efficiency (CAFE) Norms
CAFE norms regulate fuel efficiency standards for vehicles in India.
CAFE-3 normsare scheduled to be implemented fromApril 2027.
These norms aim to reduce fuel consumption and carbon emissions.
Answer: Option 2 → April 2027
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Reports and their publishers

Q17. Which edition of the Global Risks Report was released by the World Economic Forum in 2025?

  1. (a) 18ᵗʰ Edition
  2. (b) 20ᵗʰ Edition
  3. (c) 21ˢᵗ Edition
  4. (d) 19ᵗʰ Edition
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 20ᵗʰ Edition

Topic: Global Risks Report 2025
The World Economic Forum (WEF) released the20th Editionof the Global Risks Report in January 2025.
This annual report analyzes global risks and their interconnections.
The report marks two decades of risk assessment by WEF.
Answer: Option 2 → 20ᵗʰ Edition
Defence and Security - Current · Military exercises - current

Q18. Which of the following naval ships participated in the SLINEX-25 exercise in Sri Lanka in August 2025?

  1. (a) INS Vikrant and INS Trikand
  2. (b) INS Kolkata and INS Satpura
  3. (c) INS Talwar and INS Shivalik
  4. (d) INS Rana and INS Jyoti
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) INS Rana and INS Jyoti

Topic: SLINEX-25 Naval Exercise
SLINEX= Sri Lanka-India Naval Exercise
Conducted in August 2025 in Sri Lanka
Indian Naval Ships participated:
INS Rana(Rajput-class destroyer)
INS Jyoti(Fleet tanker)
Answer: Option 4 → INS Rana and INS Jyoti
Appointments and Resignations · Heads of organisations

Q19. The Indian Medical Association (IMA) recently appointed a new President. Who assumed charge as the IMA National President in December 2025?

  1. (a) Dr. Anil Nayak
  2. (b) Dr. Amit Chakrabarty
  3. (c) Dr. Ketan Desai
  4. (d) Dr. Dilip Bhanushali
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Dr. Anil Nayak

Topic: Current Affairs - Medical Administration
Indian Medical Association (IMA) President - December 2025
Dr. Anil Nayak assumed charge as the National President of IMA in December 2025.
IMA is the largest voluntary organization of doctors in India, representing medical professionals across the country.
Answer: Option 1 → Dr. Anil Nayak
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Reports and their publishers

Q20. According to the WMO report cited in 2025, global warming in Jan–Aug 2025 was approximately how much above pre-industrial levels?

  1. (a) 1.0°C
  2. (b) 0.8°C
  3. (c) 1.42°C
  4. (d) 2.1°C
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1.42°C

Topic:WMO Report 2025 - Global Warming
The World Meteorological Organization (WMO) reported
global temperature data for January-August 2025.
Key Finding:
Global warming during Jan-Aug 2025 was approximately
1.42°C above pre-industrial levels.
This indicates continued rising temperature trends
approaching the critical 1.5°C threshold.
Answer: Option 3 → 1.42°C

Economics (3)

Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Human Development Index and UNDP

Q21. What is GII in the context of Human Development?

  1. (a) Gender Inability Index
  2. (b) Gender Inequality Index
  3. (c) General Inequality Index
  4. (d) Gender Inequality Information
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Gender Inequality Index

GII in Human Development
GII stands forGender Inequality Index.
It is a composite measure introduced by UNDP in 2010.
Reflects gender-based disadvantages in reproductive health, empowerment, and labor market participation.
Answer: Option 2 → Gender Inequality Index
Industry and Infrastructure · Industrial Policy Resolutions (1948, 1956, 1991)

Q22. When was the Industrial Policy Resolution (IPR) adopted in India?

  1. (a) 1959
  2. (b) 1952
  3. (c) 1956
  4. (d) 1954
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1956

Industrial Policy Resolution (IPR) 1956
The IPR was adopted onApril 30, 1956by the Government of India.
Key Features:
• Classified industries into 3 categories (Schedule A, B, C)
• Emphasized public sector role in heavy industries
• Based on socialist pattern of society
This was the second IPR after 1948 and remained in force until 1991.
Answer: Option 3 → 1956
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q23. Which sector in India saw major growth due to globalisation?

  1. (a) Mining
  2. (b) Handicrafts
  3. (c) IT and Services
  4. (d) Education
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) IT and Services

Topic: Impact of Globalisation on Indian Economy
Globalisation opened Indian markets to foreign investment and technology after 1991 economic reforms.
IT and Services sectorexperienced exponential growth due to:
• Outsourcing from developed countries
• Skilled English-speaking workforce
• Cost advantage and 24/7 service capability
India became global hub for software development, BPO, and IT services.
Answer: Option 3 → IT and Services

Ancient History (2)

Vedic Period · Vedic literature (Vedas, Brahmanas, Aranyakas, Upanishads)

Q24. নিম্নোক্ত কোন বিকল্পটি ঋগ্বেদের রচয়িতা বা রচয়িতাবৃন্দ সম্পর্কে সবচেয়ে উপযুক্ত বর্ণনা দেয়?

  1. (a) এটি মহর্ষি ব্যাস একাই রচনা করেছিলেন এবং এটি মহাভারতের যুগে সংকলিত হয়েছিল।
  2. (b) এটি প্রজন্মের পর প্রজন্ম ধরে বিভিন্ন ঋষিদের দ্বারা রচিত সূক্তসমূহের একটি সংকলন।
  3. (c) এটি প্রাচীন ভারতের একজন একক দার্শনিক-রাজার দ্বারা লিখিত হয়েছিল।
  4. (d) মৌখিক প্রচারের জন্য মহর্ষি বাল্মীকি এটিকে একটি কাব্যিক মহাকাব্য হিসেবে উচ্চারণ করেছিলেন।
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) এটি প্রজন্মের পর প্রজন্ম ধরে বিভিন্ন ঋষিদের দ্বারা রচিত সূক্তসমূহের একটি সংকলন।

Topic: Rigveda Authorship
Rigveda is the oldest Veda (c. 1500-1200 BCE).
It contains 1,028 hymns (suktas) composed by multiple rishis across generations.
Major contributors: Vishwamitra, Vashishtha, Atri, Bharadwaja, and other rishi families.
It was orally transmitted and later compiled, not written by a single author.
Answer: Option 2 → এটি প্রজন্মের পর প্রজন্ম ধরে বিভিন্ন ঋষিদের দ্বারা রচিত সূক্তসমূহের একটি সংকলন।
Sources and Prehistoric India · Mesolithic Age

Q25. The ‘Mesolithic Age’ is regarded as a transitional phase because it represents the shift between which two prehistoric periods?

  1. (a) Neolithic Age and Chalcolithic Age
  2. (b) Palaeolithic Age and Neolithic Age
  3. (c) Chalcolithic Age and Iron Age
  4. (d) Bronze Age and Iron Age
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Palaeolithic Age and Neolithic Age

Mesolithic Age (Middle Stone Age)
Transitional period between:
•Palaeolithic Age(Old Stone Age) - Hunter-gatherers
•Neolithic Age(New Stone Age) - Agriculture & settled life
Key features of Mesolithic:
• Microliths (small stone tools)
• Semi-nomadic lifestyle
• Beginning of domestication
Answer: Option 2 → Palaeolithic Age and Neolithic Age

Modern History (3)

Socio-Religious Reform Movements · Raja Ram Mohan Roy and Brahmo Samaj

Q26. ব্রাহ্মসমাজের কোন বৈশিষ্ট্যটি হিন্দু ধর্মীয় অনুশীলনের সংস্কারবাদী ব্যাখ্যাকে সবচেয়ে ভালোভাবে নির্দেশ করে?

  1. (a) একেশ্বরবাদী উপাসনা প্রচার করা এবং ধর্মীয় বলিদান সম্পূর্ণরূপে প্রত্যাখ্যান করা।
  2. (b) ভারত জুড়ে বৈদিক বহুঈশ্বরবাদকে পুনরুজ্জীবিত করা এবং ধর্মীয় উৎসর্গকে উৎসাহিত করা।
  3. (c) বংশগত পৌরোহিত্যকে সমুন্নত রাখা এবং সর্বত্র বর্ণ বিভাজনকে শক্তিশালী করা।
  4. (d) পুরোহিতের কর্তৃত্ব রক্ষা করা এবং মন্দিরের জাঁকজমকপূর্ণ অনুষ্ঠানগুলিকে সমর্থন করা।
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) একেশ্বরবাদী উপাসনা প্রচার করা এবং ধর্মীয় বলিদান সম্পূর্ণরূপে প্রত্যাখ্যান করা।

Topic: Brahmo Samaj — Hindu Reform Movement
Founded by Raja Ram Mohan Roy (1828)
Key Reformist Features:
• Promotedmonotheism(worship of one formless God)
• Rejected idol worship and animal sacrifices
• Opposed caste system and priestly dominance
• Emphasized Upanishadic philosophy over rituals
Analysis of Options:
Option 1 ✓ — Core principle of Brahmo Samaj
Options 2,3,4 — Contradict reformist ideology
Gandhian Era · Round Table Conferences and Gandhi-Irwin Pact

Q27. Which of the following groups at the Second Round Table Conference claimed that Congress had no authority in their territories?

  1. (a) Zamindars
  2. (b) Indian princes
  3. (c) Provincial governors
  4. (d) British officials
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Indian princes

Second Round Table Conference (1931)
Context: Gandhi attended representing Congress
Indian Princes' Stand:
Princely states were semi-autonomous under British paramountcy
Princes claimed Congress had no authority over their territories
They represented ~40% of Indian subcontinent area
Argued their states were separate from British India
This was a major obstacle in constitutional negotiations
Answer: Option 2 → Indian princes
British Administration and Policies · Constitutional Acts under British rule

Q28. The Morley-Minto Reforms were introduced by the British Government in India in ______.

  1. (a) 1905
  2. (b) 1909
  3. (c) 1935
  4. (d) 1919
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1909

Morley-Minto Reforms (Indian Councils Act)
Introduced in1909by Lord Morley (Secretary of State) and Lord Minto (Viceroy).
Key Features:
• Expanded legislative councils at central and provincial levels.
• Introduced separate electorates for Muslims (communal representation).
• Increased Indian participation in governance.
Answer: Option 2 → 1909

Biology (2)

Plant Physiology and Morphology · Photosynthesis - process and factors

Q29. Which pigment is responsible for the green color of plants?

  1. (a) Carotene
  2. (b) Anthocyanin
  3. (c) Chlorophyll
  4. (d) Xanthophyll
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Chlorophyll

Topic:Plant Pigments
Chlorophyllis the primary pigment in plants.
Located in chloroplasts, absorbs light for photosynthesis.
Absorbs red and blue light, reflects green light.
Other pigments: Carotene (orange), Anthocyanin (red/purple), Xanthophyll (yellow).
Answer: Option 3 → Chlorophyll
Diseases, Immunity and Health · Protozoan diseases

Q30. A gastrointestinal disease caused by the protozoan Entamoeba histolytica leads to abdominal pain and stools with excess mucous and blood clots. It often spreads through contaminated food and water via houseflies acting as mechanical carriers. Which disease is described?

  1. (a) Giardiasis
  2. (b) Cholera
  3. (c) Amoebiasis
  4. (d) Ascariasis
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Amoebiasis

Disease: Amoebiasis (Amoebic Dysentery)
Causative Agent:Entamoeba histolytica (protozoan)
Key Symptoms:Abdominal pain, stools with excess mucous and blood clots
Transmission:Contaminated food and water, houseflies as mechanical carriers
Other Options:
Giardiasis → Giardia lamblia
Cholera → Vibrio cholerae (bacteria)
Ascariasis → Ascaris lumbricoides (roundworm)
Answer: Option 3 → Amoebiasis

Physics (2)

Electricity · Heating effect of current and Joule's law

Q31. Heat generated in an electrical resistor is measured in which SI unit?

  1. (a) Volt
  2. (b) Joule
  3. (c) Coulomb
  4. (d) Watt
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Joule

Topic: Heat and Electrical Energy
Heat is a form of energy
SI unit of energy =Joule (J)
Heat generated in resistor = I²Rt (in Joules)
Note: Watt is unit of power (energy/time)
Answer: Option 2 → Joule
Modern Physics and Electronics · Electromagnetic spectrum and radiations

Q32. The energy of light (photon) is a form of ______.

  1. (a) Electromagnetic Energy
  2. (b) Mechanical Energy
  3. (c) Nuclear Energy
  4. (d) Gravitational Potential Energy
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Electromagnetic Energy

Topic: Nature of Light Energy
Photonis a quantum (packet) of electromagnetic radiation.
Light exhibits wave-particle duality and travels as electromagnetic waves.
Electromagnetic spectrum includes: radio waves, microwaves, infrared, visible light, UV, X-rays, gamma rays.
Photon energy:E = hν(h = Planck's constant, ν = frequency)
Answer: Option 1 → Electromagnetic Energy

Polity (6)

Special Provisions, Official Language and Miscellaneous Provisions · Co-operative societies (Part IXB)

Q33. Article 243ZI of the Indian Constitution empowers the State Legislature to make laws regarding co-operative societies. Which principle is NOT included in its scope?

  1. (a) Autonomous functioning
  2. (b) Compulsory State supervision
  3. (c) Voluntary formation
  4. (d) Democratic member control
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Compulsory State supervision

Article 243ZI: Co-operative Societies
Part IXB (Art 243ZH-243ZT) deals with co-operative societies.
Article 243ZI empowers State Legislature to make laws on:
• Incorporation, regulation, and winding up of co-operatives
• Based on principles of voluntary formation, democratic control, and autonomous functioning
Key Principles (Art 243ZH):
1. Voluntary formation and membership
2. Democratic member control (one member, one vote)
3. Autonomous functioning
4. Economic participation by members
Answer: Option 2 → Compulsory State supervision
Judiciary · Supreme Court - jurisdiction (original, appellate, advisory)

Q34. "Appellate jurisdiction of the Supreme Court in appeals from High Courts in regard to civil matters" is provided in which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India?

  1. (a) Article 134
  2. (b) Article 132
  3. (c) Article 133
  4. (d) Article 131
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Article 133

Topic: Supreme Court's Appellate Jurisdiction
Article 133- Appeals in civil matters from High Courts to Supreme Court
Article 131- Original jurisdiction of Supreme Court
Article 132- Appellate jurisdiction in constitutional matters
Article 134- Appellate jurisdiction in criminal matters
Answer: Option 3 → Article 133
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · National Emergency (Article 352)

Q35. Which Amendment made written Cabinet advice mandatory for Emergency in India?

  1. (a) 24ᵗʰ Amendment
  2. (b) 26ᵗʰ Amendment
  3. (c) 44ᵗʰ Amendment
  4. (d) 42ⁿᵈ Amendment
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 44ᵗʰ Amendment

Topic: Constitutional Amendments - Emergency Provisions
44th Amendment Act, 1978introduced safeguards against misuse of Emergency.
Key Changes:
Made written Cabinet advice mandatory for declaring Emergency.
President must act on advice of Cabinet (not just PM).
Replaced 'internal disturbance' with 'armed rebellion'.
Answer: Option 3 → 44ᵗʰ Amendment
Union Executive · President - powers (executive, legislative, veto, pardon, ordinance)

Q36. In 2022, the President pardoned a woman jailed for a minor crime. Which Article of the Indian Constitution allows the President to grant pardons?

  1. (a) Article 72
  2. (b) Article 74
  3. (c) Article 53
  4. (d) Article 75
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 72

Topic: Presidential Powers - Pardoning Authority
Article 72grants the President power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, or remissions of punishment.
This power applies to:
• Punishment by court-martial
• Offences against Union laws
• Death sentences (exclusive power)
Other Articles:
Article 74 → Council of Ministers to aid President
Article 53 → Executive power of Union
Article 75 → Appointment of Prime Minister
Answer: Option 1 → Article 72
DPSP and Fundamental Duties · Fundamental Duties - Article 51A and list

Q37. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution deals with the Fundamental Duties?

  1. (a) Article 51
  2. (b) Article 50
  3. (c) Article 51 'A'
  4. (d) Article 52
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Article 51 'A'

Topic: Fundamental Duties - Indian Constitution
Article 51Adeals with Fundamental Duties.
Added by42nd Amendment Act, 1976on recommendation of Swaran Singh Committee.
Originally 10 duties; 11th duty added by86th Amendment, 2002(education of children 6-14 years).
Answer: Option 3 → Article 51 'A'
State Government · Chief Minister and State Council of Ministers

Q38. Under Article 164(1A), the total number of Ministers in a State, including the Chief Minister, shall NOT exceed:

  1. (a) 10% of the strength of the Legislative Assembly
  2. (b) 15% of the strength of the Legislative Assembly
  3. (c) No limit is mentioned
  4. (d) 20% of the strength of the Legislative Assembly
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 15% of the strength of the Legislative Assembly

Article 164(1A) - Council of Ministers Size Limit
Constitutional Provision:
Added by 91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003
Key Rule:
Total Ministers (including CM) ≤15% of total MLAs
Exception: Minimum 12 ministers allowed even if 15% < 12
Purpose: Prevent oversized cabinets and reduce expenditure
Answer: Option 2 → 15% of the strength of the Legislative Assembly

Medieval History (1)

Mughal Empire · Babur and his battles

Q39. The Battle of Khanwa (1527) was fought between Babur and which of the following rulers?

  1. (a) Ibrahim Lodi
  2. (b) Sher Shah Suri
  3. (c) Bairam Khan
  4. (d) Rana Sanga
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Rana Sanga

Battle of Khanwa (1527)
Fought between:Babur vs Rana Sanga
Location: Near Khanwa (Rajasthan)
Rana Sanga led Rajput confederacy against Babur
Babur's second major victory after Panipat (1526)
Answer: Option 4 → Rana Sanga
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