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RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 15 June 2026 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 39 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 on 15 June 2026 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Modern History, Current Affairs, Static GK, Economics, Medieval History, Polity.

📚 39 questions🗓️ 15 June 2026⏰ Shift 3
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Subjects: Modern History (4) · Current Affairs (6) · Static GK (4) · Economics (4) · Medieval History (1) · Polity (7) · Computer (3) · Physics (2) · Ancient History (1) · Chemistry (2) · Geography (5)

Modern History (4)

Socio-Religious Reform Movements · Raja Ram Mohan Roy and Brahmo Samaj

Q1. What was the central aim of Raja Rammohan Roy’s Atmiya Sabha in early nineteenth-century Bengal?

  1. (a) Defending polytheistic worship and resisting all intellectual reform efforts
  2. (b) Supporting caste exclusiveness and encouraging ritualistic social customs
  3. (c) Opposing idolatry and promoting rational interpretation of Vedantic doctrine
  4. (d) Propagating occult traditions and discouraging scientific modes of thinking
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Opposing idolatry and promoting rational interpretation of Vedantic doctrine

Topic: Atmiya Sabha (1815) – Raja Rammohan Roy
Key Facts:
Founded in Calcutta to promote monotheism and rational religious thought.
Opposed idol worship, superstitions, and ritualistic practices.
Advocated rational interpretation of Vedas and Upanishads (Vedantic philosophy).
Precursor to Brahmo Samaj (1828) – focused on social and religious reform.
Answer: Option 3 → Opposing idolatry and promoting rational interpretation of Vedantic doctrine
Peasant, Tribal and Civil Uprisings · Early civil and tribal revolts

Q2. The leader of the Rampa Revolt (1922–24) in Andhra Pradesh was:

  1. (a) Ram Chandra Reddy
  2. (b) Alluri Seetharama Raju
  3. (c) Chittu Pandey
  4. (d) Durgawati Devi
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Alluri Seetharama Raju

Rampa Revolt (1922-24)
Leader:Alluri Seetharama Raju
Location: Godavari Agency, Andhra Pradesh
Cause: British forest laws restricted tribal rights
Known as: 'Manyam Veerudu' (Hero of the Jungles)
Outcome: Martyred in 1924, became folk hero
Answer: Option 2 → Alluri Seetharama Raju
Peasant, Tribal and Civil Uprisings · Early civil and tribal revolts

Q3. Who led the Ahom Revolt (1828–33) against British interference in Assam?

  1. (a) Maniram Dutta
  2. (b) Harakanta
  3. (c) Gomdhar Konwar
  4. (d) Piyali Phukan
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Gomdhar Konwar

Ahom Revolt (1828-33)
Also known as thePhulaguri Uprising.
Led byGomdhar Konwaragainst British annexation of Assam after the First Anglo-Burmese War (1824-26).
The revolt opposed British interference in traditional Ahom administration and tax policies.
Other leaders: Dhanjay Borgohain, Harakanta (supported the movement).
Answer: Option 3 → Gomdhar Konwar
Personalities, Newspapers, Books and Slogans · Books and authors of the modern period

Q4. Who wrote the iconic nationalist novel Anandamath?

  1. (a) Rabindranath Tagore
  2. (b) Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay
  3. (c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
  4. (d) Dinabandhu Mitra
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay

Anandamath- Iconic Nationalist Novel
Author:Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay(1838-1894)
Published in 1882, set during Sannyasi Rebellion.
Contains famous song'Vande Mataram'- India's national song.
Answer: Option 3 → Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay

Current Affairs (6)

Awards and Honours - Current · Sports and film awards - current

Q5. Who amongst the following won CNN‑News18’s Indian of the Year 2025 in sports?

  1. (a) Gautam Gambhir
  2. (b) Jay Shah
  3. (c) Rahul Dravid
  4. (d) Mahendra Singh Dhoni
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Jay Shah

CNN-News18 Indian of the Year 2025 - Sports Category
Jay Shahwon the award in the sports category.
He is the currentICC Chairman(took office in December 2024).
Previously served asBCCI Secretary(2019-2024).
Recognized for his contributions to Indian cricket administration.
Answer: Option 2 → Jay Shah
Awards and Honours - Current · International awards - current

Q6. Who won the Holberg Prize in 2025?

  1. (a) Urmila Satyanarayana
  2. (b) Maithili Mrinalini
  3. (c) Gayatri Chakravorty Spivak
  4. (d) Vidya Balan
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Gayatri Chakravorty Spivak

Holberg Prize 2025
The Holberg Prize is a prestigious international award for outstanding contributions to humanities, social sciences, law, or theology.
Winner:Gayatri Chakravorty Spivak
She is a renowned literary theorist, philosopher, and professor known for her work in postcolonial studies and feminist theory.
Answer: Option 3 → Gayatri Chakravorty Spivak
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q7. Which institute is partnering with the Ministry of Minority Affairs to provide future-tech training in Kerala on 8th October 2025 ?

  1. (a) IIT Madras
  2. (b) NIT Calicut
  3. (c) IIT Bombay
  4. (d) IIT Palakkad
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) IIT Palakkad

Topic: Government Initiative - Future-Tech Training
Ministry of Minority Affairs Partnership
On 8th October 2025, Ministry of Minority Affairs partnered withIIT Palakkadto provide future-tech training in Kerala.
IIT Palakkad is located in Kerala and focuses on emerging technology education and skill development programs.
This initiative aims to provide technical training to minority communities in future technologies.
Answer: Option 4 → IIT Palakkad
State News · State firsts

Q8. In November 2025, the first-ever auction of seven limestone mineral blocks was launched in which Union Territory?

  1. (a) Jammu & Kashmir
  2. (b) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
  3. (c) Puducherry
  4. (d) Chandigarh
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Jammu & Kashmir

Topic: Current Affairs - November 2025
First-ever limestone mineral blocks auction
In November 2025, the Union Territory ofJammu & Kashmirlaunched the auction of seven limestone mineral blocks.
This was a significant step in mineral resource development in the UT.
Answer: Option 1 → Jammu & Kashmir
International Affairs and Summits · International organisations - current

Q9. How much funding did ADB pledge for India’s urban infrastructure over the next five years from 2025 to 2030?

  1. (a) USD 12 billion
  2. (b) USD 5 billion
  3. (c) USD 10 billion
  4. (d) USD 8 billion
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) USD 10 billion

Topic: ADB Funding for India (2025-2030)
Asian Development Bank (ADB) announced funding commitment for India's urban infrastructure development.
Pledge Period: 2025 to 2030 (5 years)
Focus Area: Urban infrastructure projects including smart cities, water supply, sanitation, and urban transport.
Total Commitment:USD 10 billion
Answer: Option 3 → USD 10 billion
International Affairs and Summits · Bilateral agreements and visits

Q10. The 'Kensington Treaty' was signed between which of the following two countries in 2025?

  1. (a) United Kingdom (UK) and France
  2. (b) United Kingdom (UK) and Germany
  3. (c) United Kingdom (UK) and Italy
  4. (d) Germany and France
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) United Kingdom (UK) and Germany

Topic:Kensington Treaty 2025
The Kensington Treaty was signed between theUnited KingdomandGermanyin 2025.
This treaty focuses on bilateral cooperation in defense, security, and economic matters.
It strengthens UK-Germany relations post-Brexit.
Answer: Option 2 → United Kingdom (UK) and Germany

Static GK (4)

Music and Musical Instruments · Hindustani music (ragas, gharanas)

Q11. The Banarasi, Patiala and Lucknow Gharanas are associated with which of the following musical styles?

  1. (a) Chaiti
  2. (b) Tappa
  3. (c) Kajari
  4. (d) Thumri
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Thumri

Topic: Indian Classical Music - Gharanas
Thumriis a semi-classical vocal form expressing romantic and devotional themes.
Major Thumri Gharanas:
•Banaras Gharana- Known for Bol-Banav style
•Patiala Gharana- Blend of classical and light music
•Lucknow Gharana- Bol-Bant style, lyrical expression
Other options: Chaiti (folk), Tappa (fast tempo classical), Kajari (monsoon folk)
Answer: Option 4 → Thumri
Important Days and Themes · National days

Q12. National Unity Day, observed in India on 31 October 2025, commemorates the birth anniversary of which national leader?

  1. (a) Mahatma Gandhi
  2. (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
  3. (c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
  4. (d) Lal Bahadur Shastri
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

National Unity Day (Rashtriya Ekta Diwas)
Observed on:31 Octoberevery year
Commemorates: Birth anniversary ofSardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Known as:Iron Man of India
Contribution: United 562 princely states into Indian Union
Answer: Option 3 → Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Tribes, Languages and Religions · Classical and scheduled languages

Q13. When was the Telugu language declared as a classical language of India?

  1. (a) 2008
  2. (b) 2005
  3. (c) 2006
  4. (d) 2007
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 2008

Classical Languages of India
Telugu was declared as aClassical Languagein2008.
Order of declaration:
1. Tamil (2004)
2. Sanskrit (2005)
3. Kannada (2008)
4. Telugu (2008)
Answer: Option 1 → 2008
Sports · Sports terminology

Q14. In basketball, what does the term “triple-double” signify?

  1. (a) Committing three technical fouls in a match
  2. (b) Making three consecutive dunks in a game
  3. (c) Recording double digits in three statistical categories
  4. (d) Achieving double the points, rebounds, and assists in a single game
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Recording double digits in three statistical categories

Topic: Basketball Terminology
Atriple-doubleis a statistical achievement in basketball.
It occurs when a player recordsdouble digits (10 or more)in three of the five main statistical categories in a single game.
The five categories are:Points, Rebounds, Assists, Steals, Blocks.
Most common: Points + Rebounds + Assists ≥ 10 each.
Answer: Option 3 → Recording double digits in three statistical categories

Economics (4)

Money and Banking · Monetary policy tools (repo, reverse repo, CRR, SLR, MSF, bank rate)

Q15. Which tool is most commonly used by the Reserve Bank of India to regulate liquidity in the economy?

  1. (a) Government subsidies
  2. (b) Tariff imposition
  3. (c) Repo rate adjustment
  4. (d) Fiscal stimulus
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Repo rate adjustment

Topic: Monetary Policy Tools of RBI
RBI usesRepo Rateas primary tool for liquidity control.
Repo Rate = Rate at which RBI lends to commercial banks.
↑ Repo Rate → Borrowing costly → Less liquidity
↓ Repo Rate → Borrowing cheap → More liquidity
Other options: Subsidies, tariffs, fiscal stimulus are government tools, not RBI's monetary tools.
Answer: Option 3 → Repo rate adjustment
Agriculture and Food Security · Crop insurance and farmer schemes

Q16. Which of the following is NOT an objective of the Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY)?

  1. (a) Stabilising farmers’ income and ensuring continuation in farming activities
  2. (b) Providing minimum support price for agricultural produce to farmers
  3. (c) Providing financial support to farmers facing crop loss due to unforeseen events
  4. (d) Promoting adoption of modern and innovative agricultural practices by farmers
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Providing minimum support price for agricultural produce to farmers

Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY)
Launched: 2016 for crop insurance
Main Objectives:
• Stabilize farmers' income through insurance
• Provide financial support for crop loss (natural calamities)
• Encourage modern agricultural practices
MSP (Minimum Support Price)is a separate scheme
MSP is NOT part of PMFBY objectives
Answer: Option 2 → Providing minimum support price for agricultural produce to farmers
Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Human Development Index and UNDP

Q17. Which three indicators are considered while calculating the Human Development Index (HDI)?

  1. (a) Industrial production, exports, and imports
  2. (b) GDP, inflation rate, and unemployment rate
  3. (c) Life expectancy, education, and per capita income
  4. (d) Foreign exchange reserves, literacy rate, and poverty rate
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Life expectancy, education, and per capita income

Human Development Index (HDI)
HDI is a composite index developed by UNDP to measure human development across countries.
Three Key Indicators:
1.Life Expectancy at Birth→ Health dimension
2.Education→ Mean years of schooling + Expected years of schooling
3.Per Capita Income (GNI)→ Standard of living dimension
HDI focuses on people-centric development, not just economic growth.
Answer: Option 3 → Life expectancy, education, and per capita income
Industry and Infrastructure · Public sector undertakings (Maharatna, Navratna, Miniratna)

Q18. When was Oil India Limited (OIL) incorporated as a company?

  1. (a) 1962
  2. (b) 1959
  3. (c) 1965
  4. (d) 1956
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1959

Topic: Oil India Limited (OIL)
OIL was incorporated as a company onFebruary 18, 1959.
It is India's second largest national oil and gas company.
Headquarters: Duliajan, Assam.
Answer: Option 2 → 1959

Medieval History (1)

South Indian Kingdoms · Cholas - rulers and administration

Q19. Which of the following Chola rulers is credited with building a powerful navy and conquering Sri Lanka, Maldives, and Lakshadweep?

  1. (a) Vijayalaya
  2. (b) Rajaraja I
  3. (c) Rajendra I
  4. (d) Kulottunga I
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Rajaraja I

Chola Naval Expansion
Rajaraja I (985-1014 CE)established the Chola naval supremacy.
Key Achievements:
• Built powerful navy for overseas conquests
• Conquered northern Sri Lanka
• Captured Maldives islands
• Annexed Lakshadweep
His son Rajendra I continued naval expansion to Southeast Asia.
Answer: Option 2 → Rajaraja I

Polity (7)

Parliament · Parliamentary committees

Q20. How many Departmentally Related Standing Committees (DRSCs) are there in the Indian Parliament?

  1. (a) 24
  2. (b) 31
  3. (c) 15
  4. (d) 21
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 24

Departmentally Related Standing Committees (DRSCs)
These are permanent parliamentary committees that examine demands for grants and bills related to specific ministries/departments.
Distribution:
Rajya Sabha: 8 committees
Lok Sabha: 16 committees
Total DRSCs = 8 + 16 = 24
Answer: Option 1 → 24
Local Government · 73rd Amendment - Panchayati Raj

Q21. Which Part of the Indian Constitution deals with Panchayats?

  1. (a) Part VII
  2. (b) Part V
  3. (c) Part IX
  4. (d) Part XI
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Part IX

Topic: Indian Constitution - Panchayats
Part IXof the Constitution deals with Panchayats.
Added by73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992.
Contains Articles243 to 243-O.
Provides constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions.
Answer: Option 3 → Part IX
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q22. As reiterated by the Supreme Court of India in September 2025, under which legislation does a Tribunal have the authority to order the eviction of a child from the property of a senior citizen in cases of failure to maintain them?

  1. (a) Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2006
  2. (b) Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2009
  3. (c) Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007
  4. (d) Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2008
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007

Topic: Senior Citizens Rights & Maintenance
TheMaintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007provides legal protection to senior citizens.
Key provisions include:
• Tribunals can order maintenance from children
• Authority to evict children who fail to maintain parents
• Covers property rights and welfare of senior citizens
Supreme Court (September 2025) reiterated these powers under the 2007 Act.
Answer: Option 3 → Maintenance and Welfare of Parents and Senior Citizens Act, 2007
Constitutional Development and Making · Borrowed features - sources of the Constitution

Q23. Which of the following features of the Constitution of India is NOT borrowed from the United Kingdom?

  1. (a) Bicameral Parliament
  2. (b) Speaker of Lok Sabha
  3. (c) Single citizenship
  4. (d) Appointment of state governors by the Centre
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Appointment of state governors by the Centre

Constitutional Borrowings from UK:
1.Bicameral Parliament→ Borrowed from UK (Lords + Commons)
2.Speaker of Lok Sabha→ Borrowed from UK (Speaker of Commons)
3.Single Citizenship→ Borrowed from UK
Appointment of State Governors:
Governors appointed by President (Centre) is anIndian feature.
UK has no such provision as it's a unitary system.
This reflects India's federal structure with central oversight.
Answer: Option 4 → Appointment of state governors by the Centre
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · National Emergency (Article 352)

Q24. A national emergency must be approved by Parliament within ______.

  1. (a) 90 Days
  2. (b) 45 Days
  3. (c) 30 Days
  4. (d) 60 Days
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 30 Days

National Emergency - Parliamentary Approval
Article 352: President proclaims National Emergency
Parliamentary Approval Required:
• Must be approved byboth Houses of Parliament
• Within1 month (30 days)of proclamation
• By special majority (2/3rd present + voting)
If not approved within 30 days, emergency ceases
Answer: Option 3 → 30 Days
Judiciary · Public Interest Litigation

Q25. Which landmark case is credited with relaxing the rule of locus standi and establishing the foundation for Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in India?

  1. (a) Maneka Gandhi vs. Union of India
  2. (b) Golaknath vs. State of Punjab
  3. (c) S.P. Gupta vs. Union of India
  4. (d) Minerva Mills vs. Union of India
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) S.P. Gupta vs. Union of India

Topic: Public Interest Litigation (PIL) in India
S.P. Gupta vs. Union of India (1981)- Also known as theJudges Transfer Case.
This landmark judgment relaxed the traditional rule oflocus standi(legal standing to sue).
Established that any public-spirited person can approach the court on behalf of disadvantaged groups.
Laid thefoundation for PILin India, making justice accessible to all.
Answer: Option 3 → S.P. Gupta vs. Union of India
Fundamental Rights · Right to Equality (Articles 14-18)

Q26. Which Constitutional Amendment introduced 10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections in education and jobs?

  1. (a) 102ⁿᵈ Amendment
  2. (b) 103ʳᵈ Amendment
  3. (c) 98ᵗʰ Amendment
  4. (d) 104ᵗʰ Amendment
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 103ʳᵈ Amendment

Topic: Constitutional Amendment - EWS Reservation
103rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 2019
Key Features:
• Introduced10% reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWS)
• Applies to admissions in educational institutions and government jobs
• Amended Articles 15 and 16 of the Constitution
• EWS defined as families with annual income below ₹8 lakh
Answer: Option 2 → 103ʳᵈ Amendment

Computer (3)

Computer Memory · Primary memory (RAM, ROM and their types)

Q27. Consider the following statements regarding RAM and ROM and select the correct option. (i) ROM is faster than RAM because it stores permanent system instructions accessed less frequently by the CPU.(ii) RAM can be read from and written to by the CPU, but its contents are erased when the power is turned off.

  1. (a) (i) True, (ii) True
  2. (b) (i) False, (ii) False
  3. (c) (i) True, (ii) False
  4. (d) (i) False, (ii) True
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) (i) False, (ii) True

RAM vs ROM Analysis
Statement (i): ROM is faster than RAM
FALSE → RAM is significantly faster than ROM
RAM: Random Access Memory (volatile, high-speed)
ROM: Read-Only Memory (non-volatile, slower)
CPU accesses RAM more frequently for active tasks
Statement (ii): RAM characteristics
TRUE → RAM is volatile memory
Can be read from and written to by CPU
Contents are lost when power is turned off
Used for temporary storage during operations
Answer: Option 4 → (i) False, (ii) True
Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Popular operating systems

Q28. A window that covers the entire screen without showing the desktop behind it is said to be in:

  1. (a) Restored mode
  2. (b) Full-screen mode
  3. (c) Minimized mode
  4. (d) Hidden mode
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Full-screen mode

Topic: Window Display Modes
Full-screen mode:Window covers entire screen, hiding desktop and taskbar completely.
Restored mode:Window appears in resizable form with visible desktop.
Minimized mode:Window hidden, only taskbar icon visible.
Hidden mode:Not a standard window state term.
Answer: Option 2 → Full-screen mode
Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Operating system - functions and types

Q29. Which of the following correctly describes the role of the Windows operating system?

  1. (a) Designing multimedia presentations
  2. (b) Managing files and folders
  3. (c) Playing games
  4. (d) Editing audio files
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Managing files and folders

Topic: Windows Operating System
AnOperating System (OS)is system software that manages computer hardware and software resources.
Core Functions of Windows OS:
• File and folder management
• Memory and process management
• Device driver management
Options 1, 3, 4 areapplication softwaretasks, not OS functions.
Answer: Option 2 → Managing files and folders

Physics (2)

Work, Energy and Power · Power and its units (watt, horsepower)

Q30. A physicist is designing an experiment where the result depends on the product of force and velocity. Which of the following physical quantities is directly measured by this product, considering units and dimensions?

  1. (a) Power
  2. (b) Impulse
  3. (c) Energy
  4. (d) Pressure
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Power

Given: Product of Force and Velocity
Dimensional Analysis:
Force (F) = MLT⁻²
Velocity (v) = LT⁻¹
F × v = (MLT⁻²) × (LT⁻¹) = ML²T⁻³
Check Options:
Power = Work/Time = ML²T⁻³ ✓
Impulse = F×t = MLT⁻¹ ✗
Energy = ML²T⁻² ✗
Pressure = F/A = ML⁻¹T⁻² ✗
Answer: Option 1 → Power
Work, Energy and Power · Commercial unit of energy (kWh)

Q31. Solar energy is globally measured in the unit of KWh. The physical quantity corresponding to the unit KWh is _____________.

  1. (a) Force
  2. (b) Electric energy
  3. (c) Current
  4. (d) Electric charge
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Electric energy

Unit Analysis:KWh = Kilowatt-hour
KWh = Power × Time = (Watt) × (hour)
Since Power = Energy/Time
Power × Time = Energy
1 KWh = 1000 W × 3600 s = 3.6 × 10⁶ Joules
KWh is a unit ofEnergy, specifically electrical energy
Answer: Option 2 → Electric energy

Ancient History (1)

Sources and Prehistoric India · Palaeolithic Age

Q32. The earliest evidence of stone tools in India has been found at:

  1. (a) Hunsgi Valley
  2. (b) Mehrgarh
  3. (c) Attirampakkam
  4. (d) Lothal
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Attirampakkam

Topic: Prehistoric India - Stone Age Tools
Attirampakkam(Tamil Nadu) has yielded the earliest evidence of stone tools in India.
Archaeological findings date back to approximately1.5 million years ago(Lower Paleolithic period).
Acheulian stone tools and handaxes discovered here are among the oldest in the Indian subcontinent.
Other sites: Hunsgi Valley (Karnataka) - Paleolithic tools; Mehrgarh (Pakistan) - Neolithic settlement; Lothal (Gujarat) - Harappan port city.
Answer: Option 3 → Attirampakkam

Chemistry (2)

Acids, Bases and Salts · pH scale and its importance

Q33. Which of the following substances is considered neutral according to the pH scale?

  1. (a) Sea water
  2. (b) Stomach acid
  3. (c) Lime juice
  4. (d) Pure water
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Pure water

Topic: pH Scale and Neutrality
pH scale ranges from 0 to 14.
pH < 7 → Acidic, pH = 7 → Neutral, pH > 7 → Basic
Sea water: pH ≈ 8 (slightly basic)
Stomach acid: pH ≈ 1-2 (highly acidic)
Lime juice: pH ≈ 2-3 (acidic)
Pure water: pH = 7 (neutral)
Answer: Option 4 → Pure water
Everyday and Industrial Chemistry · Food chemistry (preservatives, sweeteners, additives)

Q34. When lemon juice is added to milk, it forms paneer. This process is known as ______.

  1. (a) Hydrolysis
  2. (b) Coagulation
  3. (c) Crystallization
  4. (d) Sedimentation
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Coagulation

Topic:Chemical Process in Milk
When lemon juice (acid) is added to milk, the milk proteins (casein) clump together and separate from the liquid (whey).
This process of protein precipitation due to acid is calledCoagulation.
Other processes:
• Hydrolysis - Breaking down with water
• Crystallization - Formation of crystals
• Sedimentation - Settling of particles
Answer: Option 2 → Coagulation

Geography (5)

India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Forest types and distribution

Q35. Which type of natural vegetation is typically found in regions with high temperature, high humidity, and rainfall exceeding 200 cm annually?

  1. (a) Temperate grasslands
  2. (b) Tropical evergreen forests
  3. (c) Tropical deciduous forests
  4. (d) Thorn and scrub vegetation
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Tropical evergreen forests

Topic:Natural Vegetation Types
Tropical Evergreen Forests characteristics:
• High temperature (above 25°C year-round)
• High humidity (above 75%)
• Heavy rainfall (exceeds 200 cm annually)
• Found in equatorial regions
Examples: Amazon, Congo Basin, Western Ghats
Dense canopy, trees remain green throughout year
Answer: Option 2 → Tropical evergreen forests

Q36. Which of the following pairs of local names of Western Ghats and their respective states are correctly matched? Local Name of Western Ghats Known in State(1) Sahyadri Maharashtra(2) Nilgiri Hills Karnataka and Tamil Nadu(3) Anaimalai Hills Kerala

  1. (a) Only 1 and 2
  2. (b) Only 2 and 3
  3. (c) 1, 2 and 3
  4. (d) Only 1
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 3

Western Ghats - Local Names & States
(1) Sahyadri → Maharashtra
Correct. Western Ghats are called Sahyadri in Maharashtra.
(2) Nilgiri Hills → Karnataka and Tamil Nadu
Correct. Nilgiri Hills are located at the junction of Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, and Kerala.
(3) Anaimalai Hills → Kerala
Correct. Anaimalai (Elephant Hills) are in Kerala and Tamil Nadu border region.
All three pairs are correctly matched.
Answer: Option 3 → 1, 2 and 3
India - Population and Census · State and district rankings (census)

Q37. According to the Census 2011, which state remained the most populous in India?

  1. (a) West Bengal
  2. (b) Bihar
  3. (c) Maharashtra
  4. (d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Uttar Pradesh

Census 2011 - Most Populous State
Uttar Pradesh has been the most populous state in India since independence.
Population (Census 2011):199,581,477(approx. 19.96 crore)
This accounts for about16.49%of India's total population.
Followed by Maharashtra (2nd) and Bihar (3rd).
Answer: Option 4 → Uttar Pradesh
India - Transport and Communication · Roadways and National Highways

Q38. The Atal Tunnel is built in which Himalayan range?

  1. (a) Dhauladhar Range
  2. (b) Pir Panjal Range
  3. (c) Karakoram Range
  4. (d) Zaskar Range
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Pir Panjal Range

Atal Tunnel - Location Details
The Atal Tunnel (formerly Rohtang Tunnel) is located inHimachal Pradesh.
It connects Manali to Lahaul-Spiti valley beneath theRohtang Pass.
The tunnel passes through thePir Panjal Rangeof the Himalayas.
It is the world's longest highway tunnel above 10,000 feet (3,000 m).
Inaugurated onOctober 3, 2020by PM Narendra Modi.
Answer: Option 2 → Pir Panjal Range

Q39. Which of the following is NOT included in the four official meteorological seasons of India?

  1. (a) Rainy season
  2. (b) Summer season
  3. (c) Spring season
  4. (d) Winter season
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Spring season

India's Four Official Meteorological Seasons:
1.Winter(January - February)
2.Summer/Pre-monsoon(March - May)
3.Monsoon/Rainy(June - September)
4.Post-monsoon(October - December)
Spring seasonis NOT officially recognized by IMD.
Answer: Option 3 → Spring season
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