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RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 17 June 2026 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 37 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 on 17 June 2026 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Polity, Current Affairs, Modern History, Chemistry, Computer, Economics.

📚 37 questions🗓️ 17 June 2026⏰ Shift 3
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Subjects: Polity (6) · Current Affairs (6) · Modern History (3) · Chemistry (2) · Computer (4) · Economics (3) · Geography (5) · Ancient History (2) · Biology (1) · Physics (1) · Static GK (3) · Medieval History (1)

Polity (6)

Elections, Parties and Representation · Anti-defection law (Tenth Schedule)

Q1. Which of the following Schedules was added to the Constitution of India, to provide for the disqualification of the members of Parliament and the state legislatures on the ground of defection from one political party to another?

  1. (a) Schedule XII
  2. (b) Schedule X
  3. (c) Schedule IX
  4. (d) Schedule XI
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Schedule X

Anti-Defection Law
Added by:52nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1985
Provision:Tenth Schedule (Schedule X)deals with disqualification of members on grounds of defection.
Key Point: Prevents elected members from switching parties to gain political advantage.
Answer: Option 2 → Schedule X
Union Executive · President - powers (executive, legislative, veto, pardon, ordinance)

Q2. Under which article can the president summon, prorogue, or dissolve either house of Parliament?

  1. (a) Article 79
  2. (b) Article 108
  3. (c) Article 87
  4. (d) Article 85
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Article 85

Topic: Presidential Powers over Parliament
Article 85deals with sessions of Parliament.
President's Powers under Article 85:
• Summon each House of Parliament
• Prorogue the Houses
• Dissolve the Lok Sabha
Maximum gap between two sessions: 6 months
Other Articles:
Article 79 → Constitution of Parliament
Article 87 → President's Address
Answer: Option 4 → Article 85
Parliament · Parliamentary committees

Q3. Which of the following is a Parliamentary committee?

  1. (a) A panel of MPs selected by the House or Speaker
  2. (b) A committee formed by the President
  3. (c) A panel of civil servants
  4. (d) A judicial panel of judges
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) A panel of MPs selected by the House or Speaker

Parliamentary Committees
Definition: Committees formed by Parliament to examine bills, budgets, and government functioning in detail.
Composition: Members of Parliament (MPs) from Lok Sabha and/or Rajya Sabha.
Formation: Selected by the House itself or appointed by the Speaker/Chairman.
Types: Standing Committees, Ad-hoc Committees, Joint Committees.
Examples: Public Accounts Committee, Estimates Committee, Subject Committees.
Answer: Option 1 → A panel of MPs selected by the House or Speaker
Amendments and Important Articles · Major constitutional amendments

Q4. The Twenty-Ninth Amendment Act of 1972 included which of the following in the Ninth Schedule?

  1. (a) Reservation in promotions
  2. (b) Two Kerala Acts on land reforms
  3. (c) Environmental protection laws
  4. (d) Special provisions for Mizoram
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Two Kerala Acts on land reforms

Twenty-Ninth Amendment Act, 1972
Purpose: Added two Kerala land reform Acts to theNinth Schedule
Acts included:
1. Kerala Land Reforms (Amendment) Act, 1969
2. Kerala Land Reforms (Amendment) Act, 1971
Significance: Protection from judicial review under Article 31B
Note: Ninth Schedule protects laws related to land reforms and abolition of zamindari system
Answer: Option 2 → Two Kerala Acts on land reforms
Fundamental Rights · Right to Freedom of Religion (Articles 25-28)

Q5. Which Article gives religious denominations the authority to conduct their religious affairs?

  1. (a) Article 27
  2. (b) Article 26
  3. (c) Article 24
  4. (d) Article 23
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 26

Topic: Fundamental Rights - Right to Freedom of Religion
Article 26:Freedom to manage religious affairs
Grants every religious denomination or section the right to:
• Establish and maintain institutions for religious purposes
• Manage its own affairs in matters of religion
• Own and acquire movable and immovable property
• Administer such property in accordance with law
Answer: Option 2 → Article 26
Local Government · 74th Amendment - urban local bodies

Q6. Which Article authorises municipalities to perform Twelfth Schedule functions introduced through this Constitutional Amendment Act?

  1. (a) Article 243-W
  2. (b) Article 243-Q
  3. (c) Article 243-P
  4. (d) Article 243-ZC
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 243-W

Topic:74th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992
Article 243-Wdeals with powers, authority and responsibilities of Municipalities.
It authorizes State Legislature to endow Municipalities with powers to perform functions listed inTwelfth Schedule.
Twelfth Schedule contains 18 functional items like urban planning, water supply, public health, etc.
Other Articles: 243-Q (Constitution of Municipalities), 243-P (Definitions), 243-ZC (Part not to apply to certain areas).
Answer: Option 1 → Article 243-W

Current Affairs (6)

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q7. Which national organisation jointly launched the “Earth Summit 2025-26” along with Internet and Mobile Association of India (IAMAI) to empower rural innovation?

  1. (a) Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI)
  2. (b) Export‑Import Bank of India (EXIM)
  3. (c) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
  4. (d) National Rural Livelihood Mission (NRLM)
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)

Topic: Earth Summit 2025-26
NABARD(National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development) jointly launchedEarth Summit 2025-26with IAMAI.
Objective: Empower rural innovation and digital transformation in rural India.
NABARD focuses on rural development, agriculture, and allied sectors.
Answer: Option 3 → National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development (NABARD)
Defence and Security - Current · Security operations

Q8. Where did NATO announce increased military presence on January 18, 2025, following suspected sabotage of undersea infrastructure?

  1. (a) Mediterranean Sea
  2. (b) Black Sea
  3. (c) Baltic Sea
  4. (d) North Sea
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Baltic Sea

NATO Military Presence Announcement - January 18, 2025
Context: Suspected sabotage of undersea infrastructure
Key Facts:
• NATO announced increased military presence inBaltic Sea
• Response to suspected sabotage of undersea cables and pipelines
• Baltic Sea region includes critical infrastructure connecting Nordic and Baltic states
Answer: Option 3 → Baltic Sea
Awards and Honours - Current · National awards - current

Q9. Who received the Chief of Army Staff Commendation Card from General Upendra Dwivedi on October 7, 2025?

  1. (a) Akshay Kumar
  2. (b) Hrithik Roshan
  3. (c) Mohanlal
  4. (d) Amitabh Bachchan
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Mohanlal

Topic: Current Affairs - Army Recognition
OnOctober 7, 2025, renowned actorMohanlalreceived the Chief of Army Staff Commendation Card.
The award was presented byGeneral Upendra Dwivedi, Chief of Army Staff.
Mohanlal is a legendary Malayalam actor and honorary Lieutenant Colonel in the Territorial Army.
Answer: Option 3 → Mohanlal
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q10. Which edition of the Khelo India University Games is being held in Rajasthan starting November 24, 2025?

  1. (a) Sixth
  2. (b) Third
  3. (c) Fifth
  4. (d) Fourth
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Fifth

Khelo India University Games 2025
The5th editionof Khelo India University Games is being held in Rajasthan.
Event starts:November 24, 2025
This is a national-level multi-sport event for university students.
Answer: Option 3 → Fifth
Books, Obituaries and Days - Current · Days and themes - current year

Q11. What was the theme for International Women's Day 2025?

  1. (a) DigitALL: Innovation and technology for gender equality
  2. (b) For ALL Women and Girls: Rights. Equality. Empowerment
  3. (c) Invest in Women: Accelerate Progress
  4. (d) Gender equality today for a sustainable tomorrow
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) For ALL Women and Girls: Rights. Equality. Empowerment

International Women's Day 2025
Theme:For ALL Women and Girls: Rights. Equality. Empowerment
This theme emphasizes universal rights and empowerment for every woman and girl globally.
Other options were themes from previous years (2023, 2024, 2022).
Answer: Option 2 → For ALL Women and Girls: Rights. Equality. Empowerment
Defence and Security - Current · Military exercises - current

Q12. Which Indian naval ship is taking part in the Malabar exercise for the Quad Naval Drill in November 2025?

  1. (a) INS Kolkata
  2. (b) INS Shivalik
  3. (c) INS Sahyadri
  4. (d) INS Vikrant
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) INS Sahyadri

Topic: Malabar Exercise 2025 - Quad Naval Drill
Key Facts:
Malabar Exercise is a multilateral naval exercise involving Quad nations (India, USA, Japan, Australia).
INS Sahyadriis participating in the Malabar exercise scheduled for November 2025.
INS Sahyadri is a Shivalik-class stealth multi-role frigate of the Indian Navy.
Answer: Option 3 → INS Sahyadri

Modern History (3)

Revolt of 1857 · Consequences and Queen's Proclamation

Q13. Which strategy was used by the British to regain control after initial rebel victories across northern India in the Revolt of 1857?

  1. (a) Recapturing key centres, enacting new laws, and offering rewards to loyal chiefs.
  2. (b) Negotiating a settlement that restored regional rulers to their former positions.
  3. (c) Allowing the Mughal emperor to govern Delhi under strict British supervision.
  4. (d) Withdrawing British forces from major towns to avoid further confrontation.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Recapturing key centres, enacting new laws, and offering rewards to loyal chiefs.

British Strategy After 1857 Revolt
After initial rebel victories in northern India, the British adopted a systematic approach to regain control.
Key Strategies Implemented:
1.Military Reconquest:Recaptured Delhi, Lucknow, Kanpur, and other rebel strongholds.
2.Legislative Measures:Enacted Government of India Act 1858, ending East India Company rule.
3.Divide and Rule:Rewarded loyal princes and chiefs with titles, land grants, and recognition.
4.Suppression:Executed Bahadur Shah Zafar was exiled; harsh punishments for rebels.
This combination of military force, political reorganization, and strategic alliances helped British restore control.
Answer: Option 1 → Recapturing key centres, enacting new laws, and offering rewards to loyal chiefs.
Revolt of 1857 · Centres and leaders

Q14. During the Revolt of 1857, the villagers of pargana Barout in Uttar Pradesh rallied under the leadership of which local figure?

  1. (a) Shah Mal
  2. (b) Gonoo Kol
  3. (c) Birjis Qadr
  4. (d) Nana Sahib
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Shah Mal

Topic: Revolt of 1857 - Local Leaders
Shah Malwas a prominent local leader frompargana Barout(Baghpat district, Uttar Pradesh).
He organized villagers and led a successful peasant uprising against the British during the 1857 revolt.
He was killed in July 1857 while fighting British forces.
Other leaders:Gonoo Kol (Chotanagpur), Birjis Qadr (son of Wajid Ali Shah, Lucknow), Nana Sahib (Kanpur).
Answer: Option 1 → Shah Mal
Peasant, Tribal and Civil Uprisings · Early civil and tribal revolts

Q15. What prompted the Kol uprising in the Chhotanagpur region during 1831–32?

  1. (a) Transfer of tribal lands and intrusion of moneylenders and merchants.
  2. (b) The spread of famines caused by failures in rice-growing regions.
  3. (c) Ban on local festivals perceived as a threat to public order.
  4. (d) Conscription of young men into British units for foreign service.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Transfer of tribal lands and intrusion of moneylenders and merchants.

Kol Uprising (1831-32) — Chhotanagpur Region
The Kol tribals revolted against the British colonial system that disrupted their traditional way of life.
Main Causes:
• Transfer of tribal lands to outsiders (zamindars, landlords)
• Intrusion of moneylenders (mahajans) and merchants
• Exploitation through debt and land alienation
• Loss of traditional rights over forests and land
Led by Buddho Bhagat and others, the uprising was a resistance against economic exploitation and land dispossession.
Answer: Option 1 → Transfer of tribal lands and intrusion of moneylenders and merchants.

Chemistry (2)

Chemical Reactions and Equations · Displacement reactions

Q16. During an experiment, iron nails are placed in copper sulphate solution, and a reddish-brown deposit forms on the nails. What does this observation demonstrate about the type of chemical reaction and the substances involved?

  1. (a) A decomposition reaction occurs, breaking copper sulphate into SO₂ and copper
  2. (b) A double displacement reaction forms iron sulphate and copper sulphate
  3. (c) A displacement reaction occurs, forming copper metal on the iron nails
  4. (d) A combination reaction occurs, creating iron sulphate crystals
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A displacement reaction occurs, forming copper metal on the iron nails

Observation: Iron nails in CuSO₄ solution → reddish-brown deposit forms
Reaction Type: Displacement (Single Replacement)
Iron is more reactive than copper in reactivity series
Fe displaces Cu from CuSO₄ solution
Chemical Equation:
Fe + CuSO₄ → FeSO₄ + Cu↓
Reddish-brown deposit = Copper metal (Cu)
Solution turns light green = Iron sulphate (FeSO₄) formed
Answer: Option 3 → A displacement reaction occurs, forming copper metal on the iron nails
Atoms, Molecules and Mole Concept · Laws of chemical combination

Q17. Which of the following explains that during a chemical reaction, the sum of masses of the reactants and products remains unchanged?

  1. (a) Law of Periodicity
  2. (b) Law of Conservation of Mass
  3. (c) Law of Definite Composition
  4. (d) Law of Definite Proportions
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Law of Conservation of Mass

Topic:Fundamental Laws of Chemistry
Law of Conservation of Mass(Lavoisier, 1789):
Mass can neither be created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction.
Total mass of reactants = Total mass of products
Other laws:
Law of Definite Proportions: Elements combine in fixed ratios by mass.
Law of Periodicity: Properties repeat periodically in periodic table.
Answer: Option 2 → Law of Conservation of Mass

Computer (4)

Networking and Data Communication · Transmission media and wireless technologies

Q18. Which standard is commonly used for wired LANs?

  1. (a) IEEE 802.3
  2. (b) IEEE 802.11
  3. (c) IEEE 802.16
  4. (d) IEEE 802.15
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) IEEE 802.3

Topic:IEEE Standards for Networks
IEEE 802.3→ Ethernet standard for wired LANs
IEEE 802.11 → Wireless LAN (Wi-Fi)
IEEE 802.16 → WiMAX (Wireless MAN)
IEEE 802.15 → Wireless PAN (Bluetooth)
Answer: Option 1 → IEEE 802.3
Software, Operating Systems and Programming · File extensions and formats

Q19. A “.xlsx” file is created for:

  1. (a) Sound editing
  2. (b) Spreadsheet data
  3. (c) Booting the computer
  4. (d) Text paragraphs
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Spreadsheet data

.xlsx File Format
.xlsxis the file extension for Microsoft Excel files (2007 onwards).
Used for creating and managingspreadsheet datawith rows, columns, formulas, and charts.
Other formats: .mp3 (sound), .txt/.docx (text), OS files (booting).
Answer: Option 2 → Spreadsheet data
Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Popular operating systems

Q20. Which command-line tool is used in Windows to search for file names across directories without opening File Explorer?

  1. (a) dir /s
  2. (b) chkdsk
  3. (c) Ping
  4. (d) Tasklist
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) dir /s

Command-Line File Search in Windows
dir /s→ Searches files/folders recursively in all subdirectories
Syntax: dir filename /s
chkdsk→ Checks disk for errors, not for file search
ping→ Tests network connectivity
tasklist→ Displays running processes
Answer: Option 1 → dir /s
Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Windows features and utilities

Q21. Which description best matches the purpose of the Startup apps tab in newer Windows Task Manager versions?

  1. (a) Lists all installed applications
  2. (b) Manages which programs are allowed to start automatically when the user signs in
  3. (c) Displays system restore points
  4. (d) Shows network connections for each app
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Manages which programs are allowed to start automatically when the user signs in

Topic: Windows Task Manager - Startup Apps Tab
TheStartup apps tabin Windows Task Manager allows users to:
• View programs configured to launch at system startup
• Enable or disable startup programs
• Check startup impact (High/Medium/Low) on boot time
This helps optimize boot performance by managing auto-start applications.
Other options:
Option 1 → Apps & Features shows all installed apps
Option 3 → System Properties manages restore points
Option 4 → Performance/App history shows network usage
Answer: Option 2 → Manages which programs are allowed to start automatically when the user signs in

Economics (3)

Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q22. What effect did reforms have on India's GDP growth rate?

  1. (a) Decreased slowly
  2. (b) Fluctuated unpredictably
  3. (c) Increased significantly
  4. (d) No change
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Increased significantly

Economic Reforms and GDP Growth
Pre-1991: India's GDP growth rate was around 3-3.5% (Hindu rate of growth)
Post-1991 Reforms: LPG (Liberalization, Privatization, Globalization) introduced
Impact: GDP growth rate increased to 5-6% in 1990s
2000s onwards: Growth rate further accelerated to 7-9%
Conclusion: Economic reforms led to significant increase in GDP growth
Answer: Option 3 → Increased significantly
Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Sectors of the economy (primary, secondary, tertiary)

Q23. Which of the following sectors includes activities like trade, transport, and communication in India?

  1. (a) Primary
  2. (b) Secondary
  3. (c) Tertiary
  4. (d) Quinary
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Tertiary

Economic sectors classification:
Primary Sector:Agriculture, mining, forestry
Secondary Sector:Manufacturing, construction
Tertiary Sector:Services - trade, transport, communication, banking
Quinary Sector:High-level decision making, research
Trade, transport, and communication areservice activities
These fall under theTertiary/Service Sector
Answer: Option 3 → Tertiary
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q24. What is a key feature of globalisation?

  1. (a) Promotion of only domestic industries within national boundaries
  2. (b) Separation of national economies from global economic systems
  3. (c) Reduction of international trade and cross-border economic linkages
  4. (d) Creation of networks across economic, social, and geographic boundaries
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Creation of networks across economic, social, and geographic boundaries

Topic: Globalisation
Key Feature:Globalisation involves integration and interconnection of economies, societies, and cultures across the world.
It creates networks that transcend national boundaries through:
• International trade and investment
• Cross-border movement of goods, services, capital, and labor
• Cultural and technological exchange
Options 1, 2, 3 describe isolation and protectionism, which are opposite to globalisation.
Answer: Option 4 → Creation of networks across economic, social, and geographic boundaries

Geography (5)

India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Soil erosion and conservation

Q25. Which of the following Indian rivers is famous for its ‘badland topography’?

  1. (a) Chambal
  2. (b) Ken
  3. (c) Gandak
  4. (d) Ramganga
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Chambal

Topic: Indian Rivers - Badland Topography
Chambal Riveris famous for its extensive badland topography, locally called'Chambal ravines'.
Badlands are areas with deep gullies and ravines formed by severe soil erosion.
The Chambal ravines cover parts of Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Uttar Pradesh.
These ravines were historically known as hideouts for dacoits.
Answer: Option 1 → Chambal
Lithosphere - Earth's Interior and Landforms · Aeolian and karst landforms

Q26. Which of the following pairs is formed inside limestone caves by deposition?

  1. (a) Levees and meanders
  2. (b) Drumlins and eskers
  3. (c) Cirques and horns
  4. (d) Stalactites and stalagmites
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Stalactites and stalagmites

Topic: Limestone Cave Formations
Stalactites:Hang from cave ceiling, formed by dripping water depositing calcium carbonate.
Stalagmites:Rise from cave floor, formed by dripping water depositing minerals upward.
Other options:
• Levees & meanders → River features
• Drumlins & eskers → Glacial deposits
• Cirques & horns → Glacial erosion features
Answer: Option 4 → Stalactites and stalagmites
Lithosphere - Earth's Interior and Landforms · Weathering and erosion

Q27. The peeling of curved sheets from massive rocks due to temperature changes is known as:

  1. (a) Exfoliation
  2. (b) Salt crystallisation
  3. (c) Abrasion
  4. (d) Carbonation
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Exfoliation

Topic:Weathering Processes
Exfoliationis a physical weathering process where curved sheets or layers peel off from massive rocks.
Caused by repeated heating and cooling cycles, creating expansion and contraction.
Common in areas with large temperature variations (deserts, high altitudes).
Also calledonion-skin weatheringdue to concentric layer formation.
Answer: Option 1 → Exfoliation
India - Population and Census · Population density

Q28. Which one of the following combinations contributes to low population density?

  1. (a) River valleys, floodplains, health clinics
  2. (b) Flat terrain, fertile soil, urban jobs
  3. (c) Mild winters, abundant water, schools
  4. (d) Harsh climate, poor soil, few roads
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Harsh climate, poor soil, few roads

Topic: Factors Affecting Population Density
Low Population Density Factors:
Harsh climate → Difficult living conditions discourage settlement
Poor soil → Limited agriculture reduces food production and livelihood
Few roads → Poor connectivity limits access to resources and services
Other Options Analysis:
Options 1, 2, 3 → All contain favorable factors (fertile land, water, jobs, facilities)
These factors attract people and increase population density
Answer: Option 4 → Harsh climate, poor soil, few roads
India - Agriculture · Types of farming (shifting, terrace, etc.)

Q29. Which type of agriculture is commonly practised in the wheat-producing regions of the USA and Canada?

  1. (a) Shifting cultivation
  2. (b) Commercial grain farming
  3. (c) Intensive subsistence farming
  4. (d) Plantation agriculture
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Commercial grain farming

Topic:Types of Agriculture
Commercial grain farmingis practiced in USA and Canada's wheat regions.
Key characteristics:
• Large-scale mechanized farming
• Wheat and corn grown for market sale
• High capital investment and technology use
USA and Canada are world's largest wheat exporters using this method.
Answer: Option 2 → Commercial grain farming

Ancient History (2)

Post-Gupta Period · Hiuen Tsang

Q30. The Chinese pilgrim Xuanzang (Hiuen Tsang) visited Kashmir during the reign of:

  1. (a) Harshavardhana
  2. (b) Durlabhavardhana
  3. (c) Pulakeshin II
  4. (d) Yashodharman
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Durlabhavardhana

Xuanzang's Visit to Kashmir
Xuanzang (Hiuen Tsang) was a Chinese Buddhist monk and traveler who visited India during 629-645 CE.
He visited Kashmir during the reign ofKing Durlabhavardhana(625-661 CE) of the Karkota dynasty.
Xuanzang spent considerable time in Kashmir studying Buddhist texts and visiting monasteries.
He documented Kashmir's Buddhist culture and learning centers in his travel accounts.
Answer: Option 2 → Durlabhavardhana
Vedic Period · Vedic literature (Vedas, Brahmanas, Aranyakas, Upanishads)

Q31. Which of the following Vedas is known as the ‘Veda of Music’?

  1. (a) Atharvaveda
  2. (b) Samaveda
  3. (c) Yajurveda
  4. (d) Rigveda
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Samaveda

Topic: Vedas and their Characteristics
TheSamavedais known as the 'Veda of Music' or 'Book of Chants'.
It consists of hymns sung during religious rituals and sacrifices.
The verses are set to musical notations and melodies.
Answer: Option 2 → Samaveda

Biology (1)

Cell - Structure and Function · Cell membrane and cell wall

Q32. The process by which water moves from the soil (high water concentration) into root cells (low water concentration) through a semi-permeable membrane is called ____.

  1. (a) Active Transport
  2. (b) Diffusion
  3. (c) Osmosis
  4. (d) Plasmolysis
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Osmosis

Water Movement in Plants
Process: Water moves from high concentration (soil) to low concentration (root cells)
Through: Semi-permeable membrane (cell membrane)
Definition: Osmosis→ Movement of water molecules from higher water concentration to lower water concentration through a semi-permeable membrane
Other processes:
• Active Transport → Against concentration gradient (needs energy)
• Diffusion → Movement of any substance (not specific to water)
• Plasmolysis → Shrinking of cell due to water loss
Answer: Option 3 → Osmosis

Physics (1)

Work, Energy and Power · Conservation and transformation of energy

Q33. When a stretched rubber band is released, its stored potential energy is converted into which form of energy?

  1. (a) Kinetic Energy
  2. (b) Geothermal Energy
  3. (c) Hydraulic Energy
  4. (d) Chemical Energy
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Kinetic Energy

Energy Conversion in Stretched Rubber Band
When rubber band is stretched, work is done against elastic forces.
This work is stored aselastic potential energy.
Upon release, the rubber band returns to original shape.
Stored potential energy converts tokinetic energy(motion).
Other options incorrect:
Geothermal → Earth's internal heat energy
Hydraulic → Pressure energy in fluids
Chemical → Energy in molecular bonds
Answer: Option 1 → Kinetic Energy

Static GK (3)

Monuments and Heritage · Temples and religious places

Q34. The Khajuraho group of temples was primarily built under which dynasty?

  1. (a) Chandela
  2. (b) Solanki
  3. (c) Gahadavala
  4. (d) Rashtrakuta
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Chandela

Khajuraho Temples - Dynasty
The Khajuraho group of temples is located in Madhya Pradesh.
Built between950-1050 CEby theChandela dynasty.
Famous for intricate sculptures and Nagara-style architecture.
UNESCO World Heritage Site since 1986.
Answer: Option 1 → Chandela
Awards and Honours · Nobel Prize and international awards

Q35. Who was the winner of the 2024 Ramon Magsaysay Award from Indonesia?

  1. (a) Karma Phuntsho
  2. (b) Hayao Miyazaki
  3. (c) Dr. Nguyen Thi Ngoc Phuong
  4. (d) Farwiza Farhan
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Farwiza Farhan

2024 Ramon Magsaysay Award Winners
The Ramon Magsaysay Award is Asia's premier prize and highest honor.
Farwiza Farhanfrom Indonesia won the award in 2024.
She is an environmental activist known for protecting Leuser Ecosystem in Sumatra.
Other 2024 winners: Karma Phuntsho (Bhutan), Dr. Nguyen Thi Ngoc Phuong (Vietnam), Hayao Miyazaki (Japan).
Answer: Option 4 → Farwiza Farhan
Music and Musical Instruments · Carnatic music

Q36. The term 'Kriti' in Carnatic music refers to:

  1. (a) a compositional lyric form
  2. (b) a type of musical ornamentation
  3. (c) a rhythmic pattern
  4. (d) a melodic scale in music
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) a compositional lyric form

Topic: Carnatic Music - Kriti
Kritiis the most important compositional form in Carnatic music.
It is a structured lyrical composition with three sections:
• Pallavi (refrain)
• Anupallavi (second verse)
• Charanam (final verse)
Composed by great composers like Tyagaraja, Muthuswami Dikshitar.
Answer: Option 1 → a compositional lyric form

Medieval History (1)

Mughal Empire · Humayun and Sher Shah Suri

Q37. At which place did Sher Shah first defeat Humayun in 1539?

  1. (a) Panipat
  2. (b) Chausa
  3. (c) Kannauj
  4. (d) Gwalior
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Chausa

Battle of Chausa (1539)
Sher Shah Suri defeated Mughal Emperor Humayun at Chausa (Bihar) on June 26, 1539.
This was thefirst major defeatof Humayun by Sher Shah.
Humayun barely escaped by crossing the Ganges river.
Later, Sher Shah defeated Humayun again at Kannauj (1540), forcing him into exile.
Answer: Option 2 → Chausa
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