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RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 17 June 2026 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 37 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 on 17 June 2026 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Polity, Computer, Current Affairs, Static GK, Medieval History, Chemistry.

📚 37 questions🗓️ 17 June 2026⏰ Shift 2
हिंदी में पढ़ें📥 Full paper PDF
Subjects: Polity (6) · Computer (4) · Current Affairs (7) · Static GK (2) · Medieval History (1) · Chemistry (2) · Geography (5) · Ancient History (2) · Modern History (3) · Physics (2) · Economics (3)

Polity (6)

Judiciary · Supreme Court - composition and appointment

Q1. According to the Indian Constitution, which Article governs the appointment of an Acting Chief Justice of India?

  1. (a) Article 122
  2. (b) Article 130
  3. (c) Article 120
  4. (d) Article 126
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Article 126

Topic: Indian Constitution - Supreme Court
Article 126deals with the appointment of Acting Chief Justice of India.
When the office of CJI is vacant or when the CJI is unable to perform duties due to absence or otherwise, the President can appoint one of the judges of the Supreme Court to act as CJI.
Other Articles:
Article 122 → Courts not to inquire into proceedings of Parliament
Article 130 → Seat of Supreme Court
Article 120 → Language of Supreme Court
Answer: Option 4 → Article 126
Local Government · Evolution and committees (Balwant Rai Mehta, Ashok Mehta, etc.)

Q2. When did the Balwant Rai Mehta Committee submit its report related to the Panchayati Raj System?

  1. (a) 1958
  2. (b) 1956
  3. (c) 1957
  4. (d) 1962
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1957

Balwant Rai Mehta Committee
Appointed in 1957 to examine Community Development Programme and National Extension Service.
Submitted report inNovember 1957.
Recommendedthree-tier Panchayati Raj system: Gram Panchayat, Panchayat Samiti, Zila Parishad.
First implemented in Rajasthan (Nagaur) on 2 October 1959.
Answer: Option 3 → 1957
Local Government · Gram Sabha and three-tier structure

Q3. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides for the constitution of Gram Sabha?

  1. (a) Article 243A
  2. (b) Article 243B
  3. (c) Article 224B
  4. (d) Article 224A
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 243A

Topic:Panchayati Raj System - Constitutional Provisions
73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992added Part IX to the Constitution.
Article 243A- Defines and provides for the constitution of Gram Sabha.
Gram Sabha = Village assembly consisting of all registered voters in a Panchayat area.
Article 243B deals with constitution of Panchayats at village, intermediate and district levels.
Answer: Option 1 → Article 243A
Union, Territory and Citizenship · OCI, NRI and CAA

Q4. Overseas Citizenship of India cardholders receive lifelong visa facilities, but they cannot obtain which of the following rights in India?

  1. (a) Pay taxes
  2. (b) Study in India
  3. (c) Voting or holding a government job
  4. (d) Own property in India
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Voting or holding a government job

Topic: Overseas Citizenship of India (OCI)
OCI Cardholders Benefits:
• Lifelong multiple-entry visa to India
• Can own property, study, and work (private sector)
• Must pay taxes like residents
OCI Cardholders Restrictions:
• Cannot vote in elections
• Cannot hold constitutional positions
• Cannot hold government jobs
• Not eligible for Indian passport
Answer: Option 3 → Voting or holding a government job
DPSP and Fundamental Duties · Swaran Singh Committee and 42nd/86th amendments

Q5. When was the Verma Committee Report on Fundamental Duties submitted to the Union Government?

  1. (a) 1998
  2. (b) 2000
  3. (c) 2001
  4. (d) 1999
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 1999

Verma Committee on Fundamental Duties
The committee was constituted in 1998 under Justice J.S. Verma to review the working of the Constitution, particularly Fundamental Duties.
The committee submitted its report to the Union Government inFebruary 1999.
It recommended making Fundamental Duties more effective and enforceable.
Answer: Option 4 → 1999
DPSP and Fundamental Duties · Swaran Singh Committee and 42nd/86th amendments

Q6. Which of the following Amendments to the Constitution of India introduced Fundamental Duties in the form of Article 51A?

  1. (a) 42ⁿᵈ Amendment, 1976
  2. (b) 24ᵗʰ Amendment, 1971
  3. (c) 44ᵗʰ Amendment, 1978
  4. (d) 52ⁿᵈ Amendment, 1985
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 42ⁿᵈ Amendment, 1976

Topic: Fundamental Duties - Constitutional Amendment
42nd Amendment Act, 1976introduced Part IVA in the Constitution.
AddedArticle 51Acontaining 10 Fundamental Duties (later 11th added by 86th Amendment, 2002).
Enacted during Emergency period on recommendation ofSwaran Singh Committee.
Other amendments: 24th (1971) - Parliament's power to amend, 44th (1978) - Right to Property, 52nd (1985) - Anti-Defection Law.
Answer: Option 1 → 42ⁿᵈ Amendment, 1976

Computer (4)

Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Popular operating systems

Q7. Which part of Windows 10 OS settings can you use to change when the computer enters Power Saving Mode?

  1. (a) Updates & Security
  2. (b) Network & Internet
  3. (c) Display Settings
  4. (d) Power & Sleep Settings
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Power & Sleep Settings

Topic: Windows 10 OS Settings
Power Saving Modecontrols when the computer sleeps or turns off the display to save energy.
In Windows 10, this is managed under:
Settings → System → Power & Sleep
Here you can configure:
• Screen timeout duration
• Sleep mode timing
• Additional power options
Answer: Option 4 → Power & Sleep Settings
MS Office and Productivity Tools · Keyboard shortcuts

Q8. In Microsoft Word 2016 and later versions, when text spanning multiple paragraphs is highlighted and the user presses Ctrl + C, what operation is performed?

  1. (a) Automatically saves the entire document with paragraphs updated
  2. (b) Transfers the highlighted paragraphs to clipboard for duplication elsewhere
  3. (c) Immediately inserts the paragraphs at the document's beginning
  4. (d) Permanently erases the highlighted paragraphs from existence
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Transfers the highlighted paragraphs to clipboard for duplication elsewhere

Keyboard Shortcut: Ctrl + C
Function: Copy command in Microsoft Word
Operation performed:
• Copies selected text/paragraphs to clipboard
• Original content remains unchanged
• Can be pasted elsewhere using Ctrl + V
Note:Ctrl + X cuts (removes), Ctrl + C only copies
Answer: Option 2 → Transfers the highlighted paragraphs to clipboard for duplication elsewhere
Computer Organisation and Hardware · Input devices

Q9. Which of the following devices can act as both an input as well as an output device?

  1. (a) Digital Camera
  2. (b) Plotter
  3. (c) Touchscreen
  4. (d) Barcode Reader
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Touchscreen

Input/Output Device Analysis
Digital Camera:Only input (captures images)
Plotter:Only output (prints graphics)
Touchscreen:Both input and output
• Input: Detects touch for user commands
• Output: Displays visual information
Barcode Reader:Only input (scans barcodes)
Answer: Option 3 → Touchscreen
Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Types of software (system, application, utility)

Q10. Which software helps in maintaining and optimizing the system e.g., disk cleanup?

  1. (a) Utility software
  2. (b) Firmware
  3. (c) Programming software
  4. (d) Application software
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Utility software

System Maintenance Software
Utility Software:Designed for system maintenance,
optimization, and management tasks.
Functions:
• Disk cleanup and defragmentation
• Antivirus and security tools
• File compression and backup
• System diagnostics and optimization
Other Options:
Firmware → Hardware control code
Programming software → Development tools
Answer: Option 1 → Utility software

Current Affairs (7)

Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q11. As highlighted in late September–October 2025 coverage of the Sustainable Development Report 2025, what was India’s position and score in the UN SDG Index 2025?

  1. (a) Rank 79 with an overall SDG index score close to 71 points
  2. (b) Rank 99 with an overall SDG index score close to 67 points
  3. (c) Rank 89 with an overall SDG index score close to 69 points
  4. (d) Rank 109 with an overall SDG index score close to 65 points
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Rank 99 with an overall SDG index score close to 67 points

Topic: UN SDG Index 2025 – India's Performance
The Sustainable Development Report 2025 was released in late September–October 2025.
Key Facts:
India ranked99thout of 193 countries in the UN SDG Index 2025.
India's overall SDG index score was approximately67 points.
This reflects India's progress across the 17 Sustainable Development Goals.
Answer: Option 2 → Rank 99 with an overall SDG index score close to 67 points
International Affairs and Summits · Summits and conferences

Q12. The International Telecommunication Union (ITU) Global Youth Summit 2025 (GYS-25), under the theme “Amplifying youth voices in ICT,” was held in which location from 11-13 March 2025?

  1. (a) Havana, Cuba
  2. (b) Santo Domingo, Dominican Republic
  3. (c) Varadero, Cuba
  4. (d) Kingston, Jamaica
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Varadero, Cuba

ITU Global Youth Summit 2025 (GYS-25)
Theme:Amplifying youth voices in ICT
Date:11-13 March 2025
Location:Varadero, Cuba
The summit focused on empowering youth participation in Information and Communication Technology development and policy-making.
Answer: Option 3 → Varadero, Cuba
Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q13. What new laser-based weapon system did DRDO successfully field-test in April 2025, which is now being transferred for private sector production?

  1. (a) 2 kW Portable Laser
  2. (b) 100 kW Surya Laser System
  3. (c) Infrared Drone Interceptor
  4. (d) 30 kW IDD&IS Mk-IIA
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 30 kW IDD&IS Mk-IIA

Topic:DRDO Laser Weapon System (April 2025)
IDD&IS Mk-IIA- Indigenously Developed Directed Energy System
Key Features:
•30 kW powerlaser-based weapon
• Successfully field-tested in April 2025
• Designed for counter-drone and aerial threat neutralization
• Now transferred to private sector for production
Developed by DRDO's Laser Science & Technology Centre (LASTEC)
Answer: Option 4 → 30 kW IDD&IS Mk-IIA
State News · State schemes and events

Q14. Telangana's vision is to achieve a $3 trillion State GDP by ̲.

  1. (a) 2035
  2. (b) 2047
  3. (c) 2030
  4. (d) 2042
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 2047

Topic:Telangana State Vision
Telangana has set an ambitious economic target to transform
into a major economic powerhouse.
Vision 2047:Achieve $3 trillion State GDP by 2047,
aligning with India's centenary of independence.
This vision focuses on technology, infrastructure, and
sustainable development to drive economic growth.
Answer: Option 2 → 2047
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q15. According to the 2025 report, which Nordic country consistently ranks among the top in happiness?

  1. (a) Norway
  2. (b) Iceland
  3. (c) Finland
  4. (d) Sweden
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Finland

World Happiness Report 2025
Finland has topped the World Happiness Report for7 consecutive years(2018-2024).
Key factors: Strong social support, low corruption, high GDP per capita, freedom to make life choices.
Other Nordic countries (Norway, Iceland, Sweden, Denmark) also rank in top 10 but Finland consistently holds #1 position.
Answer: Option 3 → Finland
Environment and Climate - Current · Species discoveries and conservation news

Q16. Which country has gifted India eight cheetahs for the next phase of Project Cheetah, as witnessed during a symbolic release at Mokolodi Nature Reserve in November 2025?

  1. (a) South Africa
  2. (b) Namibia
  3. (c) Botswana
  4. (d) Kenya
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Botswana

Topic: Project Cheetah - International Cooperation
Project Cheetah aims to reintroduce cheetahs in India after their extinction in 1952.
November 2025 Event:
Eight cheetahs were gifted to India byBotswana.
Symbolic release ceremony held atMokolodi Nature Reserve, Botswana.
This follows earlier cheetah transfers from Namibia and South Africa.
Answer: Option 3 → Botswana
Books, Obituaries and Days - Current · Days and themes - current year

Q17. What was the theme of World Consumer Rights Day 2025?

  1. (a) “Empowering Consumers Through Clean Energy Transitions”.
  2. (b) “A Just Transition to Sustainable Lifestyles.”
  3. (c) “Fair and Responsible AI for Consumers.”
  4. (d) “Fair Digital Finance”.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) “A Just Transition to Sustainable Lifestyles.”

World Consumer Rights Day 2025
Date: March 15, 2025
Theme:"A Just Transition to Sustainable Lifestyles"
Focus: Promoting sustainable consumption patterns while ensuring fairness and equity in the transition to eco-friendly practices.
Answer: Option 2 → "A Just Transition to Sustainable Lifestyles."

Static GK (2)

Monuments and Heritage · Temples and religious places

Q18. In which of the following states of India is the Dilwara Temple, which exhibits a distinct architectural style that fuses elements of Jain, Hindu, and even Mughal craftsmanship, located?

  1. (a) Punjab
  2. (b) Gujarat
  3. (c) Kerala
  4. (d) Rajasthan
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Rajasthan

Dilwara Temple Location
TheDilwara Templesare located inMount Abu, Rajasthan.
Key Facts:
• Built between 11th-13th centuries by Vimal Shah and Tejpal
• Famous for intricatemarble carvingsand Jain architecture
• Five temples dedicated to Jain Tirthankaras
• Considered masterpiece of temple architecture in India
Answer: Option 4 → Rajasthan
Sports · Other sports and tournaments (tennis, chess, badminton, etc.)

Q19. Which Indian badminton player became the first from the country to win the prestigious All England Championship?

  1. (a) Saina Nehwal
  2. (b) HS Prannoy
  3. (c) Kidambi Srikanth
  4. (d) Prakash Padukone
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Prakash Padukone

All England Championship - Historic Win
Prakash Padukone won theAll England Championship in 1980.
He became thefirst Indianto win this prestigious tournament.
This victory marked a historic moment for Indian badminton.
Answer: Option 4 → Prakash Padukone

Medieval History (1)

Delhi Sultanate · Khalji dynasty

Q20. Who was the great general responsible for executing Alauddin Khilji’s Deccan campaigns successfully?

  1. (a) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
  2. (b) Malik Kafur
  3. (c) Balban
  4. (d) Qutbuddin Aibak
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Malik Kafur

Alauddin Khilji's Deccan Campaigns (1296-1316)
Malik Kafurwas Alauddin Khilji's most trusted general.
He led successful campaigns in South India:
• Conquered Devagiri (1307)
• Defeated Warangal (1310)
• Captured Dwarasamudra and Madurai (1311)
Brought immense wealth and the famous Kohinoor diamond.
Answer: Option 2 → Malik Kafur

Chemistry (2)

Environmental Chemistry · Air pollutants and their sources

Q21. Which of the following statements about carbon monoxide in the air is correct?

  1. (a) It is harmless because it is quickly converted into oxygen
  2. (b) The incomplete combustion of fossil fuels produces it and replaces oxygen in haemoglobin
  3. (c) It is released only from natural forest fires and volcanoes
  4. (d) It is less dangerous than carbon dioxide for human health
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The incomplete combustion of fossil fuels produces it and replaces oxygen in haemoglobin

Topic:Carbon Monoxide (CO) - Air Pollutant
Source:Incomplete combustion of fossil fuels (vehicles, industries)
Health Effect:CO binds with haemoglobin forming carboxyhaemoglobin
This prevents oxygen transport in blood → suffocation
Why other options wrong:
Option 1: CO is NOT converted to oxygen, it's toxic
Option 3: Also released from vehicles, industries (major sources)
Option 4: CO is MORE dangerous than CO₂ for humans
Answer: Option 2 → The incomplete combustion of fossil fuels produces it and replaces oxygen in haemoglobin
Structure of Atom · Rutherford's model and gold foil experiment

Q22. What was proven to exist in an atom, by Rutherford's gold foil experiment?

  1. (a) Proton
  2. (b) Neutron
  3. (c) Electron
  4. (d) Nucleus
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Nucleus

Rutherford's Gold Foil Experiment (1911)
Alpha particles were bombarded on thin gold foil.
Key Observations:
Most particles passed straight through.
Few particles deflected at large angles.
Very few particles bounced back.
Conclusion:
Atom has a small, dense, positively charged center.
This central core was named thenucleus.
Note: Proton was discovered later (1919) by Rutherford.
Answer: Option 4 → Nucleus

Geography (5)

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Northern Plains

Q23. The Terai belt is best described as:

  1. (a) A dry zone made of calcareous deposits
  2. (b) A high-altitude snow-covered plain
  3. (c) A marshy tract with a high water table and thick forests
  4. (d) A coastal plain formed by marine deposits
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A marshy tract with a high water table and thick forests

Topic: Terai Belt Geography
Location:Foothills of Himalayas (Uttarakhand to Assam)
Key Features:
• Marshy and swampy terrain
• High water table due to Himalayan rivers
• Dense sal and bamboo forests
• Rich biodiversity and wildlife
Answer: Option 3 → A marshy tract with a high water table and thick forests
India - Transport and Communication · Ports and shipping

Q24. Which Indian port situated at the entrance of the Zuari estuary gained significance after remodelling in 1961 to handle iron-ore exports to Japan?

  1. (a) Jawaharlal Nehru Port
  2. (b) Kandla Port
  3. (c) Marmagao Port
  4. (d) New Mangalore Port
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Marmagao Port

Topic: Indian Ports - Marmagao Port
Location:Marmagao Port is situated at the entrance of the Zuari estuary in Goa.
Historical Significance:After Goa's liberation in 1961, the port was remodelled and modernized.
Primary Function:It became India's leading port for iron-ore exports, particularly to Japan.
Key Feature:Natural harbor with deep draft, ideal for handling bulk cargo like iron ore from Goa's mines.
Answer: Option 3 → Marmagao Port
India - Population and Census · State and district rankings (census)

Q25. According to the Census 2011, which of the following states was the second most populous in the country?

  1. (a) Karnataka
  2. (b) West Bengal
  3. (c) Maharashtra
  4. (d) Bihar
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Maharashtra

Topic: Census 2011 - Most Populous States
Top 5 States by Population (2011):
1. Uttar Pradesh - 19.98 crore (Most populous)
2.Maharashtra - 11.24 crore (Second)
3. Bihar - 10.38 crore (Third)
4. West Bengal - 9.13 crore (Fourth)
5. Andhra Pradesh - 8.46 crore (Fifth)
Answer: Option 3 → Maharashtra
India - Minerals, Energy and Industries · Textile and other industries

Q26. Which of the following industries uses cotton as its main raw material?

  1. (a) Textile Industry
  2. (b) Iron and Steel Industry
  3. (c) Mining Industry
  4. (d) Cement Industry
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Textile Industry

Topic: Industries and Raw Materials
Cotton is a natural fiber obtained from cotton plants.
Textile Industryuses cotton as the primary raw material to manufacture fabrics, clothes, and other textile products.
Other options:
Iron & Steel → uses iron ore, coal
Mining → extracts minerals
Cement → uses limestone, clay
Answer: Option 1 → Textile Industry
Environment and Protected Areas · Environmental conventions and protocols (Montreal, Kyoto, Paris, CBD)

Q27. Which of the following international agreements aims to phase out ozone-depleting substances?

  1. (a) Montreal Protocol
  2. (b) Ramsar Convention
  3. (c) Paris Agreement
  4. (d) Kyoto Protocol
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Montreal Protocol

Topic: International Environmental Agreements
Montreal Protocol (1987)- Specifically designed to protect the ozone layer by phasing out production and consumption of ozone-depleting substances (ODS) like CFCs, halons, and HCFCs.
Other agreements have different purposes:
Ramsar Convention - Wetlands conservation
Paris Agreement - Climate change mitigation
Kyoto Protocol - Greenhouse gas emissions reduction
Answer: Option 1 → Montreal Protocol

Ancient History (2)

Indus Valley Civilisation · Discovery and excavators

Q28. The Harappan Civilization flourished mainly during which of the following archaeological eras?

  1. (a) Bronze Age
  2. (b) Neolithic Age
  3. (c) Iron Age
  4. (d) Chalcolithic Age
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Bronze Age

Topic:Harappan Civilization Timeline
Period:c. 3300-1300 BCE(Mature phase: 2600-1900 BCE)
Characterized by advanced bronze metallurgy, urban planning,
standardized weights, and extensive trade networks.
Bronze Age = Use of copper-tin alloy for tools and weapons.
Harappans mastered bronze technology extensively.
Answer: Option 1 → Bronze Age
Gupta Empire · Gupta literature and scholars

Q29. Which of the following inscriptions is the main source of information of Samudragupta’s military achievements?

  1. (a) Allahabad Pillar Inscription
  2. (b) Nasik Cave Inscription
  3. (c) Junagadh Rock Inscription
  4. (d) Mehrauli Iron Pillar Inscription
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Allahabad Pillar Inscription

Topic: Gupta Empire - Samudragupta's Military Achievements
Allahabad Pillar Inscription (Prayag Prashasti)
Composed by court poetHarisenain Sanskrit.
Engraved on Ashoka's pillar at Allahabad.
Details Samudragupta's military campaigns and conquests.
Describes hisDigvijaya(conquest of all directions).
Other inscriptions belong to different rulers/periods.
Answer: Option 1 → Allahabad Pillar Inscription

Modern History (3)

Socio-Religious Reform Movements · Arya Samaj and Dayananda Saraswati

Q30. Who started the Arya Samaj movement in 1875?

  1. (a) Mahatma Gandhi
  2. (b) Ramakrishna Paramhansa
  3. (c) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
  4. (d) Dayanand Saraswati
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Dayanand Saraswati

Arya Samaj Movement (1875)
Founded by:Swami Dayanand Saraswatiin Mumbai (1875)
Key Facts:
• Promoted Vedic teachings and opposed idol worship
• Slogan: 'Back to the Vedas'
• Advocated social reforms and women's education
Answer: Option 4 → Dayanand Saraswati
Advent of Europeans and British Expansion · Battles of Plassey and Buxar

Q31. Which provision of the Treaty of Allahabad most strengthened British political authority in eastern India?

  1. (a) Restoration of Bengal’s sovereign authority under the Mughal emperor.
  2. (b) Granting of the Diwani rights of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa to the Company.
  3. (c) Withdrawal of the Company's revenue claims from all northern subas immediately.
  4. (d) Permanent transfer of Awadh territories under direct Company occupation.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Granting of the Diwani rights of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa to the Company.

Treaty of Allahabad (1765)
Signed between: Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II and East India Company
Key Provision - Diwani Rights:
Company granted Diwani (revenue collection rights) of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa
Significance:
This gave Company control over revenue administration without direct political responsibility
Transformed Company from trading entity to territorial power
Established dual government system in Bengal
Answer: Option 2 → Granting of the Diwani rights of Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa to the Company.
British Administration and Policies · Constitutional Acts under British rule

Q32. Which Charter Act ended the East India Company’s monopoly over trade with India?

  1. (a) Charter Act of 1813
  2. (b) Charter Act of 1853
  3. (c) Charter Act of 1833
  4. (d) Charter Act of 1793
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Charter Act of 1813

Topic: Charter Acts and East India Company
TheCharter Act of 1813ended the Company's monopoly over trade with India (except tea and China trade).
Key provisions:
• Opened Indian trade to all British subjects
• Company retained monopoly only on tea and China trade
• Allowed Christian missionaries to spread education
Note: Charter Act of 1833 ended tea and China trade monopoly completely.
Answer: Option 1 → Charter Act of 1813

Physics (2)

Heat and Thermodynamics · Conduction, convection and radiation

Q33. Which process is responsible for the rising of warm air over a heated surface?

  1. (a) Convection
  2. (b) Radiation
  3. (c) Conduction
  4. (d) Insulation
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Convection

Heat Transfer Process
When a surface is heated, air molecules near it gain energy and become less dense.
Less dense warm air rises upward, while cooler denser air sinks down.
This circulation of air due to density differences is calledconvection.
Other processes:
Conduction → heat transfer through direct contact
Radiation → heat transfer through electromagnetic waves
Insulation → preventing heat transfer
Answer: Option 1 → Convection
Units, Measurement & Dimensions · SI base units

Q34. A physics lab experiment requires the measurement of temperature using the correct SI unit. Which unit should the student use to record temperature readings according to the SI system?

  1. (a) Joule
  2. (b) Kelvin
  3. (c) Fahrenheit
  4. (d) Celsius
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Kelvin

Topic: SI Units - Temperature
SI System (International System of Units)
Base unit for temperature =Kelvin (K)
Other units:
• Joule → Energy unit
• Fahrenheit → Non-SI temperature scale
• Celsius → Derived unit, not base SI unit
Answer: Option 2 → Kelvin

Economics (3)

Agriculture and Food Security · Agricultural credit and institutions (NABARD, KCC)

Q35. All India Rural Financial Inclusion Survey (NAFIS) is conducted by which organisation?

  1. (a) RBI
  2. (b) NABARD
  3. (c) FICCI
  4. (d) CII
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) NABARD

All India Rural Financial Inclusion Survey (NAFIS)
Conducted by:NABARD(National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development)
Purpose: Assess financial inclusion status of rural households in India
First survey conducted in 2016-17
Answer: Option 2 → NABARD
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · WTO

Q36. India became a member of the World Trade Organization (WTO) to boost global trade participation. In which year did India join the WTO?

  1. (a) 1993
  2. (b) 2001
  3. (c) 1995
  4. (d) 1991
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1995

Topic: International Organizations - WTO
TheWorld Trade Organization (WTO)was established on January 1, 1995, replacing GATT (General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade).
India was a founding member of GATT (1947) and became one of the founding members of WTO when it was formed.
India joined WTO on January 1, 1995as one of the original 164 member countries.
Answer: Option 3 → 1995
Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Types of unemployment

Q37. Which of the following best describes ‘disguised unemployment’ in the Indian context?

  1. (a) Workers shift from one job to another frequently.
  2. (b) Workers are temporarily unemployed during economic slowdown.
  3. (c) Workers are not willing to work.
  4. (d) More people are employed than actually needed, with marginal productivity being zero.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) More people are employed than actually needed, with marginal productivity being zero.

Topic: Disguised Unemployment
Definition:A situation where more people are engaged in work than actually required, and removing some workers does not affect total output.
Key Features:
• Marginal productivity of extra workers = zero
• Common in Indian agriculture and family businesses
• Example: 5 people working on a farm that needs only 3
Indian Context:Prevalent in rural agricultural sector where family members work on small landholdings even when their contribution to output is negligible.
Answer: Option 4 → More people are employed than actually needed, with marginal productivity being zero.
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