Home › GK Questions Asked › SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 › 16 September 2025 Shift 3

SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 16 September 2025 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 24 GK / GS questions asked in SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 on 16 September 2025 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Static GK, Ancient History, Medieval History, Current Affairs, Geography, Biology.

📚 24 questions🗓️ 16 September 2025⏰ Shift 3
हिंदी में पढ़ें📥 Full paper PDF
Subjects: Static GK (7) · Ancient History (1) · Medieval History (1) · Current Affairs (3) · Geography (4) · Biology (1) · Polity (3) · Physics (1) · Economics (3)

Static GK (7)

Dances · Folk dances by state

Q1. Consider the following statements:
1. Perini Shivatandavam is a warrior dance revived in modern times.
2. It originated from the court of Chola kings of Tamil Nadu.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1 is correct
  2. (b) Only 2 is correct
  3. (c) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct
  4. (d) Neither statement 1 nor 2 is correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 1 is correct

Statement 1 is correct — Perini Shivatandavam is an ancient warrior dance of Telangana, revived in modern times by Nataraja Ramakrishna.
Statement 2 is incorrect — it originated in the court of the Kakatiya kings (Warangal), not the Cholas of Tamil Nadu.
Hence only 1 is correct.
Monuments and Heritage · Colonial and modern architecture in India

Q2. Which of the following is a typical architectural feature of the Capuchin Church?

  1. (a) Ornate spires and domes
  2. (b) Complex traceried rose windows
  3. (c) Flat arched entrance with pediment
  4. (d) Multi-storey shikhara tower
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Flat arched entrance with pediment

Capuchin Churches typically follow a simple, austere architectural style with a flat arched entrance topped by a pediment.
Ornate spires/domes, traceried rose windows and shikhara towers are characteristic of other styles (Gothic, Hindu temples, etc.).
Music and Musical Instruments · Folk music and songs by state

Q3. Which of the following pairs of Kashmiri music and its description is correctly matched?

  1. (a) Chakri – Classical form using Santoor and Hafiz Nagma
  2. (b) Sufiana Music – Folk style sung with Garaha and Rabab
  3. (c) Hafiz Nagma – Dance based on musical notes of Sufiana music
  4. (d) Rouf – Instrumental duet performed with Santoor and Sitar
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Hafiz Nagma – Dance based on musical notes of Sufiana music

Hafiz Nagma is a Kashmiri dance form performed by women to the musical notes of Sufiana music — correctly matched.
Chakri is a folk (not classical) style; Sufiana Music is the classical style (not folk); Rouf is a folk dance, not an instrumental duet.
Sports · Athletics - events, rules and specifications

Q4. In pole vault, how many failed attempts are allowed before disqualification?

  1. (a) 2
  2. (b) 3
  3. (c) 4
  4. (d) 1
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 3

In pole vault, an athlete is allowed three failed attempts at a given height before being disqualified from that height/competition.
Organisations and Headquarters · India's foreign relations and connectivity projects

Q5. Which corridor enhances India's access to Central Asia through Chabahar Port?

  1. (a) East-West Corridor
  2. (b) India-Myanmar Highway
  3. (c) North-South Transport Corridor
  4. (d) South Asian Maritime Path
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) North-South Transport Corridor

The International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) is a multi-modal trade route that links India to Central Asia and Russia via Iran (Chabahar Port), enhancing India’s connectivity with Central Asia.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q6. What is the theme of Avni Doshi's Burnt Sugar, shortlisted for the Booker Prize 2020?

  1. (a) Romantic tale in pre-independence India
  2. (b) Political thriller in Delhi
  3. (c) Complex mother-daughter bond
  4. (d) Historical fiction on India-Persia trade
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Complex mother-daughter bond

Avni Doshi’s ‘Burnt Sugar’ explores a fraught, complex mother-daughter relationship in modern India and was shortlisted for the 2020 Booker Prize.
The other options misrepresent its theme.
Space, Defence and Technology · Launch vehicles and satellites

Q7. What is the maximum payload capacity of India's upcoming Next Generation Launch Vehicle (NGLV) to Low Earth Orbit (LEO)?

  1. (a) 10 tonnes
  2. (b) 20 tonnes
  3. (c) 30 tonnes
  4. (d) 40 tonnes
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 30 tonnes

ISRO’s NGLV is designed with a maximum payload capacity of about 30 tonnes to Low Earth Orbit, supporting heavy-lift missions including future human spaceflight.

Ancient History (1)

Gupta Empire · Gupta administration and economy

Q8. Which of the following statements about the Mahasandhivigrahika during Gupta's rule is correct?

  1. (a) He was the chief justice of the kingdom and presided over land disputes.
  2. (b) He supervised irrigation works and public revenue collection.
  3. (c) He acted as the foreign minister and collaborated closely with the king and military.
  4. (d) He managed temple endowments and religious affairs.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) He acted as the foreign minister and collaborated closely with the king and military.

‘Mahasandhivigrahika’ in the Gupta administration was the Minister of Peace and War — broadly the foreign minister who collaborated with the king on diplomatic and military matters.
The other options describe different officials (Mahadandanayaka, Pustapala, etc.).

Medieval History (1)

Early Medieval North India · Tripartite struggle (Palas, Pratiharas, Rashtrakutas)

Q9. Match the dynasties listed in Column A with the regions they primarily ruled over, as given in Column B:
Column A (Dynasty): A. Gurjara-Pratiharas, B. Rashtrakutas, C. Palas, D. Cholas
Column B (Region): 1. Bengal, 2. Tamil Nadu, 3. Gujarat and Rajasthan, 4. Western Deccan

  1. (a) A → 3, B → 4, C → 1, D → 2
  2. (b) A → 4, B → 3, C → 1, D → 2
  3. (c) A → 2, B → 3, C → 1, D → 4
  4. (d) A → 4, B → 3, C → 2, D → 1
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) A → 3, B → 4, C → 1, D → 2

Gurjara-Pratiharas ruled Gujarat and Rajasthan (3).
Rashtrakutas ruled the Western Deccan (4).
Palas ruled Bengal (1).
Cholas ruled Tamil Nadu (2).
Hence A → 3, B → 4, C → 1, D → 2.

Current Affairs (3)

Sports - Current · Venues and hosts

Q10. Which city is set to host the 2026 Commonwealth Games after Australia withdrew from hosting?

  1. (a) Birmingham
  2. (b) Victoria
  3. (c) Glasgow
  4. (d) Toronto
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Glasgow

After the Australian state of Victoria withdrew from hosting the 2026 Commonwealth Games, Glasgow (Scotland) agreed to host a slimmed-down edition of the Games.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · New government schemes and missions

Q11. Which campaign did Education Minister Dharmendra Pradhan promote on World Environment Day 2025?

  1. (a) Plastic-Free India Campaign
  2. (b) Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam 2.0 tree-planting
  3. (c) Clean Ganga Youth Movement
  4. (d) National Coastal Cleanup Drive
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam 2.0 tree-planting

On World Environment Day 2025, the Education Minister promoted the ‘Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam 2.0’ tree-planting campaign across schools and institutions.
Sports - Current · Venues and hosts

Q12. Which of the following statements accurately identifies the venue and complete schedule of the Yonex-Sunrise India Open 2025, classified as a BWF Super 750 badminton tournament?

  1. (a) It was conducted at Thyagaraj Stadium, New Delhi, from January 10 to 15, 2025, as part of the BWF World Tour.
  2. (b) The event took place at the Siri Fort Sports Complex, New Delhi, from January 12 to 17, 2025, under the BWF Super Series framework.
  3. (c) It was hosted at the K.D. Jadhav Indoor Hall, IG Stadium, New Delhi, from January 14 to 19, 2025, as part of the BWF Super 750 tier.
  4. (d) It was organized at Talkatora Indoor Stadium, New Delhi, from January 16 to 21, 2025, under the India Badminton Circuit calendar.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It was hosted at the K.D. Jadhav Indoor Hall, IG Stadium, New Delhi, from January 14 to 19, 2025, as part of the BWF Super 750 tier.

The Yonex-Sunrise India Open 2025, a BWF Super 750 event, was held at the K. D. Jadhav Indoor Hall in the IG Stadium complex, New Delhi, from 14 to 19 January 2025.
The other venues/dates are incorrect.

Geography (4)

India - Population and Census · Urbanisation and migration

Q13. What was India's urban population percentage in Census 2011?

  1. (a) 24%
  2. (b) 31%
  3. (c) 36%
  4. (d) 41%
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 31%

Census 2011 records India’s urban population at approximately 31.16%, marking the first inter-census decade where the urban absolute growth exceeded the rural growth.
India - Minerals, Energy and Industries · Textile and other industries

Q14. The Sindri fertilizer plant, one of India's oldest and most significant, is located in which state, utilizing its proximity to a major coal-producing region?

  1. (a) West Bengal
  2. (b) Odisha
  3. (c) Jharkhand
  4. (d) Bihar
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Jharkhand

Sindri is located in Dhanbad district of Jharkhand, close to the coalfields of the Damodar Valley, which provided coal for the plant’s operation.
Atmosphere and Climate · Climate change and global warming

Q15. Why is 'Carbon Sink Enhancement' important in India's climate plan?

  1. (a) Encourage deforestation
  2. (b) Store CO₂ in vegetation and soil
  3. (c) Burn more fossil fuels
  4. (d) Promote monocultures
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Store CO₂ in vegetation and soil

Enhancing carbon sinks means increasing the capacity of forests, soils and other natural systems to absorb and store CO₂ — a key strategy under India’s NDCs to mitigate climate change.
Universe and Solar System · Stars and their life cycle

Q16. Consider these cosmic phenomena:
1. Black holes emit X-rays directly from their event horizon
2. Pulsars are rapidly rotating neutron stars
Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. (a) Statement 1 only
  2. (b) Statement 2 only
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Statement 2 only

Statement 1 is false — X-rays from black holes come from the surrounding accretion disc and hot gas, not directly from the event horizon (no signal escapes the event horizon).
Statement 2 is true — pulsars are highly magnetised, rapidly rotating neutron stars.
Hence only Statement 2 is correct.

Biology (1)

Heredity and Evolution · Chromosomes, genes and DNA

Q17. Which of the following sequences correctly represents flow of genetic info?

  1. (a) DNA → Protein → RNA
  2. (b) RNA → DNA → Protein
  3. (c) DNA → RNA → Protein
  4. (d) Protein → RNA → DNA
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) DNA → RNA → Protein

According to the central dogma of molecular biology, genetic information flows from DNA → RNA → Protein (transcription followed by translation).

Polity (3)

Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Financial relations

Q18. What does Article 268 of the Indian Constitution primarily deal with?

  1. (a) Service tax levied by Union and collected by States
  2. (b) Income tax levied and collected by States
  3. (c) Stamp duties levied by Union but collected by States
  4. (d) Excise duties on medicinal products collected by States
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Stamp duties levied by Union but collected by States

Article 268 deals with duties (such as stamp duties on financial transactions) that are levied by the Union but collected and appropriated by the States.
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q19. Which Article allows Parliament to legislate on a subject in the State List during a National Emergency?

  1. (a) Article 250
  2. (b) Article 256
  3. (c) Article 254
  4. (d) Article 352
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 250

Article 250 empowers Parliament to make laws on subjects in the State List for any part of India during the operation of a National Emergency.
Article 352 is about proclamation of National Emergency; Article 254 deals with inconsistency between Union and State laws; Article 256 deals with executive direction.
Judiciary · Supreme Court - jurisdiction (original, appellate, advisory)

Q20. Consider the following statements:
1. Article 131A gave High Courts exclusive power to decide on central laws' validity.
2. It was repealed by the 43rd Constitutional Amendment.
Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only 2

Statement 1 is incorrect — Article 131A (inserted by the 42nd Amendment) gave the Supreme Court exclusive jurisdiction (not High Courts) over questions concerning the constitutional validity of Central laws.
Statement 2 is correct — Article 131A was repealed by the 43rd Constitutional Amendment in 1977.
Hence only Statement 2 is correct.

Physics (1)

Sound and Waves · Numericals on sound and waves

Q21. If the speed of sound in a medium is 340 m/s and a sound wave has a frequency of 680 Hz, what is its wavelength?

  1. (a) 0.5 m
  2. (b) 2 m
  3. (c) 20 m
  4. (d) 50 m
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 0.5 m

Wavelength λ = v / f.
λ = 340 / 680 = 0.5 m.

Economics (3)

External Sector and International Economic Organisations · Foreign trade policy and EXIM

Q22. What is the primary aim of TIES?

  1. (a) Export infra development
  2. (b) Cold storage for dairy
  3. (c) PMFBY support
  4. (d) Drug pricing regulation
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Export infra development

TIES (Trade Infrastructure for Export Scheme) aims at developing export-oriented infrastructure such as ports, ICDs, cold chains, etc., to enhance India’s export competitiveness.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Economic indices and rankings

Q23. Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Mark the correct options:
Assertion (A): The Happiness Index includes political freedom and social support.
Reason (R): The Index is published by the UNDP.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false.
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A is true, but R is false.

A is true — the Happiness Index considers indicators such as social support and freedom to make life choices.
R is false — the World Happiness Report is published by the UN Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN), not the UNDP (the UNDP publishes the Human Development Index).
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · Foreign trade policy and EXIM

Q24. Read the following Assertion (A) and Reason (R) carefully and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): India adopted import substitution during the planning era.
Reason (R): This was to protect infant domestic industries from foreign competition.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) A is true but R is false.
  4. (d) A is false but R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

A is true — India’s planning era (especially the 2nd Five-Year Plan onwards) adopted an import-substitution industrialization strategy.
R is true — the chief objective was to protect nascent domestic industries from foreign competition.
R correctly explains A.
← 16 September 2025 Shift 2All shifts17 September 2025 Shift 1 →
📥 PDF of this paper (all subjects, English & Hindi): SSC CGL Tier-1 previous year papers PDF · ▶ Attempt previous year papers as free online tests · 🏆 Free live mock tests · 📰 Daily current affairs quiz