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SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 16 September 2025 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 23 GK / GS questions asked in SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 on 16 September 2025 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Medieval History, Static GK, Modern History, Current Affairs, Geography, Polity.

📚 23 questions🗓️ 16 September 2025⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Medieval History (1) · Static GK (7) · Modern History (1) · Current Affairs (4) · Geography (3) · Polity (4) · Physics (1) · Economics (1) · Chemistry (1)

Medieval History (1)

Mughal Empire · Mughal architecture

Q1. What material were the double-storeyed gates of Purana Qila primarily built with?

  1. (a) Marble
  2. (b) Red sandstone
  3. (c) Glazed tiles
  4. (d) Rubble
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Red sandstone

• Historical Architecture:
• Purana Qila (Old Fort) was built during the reign of Sher Shah Suri and Humayun (16th century).
• The double-storeyed gates (including the Bara Darwaza and Humayun Darwaza) were primarily built with red sandstone.
• Red sandstone is characteristic of Mughal and Suri architecture of this period.
• Answer: Red sandstone

Static GK (7)

Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Tribal festivals

Q2. Fill in the blank:
The Tusu festival is primarily celebrated in the tribal belt of Jharkhand, especially around the area between ____________ , Tamar, and Raidih .

  1. (a) Dumka
  2. (b) Bundu
  3. (c) Daltonganj
  4. (d) Chaibasa
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Bundu

• The Tusu festival is a harvest festival celebrated by the tribal communities of Jharkhand.
• It is primarily celebrated in the Bundu-Tamar- Raidih area of Jharkhand.
• Bundu is a block in Ranchi district, near Tamar and Raidih .
• Answer: Bundu
Music and Musical Instruments · Hindustani music (ragas, gharanas)

Q3. Who is credited with developing the modern notation system for Hindustani classical music and documenting compositions in the Kramik Pustak Maalika?

  1. (a) Ustad Allauddin Khan of Maihar Gharana
  2. (b) Pandit Vishnu Digambar Paluskar of Gwalior
  3. (c) Pandit Vishnu Narayan Bhatkhande of Bombay
  4. (d) Saint Tyagaraja of Carnatic Tradition
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Pandit Vishnu Narayan Bhatkhande of Bombay

• Indian Classical Music History:
• Pandit Vishnu Narayan Bhatkhande (1860-1936) is credited with:
• Developing the modern notation system for Hindustani classical music
• Documenting ragas and compositions in his series 'Kramik Pustak Maalika'
• He also classified ragas into 10 parent ' thaats '
• Vishnu Digambar Paluskar promoted music education but didn't create the notation system
• Answer: Pandit Vishnu Narayan Bhatkhande of Bombay
Sports · Other sports and tournaments (tennis, chess, badminton, etc.)

Q4. Consider the following statements about service rules in table tennis:
1) At 10-10, service alternates every two points.
2) In the final doubles game, receiver order changes when one side reaches 5 points.
Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1 is Correct
  2. (b) Only 2 is Correct
  3. (c) 1 and 2 are correct
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2 is Correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only 2 is Correct

• Table Tennis rules:
• Statement 1: At 10-10 (deuce), service alternates every ONE point (not two) — INCORRECT ✗
• Statement 2: In the final game of doubles, when either side reaches 5 points, receivers and server change positions — CORRECT ✓
• Answer: Only 2 is Correct
Sports · Sports terminology

Q5. What is meant by an 'own goal' in football?

  1. (a) A goal scored by a goalkeeper
  2. (b) A goal scored from a penalty
  3. (c) A goal scored accidentally into one's own net
  4. (d) A goal scored during injury time
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A goal scored accidentally into one's own net

• Football terminology:
• An 'own goal' occurs when a player accidentally (or deliberately) deflects or kicks the ball into their own team's net.
• It counts as a goal for the opposing team.
• It is NOT related to penalty kicks, goalkeepers specifically, or injury time.
• Answer: A goal scored accidentally into one's own net
Sports · Olympic Games

Q6. Consider the following statements about India's Winter Olympics participation:
1) Shiva Keshavan competed in six Games and introduced luge to India.
2) Arif Mohammad Khan was the first Indian to qualify for two alpine skiing events in 2022.
Which of the statements is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only Statement 1 is correct
  2. (b) Only Statement 2 is correct
  3. (c) 1 and 2 both are correct
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2 is Correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 both are correct

• India's Winter Olympics history:
• Statement 1: Shiva Keshavan is India's most iconic Winter Olympian, competed in six Winter Games (1998-2018) and introduced luge to India — CORRECT ✓
• Statement 2: Arif Mohammad Khan qualified for the 2022 Beijing Winter Olympics in two alpine skiing events (Giant Slalom and Slalom) — CORRECT ✓
• Answer: 1 and 2 both are correct
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q7. Consider the following statements about the book 'Being Indian' by Pavan K. Varma:
1) The book won the Vodafone Crossword Book Award for exploring Indian identity and culture.
2) It received the Sahitya Akademi Award for its contributions to Indian English poetry.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only statement 1 is correct
  2. (b) Only statement 2 is correct
  3. (c) Both statements 1 and 2 are correct
  4. (d) Neither statement 1 nor 2 is correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only statement 1 is correct

• Literary GK:
• 'Being Indian' by Pavan K. Varma won the Vodafone Crossword Book Award — Statement 1 CORRECT ✓
• 'Being Indian' is a non-fiction work about Indian identity and character, NOT a poetry collection — Statement 2 (Sahitya Akademi for poetry) is INCORRECT ✗
• Answer: Only statement 1 is correct
Sports · Other sports and tournaments (tennis, chess, badminton, etc.)

Q8. Fill in the blank:
Javelin thrower Neeraj Chopra won India's first-ever gold at the World Athletics Championships in ______ in 2023.

  1. (a) Eugene
  2. (b) Tokyo
  3. (c) Budapest
  4. (d) Doha
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Budapest

• The 2023 World Athletics Championships were held in Budapest, Hungary.
• Neeraj Chopra won the gold medal in the javelin throw at these championships.
• This was India's first-ever gold medal at the World Athletics Championships.
• Answer: Budapest

Modern History (1)

British Administration and Policies · Constitutional Acts under British rule

Q9. Under Pitt's India Act, what restriction was placed on the Governor General and Council?

  1. (a) They could not pass any civil law without Queen's consent.
  2. (b) They could not issue orders without majority support.
  3. (c) They were forbidden to declare war or make treaties without approval.
  4. (d) They had to resign after 5 years in office.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) They were forbidden to declare war or make treaties without approval.

• Pitt's India Act 1784:
• The Act placed the Governor General and Council under the supervision of a Board of Control.
• Key restriction: They were forbidden to declare offensive war or make treaties with Indian princes without prior approval from the Board of Control.
• This was a major check on the EIC's military adventures in India.
• Answer: They were forbidden to declare war or make treaties without approval.

Current Affairs (4)

International Affairs and Summits · Bilateral agreements and visits

Q10. Which 2024 India-Bangladesh energy project involves a 765 kV cross-border transmission line to boost hydroelectric trade across multiple countries?

  1. (a) Agartala- Parbotipur -Guwahati Transmission Grid
  2. (b) Katihar- Parbotipur - Bornagar Interconnection Project
  3. (c) Jalpaiguri-Chattogram Power Corridor
  4. (d) Siliguri- Bogura -Mymensingh HVDC Link
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Katihar- Parbotipur - Bornagar Interconnection Project

• Current Affairs 2024 - Energy:
• The Katihar- Parbotipur - Bornagar Interconnection Project is a significant energy cooperation initiative between India and Bangladesh.
• It involves a 765 kV high-capacity cross-border transmission line.
• The project boosts hydroelectric power trade across the region, including Nepal and Bhutan.
• Answer: Katihar- Parbotipur - Bornagar Interconnection Project
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · New government schemes and missions

Q11. Who launched the campaign 'Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam' in 2024, encouraging citizens to plant trees in honor of their mothers and Mother Earth?

  1. (a) Narendra Modi
  2. (b) Leena Nandan
  3. (c) Bhupender Yadav
  4. (d) Ashwini Vaishnaw
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Narendra Modi

• The 'Ek Ped Maa Ke Naam' (One Tree in Mother's Name) campaign was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in June 2024.
• The campaign encouraged citizens to plant trees as a tribute to their mothers and Mother Nature.
• Answer: Narendra Modi
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q12. Fill in the Blanks:
NISAR maps the global surface every ____.

  1. (a) 3 days
  2. (b) 12 days
  3. (c) 24 hrs
  4. (d) 5 days
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 12 days

• NISAR Mission (NASA-ISRO SAR):
• NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar) is designed to map the Earth's surface.
• It maps the entire global surface every 12 days using Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) technology.
• This enables monitoring of changes in Earth's surface, including vegetation, ice sheets, and tectonic movements.
• Answer: 12 days
Environment and Climate - Current · Species discoveries and conservation news

Q13. Which national park reported a successful tiger population rise in 2024, reaching over 150 tigers?

  1. (a) Ranthambore
  2. (b) Nagarhole National Park
  3. (c) Corbett
  4. (d) Satpura
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Corbett

• Wildlife Current Affairs 2024:
• Jim Corbett National Park (Uttarakhand) reported a significant rise in tiger population in 2024.
• It reported over 150 tigers, making it one of the reserves with the highest tiger density in India.
• Corbett is India's first and oldest national park (established 1936).
• Answer: Corbett

Geography (3)

Lithosphere - Earth's Interior and Landforms · Fluvial landforms

Q14. What causes a river to develop meanders?

  1. (a) High-altitude origin
  2. (b) Sudden tectonic uplift
  3. (c) Lateral erosion in flat terrain
  4. (d) Ocean current influence
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Lateral erosion in flat terrain

• Physical Geography - River Erosion:
• Meanders are winding curves in a river's course.
• They develop primarily due to lateral (sideways) erosion in flat terrain.
• When rivers flow through flat areas, they erode the outer banks of curves and deposit sediment on inner banks, gradually creating more pronounced loops (meanders).
• High-altitude rivers typically flow fast and straight (not meander).
• Answer: Lateral erosion in flat terrain
India - Minerals, Energy and Industries · Textile and other industries

Q15. Read the statements carefully and choose the correct option:
Assertion (A): Aluminium smelting is the most important metallurgical industry in India.
Reason (R): Aluminium is used in the manufacture of aircraft, wires, and utensils.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) A is false, but R is true

• Industries/Geography:
• Assertion A: Iron and steel is considered the MOST IMPORTANT metallurgical industry in India, not aluminium smelting — FALSE ✗
• Reason R: Aluminium IS used in aircraft, wires, and utensils — TRUE ✓
• A is false, R is true → Option D
• Answer: A is false, but R is true
Atmosphere and Climate · Composition and layers of the atmosphere

Q16. Which pair correctly matches atmosphere layer and feature?

  1. (a) Troposphere - weather
  2. (b) Thermosphere - ozone
  3. (c) Mesosphere - satellites
  4. (d) Stratosphere - meteors
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Troposphere - weather

• Atmospheric layers:
• Troposphere: Lowest layer (0-12 km), contains weather phenomena — CORRECT ✓
• Thermosphere: Contains the ionosphere, NOT ozone (ozone is in stratosphere) — INCORRECT ✗
• Mesosphere: Where meteors burn up, NOT satellites (satellites orbit in thermosphere/exosphere) — INCORRECT ✗
• Stratosphere: Contains ozone layer, NOT where meteors burn — INCORRECT ✗
• Answer: Troposphere - weather

Polity (4)

Judiciary · Supreme Court - jurisdiction (original, appellate, advisory)

Q17. Which of the following disputes falls under the Supreme Court's exclusive original jurisdiction as per Article 131 of the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) Inter-State water disputes
  2. (b) Election disputes of MPs and MLAs
  3. (c) Disputes between Centre and one or more States
  4. (d) Appeals against High Court decisions
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Disputes between Centre and one or more States

• Indian Constitution - Article 131:
• Article 131 gives the Supreme Court EXCLUSIVE ORIGINAL jurisdiction in disputes:
• Between the Government of India and one or more States
• Between the Government of India and any State(s) on one side and States on the other
• Between two or more States
• Inter-State water disputes fall under Article 262 (Water Disputes Tribunals)
• Election disputes: High Court has original jurisdiction under Article 329
• Answer: Disputes between Centre and one or more States
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q18. Under Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Samhita (BNSS), the period for default bail in minor offences is capped at?

  1. (a) 30 days
  2. (b) 45 days
  3. (c) 60 days
  4. (d) 90 days
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 60 days

• BNSS (New Criminal Law 2023):
• Default bail (Section 479 BNSS) provisions:
• For minor offences (punishable with imprisonment up to 3 years): If trial is not completed and the accused has been in custody for 1/3 of the maximum period of imprisonment, they are entitled to bail.
• Under BNSS, for minor offences, the maximum custody period before default bail is capped at 60 days.
• Answer: 60 days
Fundamental Rights · Fundamental Rights - general (Articles 12, 13)

Q19. Fill in the Blank: Doctrine of Severability allows the _____ part of a law to be retained.

  1. (a) Repealed
  2. (b) Inconsistent
  3. (c) Valid
  4. (d) Unconstitutional
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Valid

• Constitutional Law - Doctrine of Severability:
• The Doctrine of Severability means that if part of a law is declared unconstitutional, the valid (constitutional) part can still be retained and enforced.
• The unconstitutional part is severed (removed) while the valid portion continues to operate.
• Answer: Valid (the valid part is retained)
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q20. Consider the following statements:
1. The Concurrent List allows both Centre and States to legislate.
2. In case of conflict, State law prevails over Union law.
Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 1

• Indian Constitution - Seventh Schedule:
• Statement 1: The Concurrent List (List III) allows both Parliament and State Legislatures to make laws — CORRECT ✓
• Statement 2: In case of conflict between Central and State law on Concurrent List subjects, CENTRAL (Union) law prevails (Article 254), NOT State law — INCORRECT ✗
• Answer: Only 1 is correct

Physics (1)

Electricity · Ohm's law

Q21. If the resistance of a conductor is doubled while keeping the potential difference across its ends constant, what will happen to the current flowing through it?

  1. (a) It will double
  2. (b) It will halve
  3. (c) It will remain unchanged
  4. (d) It will quadruple
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) It will halve

• Ohm's Law: V = IR → I = V/R
• V (potential difference) = constant
• R is doubled: R → 2R
• New current: I' = V/(2R) = (1/2) × (V/R) = I/2
• Current is halved
• Answer: It will halve

Economics (1)

Agriculture and Food Security · Crop insurance and farmer schemes

Q22. Which scheme promotes crop diversification through cluster-based planning?

  1. (a) PM-AASHA
  2. (b) RKVY (Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana)
  3. (c) SMAM (Sub-Mission on Agricultural Mechanization)
  4. (d) AIF (Agriculture Infrastructure Fund)
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) RKVY (Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana)

• Agricultural Schemes:
• RKVY (Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana) promotes agricultural development including crop diversification through district/cluster-based planning approach.
• PM-AASHA: Price support and intervention for agricultural products
• SMAM: Agricultural mechanization
• AIF: Agricultural infrastructure creation
• Answer: RKVY

Chemistry (1)

Environmental Chemistry · Air pollutants and their sources

Q23. Read the below statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R):
Assertion (A): PM2.5 is more harmful than PM10 in AQI.
Reason (R): PM2.5 particles are smaller and can reach deep into the lungs and bloodstream.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) A is true, but R is false.
  4. (d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

• Air Quality Index (AQI) science:
• Assertion A: PM2.5 (particulate matter ≤2.5 micrometers ) IS more harmful than PM10 (≤10 micrometers ) — TRUE ✓
• Reason R: PM2.5 particles are smaller and can penetrate deep into lung alveoli and enter the bloodstream — TRUE ✓
• R correctly explains why PM2.5 is more harmful than PM10
• Answer: Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
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