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SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 18 September 2025 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 25 GK / GS questions asked in SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 on 18 September 2025 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Static GK, Ancient History, Modern History, Economics, Polity, Biology.

📚 25 questions🗓️ 18 September 2025⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Static GK (11) · Ancient History (2) · Modern History (1) · Economics (5) · Polity (3) · Biology (1) · Current Affairs (1) · Geography (1)

Static GK (11)

Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q1. The Nabanna (new rice) during the Nuakhai festival in Sambalpur, Odisha, is first offered to which deity?

  1. (a) Maa Samaleswari
  2. (b) Maa Mangala
  3. (c) Maa Bhubaneswari
  4. (d) Maa Budhi Thakurani
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Maa Samaleswari

Nuakhai is the agricultural festival of western Odisha.
The first portion of new rice (Nabanna) is offered to Maa Samaleswari,
the presiding deity of Sambalpur.
Hence the answer isMaa Samaleswari.
Music and Musical Instruments · Folk music and songs by state

Q2. Which of the following is a folk song form of Jharkhand that reflects the lived experiences, social unity, and often accompanies dance and drama performances?

  1. (a) Lavani
  2. (b) Domkach
  3. (c) Bhavai
  4. (d) Baul
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Domkach

Lavani belongs to Maharashtra; Bhavai to Gujarat; Baul to Bengal.
Domkach is a folk song-and-dance form of Jharkhand performed during weddings and festivals.
Hence the answer isDomkach.
Sports · Number of players and field dimensions

Q3. What is the standard width of a singles badminton court as per international regulations?

  1. (a) 6.10 meters
  2. (b) 13.40 meters
  3. (c) 5.18 meters
  4. (d) 12.00 meters
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 5.18 meters

BWF rules: full court width = 6.10 m (doubles), 5.18 m (singles).
Length = 13.40 m for both.
Hence singles width = 5.18 meters.
Monuments and Heritage · Temples and religious places

Q4. Who among the following Chola emperors constructed the grand temple at Gangaikonda Cholapuram?

  1. (a) Rajaraja Chola I
  2. (b) Rajendra Chola I
  3. (c) Rajadhiraja Chola I
  4. (d) Kulothunga Chola I
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Rajendra Chola I

Rajaraja Chola I built the Brihadeeswarar temple at Thanjavur.
His son Rajendra Chola I built the grand temple at Gangaikonda Cholapuram after his Gangetic victory.
Hence the answer isRajendra Chola I.
Sports · Athletics - events, rules and specifications

Q5. Consider the following statements about thehigh jump:
1) The minimum length of the runway is 15 meters.
2) The diameter of the crossbar ranges between 15 cm and 20 cm.
Which of the statements is/arecorrect?

  1. (a) Only 1 is Correct
  2. (b) Only 2 is Correct
  3. (c) 1 and 2 are Correct
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2 are Correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 1 is Correct

As per athletics rules, the runway for high jump must be at least 15 m —Statement 1 correct.
The crossbar diameter is about 29–31 mm (≈ 3 cm), not 15–20 cm — Statement 2 incorrect.
Hence only Statement 1 is correct.
Books and Authors · International books and authors

Q6. An Area of Darkness is a travelogue by which Indian author?

  1. (a) Raja Rao
  2. (b) V.S. Naipaul
  3. (c) R.K. Narayan
  4. (d) Vikram Seth
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) V.S. Naipaul

"An Area of Darkness" (1964) is the first of V.S. Naipaul's India travelogues.
Raja Rao, R.K. Narayan and Vikram Seth wrote fiction, not this travelogue.
Hence the answer isV.S. Naipaul.
Sports · Other sports and tournaments (tennis, chess, badminton, etc.)

Q7. Which Indian fencer secured the bronze medal in the women's Cadet Epee category at the 2022 Asian Junior and Cadet Fencing Championships?

  1. (a) Bhavani Devi
  2. (b) Prachi Lohan
  3. (c) C.A. Bhavya
  4. (d) Kushi Chaudhary
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Prachi Lohan

Bhavani Devi is a senior sabre fencer, not a cadet epee competitor.
Prachi Lohan won the bronze in the women's Cadet Epee event at the 2022 Asian Junior and Cadet Fencing Championships.
Hence the answer isPrachi Lohan.
Sports · Sports schemes and campaigns (Khelo India, Fit India)

Q8. Which of the following statements about the Khelo India Youth Games (KIYG) 2023 iscorrect?

  1. (a) The KIYG 2023 were held in four cities of Maharashtra.
  2. (b) The games included 20 disciplines and no demo sport.
  3. (c) The event lasted for 13 days across 15 venues.
  4. (d) Only 4000 athletes participated in KIYG 2023.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The event lasted for 13 days across 15 venues.

KIYG 2023 was held in Madhya Pradesh (not Maharashtra), so option 1 is wrong.
It featured 27 disciplines including water sports as a demonstration event, so option 2 is wrong.
Over 5,000 athletes participated, so option 4 is wrong.
The event ran for 13 days (30 Jan–11 Feb 2023) across 15 venues, making option 3 correct.
Dances · Folk dances by state

Q9. Fill in the Blank:
Tippani arises from the _____ region of Gujarat.

  1. (a) Kutch
  2. (b) Saurashtra
  3. (c) Surat
  4. (d) Vadodara
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Saurashtra

Tippani is a folk dance performed by labourer women using long sticks (tippanis) used to beat floors.
It originates from the Saurashtra region of Gujarat, particularly the Chorwad coast.
Hence the answer isSaurashtra.
Dances · Tribal dances

Q10. Match the dance with its core tribe/community.
[TABLE]
Dance | Tribe/Community
1. Kalbelia | A. Nomadic snake-charmers of Rajasthan
2. Panthi | B. Satnami (Chhattisgarh)
3. Dangi Nritya | C. Dang district Bhil-origin tribes
4. Paika | D. Khandayat warrior caste of Odisha
[/TABLE]

  1. (a) 1-A 2-B 3-C 4-D
  2. (b) 1-B 2-A 3-D 4-C
  3. (c) 1-C 2-B 3-A 4-D
  4. (d) 1-A 2-C 3-B 4-D
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1-A 2-B 3-C 4-D

Kalbelia: nomadic snake-charmers of Rajasthan (A).
Panthi: Satnami community of Chhattisgarh (B).
Dangi Nritya: Bhil-origin tribes of Dang district, Gujarat (C).
Paika: Khandayat warriors of Odisha (D).
Hence 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D.
Space, Defence and Technology · Launch vehicles and satellites

Q11. Identify the incorrect match of satellite type and application:

  1. (a) Weather satellite - Cyclone tracking
  2. (b) Communication satellite - TV broadcast
  3. (c) Navigation satellite - Forest fire monitoring
  4. (d) Remote sensing satellite - Land use mapping
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Navigation satellite - Forest fire monitoring

Weather satellites do track cyclones — correct.
Communication satellites enable TV broadcast — correct.
Remote sensing satellites map land use — correct.
Forest fire monitoring is done by remote sensing satellites, not navigation satellites — option 3 is the incorrect match.

Ancient History (2)

Ancient Art, Culture and Science · Temple architecture styles (Nagara, Dravida, Vesara)

Q12. Which of the following pairs of temple style & region arecorrectlymatched?
1. Vesara – Deccan
2. Rekha-Deul – Odisha
3. Bhumija – Malwa
4. Kalinga – Tamil Nadu

  1. (a) 1 & 2 only
  2. (b) 1, 2 & 3 are correct
  3. (c) 2 & 4 only
  4. (d) only 1
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1, 2 & 3 are correct

Vesara is the hybrid style of the Deccan ✓ .
Rekha-Deul is the typical Odisha temple style ✓ .
Bhumija style developed in Malwa region ✓ .
Kalinga belongs to Odisha, not Tamil Nadu ✗ .
Hence 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
Gupta Empire · Gupta administration and economy

Q13. According to the Gupta dynasty's administrative structure, which one of the following pairs of officer and role iscorrectlymatched?

  1. (a) Prathamakulika – Public Works Supervisor
  2. (b) Gramika (Gramadhyaksha) – Village Headman
  3. (c) Talavataka – Military Paymaster
  4. (d) Pustapala – Tax-Collection Officer
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Gramika (Gramadhyaksha) – Village Headman

In Gupta administration, the Gramika or Gramadhyaksha headed the village.
Pustapala was the record-keeper, not the tax-collector.
Prathamakulika was a chief officer, and Talavataka has different roles.
Hence Gramika – Village Headman is correctly matched.

Modern History (1)

British Administration and Policies · Civil services, police and judiciary under the British

Q14. Read the following statements:
StatementI: The Act of 1793 followed the tradition of personal rule without bringing in any legal reforms.
StatementII: Judges were assigned to interpret laws rather than depend on the ruler's personal judgment.
Which of the above statements is/aretrue?

  1. (a) Only 1 is true
  2. (b) Only 2 is true
  3. (c) Both Statement 1 and 2 are true
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2 is true
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only 2 is true

The Cornwallis Code of 1793 codified laws and separated the judiciary from the executive.
Hence judges were now to interpret laws — Statement II is true.
Statement I is false because legal reforms were introduced.
Therefore , onlyStatement 2 is true.

Economics (5)

External Sector and International Economic Organisations · Foreign trade policy and EXIM

Q15. Which of the following best reflects the strategic impact of the India–Australia Economic Cooperation and Trade Agreement (ECTA) after three years of implementation?

  1. (a) ECTA removed all tariffs on Australian farm goods unilaterally.
  2. (b) ECTA mainly benefitted old sectors like cotton, with little new growth.
  3. (c) ECTA led to 14% export growth (2022–24) and added new items like Air Liquefaction Machinery.
  4. (d) ECTA includes mutual defense procurement via an Indo-Pacific charter.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) ECTA led to 14% export growth (2022–24) and added new items like Air Liquefaction Machinery.

ECTA is a trade pact, not a defense pact — option 4 is wrong.
Tariffs were reduced mutually, not unilaterally — option 1 is wrong.
Trade expanded with new product categories like Air Liquefaction Machinery and recorded about 14% export growth in 2022–24.
Henceoption 3is the most accurate.
Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Economic systems (capitalist, socialist, mixed)

Q16. Which of the following is a key economic role of the government in both developed and developing countries?

  1. (a) Only regulating private firms
  2. (b) Only promoting exports
  3. (c) Framing laws and delivering justice
  4. (d) Engaging in currency exchange
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Framing laws and delivering justice

Both developed and developing governments must frame laws and maintain a justice system for markets to function.
Regulation and export promotion are partial roles, not universal economic roles.
Currency exchange is handled mainly by central banks/private agents.
Henceoption 3 is correct.
Industry and Infrastructure · Industrial Policy Resolutions (1948, 1956, 1991)

Q17. When was the first Industrial Policy announced in independent India?

  1. (a) 1948
  2. (b) 1950
  3. (c) 1951
  4. (d) 1952
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1948

The first Industrial Policy Resolution was announced on6 April 1948.
It defined the roles of the public and private sectors.
Hence the answer is1948.
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q18. Read the following statements carefully and choose thecorrectoption regarding Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion(A): Globalization led to increased inequality in India.
Reason(R): Growth was unevenly distributed, benefiting mostly urban elite and service sectors.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) A is true but R is false.
  4. (d) A is false but R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.

Globalisation in India did raise income inequality — A is true.
Benefits concentrated in urban/service sectors, leaving rural and informal workers behind — R is true.
R correctly explains why A happened.
Hence option 1 is correct.
Industry and Infrastructure · Disinvestment

Q19. Disinvestment involves selling stakes in?

  1. (a) NGOs
  2. (b) Private firms
  3. (c) Public enterprises
  4. (d) Trade unions
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Public enterprises

Disinvestment refers to the government's sale of its equity in Public Sector Enterprises (PSEs).
It aims to reduce fiscal burden and improve efficiency.
Hence the answer isPublic enterprises.

Polity (3)

Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies · Inter-State Council and Zonal Councils

Q20. Fill in the blanks:
The Union Home Minister chairs a Zonal Council meeting as ____ chairman.

  1. (a) ex-officio
  2. (b) rotating
  3. (c) ceremonial
  4. (d) honorary
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) ex-officio

Under the States Reorganisation Act, 1956, the Union Home Minister chairs Zonal Councils ex-officio (by virtue of office).
Chief Ministers of member states serve as rotating vice-chairmen.
Hence the correct word is ex-officio.
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Commissions on Centre-State relations (Sarkaria, Punchhi)

Q21. Arrange the following in chronological order:
A) Sarkaria Commission report submitted
B) Inter-State Council constituted
C) Punchhi Commission constituted

  1. (a) A-B-C
  2. (b) A-C-B
  3. (c) B-C-A
  4. (d) C-B-A
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) A-B-C

Sarkaria Commission report — 1988.
Inter-State Council constituted — 1990.
Punchhi Commission constituted — 2007.
Hence the correct order is A-B-C.
Fundamental Rights · Right to Equality (Articles 14-18)

Q22. The concept of"Reasonable Classification"as a limitation to the Right to Equality (Article 14) was established in which case?

  1. (a) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
  2. (b) State of West Bengal v. Anwar Ali Sarkar
  3. (c) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
  4. (d) Golaknath Case v. State of Punjab & Anrs.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) State of West Bengal v. Anwar Ali Sarkar

InState of West Bengal v. Anwar Ali Sarkar (1952), the Supreme Court laid down the doctrine of reasonable classification under Article 14.
Kesavananda Bharati dealt with the basic structure doctrine;
Maneka Gandhi with Article 21;
Golaknath with amendability of Fundamental Rights.
Hence the answer is option 2.

Biology (1)

Diseases, Immunity and Health · Immunity and immune system

Q23. Which of the following statements regarding human antibodies is/areaccurate?
1. IgG constitutes the largest proportion of antibodies in human blood.
2. IgE plays a key role in allergic responses.
3. IgA is primarily located in bodily secretions such as saliva and breast milk.

  1. (a) Only 1 and 2 are correct
  2. (b) Only 2 and 3 are correct
  3. (c) Only 1 and 3 are correct
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3 all are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3 all are correct

IgG is the most abundant immunoglobulin in serum (~75%) — 1 correct.
IgE triggers histamine release in allergies — 2 correct.
IgA is found in mucosal secretions like saliva, tears and breast milk — 3 correct.
Hence all three statements are correct.

Current Affairs (1)

Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q24. The 2025 Global Peace Index indicates that global peacefulness has generally shown a:

  1. (a) Consistent upward trend
  2. (b) Gradual downward trend
  3. (c) Significant improvement
  4. (d) Stable and unchanging state
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Gradual downward trend

The Institute for Economics & Peace's GPI 2025 reports that global peacefulness has beendeclining graduallyfor several years.
Increases in conflict and militarisation have driven this decline.
Hence the answer isgradual downward trend.

Geography (1)

Environment and Protected Areas · National parks

Q25. Which one of the following National Park–State pairs is correctly matched?

  1. (a) Namdapha National Park – Nagaland
  2. (b) Similipal National Park – Odisha
  3. (c) Bandipur National Park – Andhra Pradesh
  4. (d) Vansda National Park – Rajasthan
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Similipal National Park – Odisha

Namdapha is in Arunachal Pradesh, not Nagaland.
Bandipur is in Karnataka.
Vansda is in Gujarat.
Similipal is correctly located inOdisha — hence option 2.
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