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SSC Stenographer 2026 12 September 2026 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 47 GK / GS questions asked in SSC Stenographer 2026 on 12 September 2026 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Modern History, Static GK, Medieval History, Polity, Geography, Computer.

📚 47 questions🗓️ 12 September 2026⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Modern History (3) · Static GK (18) · Medieval History (1) · Polity (6) · Geography (6) · Computer (1) · Economics (8) · Physics (2) · Biology (1) · Current Affairs (1)

Modern History (3)

British Administration and Policies · Civil services, police and judiciary under the British

Q1. Why were the 1772 and 1774 judicial reforms under Warren Hastings significant?

  1. (a) They applied English criminal law to all Indians
  2. (b) They introduced a dual legal system respecting personal laws of Hindus and Muslims
  3. (c) They nationalized private property
  4. (d) They created jury trials for peasants
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) They introduced a dual legal system respecting personal laws of Hindus and Muslims

Answer: Option 2 — They introduced a dual legal system respecting personal laws of Hindus and Muslims
Hastings' Judicial Plan of 1772 set up a civil and a criminal court in every district.
In inheritance, marriage, caste and religious usage, Hindus were to be judged by the Shastras and Muslims by the Quran.
English law was applied only in the Supreme Court at Calcutta (1774) and only to British subjects, so the 1772–74 system kept two streams of law running side by side.
Revision note — Judicial reforms of Warren Hastings
• Warren Hastings became Governor of Bengal in 1772 and the first Governor-General of Bengal under the Regulating Act of 1773, holding office till 1785.
• Judicial Plan of 1772: every district got a Mofussil Diwani Adalat (civil, under the Collector) and a Mofussil Faujdari Adalat (criminal, run by the Qazi and Mufti under the Collector's supervision).
• Appeals went to the Sadar Diwani Adalat (civil) and the Sadar Nizamat Adalat (criminal) at Calcutta; the Nizamat court moved to Murshidabad in 1775.
• Pandits and maulvis sat with the judges to expound Hindu and Muslim law; N. B. Halhed's "A Code of Gentoo Laws" (1776) was the first English digest of Hindu law.
• In 1774 the Collectors were withdrawn, Indian amils took charge of revenue and civil justice, and six Provincial Councils were set up, including Calcutta, Dacca and Patna.
• The Supreme Court at Fort William, Calcutta opened in 1774 under the Regulating Act, with Sir Elijah Impey as first Chief Justice — one chief justice and three other judges.
• The next big overhaul was the Cornwallis Code of 1793, which separated revenue and judicial work and created District Judges.
Do not mix these up
• Diwani vs Faujdari — Diwani adalats tried civil (revenue, property) cases; Faujdari adalats tried criminal cases.
• Sadar Diwani Adalat vs Supreme Court — the Sadar courts were the Company's appellate courts; the Supreme Court was a Crown court set up by Parliament and applied English law.
Also asked from this topic: the district courts of the 1772 plan (Diwani and Faujdari adalats); the first Governor-General of Bengal (Warren Hastings); the first Chief Justice at Calcutta (Sir Elijah Impey, 1774).
Peasant, Tribal and Civil Uprisings · Leaders of tribal movements

Q2. Which tribal freedom fighter from present-day Jharkhand led the Ulgulan movement in the 19th century against the exploitative practices of British landlords and is now celebrated as a national hero?

  1. (a) Tantia Tope
  2. (b) Birsa Munda
  3. (c) Sidhu Murmu
  4. (d) Kanhu Murmu
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Birsa Munda

Answer: Option 2 — Birsa Munda
Ulgulan (the Great Tumult) of 1899–1900 was the Munda uprising led by Birsa Munda in the Chotanagpur region.
It was aimed at the dikus — outsider landlords, moneylenders and contractors — and at British land laws.
Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu led the earlier Santhal Hul, and Tantia Tope belongs to the Revolt of 1857.
Revision note — Birsa Munda and the Ulgulan
• Born 15 November 1875 at Ulihatu (Khunti, present-day Jharkhand) into a poor Munda family; died in Ranchi jail on 9 June 1900, aged 24.
• He began a religious reform movement (Birsait), preaching one god and giving up liquor and witchcraft, and was revered as Dharti Aba (father of the earth) and Bhagwan.
• The uprising targeted the zamindari and forest laws that had turned Munda khuntkatti (community) land into private property.
• It broke out on Christmas Eve 1899 and was crushed by early 1900.
• Its lasting result was the Chotanagpur Tenancy Act, 1908, which protected tribal land from transfer to non-tribals.
• 15 November, his birthday, is Janjatiya Gaurav Divas (from 2021) and the foundation day of Jharkhand (2000); his statue stands in the Parliament complex.
• Earlier tribal revolts of the region: Kol uprising (1831–32), Santhal Hul (1855–56) under Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu, and the Ho rebellion (1820–21) in Singhbhum.
Do not mix these up
• Ulgulan (Munda) vs Hul (Santhal) — Ulgulan was the Munda revolt of 1899–1900 under Birsa; Hul was the Santhal revolt of 1855–56 under Sidhu and Kanhu.
• Dharti Aba vs Dharti Aaba Abhiyan — the title belongs to Birsa Munda; the Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan (2024) is a tribal welfare scheme named after him.
Also asked from this topic: the leader of the Ulgulan (Birsa Munda); the years of the Munda uprising (1899–1900); the leaders of the Santhal rebellion of 1855 (Sidhu and Kanhu Murmu).
Socio-Religious Reform Movements · Social reform laws (sati, widow remarriage, child marriage)

Q3. Which 19th-century act legalized the remarriage of Hindu widows?

  1. (a) Sati Regulation Act
  2. (b) Hindu Widow's Remarriage Act 1856
  3. (c) Age of Consent Act 1891
  4. (d) Caste Disabilities Removal Act
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Hindu Widow's Remarriage Act 1856

Answer: Option 2 — Hindu Widow's Remarriage Act 1856
The Hindu Widows' Remarriage Act (Act XV of 1856) made the marriage of a Hindu widow legal and her children legitimate.
It was won by the campaign of Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar, drafted under Lord Dalhousie and passed on 26 July 1856 under Lord Canning.
Revision note — Social reform legislation of the 19th century
• Bengal Sati Regulation, 1829 — Lord William Bentinck, on the urging of Raja Ram Mohan Roy, made sati a punishable offence.
• Caste Disabilities Removal Act, 1850 (the Lex Loci Act) — Lord Dalhousie; a convert to another religion no longer lost his right to inherit property.
• Hindu Widows' Remarriage Act, 1856 — Vidyasagar's petition; Vidyasagar arranged the first legal widow remarriage in Calcutta in December 1856 and later married his own son Narayan to a widow (1870).
• Native Marriage (Civil Marriage) Act, 1872 — allowed inter-caste and inter-religious marriage; pushed by Keshab Chandra Sen.
• Age of Consent Act, 1891 — Lord Lansdowne; raised the age of consent for girls from 10 to 12, after the Phulmoni Dasi case and Behramji Malabari's campaign.
• Sarda Act (Child Marriage Restraint Act), 1929 — Lord Irwin; minimum marriage age 14 for girls, 18 for boys; moved by Harbilas Sarda.
• Other widow-remarriage reformers: Vishnu Shastri Pandit (Maharashtra), Kandukuri Veeresalingam (Andhra), M. G. Ranade (Widow Remarriage Association, 1861).
• D. K. Karve himself married a widow in 1893.
Do not mix these up
• Sati Regulation (1829) vs Widows' Remarriage Act (1856) — Bentinck banned sati; Canning's government legalised remarriage. Ram Mohan Roy belongs to the first, Vidyasagar to the second.
• Age of Consent Act (1891) vs Sarda Act (1929) — 1891 raised the age of consent to 12; 1929 fixed a minimum marriage age of 14.
Also asked from this topic: the year the widow-remarriage law was passed (1856); the reformer behind it (Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar); the change made by the Age of Consent Act 1891 (10 to 12 years).

Static GK (18)

Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q4. Temsula Ao's award-winning work contributes significantly to which underrepresented theme in Indian literature?

  1. (a) Urban alienation
  2. (b) South Indian politics
  3. (c) North-East India's tribal identity and oral traditions
  4. (d) Bollywood culture
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) North-East India's tribal identity and oral traditions

Answer: Option 3 — North-East India's tribal identity and oral traditions
Temsula Ao was a Naga poet and short-story writer of the Ao tribe whose work records the oral lore, folk memory and insurgency-era life of Nagaland.
Her stories in These Hills Called Home and Laburnum for My Head brought the tribal voice of the North-East into Indian English writing.
Revision note — Temsula Ao and the writers of the North-East
• Temsula Ao (1945–2022) was born at Jorhat, Assam, of the Ao Naga tribe, and taught English at NEHU, Shillong.
• Awards: Padma Shri (2007) and the Sahitya Akademi Award (2013) for the short-story collection Laburnum for My Head.
• Her best-known collection, These Hills Called Home: Stories from a War Zone (2006), deals with the Naga insurgency; The Ao-Naga Oral Tradition (1999) is her study of Ao folklore.
• She was the first Chairperson of the Nagaland State Commission for Women; her memoir is Once Upon a Life: Burnt Curry and Bloody Rags (2014).
• Other Naga writer to know: Easterine Kire — first Naga novel in English, A Naga Village Remembered (2003); The Hindu Prize 2015 for When the River Sleeps.
• Mamang Dai (Arunachal Pradesh) won the Sahitya Akademi Award 2017 for The Black Hill; Indira Goswami (Assam) won the Jnanpith Award (2000).
Also asked from this topic: the book for which Ruskin Bond won the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1992 (Our Trees Still Grow in Dehra); the author of Everything the Light Touches, AutHer Award 2023 (Janice Pariat).
Dances · Folk dances by state

Q5. Raut Nacha, a traditional dance of Chhattisgarh, is primarily associated with which of the following socio-cultural aspects?

  1. (a) It is a ritual dance performed by the tribal Baiga community to invoke rain during droughts.
  2. (b) It is a martial folk dance of the Yadava community depicting tales of Lord Krishna and cowherd valor performed during Diwali.
  3. (c) It is a devotional dance of the Satnami sect expressing reverence to Guru Ghasidas during religious festivals.
  4. (d) It is a fertility dance performed by women during the Karma festival, symbolizing prosperity and agricultural bounty.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) It is a martial folk dance of the Yadava community depicting tales of Lord Krishna and cowherd valor performed during Diwali.

Answer: Option 2 — It is a martial folk dance of the Yadava community depicting tales of Lord Krishna and cowherd valor performed during Diwali.
Raut Nacha is the dance of the Raut (Yadav) cowherd community of Chhattisgarh, performed in the days after Diwali around Dev Uthani Ekadashi.
Dancers carry sticks and shields, chant couplets (dohas) in praise of Krishna, and re-enact the cowherd's bravery — the martial, Krishna-centred character is the point.
Revision note — Folk dances of Chhattisgarh
• Raut Nacha: Yadav/Raut cowherds, Dev Uthani Ekadashi after Diwali; lathi and dhal (stick and shield), instruments gudum baja and mohri; the Raut Nacha Mahotsav at Bilaspur is the big annual show.
• Panthi: devotional dance of the Satnami community in honour of Guru Ghasidas, performed on his Jayanti, 18 December; dancers wear dhotis and build human pyramids.
• Karma: tribal harvest dance (Gond, Baiga, Oraon) around the Karma tree branch during the Karma festival (Bhadon); popular in Chhattisgarh, Odisha and Jharkhand.
• Suwa (Sua): the parrot dance, performed by women around a wooden parrot in the month before Diwali, linked to the Gaura-Gauri marriage of Shiva and Parvati.
• Saila: stick dance of the boys of the plains after harvest; Gaur Maria is the bison-horn dance of the Maria Gond of Bastar.
• Other cultural markers: Pandavani (Teejan Bai), the Mahabharata ballad form; Bastar Dussehra, a 75-day festival of Danteshwari.
Do not mix these up
• Raut Nacha vs Panthi — both follow Diwali season, but Raut Nacha is the Yadav cowherd dance for Krishna; Panthi is the Satnami dance for Guru Ghasidas.
• Karma vs Suwa — Karma is a tribal harvest dance around a branch; Suwa is the women's parrot dance before Diwali.
Also asked from this topic: the Chhattisgarh dance also called the parrot dance (Suwa); the guru whose followers perform Panthi (Guru Ghasidas); the harvest dance of Odisha and Chhattisgarh (Karma).
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q6. The Hornbill Festival is organized by which Indian tribal community/state to promote indigenous warrior traditions and crafts?

  1. (a) Garo tribe – Meghalaya
  2. (b) Apatani tribe – Arunachal Pradesh
  3. (c) Naga tribes – Nagaland
  4. (d) Khasi tribe – Meghalaya
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Naga tribes – Nagaland

Answer: Option 3 — Naga tribes – Nagaland
The Hornbill Festival is organised by the Government of Nagaland every 1–10 December to bring all the Naga tribes together on one stage.
Warrior dances, log-drum beating, morungs (bachelor dormitories), crafts and food of each tribe are showcased — which is why it is called the "Festival of Festivals".
Revision note — Hornbill Festival
• Held since 2000 at the Naga Heritage Village, Kisama, about 12 km from Kohima; run by the State Tourism and Art & Culture departments.
• Starts on 1 December, which is Nagaland Statehood Day — Nagaland became the 16th state of India on 1 December 1963.
• Named after the Great Indian Hornbill, a bird that appears in the folklore, headgear and songs of almost every Naga tribe, standing for boldness and grandeur.
• Nagaland has 17 recognised major tribes including Angami, Ao, Sema (Sumi), Lotha, Konyak, Chakhesang and Rengma; Kohima is the capital and Dimapur the largest city.
• The festival also runs the Hornbill International Rock Contest, a night carnival and traditional games such as Naga wrestling.
• Other North-East tribal festivals: Wangala (Garo, Meghalaya — 100-drum festival), Nongkrem (Khasi, Meghalaya), Dree (Apatani, Arunachal), Ziro Music Festival (Arunachal), Moatsu (Ao Nagas, May).
Do not mix these up
• Hornbill Festival vs Moatsu — Hornbill is the state-wide December festival of all Naga tribes; Moatsu is the Ao tribe's sowing festival in May.
• Wangala vs Nongkrem — both are Meghalaya harvest festivals, but Wangala belongs to the Garos and Nongkrem to the Khasis.
Also asked from this topic: the state that hosts the Hornbill Festival (Nagaland); what the hornbill symbolises in Naga folklore (boldness and grandeur); its nickname (Festival of Festivals).
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q7. In the socio-cultural context, Bhogi signifies the shift from which philosophical outlook to another?

  1. (a) Materialism to asceticism
  2. (b) Darkness to enlightenment
  3. (c) Tamas (inertia) to Rajas (action)
  4. (d) Karma to Bhakti
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Tamas (inertia) to Rajas (action)

Answer: Option 3 — Tamas (inertia) to Rajas (action)
Bhogi is the first day of Pongal / Sankranti, when old and useless things are thrown into a dawn bonfire to make room for the new.
In the language of the three gunas, the ritual marks a move from tamas — dullness, inertia, clinging to the old — to rajas, the energy and activity that the new harvest season demands.
Revision note — Bhogi and the four days of Pongal
• Bhogi falls on the last day of the Tamil month Margazhi, one day before Makar Sankranti (usually 13 January); it is dedicated to Indra, the rain god, and is called Indran in older usage.
• The Bhogi Mantalu bonfire of discarded household items and the Bhogi Pallu shower of fruits over children are its two signature customs.
• The same day opens the four-day Sankranti of Andhra Pradesh and Telangana.
• Day 2 is Thai Pongal (Surya Pongal) — the new rice is boiled till it overflows in a clay pot, to the cry "Pongalo Pongal", on the first day of the month Thai.
• Day 3 is Maatu Pongal, when cattle are bathed, painted and garlanded; Jallikattu bull-taming belongs to this day, famous at Alanganallur near Madurai.
• Day 4 is Kaanum Pongal, a day of outings and family visits; the counterpart festivals are Lohri (Punjab), Magh Bihu (Assam), Uttarayan (Gujarat) and Makar Sankranti elsewhere.
• The three gunas of Samkhya philosophy: sattva (purity, balance), rajas (activity, passion), tamas (inertia, darkness).
Do not mix these up
• Bhogi vs Lohri — both are bonfire festivals on 13 January, but Bhogi opens Pongal in the south while Lohri is the Punjab festival before Maghi.
• Tamas vs "darkness" — the guna tamas means inertia and dullness; Bhogi's bonfire is about discarding the stale, not the Diwali idea of light over darkness.
Also asked from this topic: the number of days Pongal lasts (4); the day on which cattle are adorned (Maatu Pongal); the Andhra–Telangana festival that opens with the Bhogi bonfire (Sankranti).
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q8. What is the symbolic significance of the breaking of bangles by hijras on the final day of the Koovagam festival?

  1. (a) Mourning Aravan's death as widows
  2. (b) Ending of their vow to Bahuchara Mata
  3. (c) Beginning of monastic life
  4. (d) A purification ritual
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Mourning Aravan's death as widows

Answer: Option 1 — Mourning Aravan's death as widows
At Koovagam the transgender devotees (Aravanis) are ritually married to Aravan for one night, re-living Krishna's Mohini form.
Next morning Aravan's effigy is sacrificed, and the "brides" break their bangles, tear their garlands and wear white — the marks of a Hindu widow mourning her husband.
Revision note — Koovagam festival and the Aravan legend
• Held at the Koothandavar temple in Koovagam village, Kallakurichi district, Tamil Nadu (part of Villupuram district until 2019), in the Tamil month of Chithirai (April–May), over about 18 days.
• Aravan (Iravan) in the Mahabharata is the son of Arjuna and the Naga princess Ulupi; he offered himself as a sacrifice to Kali for the Pandavas' victory at Kurukshetra.
• His last wish was to be married before dying; no woman would wed a man doomed for the morning, so Krishna took the form of Mohini and married him for one night.
• Transgender devotees who identify with Mohini are called Aravanis in Tamil Nadu; they have the thali (mangalsutra) tied by the temple priest on the wedding night.
• The festival has a beauty pageant (Miss Koovagam) and is one of the largest annual gatherings of the transgender community in India.
• Tamil Nadu set up India's first Transgender Welfare Board in 2008; the NALSA judgment (2014) recognised the third gender, and the Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act came in 2019.
Do not mix these up
• Aravan vs Bahuchara Mata — Aravan is the Mahabharata hero worshipped at Koovagam, Tamil Nadu; Bahuchara Mata is the patron goddess of the hijra community, with her temple at Becharaji, Gujarat.
• Koovagam vs Kulasai Dasara — both are Tamil Nadu temple festivals, but Kulasai (Thoothukudi) is famous for its demon-themed make-up, not the Aravan wedding.
Also asked from this topic: the Tamil Nadu festival famous for ferocious demon-themed make-up (Kulasai Dasara); the bull-taming sport held during Pongal in Tamil Nadu (Jallikattu).
Music and Musical Instruments · Folk music and songs by state

Q9. How does Bihu music embody both the agrarian lifestyle and cultural identity of Assam through its thematic content and instrumentation?

  1. (a) By focusing exclusively on religious rituals and using only classical instruments like the sitar and tabla
  2. (b) By incorporating themes of fertility, love, and seasonal change in its lyrics, and using traditional instruments like the dhol and pepa that mimic natural sounds, thus reflecting the connection between agriculture, community life, and celebration
  3. (c) By adopting Western musical scales and replacing indigenous instruments with electronic synthesizers
  4. (d) By limiting performances to urban concert halls detached from rural festival contexts
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) By incorporating themes of fertility, love, and seasonal change in its lyrics, and using traditional instruments like the dhol and pepa that mimic natural sounds, thus reflecting the connection between agriculture, community life, and celebration

Answer: Option 2 — By incorporating themes of fertility, love, and seasonal change in its lyrics, and using traditional instruments like the dhol and pepa that mimic natural sounds, thus reflecting the connection between agriculture, community life, and celebration
Bihu geet are sung at the spring sowing festival, so their words are about youthful love, fertility and the turn of the seasons.
The dhol, pepa (buffalo-horn pipe), gogona and toka are made from village materials and echo the sounds of fields and forests — music and farming life are one.
Revision note — Bihu of Assam
• Assam has three Bihus: Rongali or Bohag Bihu (mid-April, Assamese New Year, sowing) and Bhogali or Magh Bihu (January, harvest, feasting).
• The third, Kongali or Kati Bihu (October), is the lean season, marked by lamps lit under the tulsi plant and in the paddy fields.
• Rongali Bihu runs about seven days — Goru Bihu (cattle bathed and worshipped), Manuh Bihu (elders honoured, gamusa gifted) and Kutum Bihu (visits to relatives).
• Magh Bihu is preceded by Uruka, the night of community feasts in makeshift huts, and the burning of the Meji bonfire at dawn.
• Instruments of Bihu: dhol (two-headed drum), pepa (buffalo-horn pipe), gogona (bamboo jaw harp, played by women), toka (bamboo clapper), xutuli (clay whistle) and baanhi (bamboo flute).
• Dancers wear the mekhela chador (women) and dhoti with the red-and-white gamusa (men).
• Bihu geet are the festival songs, distinct from Bon geet (forest songs), Biyanaam (wedding songs) and Nichukoni geet (lullabies).
• Bihu dance was performed at the Rongali Bihu of 2023 by 11,304 dancers and drummers in Guwahati (as widely reported), setting the Guinness World Record for the largest Bihu dance.
Do not mix these up
• Rongali vs Bhogali Bihu — Rongali (April) celebrates sowing and the new year; Bhogali (January) celebrates the harvest with feasts and the Meji bonfire.
• Bihu vs Sattriya — Bihu is Assam's folk dance; Sattriya is Assam's classical dance, created by Srimanta Sankardev in the Vaishnavite sattras.
Also asked from this topic: the Rongali Bihu day for visiting relatives (Kutum Bihu); the Assamese song that is a lullaby (Nichukoni geet); the night of feasting before Magh Bihu (Uruka).
Music and Musical Instruments · Folk music and songs by state

Q10. How do Barahmasa songs of Himachal Pradesh represent a unique convergence of seasonal cycles, emotional expression, and oral tradition, especially in the context of women's folk culture?

  1. (a) By focusing on historical battles and political themes, unrelated to personal emotions or nature
  2. (b) By serving as rigidly structured classical compositions based only on raga theory and temple rituals
  3. (c) By narrating a woman's emotional states—longing, love, separation, and hope—through the symbolic lens of each month, these songs reflect both the natural rhythm of rural life and the intimate emotional world of women, passed down through oral tradition
  4. (d) By being instrumental pieces performed only by male musicians at royal courts
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) By narrating a woman's emotional states—longing, love, separation, and hope—through the symbolic lens of each month, these songs reflect both the natural rhythm of rural life and the intimate emotional world of women, passed down through oral tradition

Answer: Option 3 — By narrating a woman's emotional states—longing, love, separation, and hope—through the symbolic lens of each month, these songs reflect both the natural rhythm of rural life and the intimate emotional world of women, passed down through oral tradition
Barahmasa literally means "twelve months" — the song moves month by month through the year, and in each month a woman voices her longing for an absent husband or lover.
Nature in each season (rains, cold, spring blossoms) mirrors her mood, and the songs survive because women sing and pass them on orally, not through written or classical training.
Revision note — Barahmasa and the folk music of Himachal Pradesh
• The Barahmasa is a pan-North-Indian folk and poetic form; literary versions appear in Jayasi's Padmavat and Keshavdas's Kavipriya, and the Kangra school painted Baramasa miniature series.
• In Himachal the songs are sung by women in Kangra, Chamba, Kullu and Mandi, usually during the long winter or when men leave for work; the singer is the virahini, the woman in separation.
• Other Himachali folk songs: Jhoori (love songs of the Shimla hills), Laman (Kullu love ballads sung in call-and-response) and Samskara songs for births and weddings.
• Folk dances of the state: Nati (Kullu, the Guinness-record largest folk dance in 2015), Jhanjhar, Chohara (Chamba), Shand and Shabu (Lahaul monasteries) and Chhatrari.
• Instruments: Ranasingha (curved brass trumpet), Karnal, Dhol-damau, Shehnai and Nagara.
• Festivals of the state: Kullu Dussehra (international festival, week after Vijayadashami), Minjar Mela (Chamba, corn-tassel offering to the Ravi), Halda (Lahaul), Losar (Lahaul–Spiti and Kinnaur).
Do not mix these up
• Barahmasa vs Chaumasa — Barahmasa covers all twelve months; the shorter Chaumasa covers only the four monsoon months.
• Barahmasa vs Nati — Barahmasa is a song genre sung by women; Nati is the community dance of the Kullu–Shimla region.
Also asked from this topic: the fast circular Himachal dance for men and women (Nati); the Himachal dances Jhanjhar and Chohara (Himachal Pradesh); the festival Halda of Lahaul (Himachal Pradesh).
Music and Musical Instruments · Carnatic music

Q11. What is the common musical trait in Andhra-based Carnatic compositions that distinguishes them from Tamil counterparts?

  1. (a) Predominant use of Sanskrit with rigid compositional formats
  2. (b) Use of instrumental interludes and Western harmonies
  3. (c) Predominant use of Telugu language, enhancing melodic fluidity and gamaka-rich expression
  4. (d) Emphasis on secular themes over devotional content
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Predominant use of Telugu language, enhancing melodic fluidity and gamaka-rich expression

Answer: Option 3 — Predominant use of Telugu language, enhancing melodic fluidity and gamaka-rich expression
The bulk of the Carnatic kriti repertoire is in Telugu — the language of Tyagaraja, Syama Sastri, Annamacharya, Kshetrayya and Bhadrachala Ramadasu.
Telugu's open vowel endings let the singer stretch and oscillate notes, so the gamaka (ornamental oscillation) sits naturally on the words; Tamil compositions came later and are fewer.
Revision note — Composers of Carnatic music
• The Trinity of Carnatic music, all born at Tiruvarur in the 18th century: Tyagaraja (1767–1847), Muthuswami Dikshitar (1775–1835) and Syama Sastri (1762–1827).
• Tyagaraja composed in Telugu on Rama; his Pancharatna kritis are sung at the annual Tyagaraja Aradhana at Thiruvaiyaru on the Pushya Bahula Panchami day.
• Muthuswami Dikshitar composed in Sanskrit (signature Guruguha) — the Navagraha and Kamalamba Navavarna kritis.
• Syama Sastri wrote in Telugu and Tamil on Goddess Kamakshi (signature Shyamakrishna) and is famous for his swarajatis.
• Earlier Telugu saint-composers: Annamacharya (15th century, about 32,000 sankirtanas on Lord Venkateswara), Kshetrayya (padams) and Bhadrachala Ramadasu.
• Purandara Dasa (Kannada, 16th century) is the Pitamaha (father) of Carnatic music — he fixed Mayamalavagowla as the beginners' raga and the graded lessons (svaravali, gitam, varnam).
• Key terms: kriti (main concert composition — pallavi, anupallavi, charanam), gamaka (ornamental oscillation of a note), 72 melakarta ragas classified by Venkatamakhi.
Do not mix these up
• Tyagaraja vs Dikshitar — Tyagaraja wrote in Telugu on Rama; Dikshitar wrote in Sanskrit with the mudra Guruguha.
• Purandara Dasa vs Tyagaraja — Purandara Dasa is the father of Carnatic music (Kannada, 1500s); Tyagaraja is the greatest of the Trinity (Telugu, 1700s).
Also asked from this topic: the composer of the Pancharatna Kritis (Tyagaraja); the musician NOT in the Carnatic Trinity (Swathi Thirunal); who codified Carnatic music (Purandara Dasa).
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Folk theatre forms by state

Q12. In what way does Burra Katha, as a musical storytelling tradition of Andhra Pradesh, serve as both a tool of entertainment and socio-political commentary, particularly during historical and reform movements?

  1. (a) By focusing solely on mythological epics with no reference to contemporary issues
  2. (b) By using rhythmic dance and puppetry to promote religious festivals
  3. (c) By integrating satirical dialogue, folk melodies, and moral narratives that critique social injustices, promote reformist ideas, and engage audiences through interactive storytelling
  4. (d) By restricting performances to royal courts and excluding common people from participation
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) By integrating satirical dialogue, folk melodies, and moral narratives that critique social injustices, promote reformist ideas, and engage audiences through interactive storytelling

Answer: Option 3 — By integrating satirical dialogue, folk melodies, and moral narratives that critique social injustices, promote reformist ideas, and engage audiences through interactive storytelling
Burra Katha is a Telugu ballad-storytelling form in which a lead narrator sings a story while two assistants add comedy and political comment, so it entertains and preaches at the same time.
In the 1940s the Praja Natya Mandali used it to spread anti-colonial and reformist messages among villagers.
Revision note — Burra Katha of Andhra Pradesh
• Performed by three people: the kathakudu (main narrator) and two assistants — the rajakiya (political commentator) and the hasyaka (comedian).
• Named after the burra, the local word for the tambura, which the narrator plays; the assistants keep time on the dakki (small drum) and andelu (metal rings).
• Themes range from the Ramayana and Mahabharata to Bobbili Yuddham, and from the 1940s to the Telangana peasant movement and social reform.
• Shaik Nazar, called the "Burrakatha Pitamaha", received the Padma Shri in 1986; Miriyala Apparao was awarded the Padma Shri (posthumous) in 2025.
• It is showcased at the Perupalem Beach Festival of Andhra Pradesh; the related Telangana form is Oggu Katha.
Do not mix these up
• Burra Katha vs Harikatha — Harikatha is a devotional solo discourse on Vishnu and the Puranas; Burra Katha is a secular three-person ballad with satire.
• Burra Katha vs Kuchipudi — Kuchipudi is the classical dance-drama of Andhra Pradesh; Burra Katha is folk storytelling, not a dance.
Also asked from this topic: the primary instrument of Burrakatha (tambura); its home state (Andhra Pradesh); the Burrakatha pioneer given the Padma Shri posthumously in 2025 (Miriyala Apparao).
Space, Defence and Technology · International space missions and agencies

Q13. Which of the following statements about the James Webb Space Telescope (JWST) is incorrect?

  1. (a) JWST operates primarily in the infrared spectrum, enabling it to observe distant, redshifted galaxies and early universe phenomena.
  2. (b) It is positioned at the Earth-Sun L2 Lagrange point, allowing stable thermal conditions and minimal Earth shadow interference.
  3. (c) JWST features a segmented primary mirror made of beryllium coated with gold, which unfolds after launch to achieve its full aperture.
  4. (d) Unlike the Hubble Space Telescope, JWST is designed for continuous optical wavelength observation with minimal infrared capability.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Unlike the Hubble Space Telescope, JWST is designed for continuous optical wavelength observation with minimal infrared capability.

Answer: Option 4 — Unlike the Hubble Space Telescope, JWST is designed for continuous optical wavelength observation with minimal infrared capability.
The question asks for the incorrect statement.
JWST is above all an infrared telescope (about 0.6 to 28 micrometres); it is Hubble that works mainly in visible and ultraviolet light.
Options 1, 2 and 3 — infrared, the L2 point and the gold-coated beryllium mirror — are all true.
Revision note — James Webb Space Telescope
• Launched on 25 December 2021 on an Ariane 5 rocket from Kourou, French Guiana; a joint project of NASA, ESA and the Canadian Space Agency.
• Orbits the Sun–Earth L2 Lagrange point, about 1.5 million km from Earth on the side away from the Sun, so the Sun, Earth and Moon stay behind its sunshield.
• Primary mirror 6.5 m across, made of 18 hexagonal beryllium segments coated with gold; a five-layer sunshield the size of a tennis court keeps it below −220 °C.
• Instruments: NIRCam, NIRSpec, MIRI and FGS/NIRISS; infrared lets it see light from the first galaxies, which the expanding universe has redshifted out of the visible range.
• Named after James E. Webb, NASA administrator during the Apollo era; first science images were released on 12 July 2022.
• Hubble (launched 1990) orbits Earth at about 540 km, has a 2.4 m mirror and observes mainly ultraviolet, visible and near-infrared light.
Do not mix these up
• L1 vs L2 — Aditya-L1 sits at L1, between the Sun and Earth, for an unbroken view of the Sun; JWST sits at L2, beyond Earth, for a cold, dark sky.
• JWST vs Hubble — Webb is a successor, not a replacement: infrared versus visible, and it is too far away to be serviced by astronauts as Hubble was.
Also asked from this topic: the wavelength region and position of JWST (near- and mid-infrared, at Sun–Earth L2); another name for Lagrange points (libration points); the Lagrange point of Aditya-L1 (L1).
Space, Defence and Technology · Indian space missions

Q14. Which of the following accurately reflects the long-term strategic vision and technological challenges associated with India's proposed Bharatiya Antariksh Station, and how it differs from existing international space stations?

  1. (a) The Bharatiya Antariksh Station will be a joint India-Russia project focused on geostationary orbit operations, equipped for planetary defense.
  2. (b) Unlike the International Space Station (ISS), the Bharatiya Antariksh Station will be modular, entirely domestically built, and operate in low Earth orbit for scientific research and long-duration crewed missions.
  3. (c) The Bharatiya Antariksh Station will orbit the Moon to serve as a gateway for India's future lunar mining and habitation missions.
  4. (d) It is India's first robotic Mars outpost, intended for autonomous sample return missions and artificial gravity experiments.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Unlike the International Space Station (ISS), the Bharatiya Antariksh Station will be modular, entirely domestically built, and operate in low Earth orbit for scientific research and long-duration crewed missions.

Answer: Option 2 — Unlike the International Space Station (ISS), the Bharatiya Antariksh Station will be modular, entirely domestically built, and operate in low Earth orbit for scientific research and long-duration crewed missions.
The Bharatiya Antariksh Station (BAS) is ISRO's indigenous, modular space station planned for low Earth orbit at roughly 400 to 450 km.
The ISS, by contrast, is a multinational station built by five agencies; BAS is planned neither for geostationary orbit nor for lunar orbit.
Revision note — Bharatiya Antariksh Station
• Announced as a goal in October 2023, when the Prime Minister set the targets of a space station by 2035 and an Indian on the Moon by 2040 (India's Space Vision 2047).
• The Union Cabinet approved the first module, BAS-1, on 18 September 2024 as part of the expanded Gaganyaan programme, taking its total outlay to about ₹20,193 crore.
• BAS-1 is scheduled for launch in 2028; the full station of five modules is to be operational by 2035.
• A scale model of BAS-1 was unveiled by ISRO in August 2025; long-duration stays will need the Next Generation Launch Vehicle (NGLV), approved in September 2024.
• The station will host microgravity research, long-duration crewed stays and, later, space tourism, and will build on the Gaganyaan crewed flights.
• Existing stations: the ISS (first module 1998; NASA, Roscosmos, ESA, JAXA and CSA) and China's Tiangong (core module 2021).
Do not mix these up
• Bharatiya Antariksh Station vs Gaganyaan — Gaganyaan is the crewed spacecraft programme; BAS is the permanent station those flights will later serve.
• Space station vs Lunar Gateway — NASA's Gateway was planned to orbit the Moon (NASA paused work on it in March 2026); BAS, Tiangong and the ISS are all in low Earth orbit.
Also asked from this topic: the launch year of the first BAS module (2028); the target years for the station and an Indian Moon landing (2035 and 2040); the number of modules planned (five).
Space, Defence and Technology · Indian space missions

Q15. What distinguishes the LUPEX (Lunar Polar Exploration) mission from previous lunar missions, and what are its strategic and scientific implications for future interplanetary exploration?

  1. (a) LUPEX is a NASA-led mission aiming to launch a solar-powered telescope from the Moon's far side to observe deep-space galaxies, with challenges related to Earth visibility.
  2. (b) LUPEX will deploy a rover near the lunar equator to conduct high-resolution mineral mapping using X-ray fluorescence technology, focused on past volcanic activity.
  3. (c) LUPEX is a joint ISRO–JAXA mission targeting the lunar south pole to explore permanently shadowed regions for water ice, using a lander-rover system, contributing to potential crewed lunar bases and future Mars missions.
  4. (d) LUPEX is India's first space-based solar observatory placed in lunar orbit to measure electromagnetic interference from Earth's magnetosphere during eclipses.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) LUPEX is a joint ISRO–JAXA mission targeting the lunar south pole to explore permanently shadowed regions for water ice, using a lander-rover system, contributing to potential crewed lunar bases and future Mars missions.

Answer: Option 3 — LUPEX is a joint ISRO–JAXA mission targeting the lunar south pole to explore permanently shadowed regions for water ice, using a lander-rover system, contributing to potential crewed lunar bases and future Mars missions.
LUPEX is the India–Japan lunar mission in which ISRO builds the lander and JAXA the rover and the H3 launch rocket.
Its target is the quantity and quality of water ice in the permanently shadowed craters of the south pole — the resource on which any future Moon base depends.
Revision note — LUPEX / Chandrayaan-5
• A joint ISRO–JAXA mission, approved by the Government of India in March 2025 as Chandrayaan-5; launch is planned around 2028–29.
• JAXA provides the H3-24L launch vehicle and a rover of about 350 kg; ISRO provides the lander, with instruments also from NASA and ESA.
• The rover will drill and sample soil in permanently shadowed regions near the south pole and is designed to survive the long lunar night.
• Builds on Chandrayaan-3, which made India the first nation to soft-land near the lunar south pole on 23 August 2023 at Shiv Shakti Point.
• Chandrayaan-4, approved in September 2024, is a sample-return mission planned for around 2027; Chandrayaan-1 (2008) first confirmed water molecules on the Moon.
• These missions feed the 2040 target of landing an Indian on the Moon.
Do not mix these up
• Chandrayaan-4 vs Chandrayaan-5 — the fourth brings lunar samples back to Earth; the fifth (LUPEX) studies water ice in place with a Japanese rover.
• LUPEX vs Aditya-L1 — Aditya-L1 is India's solar observatory at L1; LUPEX is a lunar surface mission.
Also asked from this topic: the primary objective of LUPEX (to study the quantity and quality of water on the Moon's polar region); the launch vehicle for Chandrayaan-5 (Japan's H3-24L).
Space, Defence and Technology · Indian space missions

Q16. In what ways does ASTROSAT's multi-wavelength observation capability distinguish it from conventional space telescopes, and what scientific advantages does this offer for high-energy astrophysics and cosmology research?

  1. (a) ASTROSAT focuses only on visible and infrared wavelengths to study Earth's magnetosphere and atmospheric chemistry, unlike other telescopes that observe deep-space objects.
  2. (b) ASTROSAT's design allows simultaneous observation of celestial sources in UV, optical, and X-ray bands, enabling real-time correlation of high-energy phenomena like black hole activity, X-ray binaries, and gamma-ray bursts.
  3. (c) ASTROSAT is designed to detect gravitational waves in coordination with LIGO by using radio-frequency bursts and radar echo timing from pulsars.
  4. (d) ASTROSAT's primary goal is to map exoplanets using Doppler spectroscopy from a Sun-synchronous polar orbit.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) ASTROSAT's design allows simultaneous observation of celestial sources in UV, optical, and X-ray bands, enabling real-time correlation of high-energy phenomena like black hole activity, X-ray binaries, and gamma-ray bursts.

Answer: Option 2 — ASTROSAT's design allows simultaneous observation of celestial sources in UV, optical, and X-ray bands, enabling real-time correlation of high-energy phenomena like black hole activity, X-ray binaries, and gamma-ray bursts.
AstroSat is India's first dedicated multi-wavelength space observatory: its five instruments watch the same object at the same time in ultraviolet, visible and X-ray light.
Most telescopes cover one band, so they must wait for another observatory to fill in the rest — AstroSat sees a flaring black hole or X-ray binary across the spectrum at once.
Revision note — AstroSat
• Launched on 28 September 2015 by PSLV-C30 from Sriharikota into a 650 km near-equatorial orbit; mass about 1,513 kg.
• Five payloads: UVIT (ultraviolet imaging), SXT (soft X-ray), LAXPC (large-area X-ray proportional counters), CZTI (hard X-ray imager) and SSM (scanning sky monitor).
• Landmark results: UVIT detected extreme-ultraviolet light from the galaxy AUDFs01, and CZTI measured X-ray polarisation of the Crab pulsar and nebula.
• Studies black holes, neutron stars, X-ray binaries and gamma-ray bursts; data are handled by the ISSDC at Bengaluru and the science is led by IUCAA, TIFR and IIA.
• India's second astronomy satellite is XPoSat, launched on 1 January 2024 — the country's first X-ray polarimetry mission, with POLIX and XSPECT.
• Aditya-L1 (2 September 2023) is the solar observatory; it looks at the Sun, not at deep-space sources.
Do not mix these up
• AstroSat vs XPoSat — AstroSat observes many wavelengths at once; XPoSat measures the polarisation of X-rays from about 50 bright sources.
• AstroSat vs Hubble — Hubble is a single-mirror optical–UV telescope; AstroSat is a suite of five instruments spanning UV to hard X-rays.
Also asked from this topic: the unique feature of AstroSat (simultaneous multi-wavelength observation); its discoveries (UV emission from a remote galaxy; X-ray polarisation of a supernova remnant); its launch (28 September 2015).
Sports · Football and hockey

Q17. Why was the year 1975 considered historic in the context of Indian field hockey?

  1. (a) India qualified for first World Cup
  2. (b) India hosted the Olympic qualifiers
  3. (c) India won its only Hockey World Cup
  4. (d) Indian women qualified for Olympics
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) India won its only Hockey World Cup

Answer: Option 3 — India won its only Hockey World Cup
At the 3rd Men's Hockey World Cup, Kuala Lumpur (1975), India beat Pakistan 2–1 in the final on 15 March 1975 — the country's only World Cup title to date.
India had played the first two World Cups too (bronze in 1971, silver in 1973), so 1975 was not a qualification but a triumph.
Revision note — India and the Hockey World Cup
• 1975 final, Merdeka Stadium, Kuala Lumpur: Pakistan led through Zahid; Surjit Singh equalised and Ashok Kumar (son of Dhyan Chand) scored the winner. Captain Ajit Pal Singh.
• In the semi-final India beat hosts Malaysia 3–2 in extra time after Aslam Sher Khan, brought on late, scored the equaliser from a penalty corner.
• Earlier: 1971 Barcelona — bronze; 1973 Amstelveen — silver, lost to the Netherlands. Since 1975 India's best is 5th (1982, 1994).
• Most titles: Pakistan 4 (1971, 1978, 1982, 1994); Netherlands, Australia and Germany 3 each; Belgium won in 2018 and Germany in 2023 (Bhubaneswar–Rourkela).
• India has hosted the World Cup four times: Mumbai 1982, New Delhi 2010, Bhubaneswar 2018 and Bhubaneswar–Rourkela 2023.
• India's Olympic record is separate: eight golds (1928–1980), the last at Moscow 1980, and bronze at Tokyo 2020 and Paris 2024.
Do not mix these up
• 1975 World Cup vs 1980 Olympics — 1975 is India's only World Cup; 1980 Moscow is its last Olympic gold.
• Ashok Kumar vs Dhyan Chand — Ashok Kumar scored the 1975 winner; his father Dhyan Chand won Olympic golds in 1928, 1932 and 1936.
Also asked from this topic: the year India won its first and only Hockey World Cup (1975); the winner of the 2023 Men's Hockey World Cup (Germany); the city that hosted the 2010 World Cup final (New Delhi).
Sports · Olympic Games

Q18. Which Indian athlete's Olympic medal was later upgraded due to another athlete's disqualification for doping?

  1. (a) Yogeshwar Dutt
  2. (b) Leander Paes
  3. (c) Gagan Narang
  4. (d) Karnam Malleswari
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Yogeshwar Dutt

Answer: Option 1 — Yogeshwar Dutt
Wrestler Yogeshwar Dutt won bronze in the men's 60 kg freestyle at the London 2012 Olympics.
In 2016 a re-test of the silver medallist Besik Kudukhov (Russia) came back positive for a banned steroid, and Dutt's medal was announced as upgraded to silver.
Revision note — India at the London 2012 Olympics
• India won 6 medals at London 2012 — 2 silver, 4 bronze — double its Beijing 2008 tally of 3.
• Silver: Sushil Kumar (wrestling, 66 kg) and Vijay Kumar (shooting, 25 m rapid fire pistol).
• Bronze: Gagan Narang (10 m air rifle), Saina Nehwal (badminton), Mary Kom (boxing, 51 kg) and Yogeshwar Dutt (wrestling, 60 kg).
• Kudukhov died in a road accident in 2013; as a deceased athlete cannot be formally sanctioned, the re-allocation was never completed.
• Dutt himself said the medal should stay with Kudukhov's family.
• Yogeshwar Dutt later won Asian Games gold (Incheon, 2014) and Commonwealth Games gold (Glasgow, 2014); he received the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna in 2012 and the Padma Shri in 2013.
• Leander Paes won India's first Olympic tennis medal, a bronze at Atlanta 1996.
• Karnam Malleswari was the first Indian woman to win an Olympic medal — weightlifting bronze at Sydney 2000.
Do not mix these up
• Sushil Kumar vs Yogeshwar Dutt — both won wrestling medals at London 2012, but Sushil took silver (66 kg) and Yogeshwar bronze (60 kg).
• Sushil, with his 2008 bronze as well, is India's first two-time individual Olympic medallist.
Also asked from this topic: India's total medals at London 2012 (6); Karnam Malleswari's sport (weightlifting, Sydney 2000); the Games at which Leander Paes won his tennis bronze (Atlanta 1996).
Dances · Folk dances by state

Q19. The folk dance 'Lavani' is known for its:

  1. (a) Battle re-enactments
  2. (b) Romantic and social themes, fast tempo
  3. (c) Religious fasts
  4. (d) Classical format
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Romantic and social themes, fast tempo

Answer: Option 2 — Romantic and social themes, fast tempo
Lavani is the fast-paced folk dance of Maharashtra, sung and danced to the beat of the dholki, and its songs deal with love, romance and social or political themes.
It is a folk form linked to Tamasha theatre, not a classical dance.
Revision note — Lavani and the folk arts of Maharashtra
• Lavani takes its name from lavanya, meaning beauty; it is performed mainly by women in a nine-yard nauvari sari.
• The accompanying percussion instrument is the dholki; the rhythm is quick and the expressions bold.
• Two broad types: Nirguni Lavani (philosophical, devotional) and Shringari Lavani (romantic, sensual) — the second is the better known.
• It grew as part of Tamasha, the folk dance-theatre of Maharashtra performed by nomadic communities such as the Kolhati; it flourished in the Peshwa period of the 18th century.
• Other folk forms of Maharashtra: Koli (fisherfolk dance), Powada (ballads on Shivaji), Dindi and Kala (devotional), Dhangari Gaja (shepherds).
• Classical dance is defined by the Natyashastra and recognised by the Sangeet Natak Akademi; Lavani is not on that list of eight.
Do not mix these up
• Lavani vs Tamasha — Lavani is the song-and-dance form; Tamasha is the larger folk theatre in which Lavani is performed.
• Lavani vs Powada — Powada is a heroic ballad, not a dance; Lavani is danced.
Also asked from this topic: the state of Lavani (Maharashtra); the percussion instrument that accompanies it (dholki); the folk dance-theatre of Maharashtra that carries Lavani songs (Tamasha).
Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q20. Read the Statements carefully based on Manipuri dance and choose the correct option:
1. Kartal Cholom is performed using cymbals with dynamic movements.
2. Samkirtana is performed without musical instruments.

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 2 only
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1 only

Answer: Option 1 — 1 only
Kartal Cholom is the cymbal dance of Manipur — kartal means cymbals — performed by men with vigorous leaps and turns, so statement 1 is correct.
Sankirtana is devotional singing and dancing that is always accompanied by the pung (drum) and kartal (cymbals), so statement 2 is wrong.
Revision note — Manipuri dance
• One of the eight classical dances recognised by the Sangeet Natak Akademi; it grew out of the Vaishnava tradition of Manipur and centres on the love of Radha and Krishna.
• Two main divisions: Jagoi — the gentle, lasya style, and Cholom — the vigorous, tandava style performed by men.
• Pung Cholom is the drum dance on the pung (the Manipuri mridanga); Kartal Cholom is the cymbal dance. Both are part of Nata Sankirtana.
• Sankirtana of Manipur was inscribed on UNESCO's list of Intangible Cultural Heritage in 2013; it is performed at temples and at life-cycle rituals of the Meitei community.
• The Ras Leela was introduced by King Rajarshi Bhagyachandra in the 18th century (about 1779); its five forms are Maha Ras, Vasanta Ras, Kunja Ras, Nitya Ras and Diva Ras.
• The pre-Vaishnava ritual dance Lai Haraoba is its root; Rabindranath Tagore brought Manipuri to Santiniketan in 1919-20.
• Exponents: Guru Bipin Singh, the Jhaveri sisters, Guru Amubi Singh, Elam Endira Devi, Darshana Jhaveri.
Do not mix these up
• Pung Cholom vs Kartal Cholom — the first is danced with the pung drum, the second with cymbals.
• Manipuri vs Sattriya — both are Vaishnava dances of the North-East, but Sattriya belongs to Assam and was created by Srimanta Sankardev.
Also asked from this topic: the deity worshipped through Manipuri dance (Krishna); the two main divisions of Manipuri (Jagoi and Cholom); the dance form of Padma Shri Elam Endira Devi (Manipuri).
Organisations and Headquarters · India's foreign relations and connectivity projects

Q21. Which facility in Iran is being developed by India to enhance trade with Central Asia?

  1. (a) Bandar Abbas commercial wharf
  2. (b) Chabahar Port transit facility
  3. (c) Qeshm Island logistics centre
  4. (d) Bushehr Port maritime terminal
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Chabahar Port transit facility

Answer: Option 2 — Chabahar Port transit facility
India is developing the Shahid Beheshti terminal at Chabahar Port in Iran's Sistan-Baluchestan province to reach Afghanistan and Central Asia by a route that bypasses Pakistan.
It is India's first overseas port project.
Revision note — Chabahar Port
• Chabahar lies on the Gulf of Oman, outside the Strait of Hormuz, about 170 km west of the Chinese-built Gwadar port in Pakistan.
• The trilateral India-Iran-Afghanistan agreement on Chabahar was signed in May 2016 during Prime Minister Modi's visit to Tehran.
• India's first consignment through the port, wheat to Afghanistan, was shipped in October 2017.
• India Ports Global Limited (IPGL) took over operations in December 2018.
• On 13 May 2024 IPGL signed a 10-year contract with Iran's Ports and Maritime Organisation for the Shahid Beheshti terminal.
• Under the 2024 contract India invests about USD 120 million in the terminal and offers a USD 250 million credit line for connected infrastructure.
• Chabahar is India's gateway to the International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC), the multi-modal route linking Mumbai to Iran, Central Asia and Russia.
• Bandar Abbas is Iran's largest port on the Strait of Hormuz; Bushehr on the Persian Gulf hosts Iran's nuclear power plant; Qeshm is the largest island in the Persian Gulf.
Do not mix these up
• Chabahar vs Gwadar — Chabahar is developed by India in Iran; Gwadar is developed by China in Pakistan under CPEC.
• Gulf of Oman vs Persian Gulf — Chabahar is on the Gulf of Oman, so shipping to it need not pass through the Strait of Hormuz; Bandar Abbas and Bushehr are on the Persian Gulf side.
Also asked from this topic: the corridor that uses Chabahar to reach Central Asia (International North-South Transport Corridor); the first commodity India sent to Afghanistan through Chabahar in 2017 (wheat).

Medieval History (1)

Medieval Culture, Literature and Travellers · Regional and Rajput architecture

Q22. The chhatri in Rajput architecture primarily serves what symbolic and functional purpose?

  1. (a) Water conservation and air circulation
  2. (b) Commemorative structure symbolizing honor
  3. (c) Observatory for astronomical calculations
  4. (d) Temple for deity worship
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Commemorative structure symbolizing honor

Answer: Option 2 — Commemorative structure symbolizing honor
A chhatri (literally "umbrella") is a raised, dome-shaped pavilion on pillars.
In Rajput tradition it was built as a cenotaph at the cremation spot of a ruler or warrior — a memorial to honour the dead, not a tomb holding a body.
Revision note — Chhatris and Rajput architectural elements
• A chhatri is a domed kiosk on four or more pillars; as a memorial it is a cenotaph (an empty monument), since Hindu rulers were cremated, not buried.
• Famous royal cenotaph sites: Gaitore (Jaipur), Bada Bagh (Jaisalmer), Ahar (Udaipur), Jaswant Thada (Jodhpur, white marble, 1899) and the Bundela chhatris at Orchha.
• The 84-pillared chhatri at Bundi and the Chhatris of Shivpuri (Scindias) are the ones that turn up as "the largest" or "marble" examples.
• As a decorative element chhatris crown the corners of Mughal buildings — Humayun's Tomb, the Taj Mahal — and of Indo-Saracenic buildings like the Victoria Memorial.
• Companion Rajput elements: jharokha (overhanging balcony window), jaali (pierced stone screen), chhajja (projecting eave) and baori (stepwell for water).
Do not mix these up
• Chhatri vs Jharokha — a chhatri is a free-standing or rooftop pavilion; a jharokha is a projecting window balcony on a wall.
• Chhatri vs Baori — a baori (stepwell) is the water-conservation structure; a chhatri stores nothing and cools nothing.
Also asked from this topic: the architectural element used in Rajput tombs and memorials (chhatri); the British-era style that mixed Indian elements with Gothic and Victorian forms (Indo-Saracenic).

Polity (6)

Fundamental Rights · Right to Freedom (Articles 19-22)

Q23. Which of the following statements best describes the legal status and constitutional challenges associated with the Right to Be Forgotten (RTBF) in India?

  1. (a) The Right to Be Forgotten is explicitly recognized as a fundamental right under Article 21 by the Supreme Court, granting individuals absolute control to remove any personal information from the internet without restrictions.
  2. (b) The Right to Be Forgotten is derived from the right to privacy under Article 21 and data protection principles, but it is not absolute and must be balanced against the freedom of speech and the public's right to information under Article 19(1)(a).
  3. (c) Indian law currently provides a comprehensive statutory framework for RTBF through the Information Technology Act, 2000, which empowers individuals to demand erasure of any online content violating their privacy.
  4. (d) RTBF applies only to government websites and databases, and private platforms are exempt from any obligation to remove personal data or information upon user request.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The Right to Be Forgotten is derived from the right to privacy under Article 21 and data protection principles, but it is not absolute and must be balanced against the freedom of speech and the public's right to information under Article 19(1)(a).

Answer: Option 2 — The Right to Be Forgotten is derived from the right to privacy under Article 21 and data protection principles, but it is not absolute and must be balanced against the freedom of speech and the public's right to information under Article 19(1)(a).
The RTBF has no separate statute in India; courts read it into the right to privacy under Article 21 recognised in the Puttaswamy case (2017).
Like every facet of privacy, it is not absolute — it yields to free speech, public records and the public interest.
Revision note — Right to Be Forgotten and the right to privacy
• K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India (24 August 2017) — a nine-judge bench unanimously held privacy to be a Fundamental Right intrinsic to Article 21; the judgment itself discussed the right to be forgotten.
• The idea began in the European Court of Justice's Google Spain case (2014), and the EU's GDPR (2018) Article 17 calls it the right to erasure.
• High Courts apply it case by case — the Delhi High Court (Jorawer Singh Mundy, 2021) had a judgment delisted, and in November 2024 let petitioners ask platforms to mask their identities.
• The Digital Personal Data Protection Act, 2023 gives a data principal the right to correction and erasure (Section 12) of personal data — the closest statutory basis so far.
• The IT Act, 2000 has no erasure right; it only penalises privacy violations (Section 66E) and allows content blocking (Section 69A).
• Free speech under Article 19(1)(a) is limited only by the reasonable restrictions in Article 19(2), so a court must weigh privacy against the public's right to know.
Do not mix these up
• Right to be forgotten vs right to be left alone — the former asks for removal of past information; the latter is freedom from intrusion in the present.
• DPDP Act, 2023 vs IT Act, 2000 — the DPDP Act governs personal data processing; the IT Act governs e-commerce, digital signatures and cyber offences.
Also asked from this topic: the case that recognised the right to privacy (K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India, 2017); the Article that protects privacy (Article 21); the year of the DPDP Act (2023).
Polity Miscellaneous · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q24. Which section deals with the right to private defense in mob attack cases, as introduced in July 2024?

  1. (a) Section 44, BNS
  2. (b) Section 23, BNSS
  3. (c) Section 103, IPC
  4. (d) Section 20, BSA
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Section 44, BNS

Answer: Option 1 — Section 44, BNS
The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 came into force on 1 July 2024.
Its Section 44 (old IPC Section 106) covers a deadly assault where the defender cannot save himself without risking harm to an innocent person — his right of private defence extends to running that risk.
The section's own illustration is a person attacked by a mob trying to murder him — he may fire on the mob even though children mingled with it may be harmed.
Revision note — Right of private defence under the BNS
• The right of private defence is in Sections 34 to 44 of the BNS (old IPC Sections 96 to 106); nothing done in private defence is an offence (Section 34).
• Section 35 — every person may defend his own body and property, and another's, against an offence.
• Section 38 lists when defence of the body may extend to causing death — assault threatening death, grievous hurt, rape, kidnapping, acid attack, etc.
• The three new criminal laws — BNS (replaces IPC 1860), BNSS (replaces CrPC 1973) and Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (replaces Indian Evidence Act 1872).
• All three were passed in December 2023 and enforced from 1 July 2024.
• BNS: 358 sections, 20 chapters (IPC had 511); BNSS: 531 sections (CrPC 484); BSA: 170 sections (Evidence Act 167).
• Key BNS sections: 103 (murder), 111 (organised crime), 112 (petty organised crime), 113 (terrorist act), 152 (replaces sedition); community service is a new punishment.
• Section 103 of the old IPC was a different thing — the right of private defence of property extending to causing death.
Do not mix these up
• BNS vs BNSS vs BSA — BNS defines offences and punishments; BNSS lays down procedure (arrest, bail, trial); BSA governs evidence.
• Section 103 IPC vs Section 103 BNS — the same number means private defence of property in the IPC but murder in the BNS.
Also asked from this topic: the law that replaced the IPC 1860 (Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita); the number of sections in the BNS (358); the date the three new criminal laws came into force (1 July 2024).
Constitutional Development and Making · Borrowed features - sources of the Constitution

Q25. The Directive Principles of State Policy are inspired by the Constitution of:

  1. (a) Canada
  2. (b) France
  3. (c) Germany
  4. (d) Ireland
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Ireland

Answer: Option 4 — Ireland
The Directive Principles of State Policy in Part IV (Articles 36-51) were taken from the Constitution of Ireland (1937), which itself borrowed the idea from the Spanish Constitution of 1931.
Dr Ambedkar called them the novel feature of the Constitution.
Revision note — Borrowed features of the Indian Constitution
• Ireland: Directive Principles, the method of electing the President (electoral college), and nomination of members to the Rajya Sabha.
• Britain: parliamentary government, rule of law, single citizenship, cabinet system, writs, bicameralism, legislative procedure.
• USA: Fundamental Rights, judicial review, independence of the judiciary, impeachment of the President, removal of judges, the post of Vice-President.
• Canada: federation with a strong Centre, residuary powers with the Centre, appointment of Governors by the Centre, advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
• Germany (Weimar): suspension of Fundamental Rights during an Emergency. France: the ideals of republic, liberty, equality and fraternity in the Preamble.
• Australia: Concurrent List, freedom of trade and commerce (Article 301), joint sitting of the two Houses.
• USSR: Fundamental Duties and the ideal of justice in the Preamble. South Africa: procedure for amendment and election of Rajya Sabha members. Japan: procedure established by law.
• Directive Principles are non-justiciable (Article 37) but fundamental in the governance of the country; Fundamental Rights (Part III) are justiciable.
Do not mix these up
• Ireland vs USA — Ireland gave the Directive Principles; the USA gave the Fundamental Rights.
• Canada vs Australia — Canada gave the strong-Centre federation and residuary powers; Australia gave the Concurrent List and the joint sitting.
Also asked from this topic: the source of the Directive Principles (Ireland); whether DPSPs are justiciable (no, unlike Fundamental Rights); the Article on the Uniform Civil Code (Article 44).
Constitutional Development and Making · Constituent Assembly - formation and members

Q26. Who was the President of the Constituent Assembly in the year of 1946?

  1. (a) B.R. Ambedkar
  2. (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
  3. (c) Rajendra Prasad
  4. (d) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Rajendra Prasad

Answer: Option 3 — Rajendra Prasad
The Constituent Assembly first met on 9 December 1946 under the temporary chairmanship of Dr Sachchidananda Sinha, its oldest member.
On 11 December 1946 it elected Dr Rajendra Prasad as its permanent President, and he presided until the Constitution was adopted.
Revision note — The Constituent Assembly of India
• Formed under the Cabinet Mission Plan of 1946; elections were held in July-August 1946 by the provincial assemblies through indirect election.
• Original strength 389 (296 from British India, 93 from the princely states); after Partition it fell to 299.
• H.C. Mukherjee was elected Vice-President; Sir B.N. Rau was the Constitutional Adviser.
• Jawaharlal Nehru moved the Objectives Resolution on 13 December 1946, adopted on 22 January 1947; it became the basis of the Preamble.
• The Drafting Committee was set up on 29 August 1947 with Dr B.R. Ambedkar as chairman and seven members.
• The Constitution was adopted on 26 November 1949 and came into force on 26 January 1950; the Assembly took 2 years, 11 months and 18 days over 11 sessions.
• Sardar Patel chaired the Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights and Minorities and the Provincial Constitution Committee; Nehru chaired the Union Powers and Union Constitution committees.
Do not mix these up
• Sachchidananda Sinha vs Rajendra Prasad — Sinha was the temporary president for the first sitting (9 December 1946); Prasad was the elected, permanent President (from 11 December 1946).
• Rajendra Prasad vs B.R. Ambedkar — Prasad presided over the whole Assembly; Ambedkar chaired only its Drafting Committee.
Also asked from this topic: the temporary president of the Constituent Assembly (Dr Sachchidananda Sinha); its Constitutional Adviser (B.N. Rau); the date of its first meeting (9 December 1946).
Union Executive · Council of Ministers and Cabinet

Q27. Which Article provides for a Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President?

  1. (a) Article 64
  2. (b) Article 68
  3. (c) Article 71
  4. (d) Article 74
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Article 74

Answer: Option 4 — Article 74
Article 74(1) says there shall be a Council of Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head to aid and advise the President, who shall act in accordance with that advice.
The other three Articles concern the Vice-President and elections, not the ministers.
Revision note — The Union Council of Ministers (Articles 74-78)
• Article 74: Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President.
• The 42nd Amendment (1976) made the advice binding; the 44th Amendment (1978) let the President send it back once for reconsideration.
• Article 74(2): the advice tendered by ministers cannot be inquired into by any court.
• Article 75: the Prime Minister is appointed by the President and the other ministers on the PM's advice; ministers hold office during the pleasure of the President.
• Article 75(1A), added by the 91st Amendment (2003), caps the Council of Ministers at 15 per cent of the strength of the Lok Sabha.
• Article 75(3) makes the Council collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha; 75(5) gives a non-member minister six months to enter Parliament.
• Article 76: Attorney General of India. Article 77: conduct of business of the Government of India. Article 78: duties of the Prime Minister to furnish information to the President.
• Article 64 — the Vice-President is ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha; Article 68 — time of holding the election to the Vice-President's office.
• Article 71 — matters relating to, or connected with, the election of the President and Vice-President; disputes go to the Supreme Court.
Do not mix these up
• Article 74 vs Article 75 — 74 creates the Council and makes its advice binding; 75 deals with appointment, tenure, size, oath and collective responsibility of the ministers.
• Article 74 vs Article 163 — 74 is the Council of Ministers advising the President; 163 is the State Council of Ministers advising the Governor.
Also asked from this topic: the clause that bars courts from inquiring into ministerial advice (Article 74(2)); the House to which the Council is collectively responsible (Lok Sabha, Article 75(3)).
Union Executive · Council of Ministers and Cabinet

Q28. The conduct of business of the Government of India comes under:

  1. (a) Article 74
  2. (b) Article 75
  3. (c) Article 77
  4. (d) Article 78
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Article 77

Answer: Option 3 — Article 77
Article 77 is titled 'Conduct of business of the Government of India'.
It provides that all executive action of the Union is expressed to be taken in the name of the President, and lets the President make rules for the transaction and allocation of that business among ministers.
Revision note — Article 77 and its neighbours
• Article 77(1): all executive action of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the President.
• Article 77(2): orders and instruments made in the President's name are authenticated as the rules lay down.
• Once authenticated, their validity cannot be questioned on the ground that they were not made by the President personally.
• Article 77(3): the President makes rules for the more convenient transaction of business and its allocation among ministers.
• The Allocation of Business Rules, 1961 and the Transaction of Business Rules, 1961 are framed under this clause.
• Article 166 is the identical provision for the States, where executive action is expressed in the name of the Governor.
• Article 74: Council of Ministers to aid and advise the President. Article 75: appointment, tenure and responsibility of ministers.
• Article 78: the Prime Minister's duty to communicate Council decisions and furnish information to the President.
• Article 76 (Attorney General) sits between them; Article 73 sets the extent of the Union's executive power.
Do not mix these up
• Article 77 vs Article 78 — 77 is the conduct of government business in the President's name; 78 is the Prime Minister's personal duty to keep the President informed.
• Article 77 vs Article 166 — the same rule at the Union (President) and State (Governor) level respectively.
Also asked from this topic: the subject of Article 77 (conduct of business of the Government of India); in whose name Union executive action is taken (the President).

Geography (6)

Atmosphere and Climate · Pressure belts

Q29. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the characteristics and climatic significance of the Doldrums (Intertropical Convergence Zone - ITCZ) and their impact on global weather patterns?

  1. (a) The Doldrums are a permanent high-pressure zone near the poles characterized by descending cold air, resulting in clear skies and stable weather conditions.
  2. (b) The Doldrums represent a low-pressure belt near the equator where trade winds from both hemispheres converge, causing frequent thunderstorms, variable winds, and influencing monsoon onset in South Asia.
  3. (c) The Doldrums shift seasonally towards the poles following the sun's zenith point but do not affect the formation of tropical cyclones or the distribution of rainfall in the tropics.
  4. (d) The Doldrums are characterized by strong, persistent winds blowing consistently from east to west, facilitating historic transoceanic sailing routes.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The Doldrums represent a low-pressure belt near the equator where trade winds from both hemispheres converge, causing frequent thunderstorms, variable winds, and influencing monsoon onset in South Asia.

Answer: Option 2 — The Doldrums represent a low-pressure belt near the equator where trade winds from both hemispheres converge, causing frequent thunderstorms, variable winds, and influencing monsoon onset in South Asia.
The doldrums are the equatorial low-pressure belt: intense heating makes air rise, and the north-east and south-east trade winds flow in to replace it.
The rising moist air gives daily convectional thunderstorms.
Surface winds are calm or fitful — the opposite of strong and persistent — which is why sailing ships dreaded the belt.
Revision note — Pressure belts and the ITCZ
• Equatorial low (doldrums / ITCZ): about 5°N to 5°S; rising air, heavy convectional rain, calm surface winds.
• Subtropical highs (horse latitudes): 30° to 35° in each hemisphere; descending dry air, so the great hot deserts (Sahara, Thar, Kalahari) lie here.
• Subpolar lows: 60° to 65°; cold polar easterlies meet warm westerlies along the polar front, giving temperate cyclones.
• Polar highs: at the poles; very cold, dense, sinking air.
• The ITCZ migrates with the overhead sun — north in the northern summer and south in the southern summer, roughly within 20° of the equator.
• In July it sits over the northern plains of India as the monsoon trough, pulling in the south-west monsoon; its southward retreat in September–October marks the monsoon's withdrawal.
Do not mix these up
• Doldrums vs horse latitudes — both are belts of calm, but the doldrums are a low with rising wet air, the horse latitudes a high with sinking dry air.
• Trade winds vs westerlies — trade winds blow from the subtropical highs towards the equator (north-east in the northern hemisphere); westerlies blow poleward from the same highs.
Also asked from this topic: the low-pressure belt near the equator (doldrums); where the trade winds of both hemispheres meet (ITCZ); what marks the monsoon's withdrawal (southward shift of the ITCZ).
India - Minerals, Energy and Industries · Metallic minerals and mines

Q30. Which region of India is the largest producer of bauxite?

  1. (a) Gujarat
  2. (b) Odisha
  3. (c) Jharkhand
  4. (d) Chhattisgarh
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Odisha

Answer: Option 2 — Odisha
Odisha produces more than half of India's bauxite, from the Koraput–Kalahandi–Rayagada belt of the Eastern Ghats.
The Panchpatmali deposit in Koraput, mined by NALCO, is one of the largest bauxite mines in the world.
Revision note — Bauxite in India
• Bauxite is the ore of aluminium; it is a non-ferrous metallic mineral, formed by the weathering of rocks into laterite on plateaus and hill tops.
• Reserves: Odisha (about half), followed by Andhra Pradesh, Gujarat, Jharkhand, Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh.
• Production: Odisha first, then Gujarat (Jamnagar, Kutch), Jharkhand (Lohardaga, Gumla, Palamu), Chhattisgarh and Maharashtra (Kolhapur).
• Odisha's aluminium chain: NALCO alumina refinery at Damanjodi and smelter at Angul; Vedanta refinery at Lanjigarh and smelter at Jharsuguda; Hindalco at Hirakud.
• Bauxite is refined to alumina by the Bayer process and alumina to aluminium by the Hall–Héroult electrolytic process, which needs cheap electricity.
• World's largest bauxite producers are Australia, Guinea and China; India ranks among the top five.
Do not mix these up
• Bauxite vs iron ore leaders — Odisha leads in both bauxite and iron ore, but Odisha's bauxite is in Koraput, its iron ore in Keonjhar, Sundargarh and Mayurbhanj.
• Bauxite vs manganese — both are mined in Odisha, but the largest manganese producer is Madhya Pradesh (Balaghat).
Also asked from this topic: the type of mineral bauxite is (non-ferrous metallic); the mineral heartland of India (Chota Nagpur Plateau); India's richest mineral belt (North-Eastern Plateau region).
India - Minerals, Energy and Industries · Metallic minerals and mines

Q31. India has a vast and varied mineral resource base. Among these, iron ore is one of the most significant minerals that contributes to the industrial development of the country. Which of the following iron ore belts is known for the highest concentration of high-grade hematite iron ore in India, and has played a major role in supporting the steel industry, especially the plants located in Jharkhand and Odisha?

  1. (a) Bellary-Chitradurga Belt
  2. (b) Maharashtra-Goa Belt
  3. (c) Durg-Bastar-Chandrapur Belt
  4. (d) Singhbhum Belt
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Singhbhum Belt

Answer: Option 4 — Singhbhum Belt
The Odisha–Jharkhand (Singhbhum) belt holds the country's largest reserves of high-grade hematite and feeds the steel plants of Jamshedpur, Bokaro, Rourkela and Durgapur.
The stem's clue — the plants of Jharkhand and Odisha — points straight to this belt; the Bailadila ore of the Durg–Bastar belt goes mainly to Visakhapatnam and to export.
Revision note — Iron ore belts of India
• Odisha–Jharkhand belt: high-grade hematite at Badampahar (Mayurbhanj) and Kendujhar in Odisha, and at Gua and Noamundi in Singhbhum, Jharkhand. Odisha is India's largest iron ore producer.
• Durg–Bastar–Chandrapur belt (Chhattisgarh–Maharashtra): the Bailadila range in Dantewada has very high-grade hematite, mined by NMDC and exported to Japan and South Korea through Visakhapatnam.
• Ballari–Chitradurga–Chikkamagaluru–Tumakuru belt (Karnataka): large reserves; the Kudremukh mines in the Western Ghats yielded magnetite for export through Mangaluru.
• Maharashtra–Goa belt: ore of lower grade in Goa and Ratnagiri, exported through Marmagao port.
• Magnetite is the richest ore (up to 70 per cent iron, magnetic); hematite (50–60 per cent) is the ore most used by industry; India's reserves are mostly hematite.
• About 95 per cent of India's iron ore reserves lie in Odisha, Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh, Karnataka and Goa.
Do not mix these up
• Singhbhum vs Bailadila — both give high-grade hematite, but Singhbhum (Jharkhand–Odisha) feeds the eastern steel plants; Bailadila (Chhattisgarh) feeds Visakhapatnam and exports.
• Kudremukh vs Bailadila — Kudremukh (Karnataka) was a magnetite mine; Bailadila is a hematite mine.
Also asked from this topic: the state of the Singhbhum iron ore district (Jharkhand); the ore mined at Bailadila (hematite); the mineral for which Kudremukh is famous (iron ore).
India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Indian monsoon - mechanism

Q32. The Indian monsoon is primarily responsible for seasonal rainfall in India. What is the main cause behind the reversal of wind direction during monsoon?

  1. (a) Coriolis effect
  2. (b) Differential heating of land and sea
  3. (c) Young fold mountains
  4. (d) Dissected rivers and valleys
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Differential heating of land and sea

Answer: Option 2 — Differential heating of land and sea
⚠️ Note: the official sheet marks option 3; the correct answer is option 2 because the seasonal reversal of the monsoon winds is caused by the differential heating of land and sea, not by mountains.
In summer the Indian landmass heats faster than the Indian Ocean, so low pressure forms over north-west India and winds blow from sea to land (south-west monsoon).
In winter the land cools faster, high pressure builds over it, and the winds reverse to blow from land to sea (north-east monsoon).
Revision note — Mechanism of the Indian monsoon
• The word monsoon comes from the Arabic mausim (season); it means a seasonal reversal of wind direction.
• By late May intense heating of the north-western plains deepens the monsoon trough (a low-pressure belt) and the ITCZ shifts north to about 20–25 degrees N.
• The south-east trade winds of the southern hemisphere then cross the equator and arrive as the south-west monsoon.
• The Coriolis force only deflects the crossing winds to the right, turning south-east trades into south-westerlies; it is not the cause of the reversal.
• The Tibetan plateau heats strongly in summer, the sub-tropical westerly jet shifts north of the Himalaya, and the tropical easterly jet helps the burst of the monsoon.
• The monsoon has two branches — the Arabian Sea branch (west coast, Western Ghats) and the Bay of Bengal branch (eastern and north-eastern India).
• Normal onset over Kerala is 1 June; the season lasts June to September and brings about three-fourths of India's annual rain.
• The monsoon withdraws first from north-west India in September and last from the Tamil Nadu coast, which gets most of its rain from the north-east monsoon (October–December).
• El Niño years are linked with a weak monsoon; La Niña years with a strong one.
Do not mix these up
• Sea breeze vs monsoon — both come from differential heating of land and water, but a sea breeze reverses daily and a monsoon reverses seasonally.
• South-west vs north-east monsoon — the south-west monsoon (June–September) rains on most of India; the north-east monsoon (October–December) rains mainly on Tamil Nadu.
Also asked from this topic: the cause of the summer monsoon pressure gradient (differential heating of land and sea); the branch that rains on the west coast (Arabian Sea branch).
India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Soil types and distribution

Q33. India has a wide variety of soils, each with its own characteristics and crops suited for cultivation. Which type of soil is found extensively in Maharashtra and is ideal for cotton cultivation due to its moisture-retentive capacity?

  1. (a) Alluvial Soil
  2. (b) Red Soil
  3. (c) Black Soil
  4. (d) Laterite Soil
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Black Soil

Answer: Option 3 — Black Soil
Black soil, also called regur or black cotton soil, covers the Deccan trap region of Maharashtra and holds moisture for long because it is clayey.
That moisture-holding power is exactly what cotton needs, so it is the classic cotton soil.
Revision note — Black (regur) soil
• Formed by the weathering of basalt lava of the Deccan trap.
• Found in Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, western Telangana and Andhra Pradesh and parts of Tamil Nadu.
• Colour comes from titaniferous magnetite and iron; rich in lime, iron, magnesium, calcium, potash and alumina, but poor in nitrogen, phosphorus and organic matter.
• Swells when wet and cracks when dry — the cracks let air in, so it is called a self-ploughing soil.
• Crops: cotton, jowar, sugarcane, wheat, oilseeds, tobacco; the moisture kept after the kharif season also supports rabi crops.
• Alluvial soil covers the northern plains and coastal strips — the largest soil group of India, with khadar (new) and bangar (old) alluvium.
• Red soil forms on crystalline igneous and metamorphic rocks; its colour is from iron oxide; it is poor in nitrogen, phosphorus and humus.
• Laterite soil forms by leaching under heavy rain and high temperature; it is poor in fertility but good for tea, coffee, cashew and rubber.
Do not mix these up
• Black vs red soil — both are Deccan soils, but black soil comes from basalt and holds water; red soil comes from granite and gneiss and drains fast.
• Red vs laterite soil — laterite is formed by leaching and hardens like brick on drying; red soil is not leached to that degree.
Also asked from this topic: the crop most associated with black soil (cotton); the other name of black soil (regur); the state where the black-soil Malwa plateau mainly lies (Madhya Pradesh).
India - Population and Census · Demographic concepts and transition

Q34. India's Median Age as per 2011 was around 24 years. What does this suggest about the population structure?

  1. (a) Aging population
  2. (b) Majority of population is elderly
  3. (c) Young population dominates
  4. (d) Negative population growth
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Young population dominates

Answer: Option 3 — Young population dominates
The median age is the age that splits the population into two equal halves.
A median of only 24 years means half of all Indians were below 24 in 2011 — a young population, the base of India's demographic dividend.
Revision note — Census 2011 and India's age structure
• Census 2011 was the 15th census since 1872 and the 7th after Independence; Census Commissioner C. Chandramouli; motto "Our Census, Our Future".
• Population 121.09 crore; decadal growth 17.7 per cent (2001–2011), the first decade since 1921 in which growth fell in absolute numbers added.
• Density 382 per sq km; sex ratio 943; child sex ratio 918; literacy 74.04 per cent (males 82.14, females 65.46).
• Median age about 24 years in 2011 (about 28–29 years by 2023 estimates); Japan is above 48 and Niger, the youngest country, about 15.
• Demographic dividend — the growth boost when the working-age (15–64) share is large relative to dependants; India's working-age share is above 60 per cent.
• An ageing structure means a rising share of people aged 60 and above — India's was only about 8.6 per cent in 2011 (Kerala the highest).
• Nagaland was the only state with negative decadal growth (−0.58 per cent) in 2011.
Do not mix these up
• Median age vs average (mean) age — the median is the middle value that halves the population; the mean is the arithmetic average and is pulled up by the elderly.
• Young population vs fast growth — a low median age shows a young structure; it does not by itself show the growth rate, which had actually slowed to 17.7 per cent.
Also asked from this topic: India's population density in Census 2011 (382 per sq km); the child sex ratio in 2011 (918); the state with negative growth in 2001–2011 (Nagaland).

Computer (1)

Cyber Security and Viruses · Encryption and authentication

Q35. Which of the following statements accurately describes the core functionality, benefits, and potential risks associated with Virtual Private Networks (VPNs) in the context of cybersecurity and data privacy?

  1. (a) VPNs create a direct physical connection between two networks using dedicated leased lines, ensuring complete immunity from cyberattacks without affecting internet speed or privacy concerns.
  2. (b) VPNs establish encrypted tunnels over public networks to secure data transmission, enable remote access, and mask users' IP addresses, but may pose risks such as data logging by VPN providers and vulnerabilities from weak encryption protocols.
  3. (c) VPN technology primarily functions by replacing users' original IP addresses with randomly generated IPs without encryption, mainly used to bypass geo-restrictions but offering no real privacy or security enhancements.
  4. (d) VPNs use blockchain technology to decentralize data transmission, thereby eliminating the need for encryption and ensuring absolute anonymity on the internet.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) VPNs establish encrypted tunnels over public networks to secure data transmission, enable remote access, and mask users' IP addresses, but may pose risks such as data logging by VPN providers and vulnerabilities from weak encryption protocols.

Answer: Option 2 — VPNs establish encrypted tunnels over public networks to secure data transmission, enable remote access, and mask users' IP addresses, but may pose risks such as data logging by VPN providers and vulnerabilities from weak encryption protocols.
A VPN is virtual — it runs an encrypted tunnel over the public internet, not a private leased line — and it is not a guarantee of anonymity.
The website sees the VPN server's IP, but the VPN provider can still see and log the user's traffic, and an outdated protocol can be broken.
Revision note — Virtual Private Networks
• A VPN client encrypts data before it leaves the device and sends it to a VPN server, which decrypts it and forwards it; this is called tunnelling.
• Two main uses: remote-access VPN (an employee reaching the office network from home) and site-to-site VPN (linking two office networks over the internet).
• Common protocols: OpenVPN, WireGuard, IPsec and IKEv2; the older PPTP is considered insecure and L2TP needs IPsec for encryption.
• Benefits: protection on public Wi-Fi, hiding the user's IP address and location, and bypassing geo-blocking; it does not stop malware or phishing.
• Risks: logging by the provider, DNS leaks, and free VPNs that sell browsing data.
• In April 2022 India's CERT-In directed VPN providers to keep user records for five years; several foreign providers withdrew their Indian servers in protest.
• CERT-In (Indian Computer Emergency Response Team, set up 2004) works under MeitY and is the national nodal agency for cyber incidents.
Do not mix these up
• VPN vs proxy server — a proxy only relays requests and usually does not encrypt them; a VPN encrypts all traffic from the device.
• VPN vs Tor — Tor bounces traffic through volunteer relays for anonymity; a VPN sends it through one provider's server, which must be trusted.

Economics (8)

External Sector and International Economic Organisations · Foreign trade policy and EXIM

Q36. In the context of India's trade and industrial policy in 2025, which of the following best explains the challenges posed by the Inverted Duty Structure (IDS) and the policy measures adopted to mitigate its adverse impact on domestic manufacturing?

  1. (a) IDS occurs when the import duty on finished goods is lower than that on raw materials or intermediate goods, discouraging domestic value addition; to address this, the government has rationalized tariffs and promoted local sourcing under schemes like 'Make in India' and Production Linked Incentives (PLI)
  2. (b) IDS refers to the situation where export duties exceed import duties, encouraging foreign competition at the expense of domestic industries
  3. (c) IDS means that all goods have zero import duties, resulting in complete liberalization of the domestic market without any protective measures
  4. (d) IDS is a pricing strategy used by Indian exporters to undercut global prices, with no relation to tariff structures
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) IDS occurs when the import duty on finished goods is lower than that on raw materials or intermediate goods, discouraging domestic value addition; to address this, the government has rationalized tariffs and promoted local sourcing under schemes like 'Make in India' and Production Linked Incentives (PLI)

Answer: Option 1 — IDS occurs when the import duty on finished goods is lower than that on raw materials or intermediate goods, discouraging domestic value addition; to address this, the government has rationalized tariffs and promoted local sourcing under schemes like 'Make in India' and Production Linked Incentives (PLI)
An inverted duty structure means the input is taxed more than the finished product, so it is cheaper to import the finished good than to make it in India from imported inputs.
The remedy is to cut duties on inputs, rationalise the tariff schedule and make local manufacturing pay through PLI incentives.
Revision note — Inverted duty structure and the policy response
• IDS hurts value addition — a firm importing components at 15 per cent cannot compete with a finished import at 10 per cent; classic cases were textiles, electronics, chemicals and toys.
• Union Budget 2025-26 (1 February 2025) removed seven customs tariff rates, leaving eight (including zero), and exempted basic customs duty on inputs such as critical minerals and EV-battery parts.
• Under GST, IDS builds up unused input tax credit, refundable under Section 54(3) of the CGST Act.
• The 56th GST Council (3 September 2025) corrected inversions in textiles and fertilisers and moved to two main slabs of 5 and 18 per cent from 22 September 2025.
• Make in India was launched on 25 September 2014; the PLI scheme (November 2020) covers 14 sectors with an outlay of about ₹1.97 lakh crore, paid on incremental sales of Indian-made goods.
• A Phased Manufacturing Programme raises duties on finished electronics step by step so that assembly, then components, move to India.
• After the 1991 reforms India's peak customs duty fell from over 200 per cent to about 10 per cent, which is why IDS, rather than high tariffs, is now the main manufacturing complaint.
Do not mix these up
• Inverted duty structure vs tariff escalation — escalation is the normal case, higher duty on the finished good than on inputs; inversion is the reverse.
• Customs duty vs GST inversion — customs IDS is about import tariffs; GST IDS is about the tax rate on inputs exceeding that on output, fixed by refunds or rate changes.
Also asked from this topic: the primary goal of the PLI scheme (to boost domestic manufacturing and attract investment); the number of PLI sectors (14); import tariffs after 1991 (gradually reduced).
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q37. In the context of the 1991 economic reforms in India, which of the following most accurately describes the role played by multilateral institutions like the IMF and the World Bank?

  1. (a) They provided unconditional aid to help India overcome its fiscal crisis.
  2. (b) They enforced a structural adjustment program as a precondition for emergency financial assistance.
  3. (c) They recommended protectionist trade policies and expansion of the public sector.
  4. (d) They assisted India in nationalizing critical sectors and reducing interest rates.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) They enforced a structural adjustment program as a precondition for emergency financial assistance.

Answer: Option 2 — They enforced a structural adjustment program as a precondition for emergency financial assistance.
In 1991 India's foreign exchange had fallen to about two weeks of imports.
The IMF and the World Bank lent about US$7 billion, but on conditions — devaluation, fiscal discipline, delicensing, trade opening and disinvestment.
Those conditions became the New Economic Policy of Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation (LPG); the aid was anything but unconditional.
Revision note — The 1991 crisis and the conditional bailout
• Causes: the Gulf War (1990–91) raised the oil bill and cut Gulf remittances; a large fiscal deficit and a heavy external debt had already weakened the economy.
• Reserves fell to roughly US$1 billion; India had to pledge about 67 tonnes of gold to the Bank of England and the Bank of Japan to raise emergency funds.
• Prime Minister P. V. Narasimha Rao and Finance Minister Dr Manmohan Singh announced the reforms; the New Industrial Policy came on 24 July 1991.
• The rupee was devalued in two steps on 1 and 3 July 1991, by about 18–19 per cent against the dollar.
• Stabilisation measures (short term — fiscal and monetary tightening, devaluation) went with structural reforms (long term — delicensing, trade liberalisation, disinvestment, financial-sector reform).
• The Eighth Five-Year Plan (1992–97) was the first plan launched after structural adjustment began.
Do not mix these up
• IMF vs World Bank — the IMF gives short-term balance of payments support; the World Bank gives long-term development and structural lending. Both attached conditions in 1991.
• Stabilisation vs structural adjustment — stabilisation cures the immediate crisis (deficit, inflation, reserves); structural adjustment changes the rules of the economy (licences, tariffs, public sector).
Also asked from this topic: the institutions whose conditions triggered the 1991 reforms (IMF and World Bank); the reserves position in 1991 (two weeks of imports); the July 1991 devaluation (18–20%).
Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q38. Which of the following best reflects the ideological foundation of India's Second Five Year Plan (1956-1961) and its long-term impact on industrial development?

  1. (a) It focused primarily on agricultural development through capitalist farming, laying the foundation for Green Revolution
  2. (b) It was guided by the Gandhian principles of village self-reliance, promoting cottage industries and decentralised planning.
  3. (c) It adopted the Mahalanobis model, prioritising heavy industrialisation and capital goods, but inadvertently led to neglect of consumer goods and inefficiencies in public sector enterprises.
  4. (d) It pursued liberalisation and trade openness to integrate India with global supply chains, especially in textiles and electronics.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It adopted the Mahalanobis model, prioritising heavy industrialisation and capital goods, but inadvertently led to neglect of consumer goods and inefficiencies in public sector enterprises.

Answer: Option 3 — It adopted the Mahalanobis model, prioritising heavy industrialisation and capital goods, but inadvertently led to neglect of consumer goods and inefficiencies in public sector enterprises.
The Second Plan followed the Nehru–Mahalanobis strategy: build machines that make machines first, and consumer goods will follow.
The long-run cost was a shortage of consumer goods, a licence raj, and loss-making public sector units — the very problems the 1991 reforms set out to fix.
Revision note — The Second Five-Year Plan (1956–61)
• Based on the Mahalanobis model of P. C. Mahalanobis, which gave priority to heavy and basic industries — steel, coal, heavy machinery, power.
• Its policy backbone was the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956, under which the state was to hold the commanding heights of the economy.
• Schedule A of that resolution listed 17 industries reserved for the public sector.
• Three integrated steel plants came up with foreign help: Bhilai (USSR), Rourkela (West Germany) and Durgapur (United Kingdom).
• Target growth rate was 4.5 per cent; the plan achieved about 4.3 per cent but heavy machinery imports caused the foreign exchange crisis of 1957–58.
• Consumer goods were left to the small-scale and cottage sector, so shortages and queues became normal; agriculture received a lower share of outlay than in the First Plan.
• Criticism: import substitution behind high tariffs, a licensing system that bred inefficiency, and public enterprises that could not earn a surplus to finance further investment.
Do not mix these up
• Harrod–Domar model vs Mahalanobis model — the First Plan (1951–56) used Harrod–Domar and stressed agriculture and irrigation; the Second Plan used Mahalanobis and stressed heavy industry.
• Second Plan vs Third Plan — the Third Plan (1961–66), the Gadgil Yojana, aimed at a self-reliant and self-generating economy and was derailed by the 1962 and 1965 wars and drought.
Also asked from this topic: the plan that focused on heavy industries (Second); the steel plant set up in the Second Plan (Rourkela, not Bokaro); the cause of the 1957–58 forex crisis (heavy imports).
Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q39. Which of the following best describes the Mahalanobis Model adopted during the Second Five Year Plan?

  1. (a) Focused primarily on agriculture-led development
  2. (b) Emphasized foreign capital-intensive growth in services
  3. (c) Prioritized heavy industry and capital goods sector through state investment
  4. (d) Promoted private sector dominance in consumer goods
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Prioritized heavy industry and capital goods sector through state investment

Answer: Option 3 — Prioritized heavy industry and capital goods sector through state investment
The Mahalanobis model argued that a poor country grows fastest by putting its scarce investment into the capital-goods sector — steel, machines, power — owned and run by the state.
Once the capacity to make machines exists, the output of consumer goods can be raised later.
Revision note — The Mahalanobis model
• Devised by Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis (1893–1972), founder of the Indian Statistical Institute, Kolkata (1931) and of the National Sample Survey (1950).
• His birthday, 29 June, is observed as National Statistics Day.
• It is a two-sector model — the capital-goods (investment) sector and the consumer-goods sector — later expanded to a four-sector version; it resembles the Soviet Feldman model.
• The key choice was the share of investment going to capital goods; a higher share meant slower consumption growth now but faster growth later.
• Heavy industry was to be built by the public sector, as laid down in the Industrial Policy Resolution, 1956; the private sector was confined mainly to consumer goods.
• The model justified import substitution — making machinery at home rather than importing it — and the licensing of private industry.
• Its critics (the Vakil–Brahmananda wage-goods model) argued that India should first produce wage goods like food and cloth to employ its surplus labour.
Do not mix these up
• Mahalanobis model vs Harrod–Domar model — Harrod–Domar (First Plan) links growth to the savings rate and capital–output ratio; Mahalanobis (Second Plan) decides how to split investment between sectors.
• Mahalanobis vs Vakil–Brahmananda — Mahalanobis puts capital goods first; Vakil and Brahmananda put wage goods first.
Also asked from this topic: the economist on whose ideas the Second Plan was based (P. C. Mahalanobis); the model of the First Plan (Harrod–Domar); the year the Second Plan ended (1961).
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Union Budget - latest highlights

Q40. As per the Union Budget 2025-26, what is India's fiscal deficit target (as % of GDP) for FY 2025-26?

  1. (a) 2.50%
  2. (b) 4.40%
  3. (c) 6.50%
  4. (d) 3.10%
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 4.40%

Answer: Option 2 — 4.40%
The Union Budget 2025-26, presented by Nirmala Sitharaman on 1 February 2025, set the fiscal deficit at 4.4 per cent of GDP for 2025-26, down from 4.8 per cent (revised estimate) in 2024-25.
Revision note — Fiscal deficit and the Budget 2025-26
• Fiscal deficit = total expenditure − total receipts excluding borrowings; it is the amount the government must borrow in the year.
• Revenue deficit = revenue expenditure − revenue receipts; primary deficit = fiscal deficit − interest payments.
• Path of the Centre's fiscal deficit: 9.2 per cent in 2020-21 (pandemic peak), 6.4 per cent in 2022-23, 5.6 per cent in 2023-24, 4.8 per cent in 2024-25 (RE), 4.4 per cent in 2025-26 (BE).
• From 2026-27 the Centre will steer by a debt-to-GDP anchor — about 50 per cent (±1) by 31 March 2031 — instead of a fixed deficit number.
• The FRBM Act 2003 set a fiscal-deficit ceiling of 3 per cent of GDP for the Centre and required the revenue deficit to be eliminated.
• Budget 2025-26 was Sitharaman's 8th consecutive budget; it made income up to ₹12 lakh tax-free under the new regime and put total expenditure at about ₹50.65 lakh crore.
Do not mix these up
• Fiscal deficit vs revenue deficit — the fiscal deficit counts all spending, including capital; the revenue deficit covers only day-to-day (revenue) spending.
• Fiscal deficit vs primary deficit — the primary deficit strips out interest on past borrowing, so it shows the deficit created by this year's decisions alone.
Also asked from this topic: the fiscal deficit target for FY 2025-26 (4.4 per cent of GDP); the FRBM ceiling on the Centre's fiscal deficit (3 per cent of GDP).
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Global indices - publishers and methodology

Q41. The main factors considered in the UN's Happiness Index include all EXCEPT:

  1. (a) GDP per capita
  2. (b) Political stability
  3. (c) Social support
  4. (d) Healthy life expectancy
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Political stability

Answer: Option 2 — Political stability
The World Happiness Report explains a country's score with six variables — GDP per capita, social support, healthy life expectancy, freedom to make life choices, generosity and perceptions of corruption.
Political stability is not one of them.
Revision note — World Happiness Report
• Published every year since 2012 by the UN Sustainable Development Solutions Network (SDSN) with Gallup and, since 2024, the Wellbeing Research Centre, University of Oxford — not by the UNDP.
• Released around 20 March, the International Day of Happiness, declared by the UN General Assembly in 2012.
• The score itself comes from the Cantril ladder question in the Gallup World Poll — people rate their life from 0 to 10; the six variables only explain the differences between countries.
• Finland has been ranked first every year since 2018 — eight years running to 2025; Nordic countries fill the top places.
• Afghanistan was last in 2024 (143rd) and again in 2025 (147th).
• India ranked 126th in 2024 and 118th of 147 in 2025, behind Nepal and Pakistan but ahead of Sri Lanka and Bangladesh.
Do not mix these up
• World Happiness Report vs Human Development Index — the HDI is the UNDP's measure of income, education and life expectancy; the Happiness Report comes from the SDSN.
• Freedom to make life choices vs political freedom — the report measures people's sense of control over their own lives, not the political system.
Also asked from this topic: the number of key variables in the World Happiness Index (6); the body that publishes it (UN SDSN, not UNDP); the least happy country in the 2024 report (Afghanistan).
Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q42. Who was the Prime Minister during most of India's significant early Five Year Plans (1951-1964)?

  1. (a) Morarji Desai
  2. (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
  3. (c) Indira Gandhi
  4. (d) Lal Bahadur Shastri
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Jawaharlal Nehru

Answer: Option 2 — Jawaharlal Nehru
Jawaharlal Nehru was Prime Minister from 15 August 1947 until his death on 27 May 1964, so the First, Second and most of the Third Five Year Plans ran under him.
As Prime Minister he was also the ex-officio Chairman of the Planning Commission.
Revision note — The Nehru-era Five Year Plans
• The Planning Commission was set up by a Cabinet resolution on 15 March 1950; the National Development Council followed on 6 August 1952. It was replaced by NITI Aayog on 1 January 2015.
• First Plan (1951-56): based on the Harrod-Domar model, priority to agriculture, irrigation and power; growth target 2.1 per cent, achieved 3.6 per cent.
• Second Plan (1956-61): the Mahalanobis model, rapid industrialisation through heavy and basic industries.
• The Second Plan rested on the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 and the goal of a socialist pattern of society adopted at the Avadi session of 1955.
• Third Plan (1961-66): aimed at a self-reliant and self-generating economy; derailed by the 1962 China war, the 1965 Pakistan war and drought, leading to the Plan Holiday of 1966-69.
• Lal Bahadur Shastri was Prime Minister from June 1964 to January 1966, and Indira Gandhi took over in 1966.
• Morarji Desai was Prime Minister only in 1977-79, when the Janata government replaced the Sixth Plan with the Rolling Plan.
Do not mix these up
• Planning Commission vs National Development Council — the Commission drafted the plans (1950); the NDC, with Chief Ministers, approved them (1952).
• Planning Commission vs NITI Aayog — the Commission allocated funds and made five-year plans; NITI Aayog (2015) is a think tank with no fund-allocation power.
Also asked from this topic: the main focus of the First Five Year Plan (agriculture); the growth model behind the First Plan (Harrod-Domar); the year the Planning Commission was set up (1950).
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q43. Under the 1991 Trade and Investment Policy reforms, dismantling the regime of quantitative restrictions on imports and reducing very high tariffs was a mechanism of:

  1. (a) Nationalisation
  2. (b) Privatisation
  3. (c) Liberalisation
  4. (d) Centralisation
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Liberalisation

Answer: Option 3 — Liberalisation
Removing quantitative restrictions, cutting tariffs and abolishing import licensing loosened government controls on trade — that is liberalisation.
The NCERT lists trade and investment policy reforms as one of the five areas of liberalisation under the New Economic Policy of 1991.
Revision note — Liberalisation under the 1991 reforms
• Five areas of liberalisation: industrial sector, financial sector, tax reforms, foreign exchange reforms, and trade and investment policy reforms.
• Trade policy: quantitative restrictions on imports and exports were dismantled, tariff rates reduced, and import licensing abolished except for hazardous and environmentally sensitive items.
• Quantitative restrictions on manufactured consumer goods and agricultural products were fully removed from April 2001; export duties were removed to make Indian goods competitive.
• Industrial licensing was abolished for all but a few industries — alcohol, cigarettes, hazardous chemicals, industrial explosives, electronics, aerospace and defence equipment, and drugs and pharmaceuticals. The New Industrial Policy (24 July 1991) also gave automatic approval to foreign equity up to 51 per cent in high-priority industries.
• Foreign exchange: the rupee was devalued in July 1991; the exchange rate was later left to the market.
• Financial sector: the RBI's role shifted from regulator to facilitator, and foreign institutional investors (FIIs) were allowed to invest in Indian financial markets.
• The reforms were announced by Finance Minister Dr Manmohan Singh under Prime Minister P.V. Narasimha Rao, after a balance of payments crisis left reserves for barely two weeks of imports.
Do not mix these up
• Liberalisation vs globalisation — liberalisation removes internal controls such as licences, quotas and tariffs; globalisation is the integration of the Indian economy with the world economy.
• Privatisation vs disinvestment — privatisation transfers ownership or management of a public enterprise; disinvestment is the sale of a part of the government's equity.
Also asked from this topic: the measure that best shows 1991 trade liberalisation (abolishing import licensing for most goods); the growth strategy after the LPG reforms (export-led growth).

Physics (2)

Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Current · Electromagnetic induction and Faraday's laws

Q44. What principle underlies the working of transformers, electric generators, and inductive charging systems?

  1. (a) Ohm's Law
  2. (b) Joule's Law
  3. (c) Faraday's Law of Electromagnetic Induction
  4. (d) Newton's Third Law
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Faraday's Law of Electromagnetic Induction

Answer: Option 3 — Faraday's Law of Electromagnetic Induction
A transformer, a generator and a wireless charging pad all work the same way: a changing magnetic flux through a coil induces an EMF in it.
Ohm's law relates V, I and R, and Joule's law gives the heat produced — neither creates a current from a magnetic field.
Revision note — Electromagnetic induction
• Discovered by Michael Faraday in 1831: whenever the magnetic flux linked with a closed circuit changes, an induced EMF appears, equal to the rate of change of flux (EMF = −N × ΔΦ/Δt).
• Lenz's law supplies the minus sign — the induced current always opposes the change that produced it, a consequence of conservation of energy.
• A transformer works on mutual induction between a primary and a secondary coil, so it works only on AC, never on steady DC.
• An electric generator converts mechanical energy into electrical energy; the direction of the induced current is given by Fleming's right-hand rule.
• An AC generator collects current through slip rings; a DC generator uses a split-ring commutator.
• Inductive (wireless) charging uses mutual induction between a coil in the pad and a coil in the phone; an induction cooktop heats the vessel by eddy currents.
• SI unit of magnetic flux is the weber (Wb); of inductance the henry (H).
Do not mix these up
• Fleming's right-hand rule vs left-hand rule — the right hand is for the generator (induced current); the left hand is for the motor (force on a conductor).
• Faraday's laws of induction vs Faraday's laws of electrolysis — the same scientist, but the electrolysis laws deal with mass deposited at an electrode, not with induced EMF.
Also asked from this topic: the direction of an induced current by Lenz's law (opposes the change in flux); the EMF in a rod moving across a field (BLv); the collector of an AC generator (slip rings).
Heat and Thermodynamics · Conduction, convection and radiation

Q45. A perfect blackbody in thermal equilibrium:

  1. (a) Reflects all radiation and emits none.
  2. (b) Emits radiation only in the infrared spectrum.
  3. (c) Absorbs all incident electromagnetic radiation and emits radiation characteristic of its temperature.
  4. (d) Emits energy independent of its temperature.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Absorbs all incident electromagnetic radiation and emits radiation characteristic of its temperature.

Answer: Option 3 — Absorbs all incident electromagnetic radiation and emits radiation characteristic of its temperature.
A black body is defined as a perfect absorber (absorptivity = 1) and, by Kirchhoff's law, it is therefore also a perfect emitter.
What it emits depends only on its temperature — hotter bodies radiate more, and at shorter wavelengths.
Revision note — Black-body radiation
• The term was coined by Gustav Kirchhoff in 1860. In practice a cavity with a small hole behaves as a black body; lamp black and platinum black come close.
• Kirchhoff's law: a good absorber is a good emitter — at a given temperature, emissivity equals absorptivity.
• Stefan–Boltzmann law: energy radiated per unit area per second E = σT⁴, with σ = 5.67 × 10⁻⁸ W m⁻² K⁻⁴. Doubling the absolute temperature raises the radiation 16 times.
• Wien's displacement law: the wavelength of peak emission falls as temperature rises, λ_max × T = 2.9 × 10⁻³ m K.
• This is why a heated iron glows red, then yellow, then white, and why blue stars are hotter than red stars.
• Planck's law (1900) explained the whole spectrum by assuming energy is emitted in packets (quanta) — the birth of quantum theory; classical physics had predicted the ultraviolet catastrophe.
• The Sun radiates almost as a black body at about 5,800 K, peaking near 500 nm in the visible range.
Do not mix these up
• Black body vs black object — a black body absorbs and emits perfectly; an ordinary black surface merely absorbs most visible light.
• Stefan's law vs Wien's law — Stefan gives how much is radiated (∝ T⁴); Wien gives at which wavelength the emission peaks (∝ 1/T).
Also asked from this topic: the law that explains the colours of stars from their temperature (Wien's displacement law); the value of the Stefan–Boltzmann constant (5.67 × 10⁻⁸ W m⁻² K⁻⁴).

Biology (1)

Control and Coordination · Endocrine glands and hormones

Q46. Which hormone is most directly associated with the regulation of mood and emotional balance?

  1. (a) Adrenaline
  2. (b) Thyroxine
  3. (c) Serotonin
  4. (d) Oxytocin
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Serotonin

Answer: Option 3 — Serotonin
Serotonin is the chemical messenger that steadies mood, sleep and appetite; low levels are linked with depression and anxiety, which is why it is called the "feel-good" or "happy" hormone.
Adrenaline, thyroxine and oxytocin each have another primary job.
Revision note — Hormones that affect mood and stress
• Serotonin is made from the amino acid tryptophan; about 90 per cent of the body's serotonin is in the gut, the rest in the brain (raphe nuclei).
• Common anti-depressants (SSRIs) work by keeping more serotonin active at the synapse.
• Dopamine — the reward and motivation messenger; its loss in the brain causes Parkinson's disease.
• Melatonin — the sleep hormone from the pineal gland, released in darkness.
• Cortisol — the stress hormone from the adrenal cortex; adrenaline (epinephrine) from the adrenal medulla is the emergency or fight-or-flight hormone that raises heart rate and blood sugar.
• Thyroxine from the thyroid controls the metabolic rate; it needs iodine, and its shortage causes goitre.
• Oxytocin — the "love" or bonding hormone, released by the posterior pituitary; it triggers uterine contractions in childbirth and milk ejection.
• Endorphins are the body's natural pain-killers, released during exercise — the "runner's high".
Do not mix these up
• Serotonin vs dopamine — serotonin steadies mood; dopamine drives reward and pleasure-seeking.
• Adrenaline vs cortisol — both are adrenal stress hormones, but adrenaline (medulla) acts in seconds and cortisol (cortex) in hours.
• Oxytocin vs vasopressin — both come from the posterior pituitary, but vasopressin (ADH) controls water balance, not bonding.
Also asked from this topic: the gland that secretes adrenaline (adrenal gland); the element the thyroid needs to make thyroxine (iodine); the gland that secretes growth hormone (pituitary).

Current Affairs (1)

Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q47. Which country ranked as the most polluted in the World Air Quality Report 2025?

  1. (a) Bangladesh
  2. (b) China
  3. (c) India
  4. (d) Pakistan
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Pakistan

Answer: Option 4 — Pakistan
IQAir's World Air Quality Report 2025, released on 24 March 2026, ranked Pakistan the most polluted country with an annual PM2.5 average of 67.3 µg/m³.
Bangladesh (66.1) was second and India stood sixth (48.9 µg/m³).
Revision note — IQAir World Air Quality Report 2025
• Published by the Swiss firm IQAir; it ranks countries by annual average PM2.5 concentration. The WHO guideline is 5 µg/m³.
• Top five, 2025: Pakistan (67.3), Bangladesh (66.1), Tajikistan (57.3), Chad (53.6), DR Congo (50.2); India was 6th (48.9).
• The world's most polluted city in 2025 was Loni (Ghaziabad, Uttar Pradesh) at 112.5 µg/m³; all 25 most polluted cities were in India, Pakistan and China.
• The report covered 9,446 cities in 143 countries and territories.
• Only 14 per cent of cities and 13 countries (among them Australia, Iceland and Estonia) met the WHO guideline, down from 17 per cent a year earlier.
• Previous edition (2024 report, March 2025): Chad first, Bangladesh second, Pakistan third, DR Congo fourth, India fifth; Byrnihat (Meghalaya) was the most polluted city.
• 2023 report (March 2024): Bangladesh first, Pakistan second, India third; Begusarai (Bihar) the most polluted city and New Delhi the most polluted capital.
Do not mix these up
• Report year vs release year — the '2025 report' covers 2025 data and came out in March 2026; the '2024 report' came out in March 2025.
• Country rank vs city rank — India is not the most polluted country, but it usually hosts the most polluted cities (Loni in 2025, Byrnihat in 2024, Begusarai in 2023).
Also asked from this topic: Pakistan's rank in the World Air Quality Report 2024 (3rd); India's rank in the 2024 report (5th); the most polluted city in the 2024 report (Byrnihat, Meghalaya).
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