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SSC Stenographer 2026 11 September 2026 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 45 GK / GS questions asked in SSC Stenographer 2026 on 11 September 2026 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Modern History, Static GK, Ancient History, Polity, Economics, Physics.

📚 45 questions🗓️ 11 September 2026⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Modern History (2) · Static GK (14) · Ancient History (1) · Polity (6) · Economics (8) · Physics (4) · Geography (5) · Biology (2) · Computer (1) · Chemistry (1) · Current Affairs (1)

Modern History (2)

Advent of Europeans and British Expansion · Subsidiary Alliance and Doctrine of Lapse

Q1. Why was the Doctrine of Lapse so deeply resented among Indian rulers?

  1. (a) It required rulers to convert to Christianity
  2. (b) It forced Indian states to abolish zamindari
  3. (c) It denied adopted heirs the right to succeed, undermining traditional succession
  4. (d) It imposed direct military rule on all states
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It denied adopted heirs the right to succeed, undermining traditional succession

Answer: Option 3 — It denied adopted heirs the right to succeed, undermining traditional succession
Under the Doctrine of Lapse, a dependent state whose ruler died without a natural male heir passed to the Company.
Adoption had always been a lawful way of securing an heir in Hindu custom, so rulers saw the doctrine as an attack on their very right to a successor.
Revision note — The Doctrine of Lapse
• Applied vigorously by Lord Dalhousie, Governor-General 1848–56; adoption needed the Company's sanction, which was refused to dependent states.
• States annexed under it: Satara (1848), Jaitpur and Sambalpur (1849), Udaipur (1852), Jhansi (1853) and Nagpur (1854).
• Jhansi was taken when Raja Gangadhar Rao's adopted son Damodar Rao was not recognised — the grievance that brought Rani Lakshmibai into the Revolt of 1857.
• Awadh (1856) was annexed on the plea of misgovernment, not lapse; Nana Saheb lost his pension because adoption was not recognised for the Peshwa's line.
• Dalhousie's other annexation, Punjab (1849), came by conquest after the Second Anglo-Sikh War; Lower Burma (Pegu) was annexed in 1852.
• The doctrine was formally abandoned in the Queen's Proclamation of 1858, which promised to respect the rights of Indian princes, including adoption.
Do not mix these up
• Subsidiary Alliance vs Doctrine of Lapse — the Alliance (Wellesley, 1798) took away a state's army and foreign policy;
the Doctrine (Dalhousie) took away the state itself when the ruler had no natural heir.
• Jhansi vs Awadh — Jhansi went by lapse (no natural heir); Awadh went by the charge of misgovernment.
Also asked from this topic: the Governor-General who devised the Doctrine of Lapse (Lord Dalhousie); the first state annexed under it (Satara, 1848).
Advent of Europeans and British Expansion · Subsidiary Alliance and Doctrine of Lapse

Q2. Which of the following statements correctly describes a defining characteristic of Lord Wellesley's Subsidiary Alliance policy?

  1. (a) It aimed at annexing Indian states if their rulers died without a natural male heir.
  2. (b) It allowed Indian rulers to independently negotiate with other foreign powers.
  3. (c) It compelled Indian rulers to disband their own armed forces and accept a permanent British contingent.
  4. (d) It exclusively focused on increasing British revenue collection through direct taxation.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It compelled Indian rulers to disband their own armed forces and accept a permanent British contingent.

Answer: Option 3 — It compelled Indian rulers to disband their own armed forces and accept a permanent British contingent.
Under the Subsidiary Alliance an Indian ruler had to keep a British force permanently in his territory, pay for it (or cede land instead) and give up his own independent army.
Annexation on the death of a ruler without a natural heir is the Doctrine of Lapse of Dalhousie, not Wellesley.
Revision note — The Subsidiary Alliance system
• Introduced by Lord Wellesley, Governor-General 1798 to 1805; the idea was first used in India by the French governor Dupleix.
• Terms: a British force stationed in the state at the state's cost; a British Resident at the court; no other Europeans employed without British consent.
• The ruler could not negotiate with any other power without British approval; in return the Company promised protection from external attack.
• First to sign: the Nizam of Hyderabad, 1798; then Mysore (1799), Tanjore (1799), Awadh (1801).
• The Peshwa signed by the Treaty of Bassein (1802); the Bhonsle and Scindia followed in 1803.
• The Nawab of Awadh had to cede half his territory (Rohilkhand and the lower Doab) in 1801 to pay for the force.
• The states lost their foreign policy and military strength, while the Company got an army paid for by Indian treasuries.
• Later British policies: Paramountcy (Lord Hastings), Doctrine of Lapse (Dalhousie — Satara 1848, Jhansi 1853, Nagpur 1854).
Do not mix these up
• Subsidiary Alliance vs Doctrine of Lapse — the Alliance controlled a state through a paid British force; Lapse annexed a state when the ruler died without a natural heir.
• Ring-fence policy vs Subsidiary Alliance — Warren Hastings' ring fence used neighbouring states as buffer states; Wellesley's alliance placed British troops inside the state.
Also asked from this topic: the first ruler to sign a Subsidiary Alliance (Nizam of Hyderabad, 1798); who ceded half his territory in 1801 (Nawab of Awadh); who devised the Doctrine of Lapse (Dalhousie).

Static GK (14)

Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q3. What common literary strategy is used in works like Tamas (Bhisham Sahni), Train to Pakistan (Khushwant Singh), and Basti (Intizar Hussain) to depict the Partition?

  1. (a) Direct historical narrative from political leaders
  2. (b) Use of mythological allegory
  3. (c) Ground-level human narratives filled with moral ambiguity and trauma
  4. (d) Focus on celebratory nationalism
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ground-level human narratives filled with moral ambiguity and trauma

Answer: Option 3 — Ground-level human narratives filled with moral ambiguity and trauma
All three novels leave out the leaders and the negotiations and follow ordinary people — a village, a town, a family — through the violence of 1947.
None of them celebrates independence; they show neighbours turning on neighbours, with no side wholly innocent.
Revision note — Partition literature
• Tamas (Hindi, 1974) by Bhisham Sahni — riots in a small Punjab town; won the Sahitya Akademi Award (1975) and was filmed for television by Govind Nihalani (1988).
• Train to Pakistan (English, 1956) by Khushwant Singh — set in the border village of Mano Majra, where a train of corpses breaks the peace between Sikhs and Muslims.
• Basti (Urdu, 1979) by Intizar Hussain, a Pakistani writer born in Uttar Pradesh who migrated in 1947; it moves between memories of the old town and the war of 1971.
• Other Partition classics: Toba Tek Singh (short story, Saadat Hasan Manto), Pinjar (Amrita Pritam, 1950), Jhootha Sach (Yashpal).
• In English: Ice-Candy-Man (Bapsi Sidhwa), Midnight's Children (Salman Rushdie), Clear Light of Day (Anita Desai).
• Khushwant Singh's other well-known works: Delhi: A Novel, A History of the Sikhs, The Company of Women, Truth, Love and a Little Malice (autobiography).
Also asked from this topic: the author of Train to Pakistan (Khushwant Singh); the author of Tamas (Bhisham Sahni); the author of Delhi: A Novel (Khushwant Singh).
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Folk theatre forms by state

Q4. Which of the following elements of Yakshagana most accurately distinguishes it from other Indian folk-theatre traditions such as Therukoothu (Tamil Nadu) and Jatra (Bengal) in terms of structure, performance dynamics, and cultural synthesis?

  1. (a) Use of spontaneous dialogues and comic interludes by clown figures to engage rural audiences.
  2. (b) Integration of classical Carnatic music with Sanskrit shlokas in a rigidly scripted format.
  3. (c) Unique combination of dance-drama, improvised dialogues, live music, and distinctive make-up and costumes, performed overnight in open-air settings with a dual structure of Himmela (musicians) and Mummela (actors).
  4. (d) Reliance on fixed mythological scripts with minimal improvisation and emphasis on devotional songs without dance.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Unique combination of dance-drama, improvised dialogues, live music, and distinctive make-up and costumes, performed overnight in open-air settings with a dual structure of Himmela (musicians) and Mummela (actors).

Answer: Option 3 — Unique combination of dance-drama, improvised dialogues, live music, and distinctive make-up and costumes, performed overnight in open-air settings with a dual structure of Himmela (musicians) and Mummela (actors).
Yakshagana is a dance-drama in which the actors improvise their own dialogue around a sung story, so dance, speech, music and costume all work together.
The Himmela–Mummela division — a musicians' group behind and a dancers' group in front — is the structural signature no other folk theatre shares.
Revision note — Yakshagana
• A traditional theatre of coastal Karnataka — Udupi, Dakshina Kannada, Uttara Kannada and Shivamogga districts — with a history of about 400 years; the name means "song of the Yakshas".
• Himmela (background) = the Bhagavata, who sings the story and directs the play, with chande (drum), maddale and harmonium; Mummela (foreground) = the dancer-actors.
• Stories come from the Ramayana, Mahabharata and Puranas; the sung text is the prasanga, and the actors improvise prose dialogue on it.
• Performed traditionally from dusk to dawn in open fields after the harvest; the two regional styles are Badagutittu (northern) and Tenkutittu (southern).
• Famous for towering head-dresses (kirita), painted faces and bright costumes; Dr K. Shivaram Karanth (Jnanpith winner) reformed and popularised the form in the 20th century.
• The Yakshagana puppet theatre (string puppets) of the same region uses the same music and costume.
Do not mix these up
• Yakshagana vs Therukoothu — both are all-night open-air epics, but Therukoothu is the street theatre of Tamil Nadu and lacks the Himmela–Mummela split.
• Yakshagana vs Jatra — Jatra is the travelling folk theatre of Bengal, which grew out of Chaitanya's bhakti movement and relies more on spoken melodrama than on dance.
Also asked from this topic: the state of origin of Yakshagana (Karnataka); the state of the night-time street theatre Theru Koothu (Tamil Nadu); the folk theatre of Maharashtra (Tamasha).
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q5. What is the main focus of the Kanuma festival?

  1. (a) Worshipping rivers
  2. (b) Honoring livestock, especially cattle
  3. (c) Celebrating harvest
  4. (d) Lighting lamps
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Honoring livestock, especially cattle

Answer: Option 2 — Honoring livestock, especially cattle
Kanuma is the third day of the Sankranti festival in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana, kept for the cattle that make farming possible.
Bulls and cows are bathed, their horns painted and decorated, and they are fed and worshipped — the harvest itself is the theme of the other days, not this one.
Revision note — Sankranti in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana
• A four-day festival in mid-January: Bhogi (day 1), Makara Sankranti (day 2), Kanuma (day 3) and Mukkanuma (day 4).
• Bhogi: old things are burnt in a bonfire at dawn; children are showered with Bhogi pallu (berries).
• Makara Sankranti: the Sun enters Makara (Capricorn); homes are decorated with muggu (rangoli) and gobbemmalu (cow-dung balls); the Haridasu goes singing from door to door.
• Kanuma: cattle worship, linked to Krishna lifting Govardhan hill to shelter the cowherds; kite flying and cock-fights are the folk pastimes.
• Mukkanuma: relatives feast together — a day associated with non-vegetarian food in the countryside.
• The same cattle day is Mattu Pongal in Tamil Nadu (third day of Pongal, with Jallikattu) and is echoed by Govardhan Puja in north India.
Do not mix these up
• Kanuma vs Mattu Pongal — the same idea, cattle worship on the third day; Kanuma is Telugu, Mattu Pongal is Tamil.
• Bhogi vs Kanuma — Bhogi is the bonfire day that opens the festival; Kanuma is the cattle day that follows Sankranti.
Also asked from this topic: the cultural significance of the Kanuma festival (honouring cattle used in agriculture); the four-day harvest festival of Andhra and Telangana with the Bhogi bonfire (Sankranti).
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Fairs and melas

Q6. The Kumbh Mela rotates among four locations. Which of the following is not one of them?

  1. (a) Haridwar
  2. (b) Prayagraj
  3. (c) Varanasi
  4. (d) Nashik
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Varanasi

Answer: Option 3 — Varanasi
The Kumbh Mela is held at Haridwar, Prayagraj, Nashik and Ujjain — the four places where drops of amrit fell during the Samudra Manthan.
Varanasi, though the holiest city on the Ganga, has never been a Kumbh venue.
Revision note — The Kumbh Mela
• The four venues and their rivers: Haridwar — Ganga; Prayagraj — Sangam of Ganga, Yamuna and the mythical Saraswati; Nashik (Trimbakeshwar) — Godavari; Ujjain — Shipra.
• The Purna Kumbh returns to each site every 12 years; the Ardh Kumbh is held every 6 years at Haridwar and Prayagraj only.
• The Maha Kumbh at Prayagraj comes after 12 Purna Kumbhs, i.e. once in 144 years.
• At Nashik and Ujjain the fair is also called Simhastha, because it falls when Jupiter is in Leo (Simha).
• The dates are fixed by the positions of Jupiter, the Sun and the Moon; the great bathing days are Makar Sankranti, Mauni Amavasya and Basant Panchami.
• Inscribed on UNESCO's list of Intangible Cultural Heritage of Humanity in 2017; the Maha Kumbh 2025 was held at Prayagraj (13 January – 26 February 2025).
• The Akharas — orders of sadhus — lead the Shahi Snan (royal bath) on the main days.
Do not mix these up
• Ardh Kumbh vs Purna Kumbh — Ardh is the six-year fair, held only at Haridwar and Prayagraj; Purna is the twelve-year fair at all four venues.
• Prayagraj vs Varanasi — both are on the Ganga in Uttar Pradesh, but only Prayagraj, at the Sangam, hosts the Kumbh.
Also asked from this topic: the city that is not a traditional Kumbh location (Varanasi); the interval of the Kumbh at Prayagraj (12 years); the divine substance whose drops fell at the four sites (amrit).
Music and Musical Instruments · Folk music and songs by state

Q7. How do Bhopa and Bhopa-Bhopi songs function as a unique oral tradition of ritualistic storytelling in Rajasthan, and what distinguishes their performance style from other folk music genres in the region?

  1. (a) By relying primarily on written scripts and formal theatrical staging
  2. (b) By combining music, narration, and visual aids (such as painted scrolls) to narrate epic tales of local deities and heroes in a ritual context, performed by a duo where the Bhopa sings and the Bhopi assists, thus blending devotion, entertainment, and community memory
  3. (c) By focusing solely on dance without any narrative or musical components
  4. (d) By performing exclusively at urban music festivals without any ritual significance
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) By combining music, narration, and visual aids (such as painted scrolls) to narrate epic tales of local deities and heroes in a ritual context, performed by a duo where the Bhopa sings and the Bhopi assists, thus blending devotion, entertainment, and community memory

Answer: Option 2 — By combining music, narration, and visual aids (such as painted scrolls) to narrate epic tales of local deities and heroes in a ritual context, performed by a duo where the Bhopa sings and the Bhopi assists, thus blending devotion, entertainment, and community memory
The Bhopa is a priest-singer who performs the epic of a folk deity in front of a painted scroll, the Phad, which serves as a portable temple.
His wife, the Bhopi, holds a lamp to light the part of the scroll being sung and joins in the refrain — the performance is a ritual, not a stage show.
Revision note — Bhopa, Phad and the folk epics of Rajasthan
• The Bhopas are hereditary priest-singers of the Nayak (Bhil) community; the best-known epics they sing are Pabuji ki Phad and Devnarayan ki Phad.
• Pabuji is a 14th-century Rathore folk hero worshipped by camel-herders; Devnarayan is a Gurjar hero-deity; the Devnarayan Phad is the larger scroll (about 9 m × 1.5 m).
• The Bhopa plays the ravanhatta, a bowed string instrument with a coconut-shell resonator, while singing and dancing before the scroll.
• The Phad scroll is painted on cloth by the Joshi family of Shahpura (Bhilwara); a worn scroll is retired by immersion in a lake, never thrown away.
• Performances run through the night at the request of a family that wants the deity's blessing, so the songs preserve community memory as well as devotion.
• Other Rajasthani folk-music traditions: Manganiyar and Langa (Jaisalmer–Barmer, court and patron songs), Maand, Panihari and Kalbelia (snake-charmer community, UNESCO 2010).
Do not mix these up
• Bhopa vs Manganiyar — the Bhopa is a ritual priest-singer of a folk deity with a scroll; the Manganiyars and Langas are hereditary professional musicians of patrons.
• Phad vs Pichwai — Phad is the Bhopa's narrative scroll from Bhilwara; Pichwai is the temple hanging of Nathdwara behind the image of Shrinathji.
Also asked from this topic: the state to which the Bhopa folk music belongs (Rajasthan); the state associated with Phad painting (Rajasthan).
Music and Musical Instruments · Devotional and semi-classical song forms

Q8. In the context of Assam's cultural landscape, how do Zikir and Zari music traditions uniquely contribute to the region's religious pluralism and syncretism?

  1. (a) By strictly adhering to orthodox Islamic musical practices without incorporating local elements
  2. (b) By blending Assamese linguistic and musical styles with Islamic devotional themes, fostering communal harmony and reflecting Assam's inclusive spiritual heritage
  3. (c) By rejecting all forms of indigenous Assamese instruments in favor of imported Middle Eastern instruments exclusively
  4. (d) By being confined only to mosque rituals without any public or cultural presence
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) By blending Assamese linguistic and musical styles with Islamic devotional themes, fostering communal harmony and reflecting Assam's inclusive spiritual heritage

Answer: Option 2 — By blending Assamese linguistic and musical styles with Islamic devotional themes, fostering communal harmony and reflecting Assam's inclusive spiritual heritage
Zikir and Zari are Islamic devotional songs composed in Assamese, set to the rhythms and instruments of Assamese folk music.
They were written to reach ordinary Assamese villagers, Hindu and Muslim alike, and preach the oneness of God and of humanity — hence their place in Assam's syncretic tradition.
Revision note — Zikir, Zari and Ajan Fakir
• Composed by Ajan Fakir (Shah Miran), a 17th-century Sufi saint who came from Baghdad and settled at Saraguri Chapori in Sivasagar district; his dargah is a shrine visited by people of all faiths.
• Zikir (from Arabic dhikr, "remembrance") are songs in praise of God and the Prophet; Zari (from Persian, "weeping") are laments recalling the tragedy of Karbala.
• Ajan Fakir was a contemporary and friend of the Ahom court; the songs borrow the style of Srimanta Sankardeva's Borgeet and use the khol, taal and dotara of Assamese folk music.
• The songs are performed in Assamese, sung in chorus with clapping, at mosques, festivals and community gatherings — a public, not a private, tradition.
• Assam's other great song forms: Bihu geet, Borgeet (Sankardeva and Madhavdeva), Bon geet, Biyanaam (wedding songs) and Nichukoni geet (lullabies).
• The same syncretism is seen in Sankardeva's Ekasarana Dharma and the Satra institutions, which drew followers from every community.
Do not mix these up
• Zikir vs Zari — Zikir is a song of remembrance and praise; Zari is a song of mourning for Karbala.
• Zikir vs Borgeet — Zikir is the Islamic devotional song of Ajan Fakir; Borgeet is the Vaishnava devotional song of Sankardeva and Madhavdeva; the Zikir borrows the Borgeet's style.
Also asked from this topic: the state where the folk music tradition Zikir is popular (Assam); the Assamese song that is a lullaby (Nichukoni geet); the state of Bihu geet (Assam).
Music and Musical Instruments · Folk music and songs by state

Q9. Which of the following statements best captures the core socio-cultural function of Villuppattu within Tamil Nadu's folk music tradition?

  1. (a) It serves primarily as a courtly entertainment form associated with royal patrons.
  2. (b) It promotes classical raga-based compositions through highly technical improvisation.
  3. (c) It functions as a medium of narrative storytelling, often used to spread social, moral, and religious messages in rural communities.
  4. (d) It is a solo dance-based form performed during agricultural harvests with no lyrical component.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It functions as a medium of narrative storytelling, often used to spread social, moral, and religious messages in rural communities.

Answer: Option 3 — It functions as a medium of narrative storytelling, often used to spread social, moral, and religious messages in rural communities.
Villuppattu, the "bow song", is sung storytelling: a lead singer narrates a tale in verse and prose while a chorus answers and keeps time on a bow strung with bells.
Because it holds a village audience all night, it has long been used to carry religious stories and, in modern times, social messages such as literacy, health and family-planning campaigns.
Revision note — Villuppattu and the folk arts of Tamil Nadu
• Belongs to the southern districts — Tirunelveli, Thoothukudi and Kanyakumari — and is also found in neighbouring Kerala; it is usually performed at village temple festivals.
• The main instrument is a villu (bow) about 2 m long, fixed on a clay pot (kudam) and struck with sticks; the udukkai (hourglass drum), kudam and cymbals accompany.
• The lead singer (the Pulavar or annavi) tells stories of village deities such as Sudalai Madan and Isakki Amman, as well as episodes from the epics; the chorus interjects with "aama" (yes).
• The form was popularised on radio and stage by Subbu Arumugam, who received the Padma Shri for it; governments have used it for awareness campaigns.
• Other Tamil folk performing arts: Therukoothu (street theatre), Karagattam (pot dance for Mariamman), Mayilattam (peacock dance for Murugan), Oyilattam, Kavadi Attam and Bommalattam (puppetry).
Do not mix these up
• Villuppattu vs Therukoothu — both are all-night village performances; Villuppattu is sung narration around a bow, Therukoothu is acted street theatre in costume.
• Villuppattu vs Burra Katha — the same idea of narrative song, but Burra Katha is the Telugu tradition of Andhra Pradesh, with a tambura instead of a bow.
Also asked from this topic: the state of the night-time street theatre Theru Koothu (Tamil Nadu); the deity before whose image Karakattam is performed (Goddess Mariamman).
Music and Musical Instruments · Carnatic music

Q10. Which raga system forms the foundation of Carnatic compositions in the Andhra school, as codified in the 17th century by Venkatamakhin?

  1. (a) Janaka Raga Paddhati
  2. (b) Ashta Raga Melas
  3. (c) Mela Karta System
  4. (d) Nava Rasa Scheme
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Mela Karta System

Answer: Option 3 — Mela Karta System
Venkatamakhin set out the scheme of 72 melakarta (parent) ragas in his Sanskrit treatise Chaturdandi Prakashika (c. 1660).
Every Carnatic raga is either a melakarta itself or a janya (derived) raga born from one of the 72.
Revision note — The melakarta scheme of Carnatic music
• Venkatamakhin (17th century), son of the scholar Govinda Dikshita, worked at the Nayak court of Thanjavur; his Chaturdandi Prakashika laid down the 72 melakartas.
• A melakarta is a sampurna raga — all seven swaras in both ascent (arohana) and descent (avarohana); a janya raga drops or twists some of them.
• The 72 are grouped into 12 chakras of 6 ragas each; the first 36 use shuddha madhyama and the next 36 use prati madhyama.
• The present names (Kanakangi, Ratnangi … Rasikapriya) come from Govindacharya's Sangraha Chudamani (18th century), which also fixed the Katapayadi numbering.
• The earlier treatise Swaramela Kalanidhi (1550) by Ramamatya of the Vijayanagara court had used only about 20 melas.
• The Hindustani parallel is the 10 thaats classified by V. N. Bhatkhande in the early 20th century.
• The Carnatic Trinity — Tyagaraja, Muthuswami Dikshitar, Shyama Shastri (18th–19th century) — composed within the melakarta framework.
• Muthuswami Dikshitar followed Venkatamakhin's own (asampurna) version of the scheme.
Do not mix these up
• Melakarta (janaka) vs janya — the melakarta is the parent scale with all seven notes; the janya is derived from it and may omit notes.
• 72 melakartas vs 10 thaats — melakartas belong to Carnatic music, thaats to Hindustani music.
Also asked from this topic: the number of melakarta ragas (72); who gave the 72-mela scheme (Venkatamakhi, Chaturdandi Prakashika); the author of Swaramela-kalanidhi (Ramamatya).
Sports · National championships - venues and winners

Q11. Why was the 2022 National Games' mascot 'Savaj', a lion from Gir Forest, strategically chosen for the event?

  1. (a) Symbol of Gujarat's wildlife conservation and pride
  2. (b) Connection to India's national animal
  3. (c) Part of Indian Navy insignia
  4. (d) Mascot for Indian Railways campaign
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Symbol of Gujarat's wildlife conservation and pride

Answer: Option 1 — Symbol of Gujarat's wildlife conservation and pride
Savaj means lion in Gujarati, and the Asiatic lion of Gir survives nowhere else in the world.
Gujarat, the host state, chose it to showcase its conservation success and state pride; the tiger, not the lion, is India's national animal.
Revision note — 36th National Games, Gujarat 2022
• Held from 29 September to 12 October 2022 — the first National Games in seven years (after Kerala 2015) and the first ever hosted by Gujarat.
• Inaugurated by PM Narendra Modi at the Narendra Modi Stadium, Ahmedabad.
• Spread over six cities — Ahmedabad, Gandhinagar, Surat, Vadodara, Rajkot and Bhavnagar — with 36 sports; Yogasana and Mallakhamb made their debut.
• Medal tally: Services first, Maharashtra second, Haryana third; swimmer Sajan Prakash and Hashika Ramachandra were among the top individual performers.
• Later editions: 37th Goa 2023 (mascot Moga, the Indian bison or gaur); 38th Uttarakhand 2025 (mascot Mauli, the Himalayan monal); the 39th is allotted to Meghalaya.
• Gir National Park lies in Junagadh district, Saurashtra; the lion census of 2025 counted 891 Asiatic lions, up from 674 in 2020.
• The first National Games (then the Indian Olympic Games) were held at Lahore in 1924; the Indian Olympic Association organises them.
Do not mix these up
• Lion vs tiger — the Royal Bengal tiger is India's national animal; the lion appears on the State Emblem (Sarnath Lion Capital) and is the state animal of Gujarat.
• Savaj vs Mauli — Savaj is the Gujarat 2022 lion; Mauli is the Uttarakhand 2025 monal.
Also asked from this topic: the state that hosted the National Games when they resumed in 2022 (Gujarat); the official mascot of the 2025 National Games (Mauli, the Himalayan monal).
Sports · Other sports and tournaments (tennis, chess, badminton, etc.)

Q12. What is the significance of the term “Reti Opening” in chess?

  1. (a) Named after a grandmaster known for psychological tricks
  2. (b) A hypermodern strategy controlling center from flanks
  3. (c) A sacrificial variation leading to early checkmate
  4. (d) A defensive line in response to Sicilian Defense
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) A hypermodern strategy controlling center from flanks

Answer: Option 2 — A hypermodern strategy controlling center from flanks
The Réti Opening begins 1.Nf3 followed by c4 and a fianchettoed bishop on g2.
White does not occupy the centre with pawns but controls it from the flanks with pieces — the signature idea of the hypermodern school.
Revision note — Chess openings and the hypermodern school
• Named after Richard Réti (1889–1929), a Czechoslovak grandmaster who used it to beat the world champion Capablanca at New York 1924, ending Capablanca's eight-year unbeaten run.
• The hypermodern school of the 1920s — Réti, Aron Nimzowitsch, Gyula Breyer, Savielly Tartakower — held that the centre should be controlled from a distance, not occupied early.
• Nimzowitsch's classic on these ideas is My System (1925).
• Other named openings: Sicilian Defence (1.e4 c5), Queen's Gambit (1.d4 d5 2.c4), Ruy Lopez (1.e4 e5 2.Nf3 Nc6 3.Bb5), English Opening (1.c4), King's Indian, Caro-Kann, French.
• Quick mates: Fool's mate in 2 moves, Scholar's mate in 4 moves; a gambit is an opening that offers a pawn for development.
• Chess is governed by FIDE (founded 1924, Paris); India's first Grandmaster was Viswanathan Anand (1988); D. Gukesh became the youngest world champion in December 2024 at 18.
• India won both the open and women's gold at the 45th Chess Olympiad, Budapest 2024; the 44th Olympiad was hosted at Mamallapuram (Chennai) in 2022.
Do not mix these up
• Réti Opening vs English Opening — both are flank openings; the Réti starts 1.Nf3, the English 1.c4.
• Réti Opening vs Réti endgame — the same player also composed the famous 1921 king-and-pawn study in which a king catches a distant pawn.
Also asked from this topic: the sport with the term Queen's Gambit (chess); India's first chess Grandmaster (Viswanathan Anand, 1988); the Indian city known as the hub of chess training (Chennai).
Dances · Folk dances by state

Q13. Read the following statements regarding the Kachhi Ghodi folk dance and choose the correct option:
Statement 1: The Kachhi Ghodi folk dance is performed by men from the Shekhawati region using a dummy horse.
Statement 2: It is performed exclusively as a devotional ritual to honour local deities.

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 1

Answer: Option 1 — Only 1
Kachhi Ghodi ("dummy horse") is a folk dance of the Shekhawati region of Rajasthan in which men, fitted into a horse-shaped costume, dance with swords to drum and fife.
It is a social and entertainment dance — performed at weddings to welcome the bridegroom's party and at fairs — not a devotional temple ritual, so Statement 2 is wrong.
Revision note — Folk dances of Rajasthan
• Kachhi Ghodi: men on dummy horses, from Shekhawati (Sikar, Jhunjhunu, Churu); tells tales of the Bavaria bandits of the region.
• Ghoomar: women's circling dance of the Bhil tribe, later adopted by Rajputs; originally performed to worship Saraswati.
• Kalbelia: dance of the snake-charmer community, imitating serpent movements; on the UNESCO Intangible Heritage list since 2010.
• Chari: women balance brass pots with lit lamps on their heads (Kishangarh, Ajmer).
• Terah Taali: performed seated by Kamad women with 13 manjiras tied to the body, in honour of Baba Ramdev.
• Gair (Holi dance of Mewar), Bhavai (pots balanced on the head), Kathputli (string puppetry).
Do not mix these up
• Kachhi Ghodi vs Kathputli — Kachhi Ghodi uses a dummy horse costume; Kathputli is puppetry.
• Kalbelia vs Ghoomar — Kalbelia is by the snake-charmer community in black swirling skirts; Ghoomar is the circling dance in bright ghagras.
Also asked from this topic: the dance not associated with Rajasthan (Tarangmel, Goa); the animal Kalbelia imitates (snake); the deity Ghoomar was originally performed for (Saraswati).
Sports · Athletics - events, rules and specifications

Q14. Which Olympic sport tests running, jumping, and throwing skills?

  1. (a) Athletics
  2. (b) Swimming
  3. (c) Tennis
  4. (d) Boxing
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Athletics

Answer: Option 1 — Athletics
Athletics is the family of track and field events — running, jumping and throwing — together with road running and race walking. It is the largest sport on the Olympic programme.
Revision note — Athletics
• Governing body World Athletics (formerly IAAF), founded 1912, headquarters Monaco; in India the Athletics Federation of India (AFI).
• Track events: sprints 100 m to 400 m, middle distance 800 m and 1500 m, long distance 5000 m and 10,000 m, hurdles, 3000 m steeplechase and relays.
• Field events: long jump, triple jump, high jump, pole vault; shot put, discus, hammer and javelin.
• Combined events: decathlon (10 events, men) and heptathlon (7 events, women).
• Road events: marathon of 42.195 km (distance fixed at the 1908 London Olympics) and race walks — these are held outside the stadium.
• India's only athletics Olympic gold is Neeraj Chopra's javelin gold at Tokyo 2020; he took silver at Paris 2024.
• Norman Pritchard won India's first Olympic medals in 1900 in the 200 m and 200 m hurdles; Milkha Singh (1960) and P. T. Usha (1984) both finished fourth.
Also asked from this topic: what decathlon and heptathlon are (combined athletics events); the track and field event NOT held outside the stadium (3000 m steeplechase).
Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q15. Mohiniyattam, performed in white and gold attire, is identified with which aspect?

  1. (a) Heroic war
  2. (b) Feminine grace
  3. (c) Acrobatics
  4. (d) Martial art
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Feminine grace

Answer: Option 2 — Feminine grace
Mohiniyattam means the dance of the enchantress (Mohini). It is a solo dance by women in the lasya style — gentle, swaying, graceful movement — the opposite of heroic or acrobatic vigour.
Revision note — Mohiniyattam and the classical dances
• State Kerala; costume white or off-white with a gold (kasavu) border; hair tied in a bun on the left side with jasmine.
• Named after Mohini, the female form of Lord Vishnu; systematised in the 19th century at the court of Swati Tirunal of Travancore and revived by the poet Vallathol at Kerala Kalamandalam (1930).
• Music is Carnatic in the Sopana style; the mood is lasya (graceful), whereas Kerala's other classical form, Kathakali, is a tandava-heavy dance-drama with elaborate make-up.
• Exponents: Kalamandalam Kalyanikutty Amma, Kanak Rele, Bharati Shivaji, Sunanda Nair.
• The Sangeet Natak Akademi recognises eight classical dances: Bharatanatyam (Tamil Nadu), Kathak (Uttar Pradesh), Kathakali and Mohiniyattam (Kerala).
• The other four are Kuchipudi (Andhra Pradesh), Odissi (Odisha), Manipuri (Manipur) and Sattriya (Assam) — Sattriya was added last, in 2000.
Do not mix these up
• Mohiniyattam vs Kathakali — both from Kerala, but Mohiniyattam is solo, female and graceful; Kathakali is a masked, traditionally male dance-drama.
• Lasya vs Tandava — lasya is the graceful feminine mode associated with Parvati; tandava the vigorous masculine mode of Shiva.
Also asked from this topic: the deity whose legend Mohiniyattam is linked to (Lord Vishnu); the dance characterised by lasya (Mohiniyattam); who performs it (women, as a solo).
Organisations and Headquarters · India's foreign relations and connectivity projects

Q16. Which regions are interconnected through the IMEC corridor initiative?

  1. (a) India to Middle East to Ethiopia
  2. (b) India to Middle East to Europe
  3. (c) India to Iran to Central Asia
  4. (d) India to Mediterranean to Europe
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) India to Middle East to Europe

Answer: Option 2 — India to Middle East to Europe
IMEC is the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor, announced at the G20 New Delhi Summit on 9 September 2023.
Goods sail from India to the Gulf, cross the Arabian Peninsula by rail, and sail again from the Mediterranean coast to Europe.
Revision note — IMEC
• Signatories to the MoU: India, the USA, Saudi Arabia, the UAE, France, Germany, Italy and the European Union.
• Two legs: the Eastern Corridor (India to the Gulf) and the Northern Corridor (Gulf to Europe); route India - UAE - Saudi Arabia - Jordan - Israel - Europe.
• Besides rail and shipping it is to carry an electricity cable, a clean hydrogen pipeline and a data cable.
• Backed by the US-led Partnership for Global Infrastructure and Investment (PGII) and seen as an answer to China's Belt and Road Initiative.
• Key ports: Mundra, Kandla and JNPT in India; Fujairah and Jebel Ali (UAE); Dammam and Ras Al Khair (Saudi Arabia); Haifa (Israel); Piraeus (Greece) and Marseille (France).
• The INSTC (International North-South Transport Corridor, 2000) is the older India-Iran-Russia route via Chabahar and Bandar Abbas to Central Asia and Europe.
Do not mix these up
• IMEC vs INSTC — IMEC crosses the Arabian Peninsula and Israel to Europe; INSTC runs through Iran to Russia and Central Asia (the route in option 3).
• IMEC vs Chabahar — Chabahar is India's port project in Iran on the INSTC, not part of IMEC.
Also asked from this topic: the two Middle Eastern anchor countries of IMEC (Saudi Arabia and the UAE); the Middle Eastern country central to IMEC (Saudi Arabia).

Ancient History (1)

Indus Valley Civilisation · Town planning and structures

Q17. In contrast to contemporary ancient civilizations like Egypt and Mesopotamia, the architecture of the Indus Valley Civilization notably lacks:

  1. (a) Use of mud bricks in construction
  2. (b) Monumental religious structures like temples or pyramids
  3. (c) Fortification walls around cities
  4. (d) Drainage and sanitation infrastructure
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Monumental religious structures like temples or pyramids

Answer: Option 2 — Monumental religious structures like temples or pyramids
Egypt built pyramids and Mesopotamia built ziggurats, but no Harappan site has yielded a temple, a palace or a royal tomb.
The Harappans spent their effort on civic works — the Great Bath, granaries, wells and covered drains — which is why the civilisation is called urban and utilitarian rather than monumental.
Revision note — Harappan town planning
• Cities were laid out on a grid pattern, with streets crossing at right angles, and were divided into a raised citadel (west) and a lower town (east).
• Bricks were burnt bricks of a standard ratio 4 : 2 : 1 (length : width : height); mud bricks were used for platforms and for the fortification walls, as at Kalibangan.
• Drainage was the finest of the ancient world — every house drained into a covered street drain with inspection holes; this is the best-known feature of Mohenjo-daro.
• The Great Bath at Mohenjo-daro (about 12 m × 7 m, 2.4 m deep) is the largest structure; the Great Granary at Mohenjo-daro and the six granaries at Harappa are the other big buildings.
• Fortification walls did exist — Harappa, Kalibangan, Surkotada and Dholavira (three walled divisions) — so option 3 is a feature the Harappans had.
• Religion is known only from seals and figurines — the Pashupati seal, the mother goddess, fire altars at Kalibangan and Lothal — never from temples.
Do not mix these up
• Citadel vs lower town — the citadel held the public buildings (bath, granary, assembly hall); the lower town held houses and workshops.
• Great Bath vs Great Granary — both are at Mohenjo-daro; the Bath is a water tank, the Granary a storehouse; Harappa has granaries in two rows of six.
Also asked from this topic: what each house at Mohenjo-daro was connected to (a covered street drain); the site of the Great Bath (Mohenjo-daro); the Harappan site with a dockyard (Lothal).

Polity (6)

Judiciary · Subordinate courts

Q18. Which of the following statements about the Fast Track Special Courts (FTSCs) Scheme is incorrect?

  1. (a) FTSCs are established primarily to expedite the trial of cases related to sexual offences against women and children
  2. (b) The scheme provides financial assistance from the Central Government for setting up and running FTSCs in States and Union Territories.
  3. (c) FTSCs have jurisdiction only over cases registered after the establishment of the court and cannot try pending cases.
  4. (d) The scheme encourages States to appoint dedicated public prosecutors and support staff to ensure speedy justice in FTSCs.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) FTSCs have jurisdiction only over cases registered after the establishment of the court and cannot try pending cases.

Answer: Option 3 — FTSCs have jurisdiction only over cases registered after the establishment of the court and cannot try pending cases.
The scheme was created for exactly the opposite purpose — to clear the backlog of pending rape and POCSO Act cases.
Pending cases are transferred to the FTSC; it is not restricted to cases filed after it was set up.
Revision note — Fast Track Special Courts (FTSC) Scheme
• A Centrally Sponsored Scheme launched in October 2019 by the Department of Justice, Ministry of Law and Justice, following the Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2018.
• Purpose: speedy trial and disposal of pending cases of rape (IPC 376 / BNS 64) and offences under the POCSO Act, 2012.
• Funded from the Nirbhaya Fund; the Centre–State sharing ratio is 60:40 (90:10 for North-Eastern and Himalayan states).
• Originally 1,023 FTSCs were sanctioned, including 389 exclusive POCSO courts — one for every district with more than 100 pending POCSO cases.
• Each FTSC is staffed with one judicial officer and seven support staff; states are expected to appoint dedicated public prosecutors.
• The scheme was extended in 2021 and again in 2023, now running till 31 March 2026 with a total outlay of about ₹1,952 crore.
• The POCSO Act itself expects a Special Court to finish a trial, as far as possible, within one year of taking cognizance.
Do not mix these up
• Fast Track Courts (FTCs) vs Fast Track Special Courts (FTSCs) — FTCs are general courts set up by states from 2000 on the Eleventh Finance Commission's recommendation.
• FTSCs, by contrast, are a central 2019 scheme only for rape and POCSO cases.
• Nirbhaya Fund vs FTSC Scheme — the fund is the ₹1,000 crore corpus of 2013 for women's safety; the FTSC scheme is one project financed from it.
Also asked from this topic: the purpose of the Nirbhaya Fund (women's safety); the time limit for a POCSO trial (one year); the Supreme Court's May 2025 direction for dedicated child sexual abuse courts.
Polity Miscellaneous · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q19. In BNS 2023, which crime can attract capital punishment by explicit provision post July 2024?

  1. (a) Mob Lynching
  2. (b) Theft
  3. (c) Cheating
  4. (d) Computer Hacking
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Mob Lynching

Answer: Option 1 — Mob Lynching
Section 103(2) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 covers murder by a group of five or more persons on grounds of race, caste, community, sex, place of birth, language or personal belief.
The punishment is death or life imprisonment, and fine.
Theft, cheating and hacking carry only imprisonment and fine.
Revision note — Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023
• Replaced the Indian Penal Code, 1860; enacted December 2023, in force from 1 July 2024, along with the BNSS (replacing the CrPC) and the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (replacing the Evidence Act).
• 358 sections in 20 chapters against the IPC's 511; mob lynching is defined as a separate offence for the first time.
• New offences: organised crime (Section 111), petty organised crime (112), terrorism (113), snatching (304), sexual intercourse by deceitful means (69).
• Sedition (IPC 124A) replaced by Section 152 — acts endangering the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India.
• Community service introduced as a punishment for petty offences; the code is described as victim-centric.
• Other capital offences: murder (103(1)), rape of a girl under 12 (65(2)), gang rape of a woman under 18 (70(2)).
Do not mix these up
• BNS vs BNSS — BNS is the substantive law (offences and punishments); BNSS is the procedural law (arrest, trial, FIR).
• Mob lynching vs rioting — rioting is force by an unlawful assembly; lynching is murder or grievous hurt by five or more on grounds like caste or community.
Also asked from this topic: the punishment for mob lynching under the BNS (death or life imprisonment); the number of sections in the BNS (358); the law replaced by the BNS (Indian Penal Code, 1860).
Constitutional Development and Making · Borrowed features - sources of the Constitution

Q20. The Law-making procedure in Indian Constitution is taken from:

  1. (a) British Constitution
  2. (b) Canadian Constitution
  3. (c) French Constitution
  4. (d) Irish Constitution
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) British Constitution

Answer: Option 1 — British Constitution
The legislative (law-making) procedure, like the parliamentary form of government itself, was borrowed from Britain.
The Westminster Parliament is the model for the three readings, the committee stage and the passage of a bill through two Houses.
Revision note — Sources of the Indian Constitution
• Britain: parliamentary government, rule of law, legislative procedure, single citizenship, cabinet system, prerogative writs, bicameralism, office of Speaker.
• USA: Fundamental Rights, judicial review, independence of the judiciary, impeachment of the President, removal of judges, post of Vice-President, the Preamble.
• Ireland: Directive Principles, nomination of members to the Rajya Sabha, method of election of the President.
• Canada: federation with a strong Centre, residuary powers with the Centre, appointment of Governors by the Centre, advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
• Australia: Concurrent List, freedom of trade and commerce (Article 301), joint sitting of the two Houses.
• Germany (Weimar): suspension of Fundamental Rights during Emergency; USSR: Fundamental Duties; France: republic and liberty-equality-fraternity.
• Japan: procedure established by law; South Africa: amendment procedure and election of Rajya Sabha members.
• The Government of India Act, 1935 is the largest single source — federal scheme, office of Governor, emergency provisions, Public Service Commissions.
Do not mix these up
• Procedure established by law (Japan) vs due process of law (USA) — India adopted the Japanese phrase in Article 21.
• Election of Rajya Sabha members (South Africa) vs nomination to the Rajya Sabha (Ireland) — two different features from two different countries.
Also asked from this topic: the source of single citizenship (British Constitution); the feature NOT borrowed from Britain (appointment of Governors by the Centre — Canada).
Constitutional Development and Making · Borrowed features - sources of the Constitution

Q21. The "residuary powers" in the Indian Constitution were inspired by the constitution of:

  1. (a) Australia
  2. (b) Canada
  3. (c) South Africa
  4. (d) United States of America
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Canada

Answer: Option 2 — Canada
Canada is the federation that keeps residuary powers with the Centre, and India followed it.
Under Article 248 and Entry 97 of the Union List, any subject not found in the three Lists belongs to Parliament — in the USA and Australia the residue rests with the states.
Revision note — Centre-State legislative relations (Part XI, Articles 245-255)
• The Seventh Schedule has three Lists: Union List (100 subjects, originally 97), State List (61, originally 66) and Concurrent List (52, originally 47).
• Article 246 distributes the subjects; Article 248 gives the residuary powers, including residuary taxation, to Parliament.
• Parliament may legislate on a State subject under Art 249 (Rajya Sabha resolution by two-thirds, national interest) and Art 250 (National Emergency).
• Also under Art 252 (request of two or more States), Art 253 (international treaties) and Art 356 (President's Rule).
• Article 254: on a Concurrent subject the Union law prevails, unless the State law was reserved for and received the President's assent.
• The 42nd Amendment (1976) moved education, forests, weights and measures, wild animals and birds, and administration of justice from the State List to the Concurrent List.
• Other Canadian borrowings: federation with a strong Centre, appointment of Governors by the Centre, advisory jurisdiction of the Supreme Court.
Do not mix these up
• Canada vs Australia — Canada gave the strong Centre and residuary powers; Australia gave the Concurrent List itself, freedom of trade and the joint sitting.
• Residuary powers vs nomination to the Rajya Sabha — nomination comes from Ireland, not Canada.
Also asked from this topic: who legislates on residuary subjects (Parliament); the Article letting Parliament legislate on the State List in the national interest (Article 249).
Parliament · Rajya Sabha

Q22. Which Article describes the composition of the Rajya Sabha?

  1. (a) Article 79
  2. (b) Article 80
  3. (c) Article 81
  4. (d) Article 82
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 80

Answer: Option 2 — Article 80
Article 80 lays down the composition of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha).
The next article, 81, does the same for the Lok Sabha — the pair is the standard trap.
Revision note — Parliament, Articles 79-82
• Article 79: Parliament consists of the President, the Council of States and the House of the People.
• Article 80: Rajya Sabha has at most 250 members — 238 elected by the State and UT legislatures and 12 nominated by the President from literature, science, art and social service.
• Present strength is 245 (233 elected + 12 nominated).
• Elected members are chosen by the elected MLAs by proportional representation through the single transferable vote; the Fourth Schedule allots the seats.
• Rajya Sabha is a permanent House — never dissolved; one-third retire every second year; term six years; minimum age 30.
• Article 81: composition of the Lok Sabha; Article 82: readjustment of seats after every census (delimitation).
• The Vice-President is the ex officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha (Article 89); it alone can pass resolutions under Art 249 and Art 312.
Do not mix these up
• Article 80 vs Article 81 — 80 is the Rajya Sabha, 81 the Lok Sabha; the Council of States is named first in Article 79 and comes first here too.
• Maximum strength 250 vs actual strength 245 — 250 is the constitutional ceiling, 245 the seats actually filled.
Also asked from this topic: the number of members the President nominates to the Rajya Sabha (12); the Article governing allocation of Rajya Sabha seats (Article 80).
Parliament · Lok Sabha

Q23. Which Article deals with the composition of the Lok Sabha?

  1. (a) Article 75
  2. (b) Article 77
  3. (c) Article 79
  4. (d) Article 81
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Article 81

Answer: Option 4 — Article 81
Article 81 provides for the composition of the House of the People (Lok Sabha) — its maximum strength and the population basis on which seats go to the States.
Revision note — Lok Sabha (Article 81)
• Maximum strength 550: not more than 530 from the States and 20 from the Union Territories; present strength 543, all elected.
• The two nominated Anglo-Indian seats were abolished by the 104th Amendment (2020), so the older figure of 552 no longer applies.
• Seats are allotted to States in proportion to population; the ratio was frozen on the 1971 Census by the 42nd Amendment and the freeze extended to 2026 by the 84th Amendment (2001).
• Article 82 provides the readjustment of seats after each census.
• Article 330 reserves seats for Scheduled Castes (84) and Scheduled Tribes (47).
• In April 2026 the Delimitation Bill, 2026 and the Constitution (131st Amendment) Bill, 2026 were introduced to restore population-proportional allocation of seats to the States.
• Term five years (Art 83), extendable one year at a time during a National Emergency; minimum age 25; a Money Bill can be introduced only here (Art 109).
• Neighbouring articles: Art 75 Council of Ministers, Art 77 conduct of Government business, Art 79 constitution of Parliament, Art 80 Rajya Sabha.
Do not mix these up
• Article 81 vs Article 82 — 81 is the composition; 82 is the delimitation after a census.
• Article 75 vs Article 81 — Article 75 deals with the Council of Ministers, whose size the 91st Amendment (2003) capped at 15 per cent of the Lok Sabha.
Also asked from this topic: the basis for allotting Lok Sabha seats to States (population); seats reserved for SCs and STs (84 and 47).

Economics (8)

Agriculture and Food Security · Crop insurance and farmer schemes

Q24. Which of the following statements most accurately captures a key reform introduced under the revamped Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY) from Kharif 2020 onwards, particularly addressing issues of transparency and timely claim settlement?

  1. (a) The revamped scheme removed all private insurers and made crop insurance mandatory for all farmers receiving institutional credit
  2. (b) States were allowed to fix their own actuarial premium rates without reference to the central subsidy cap.
  3. (c) Enrollment under PMFBY was made entirely voluntary for all farmers, and a Crop Insurance Portal with GPS-based Crop Cutting Experiments (CCEs) was introduced to reduce delays in claim settlement.
  4. (d) The central government withdrew its financial contribution to premium subsidies for states with low penetration, making the scheme optional for them.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Enrollment under PMFBY was made entirely voluntary for all farmers, and a Crop Insurance Portal with GPS-based Crop Cutting Experiments (CCEs) was introduced to reduce delays in claim settlement.

Answer: Option 3 — Enrollment under PMFBY was made entirely voluntary for all farmers, and a Crop Insurance Portal with GPS-based Crop Cutting Experiments (CCEs) was introduced to reduce delays in claim settlement.
The Cabinet revamp of February 2020 made enrolment voluntary for loanee farmers too from Kharif 2020.
Yield data now flows through the National Crop Insurance Portal (NCIP) and the CCE-Agri app with GPS-tagged, photographed crop cutting experiments, so claims are settled faster.
Revision note — Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana
• Launched on 13 January 2016 (in force from Kharif 2016), replacing NAIS and MNAIS; run by the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
• Farmer's premium: 2 % of sum insured for Kharif, 1.5 % for Rabi, 5 % for annual commercial and horticultural crops; the rest is shared by Centre and State.
• Covers prevented sowing, standing crop loss, post-harvest loss and localised calamities (hailstorm, landslide, inundation).
• Revamp 2020: enrolment voluntary for all; central premium subsidy capped at 30 % for unirrigated and 25 % for irrigated areas; states may sign three-year contracts with insurers.
• Later add-ons: Meri Policy Mere Haath (2022) for doorstep policy delivery; DigiClaim for direct online claim payment.
• YES-TECH (yield estimation by satellite) and WINDS (automatic weather stations) were added in 2023.
• In January 2025 the Cabinet extended PMFBY and RWBCIS to 2025-26 with an outlay of about ₹69,515 crore and a Fund for Innovation and Technology (FIAT).
Do not mix these up
• PMFBY vs RWBCIS — PMFBY pays on actual yield loss measured by crop cutting experiments; the Restructured Weather Based Crop Insurance Scheme pays on weather indices (rainfall, temperature) as a proxy.
• Loanee vs non-loanee farmers — before Kharif 2020 the scheme was compulsory for loanee farmers; now it is voluntary for both.
Also asked from this topic: whether enrolment is mandatory (voluntary since Kharif 2020); the farmer's premium on commercial and horticultural crops (5 %); the launch year of PMFBY (2016).
Inflation · Types of inflation (demand-pull, cost-push, stagflation)

Q25. Which of the following statements best explains the concept of "shrinkflation" in the context of consumer markets and its macroeconomic implications in India?

  1. (a) Shrinkflation refers to a deliberate strategy where producers reduce the price of goods while keeping their quality and quantity constant, primarily to gain competitive advantage during deflationary periods.
  2. (b) Shrinkflation denotes a phenomenon where producers reduce the size or quantity of a product while maintaining its price, often to cope with rising input costs, which may distort inflation measurements and consumer welfare assessments.
  3. (c) Shrinkflation is a temporary monetary tool used by central banks to shrink currency supply in response to hyperinflation, generally accompanied by contractionary fiscal policies.
  4. (d) Shrinkflation describes a scenario in which shrinking foreign exchange reserves lead to inflation in essential goods due to higher import prices.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Shrinkflation denotes a phenomenon where producers reduce the size or quantity of a product while maintaining its price, often to cope with rising input costs, which may distort inflation measurements and consumer welfare assessments.

Answer: Option 2 — Shrinkflation denotes a phenomenon where producers reduce the size or quantity of a product while maintaining its price, often to cope with rising input costs, which may distort inflation measurements and consumer welfare assessments.
Shrinkflation = the packet gets smaller while the price tag stays the same, so the price per gram rises without the customer noticing.
It is a hidden form of inflation, and the price index misses it unless the statistician corrects for the smaller pack.
Revision note — Shrinkflation and the hidden faces of inflation
• The word joins shrink + inflation; it was popularised by the British economist Pippa Malmgren around 2013.
• Producers use it when input costs (wheat, edible oil, packaging, fuel) rise but a visible price hike would hurt sales, especially at the ₹5 and ₹10 price points that Indian FMCG brands protect.
• Indian examples cited in 2022: the Parle-G and Haldiram's packs, Vim bars and Dettol soaps became lighter at the same price.
• Its cousin skimpflation keeps the size but lowers the quality or service; stealth inflation is the umbrella term for both.
• Inflation is a sustained rise in the general price level; hyperinflation is an extreme, runaway rise; stagflation is high inflation with stagnant growth and high unemployment.
• India measures headline inflation by the CPI (Combined), released by the NSO (MoSPI); the WPI comes from the Office of the Economic Adviser, DPIIT.
• The RBI's inflation target is CPI inflation of 4 per cent, ± 2 per cent.
Do not mix these up
• Shrinkflation vs deflation — shrinkflation hides a price rise per unit; deflation is a genuine fall in the general price level.
• Demand-pull vs cost-push inflation — the first comes from excess demand, the second from rising costs of inputs; shrinkflation is a producer's response to the second.
Also asked from this topic: the meaning of stagflation (inflation plus unemployment); the term for a runaway rate of inflation (hyperinflation); India's headline inflation index (CPI Combined).
Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Types of unemployment

Q26. Which of the following best captures the structural reasons behind the phenomenon of 'jobless growth' in India, particularly in the post-1991 reform period?

  1. (a) Excessive investment in agriculture and primary sector productivity
  2. (b) High population growth rate exceeding labor force demand
  3. (c) A growth model led by capital-intensive and service sectors with limited employment elasticity
  4. (d) Deliberate government policy to curb rural employment in favor of urbanization
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A growth model led by capital-intensive and service sectors with limited employment elasticity

Answer: Option 3 — A growth model led by capital-intensive and service sectors with limited employment elasticity
Jobless growth means GDP grows fast but jobs do not grow in proportion.
After 1991 India's growth came from services (IT, finance, telecom) and capital-intensive manufacturing, both of which add output with very few extra workers — a low employment elasticity.
Revision note — Jobless growth and employment in India
• Employment elasticity = percentage change in employment ÷ percentage change in GDP; India's fell from about 0.5 in the 1980s to below 0.2 after the mid-1990s, which is the arithmetic behind jobless growth.
• The structural reasons: growth led by skill-intensive services, automation and capital-intensive industry, rigid labour laws that discouraged hiring, and a weak labour-intensive manufacturing base.
• Where the workers are: agriculture still employs about 45 per cent of the workforce but produces under 20 per cent of GDP, so labour stays stuck in low-productivity farming.
• About 90 per cent of Indian workers are in the informal (unorganised) sector without written contracts or social security.
• Employment is measured by the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) of the NSO, using Usual Status (365-day reference), Current Weekly Status and Current Daily Status.
• Policy responses: MGNREGA (2005) for rural wage employment, Skill India (2015), PLI schemes (2020) to revive labour-intensive manufacturing.
Do not mix these up
• Jobless growth vs disguised unemployment — jobless growth is output rising without jobs; disguised unemployment is more hands than the work needs, so the marginal product is zero, as on Indian farms.
• Structural vs cyclical unemployment — structural comes from a mismatch of skills with the jobs the economy creates; cyclical comes from a downturn in demand.
Also asked from this topic: why the 1991 reforms are linked with jobless growth (GDP growth without proportional employment); the reference period of the Usual Status measure of unemployment (365 days).
Industry and Infrastructure · Industrial Policy Resolutions (1948, 1956, 1991)

Q27. Which of the following correctly describes the purpose and consequence of the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956?

  1. (a) It abolished licensing and promoted private sector entry into all sectors of the economy.
  2. (b) It introduced a mixed economy model by clearly demarcating sectors between public and private domains, reinforcing state control over key industries.
  3. (c) It focused on fiscal decentralization by allowing states to independently formulate industrial policies.
  4. (d) It removed trade barriers and prioritized export-led industrialisation.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) It introduced a mixed economy model by clearly demarcating sectors between public and private domains, reinforcing state control over key industries.

Answer: Option 2 — It introduced a mixed economy model by clearly demarcating sectors between public and private domains, reinforcing state control over key industries.
The IPR 1956 sorted industries into three Schedules and reserved the basic and strategic ones for the State, so that the public sector held the commanding heights of the economy.
Licensing was tightened, not abolished — that came only with the New Industrial Policy of 1991.
Revision note — Industrial Policy Resolution, 1956
• Adopted on 30 April 1956, after the Congress resolution at Avadi (January 1955) for a socialistic pattern of society.
• It formed the basis of the Second Five-Year Plan (1956–61) and the Mahalanobis heavy-industry model.
• Schedule A — 17 industries exclusively for the State (arms, atomic energy, iron and steel, coal, railways, air transport, heavy machinery, mineral oils).
• Schedule B — 12 industries where the State would progressively set up new units while the private sector could supplement (aluminium, fertilisers, road transport, sea transport, machine tools).
• Schedule C — all remaining industries, left to the private sector but under licensing through the Industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951.
• It also promoted cottage and small-scale industries, balanced regional development and the reduction of income disparities; economists call it India's economic constitution.
• The earlier IPR 1948 (6 April 1948) first laid down the mixed economy; the New Industrial Policy of 24 July 1991 abolished licensing for all but a handful of industries.
Do not mix these up
• IPR 1948 vs IPR 1956 — 1948 introduced the mixed economy with four categories; 1956 expanded the public sector's role with three schedules.
• IPR 1956 vs NIP 1991 — 1956 reserved industries for the State and licensed the rest; 1991 delicensed industry and cut the reserved list from 17 to 8.
Also asked from this topic: the year of India's first Industrial Policy (1948); the central theme of the IPR 1956 (State control of the commanding heights); its industry classification (Schedules A, B, C).
Planning and NITI Aayog · Planning Commission and NDC

Q28. Who among the following was the first Deputy Chairman of the Planning commission ?

  1. (a) V.T. Krishnamachari
  2. (b) C.M. Trivedi
  3. (c) Gulzari Lal Nanda
  4. (d) Ashok Mehta
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Gulzari Lal Nanda

Answer: Option 3 — Gulzari Lal Nanda
When the Planning Commission was set up in March 1950, Prime Minister Nehru was its Chairman and Gulzarilal Nanda its first Deputy Chairman.
The other three names are his successors in the 1950s and 1960s — V.T. Krishnamachari (1953–60), C.M. Trivedi (1960–63) and Ashok Mehta (1963–66).
Revision note — The Planning Commission
• Set up on 15 March 1950 by a Cabinet resolution — neither a constitutional nor a statutory body; the Prime Minister was ex-officio Chairman and the Deputy Chairman held Cabinet rank.
• It drew up twelve Five-Year Plans, from the First Plan (1951–56) to the Twelfth (2012–17); the plans were approved by the National Development Council (set up 6 August 1952).
• Gulzarilal Nanda was later twice acting Prime Minister — after Nehru's death in May 1964 and after Shastri's death in January 1966 — and received the Bharat Ratna in 1997.
• Other notable Deputy Chairmen: D.R. Gadgil (1967–71, the Gadgil formula), Manmohan Singh (1985–87), Pranab Mukherjee (1991–96), K.C. Pant (1999–2004) and Montek Singh Ahluwalia (2004–14), the last.
• It was replaced on 1 January 2015 by NITI Aayog, a policy think tank with the PM as Chairperson and a Vice-Chairperson (Arvind Panagariya first; Suman Bery since 2022).
• NITI Aayog advises and promotes cooperative federalism; it does not allocate funds to states.
• The idea of planning goes back to M. Visvesvaraya's Planned Economy for India (1934), the National Planning Committee of 1938 under Nehru, and the Bombay Plan of 1944.
Do not mix these up
• Planning Commission vs Finance Commission — the Finance Commission is a constitutional body under Article 280 (first set up 1951); the Planning Commission came from an executive resolution.
• Planning Commission vs NDC — the NDC (1952) was the apex body that approved the plans the Commission prepared; both were wound up in 2015.
Also asked from this topic: the year the Planning Commission was set up (1950); the Deputy Chairman during the Tenth Plan (K.C. Pant); the main function of NITI Aayog (policy think tank, cooperative federalism).
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Global indices - publishers and methodology

Q29. In the 2024 E-Government Development Index (EGDI), India scored high in digital services but lagged in one particular domain. What was that?

  1. (a) Cybersecurity regulations
  2. (b) Online payment volume
  3. (c) Human capital and digital literacy in rural areas
  4. (d) Digital taxation laws
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Human capital and digital literacy in rural areas

Answer: Option 3 — Human capital and digital literacy in rural areas
The EGDI averages three sub-indices — Online Service Index (OSI), Telecommunication Infrastructure Index (TII) and Human Capital Index (HCI).
In the 2024 survey India scored well on online services and telecom infrastructure.
Its Human Capital Index was the weakest of the three, reflecting gaps in education and digital literacy, especially in rural areas.
Revision note — UN E-Government Survey 2024
• Published every two years by the UN Department of Economic and Social Affairs (UN DESA); the 2024 edition is the 13th.
• India ranked 97th of 193 countries in 2024 with an EGDI of about 0.668, up from 105th in 2022; it sits in the "high" EGDI group (0.50 to 0.75).
• Top three in 2024: Denmark, Estonia, Singapore; Denmark has topped the index since 2018.
• The Human Capital Index uses adult literacy, gross enrolment ratio, expected and mean years of schooling.
• Indian e-governance platforms that lift the OSI score: UMANG (one app for many government services), DigiLocker, BHASHINI (AI translation in Indian languages), CoWIN, UPI.
• Digital India was launched on 1 July 2015; its three vision areas are digital infrastructure, governance and services on demand, and digital empowerment of citizens.
Do not mix these up
• EGDI vs E-Participation Index (EPI) — both come from the same UN survey; EGDI measures readiness and capacity, EPI measures how citizens are consulted and involved online.
• Digital literacy vs internet access — TII captures access (subscriptions, bandwidth); HCI captures the skills to use it.
Also asked from this topic: the single platform for accessing many government services online (UMANG); the AI initiative for digital services in Indian languages (BHASHINI).
Planning and NITI Aayog · Indian economy at independence and the 1950-90 phase

Q30. What policy was used to protect Indian industries from foreign competition, especially until the 1980s?

  1. (a) Free trade
  2. (b) Import substitution and tariffs
  3. (c) Export-led growth
  4. (d) Deregulation
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Import substitution and tariffs

Answer: Option 2 — Import substitution and tariffs
From the First Plan (1951) until the 1991 reforms, India followed an inward-looking trade strategy.
Goods that could be made at home were not imported, and domestic infant industries were shielded by high tariffs and import quotas.
Free trade, export-led growth and deregulation describe the post-1991 direction.
Revision note — Import substitution in the planning era
• Import Substitution Industrialisation (ISI): replace imports of manufactured goods with domestic production; the aim was self-reliance and saving scarce foreign exchange.
• Tools: tariffs (taxes on imports), quotas (limits on quantity), import licensing and the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956, which reserved key industries for the public sector.
• Further controls: Industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951 (licensing), MRTP Act, 1969, FERA, 1973.
• Result: a protected but inefficient industry, low export growth and the balance of payments crisis of 1991.
• The New Economic Policy, 1991 (Liberalisation, Privatisation, Globalisation) cut customs duties, abolished most licensing and removed quantitative restrictions.
• An inward-looking strategy favours the home market; an outward-looking (export-led) strategy, followed by South Korea and later China, favours exports.
Do not mix these up
• Tariff vs quota — a tariff taxes imports and lets them in; a quota caps the quantity regardless of price.
• Import substitution vs Make in India — ISI protected home producers behind walls; Make in India (2014) invites foreign investment to produce in India.
Also asked from this topic: why India chose import substitution (to protect infant industries); the inward-looking strategy of the early Plans (import substitution); policy till the 1980s (protectionism).
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q31. Which policy included the abolition of industrial licensing for most sectors as a key step during the 1991 reforms?

  1. (a) Liberalisation
  2. (b) Privatisation
  3. (c) Globalisation
  4. (d) Nationalisation
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Liberalisation

Answer: Option 1 — Liberalisation
Abolishing industrial licensing removed the government's controls and permissions over Indian producers — that is liberalisation.
Privatisation transfers ownership of public enterprises, and globalisation opens the economy outward to world trade and capital.
Revision note — New Industrial Policy, 24 July 1991
• Announced under Prime Minister P. V. Narasimha Rao and Finance Minister Dr Manmohan Singh after the balance of payments crisis, when reserves covered barely two weeks of imports.
• Industrial licensing was abolished for all but 18 industries, later cut to a handful — alcohol, cigarettes, hazardous chemicals, industrial explosives, and electronic aerospace and defence equipment.
• Industries reserved for the public sector fell from 17 to 8; today only atomic energy and railway operations remain.
• The MRTP Act asset ceiling on big business houses was scrapped; automatic approval for FDI up to 51 per cent in 34 high-priority industries; FERA was later replaced by FEMA (1999).
• Licensing itself dated from the Industries (Development and Regulation) Act, 1951 — the Licence Raj — under which permission was needed to start or expand a unit.
• The rupee was devalued twice in July 1991, and disinvestment of PSU shares began in 1991-92.
Do not mix these up
• Liberalisation vs privatisation — liberalisation removes controls (licences, MRTP limits, import quotas); privatisation changes the ownership of PSUs.
• Liberalisation vs globalisation — internal deregulation of Indian producers versus integration with the world economy.
Also asked from this topic: the year the industrial licensing system began (1951); the sectors still under compulsory licensing after 1991 (alcohol, cigarettes, explosives).

Physics (4)

Physics Miscellaneous · Scientific instruments and their uses

Q32. Which of the following statements about the Major Atmospheric Cherenkov Experiment (MACE) telescope is incorrect?

  1. (a) MACE is designed to detect very high-energy gamma rays by observing Cherenkov radiation produced in the Earth's atmosphere.
  2. (b) It is located at Hanle in Ladakh, one of the highest gamma-ray observatory sites in the world, benefiting from low atmospheric interference.
  3. (c) MACE uses space-based sensors to directly detect cosmic gamma rays without atmospheric distortion.
  4. (d) The telescope helps in understanding astrophysical phenomena such as supernova remnants, pulsars, and active galactic nuclei through gamma-ray observations.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) MACE uses space-based sensors to directly detect cosmic gamma rays without atmospheric distortion.

Answer: Option 3 — MACE uses space-based sensors to directly detect cosmic gamma rays without atmospheric distortion.
MACE is a ground-based telescope; it never sees the gamma ray itself.
It records the faint blue Cherenkov flash that the gamma ray's air shower produces in the atmosphere — so the atmosphere is its detector, not a nuisance.
Revision note — MACE telescope, Hanle
• Major Atmospheric Cherenkov Experiment (MACE) was inaugurated on 4 October 2024 at Hanle, Ladakh, during the Platinum Jubilee of the Department of Atomic Energy.
• Built by BARC (Bhabha Atomic Research Centre) with ECIL and other Indian industry partners — an indigenous project.
• Site altitude about 4,300 m, making MACE the highest imaging Cherenkov telescope in the world and the largest in Asia.
• Dish diameter 21 m, weight about 180 tonnes, with a camera of 1,088 photomultiplier pixels; it works in the very high energy gamma-ray band (tens of GeV to TeV).
• Targets: supernova remnants, pulsars, active galactic nuclei, gamma-ray bursts and searches for dark matter signals.
• Hanle also hosts the Indian Astronomical Observatory of the Indian Institute of Astrophysics (Himalayan Chandra Telescope, 2 m) and became India's first Dark Sky Reserve in 2022.
• The earlier Indian gamma-ray facilities were HAGAR at Hanle and TACTIC at Mount Abu.
Do not mix these up
• MACE vs AstroSat — MACE is a ground-based Cherenkov telescope; AstroSat (2015) is India's space observatory that detects X-rays and ultraviolet directly from orbit.
• Cherenkov telescope vs optical telescope — an optical telescope collects the object's own light; a Cherenkov telescope collects a secondary flash made in the air by a gamma ray that never reaches the ground.
Also asked from this topic: where MACE was inaugurated (Hanle, 4 October 2024); Ladakh's high-altitude observatory (IAO, Hanle); why solar gamma rays never reach the ground (absorbed high up).
Physics Miscellaneous · Scientific instruments and their uses

Q33. Why is the Major Atmospheric Cherenkov Experiment Telescope (MACE) considered a significant milestone in India's advancement in high-energy astrophysics, and how does it differ fundamentally from conventional optical telescopes?

  1. (a) MACE uses radar reflections to detect charged particles, unlike optical telescopes that rely on visible light.
  2. (b) MACE is designed to directly observe cosmic rays in the ultraviolet range, offering better resolution than traditional optical telescopes.
  3. (c) MACE detects very high-energy gamma rays indirectly by capturing Cherenkov radiation produced in the Earth's atmosphere, unlike optical telescopes which observe direct light from celestial sources.
  4. (d) MACE is a space-based telescope operating in low Earth orbit, enabling detection of infrared waves blocked by Earth's atmosphere.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) MACE detects very high-energy gamma rays indirectly by capturing Cherenkov radiation produced in the Earth's atmosphere, unlike optical telescopes which observe direct light from celestial sources.

Answer: Option 3 — MACE detects very high-energy gamma rays indirectly by capturing Cherenkov radiation produced in the Earth's atmosphere, unlike optical telescopes which observe direct light from celestial sources.
Gamma rays are absorbed high in the atmosphere, so no ground telescope can see them directly.
MACE instead images the nanosecond blue Cherenkov flash from the shower of particles the gamma ray creates — an indirect, ground-based method; an optical telescope simply gathers the star's own light.
Revision note — Cherenkov radiation and gamma-ray astronomy
• Cherenkov radiation is the faint blue light emitted when a charged particle moves through a medium faster than light travels in that medium (never faster than light in vacuum).
• Discovered by Pavel Cherenkov in 1934; he shared the 1958 Nobel Prize in Physics with Ilya Frank and Igor Tamm, who explained it. It is also the blue glow seen in the water of a nuclear reactor.
• A very high-energy gamma ray hitting the upper atmosphere produces an extensive air shower of electrons and positrons.
• Those particles emit a Cherenkov flash lasting a few nanoseconds that lights up a patch of ground about 250 m across.
• An Imaging Atmospheric Cherenkov Telescope (IACT) such as MACE uses a large mirror and a fast photomultiplier camera to photograph that flash and work back to the gamma ray's direction and energy.
• MACE (21 m dish, Hanle, Ladakh, inaugurated 4 October 2024, built by BARC) is Asia's largest and the world's highest IACT.
• The other big Cherenkov arrays are HESS (Namibia), MAGIC (La Palma) and VERITAS (Arizona).
• Gamma rays of lower energy are studied from space — NASA's Fermi telescope, and India's AstroSat (2015) in the X-ray and ultraviolet bands.
• Gamma-ray sources: pulsars, supernova remnants, active galactic nuclei (blazars) and gamma-ray bursts — the most energetic explosions known.
Do not mix these up
• Cherenkov radiation vs the speed-of-light limit — the particle beats light in air or water, where light is slowed; nothing exceeds light's speed in vacuum.
• Ground-based Cherenkov telescope vs space gamma-ray telescope — the ground telescope catches a secondary flash in air; the space telescope catches the gamma ray itself above the atmosphere.
Also asked from this topic: where MACE was inaugurated (Hanle, 4 October 2024); why solar gamma rays do not reach the ground (absorbed high in the atmosphere).
Modern Physics and Electronics · Electromagnetic spectrum and radiations

Q34. What key consequence arises from Maxwell's equations regarding the nature of electromagnetic waves?

  1. (a) EM waves can only travel through a medium.
  2. (b) EM waves are transverse and propagate through vacuum at the speed of sound.
  3. (c) A changing electric field produces a magnetic field and vice versa, enabling self-sustaining wave propagation in a vacuum.
  4. (d) EM waves have circular polarization that bends in magnetic fields.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A changing electric field produces a magnetic field and vice versa, enabling self-sustaining wave propagation in a vacuum.

Answer: Option 3 — A changing electric field produces a magnetic field and vice versa, enabling self-sustaining wave propagation in a vacuum.
Maxwell showed that a changing electric field creates a magnetic field (his displacement-current term) and a changing magnetic field creates an electric field (Faraday's law).
The two fields keep regenerating each other, so the wave carries itself through empty space — no medium is needed.
Revision note — Maxwell's equations and electromagnetic waves
• James Clerk Maxwell unified electricity, magnetism and light in 1864–65; his four equations are Gauss's law for electricity, Gauss's law for magnetism, Faraday's law and the Ampère–Maxwell law.
• The equations predict waves moving at c = 1/√(μ₀ε₀) ≈ 3 × 10⁸ m/s — exactly the measured speed of light, so light is an electromagnetic wave.
• Heinrich Hertz produced and detected radio waves in 1887, confirming the prediction; Marconi later used them for wireless telegraphy.
• EM waves are transverse: the electric and magnetic fields oscillate at right angles to each other and to the direction of travel; they can be polarised, which proves the transverse nature.
• The electromagnetic spectrum in increasing frequency: radio, microwave, infrared, visible, ultraviolet, X-rays, gamma rays.
• All of them travel at c in vacuum and carry energy in photons, E = hν.
• Sunlight reaches the Earth by radiation across the vacuum of space — the everyday proof that EM waves need no medium.
Do not mix these up
• Electromagnetic waves vs sound waves — sound is a mechanical, longitudinal wave that needs a medium and moves at about 340 m/s in air; EM waves are transverse and cross a vacuum at 3 × 10⁸ m/s.
• Maxwell's equations vs Maxwell's corkscrew rule — the rule is only a memory aid for the direction of the magnetic field round a current-carrying wire.
Also asked from this topic: how the Sun's heat crosses empty space (radiation); what proves light is transverse (a Polaroid); the other name of the right-hand thumb rule (Maxwell's corkscrew rule).
Modern Physics and Electronics · Dual nature of matter and de Broglie waves

Q35. What is the real-world implication of Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principle in advanced particle experiments?

  1. (a) It allows simultaneous precise measurement of position and momentum at atomic scales.
  2. (b) It limits the accuracy of measurements in classical systems like satellites.
  3. (c) It states that the more precisely we know a particle's position, the less precisely we can know its momentum, affecting subatomic behavior.
  4. (d) It implies particles lose energy when observed, contradicting conservation laws.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It states that the more precisely we know a particle's position, the less precisely we can know its momentum, affecting subatomic behavior.

Answer: Option 3 — It states that the more precisely we know a particle's position, the less precisely we can know its momentum, affecting subatomic behavior.
The principle says position and momentum cannot both be known exactly at the same time: Δx × Δp ≥ h/4π.
The limit is built into nature, not into the instrument, and it matters only at the subatomic scale where h is not negligible.
Revision note — Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principle
• Stated by Werner Heisenberg (Germany) in 1927; he had already founded matrix mechanics in 1925 and received the Nobel Prize in Physics for 1932.
• Form: Δx · Δp ≥ h/4π (that is, ≥ ħ/2), where h = 6.626 × 10⁻³⁴ J s is Planck's constant; a similar relation links energy and time, ΔE · Δt ≥ h/4π.
• Consequence: an electron in an atom has no definite path or orbit; the Bohr orbit gives way to the orbital, a region of probability described by Schrödinger's wave equation (1926).
• It also explains why a particle confined in a small space has a large momentum spread, which gives the zero-point energy and lets alpha particles tunnel out of the nucleus.
• For everyday objects the uncertainties are so tiny that classical mechanics works perfectly — a satellite's position and velocity are both known to high accuracy.
• Other founders of quantum theory: Max Planck (quantum of energy, 1900), Einstein (photoelectric effect, 1905), de Broglie (matter waves, 1924), Schrödinger (wave equation, 1926).
Do not mix these up
• Uncertainty principle vs Pauli exclusion principle — Heisenberg limits the joint precision of position and momentum; Pauli says no two electrons in an atom share all four quantum numbers.
• Uncertainty vs observer effect — the uncertainty is a property of the particle itself, not merely the disturbance caused by looking at it.
Also asked from this topic: the scientist associated with the theory of quantum mechanics published in 1925 (Werner Heisenberg); the form of energy carried by a photon (electromagnetic energy, E = hν).

Geography (5)

Lithosphere - Earth's Interior and Landforms · Interior of the Earth - layers and discontinuities

Q36. Which of the following statements best explains why the inner core of the Earth remains solid, despite temperatures being similar to or even higher than the outer core?

  1. (a) The inner core is composed of materials that have extremely low melting points.
  2. (b) The gravitational pull at Earth's center compresses the inner core, raising its melting point beyond ambient temperature.
  3. (c) The magnetic field of the Earth solidifies the inner core through electromagnetic crystallization.
  4. (d) Convection currents in the mantle cool the inner core more rapidly than the outer layers.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The gravitational pull at Earth's center compresses the inner core, raising its melting point beyond ambient temperature.

Answer: Option 2 — The gravitational pull at Earth's center compresses the inner core, raising its melting point beyond ambient temperature.
The melting point of iron rises with pressure.
At the centre the pressure is about 3.6 million atmospheres, so iron stays solid even at roughly 5,500 °C — hotter than the surface of the Sun.
Revision note — The core of the Earth
• The core begins at the Gutenberg discontinuity (about 2,900 km deep) and reaches the centre at 6,371 km; it is made of nickel and iron (NiFe).
• Outer core: 2,900–5,150 km, liquid; its convection of molten iron generates the Earth's magnetic field (geodynamo).
• Inner core: radius about 1,220 km, solid; discovered in 1936 by the Danish seismologist Inge Lehmann, and the boundary between the two cores is the Lehmann discontinuity.
• S-waves cannot travel through liquid, so they vanish in the outer core — the shadow zone of S-waves covers the whole region beyond 105° from the epicentre.
• P-waves slow down and bend on entering the liquid outer core, giving a P-wave shadow zone between 105° and 145°.
• The core is the densest layer, about 11–13 g/cm³; the Earth's average density is 5.5 g/cm³.
• The core makes up about 16 % of the Earth's volume but nearly one-third of its mass.
Do not mix these up
• Outer core vs inner core — outer is liquid and makes the magnetic field; inner is solid because of pressure.
• Gutenberg vs Lehmann discontinuity — Gutenberg separates mantle and core (2,900 km); Lehmann separates outer and inner core (about 5,150 km).
• Moho vs Conrad discontinuity — Moho separates crust and mantle; Conrad lies within the crust, between sial and sima.
Also asked from this topic: the layer that generates the Earth's magnetic field (outer core); the depth of the mantle–core boundary (about 2,900 km); the discontinuity separating crust and mantle (Moho).
India - Drainage System · Dams and river valley projects

Q37. Which river valley is most associated with the Damodar Valley Corporation (DVC)?

  1. (a) Ganga
  2. (b) Damodar
  3. (c) Mahanadi
  4. (d) Brahmaputra
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Damodar

Answer: Option 2 — Damodar
The DVC was set up to tame the Damodar, the river of Jharkhand and West Bengal whose floods earned it the name Sorrow of Bengal.
Revision note — Damodar Valley Corporation
• Established on 7 July 1948 under the DVC Act, 1948 — the first multipurpose river valley project of independent India, modelled on the Tennessee Valley Authority (TVA) of the USA.
• Purposes: flood control, irrigation, hydro and thermal power, navigation, soil conservation and afforestation; participating governments are the Centre, Jharkhand (then Bihar) and West Bengal.
• The Damodar rises in the Palamu hills of the Chota Nagpur plateau (Jharkhand), flows east for about 592 km and joins the Hooghly below Kolkata; main tributaries are the Barakar, Konar and Bokaro.
• Dams: Tilaiya (1953, the first) and Maithon on the Barakar, Konar on the Konar, Panchet on the Damodar; the Durgapur barrage feeds the canal system.
• The valley holds India's richest Gondwana coalfields — Jharia, Raniganj, Bokaro — and the Bokaro and Durgapur steel plants and the Sindri fertiliser plant grew up around it.
• Other multipurpose projects: Bhakra-Nangal (Sutlej), Hirakud (Mahanadi), Nagarjuna Sagar (Krishna), Tungabhadra (Tungabhadra), Rihand (Rihand, a Son tributary).
Do not mix these up
• Sorrow of Bengal vs Sorrow of Bihar — the Damodar is the Sorrow of Bengal; the Kosi is the Sorrow of Bihar; the Brahmaputra is the Sorrow of Assam.
• DVC vs Hirakud — Hirakud on the Mahanadi (Odisha) is India's longest dam; the DVC has no dam on the Mahanadi.
Also asked from this topic: the purpose of the DVC (multipurpose river valley development); the foreign model it followed (Tennessee Valley Authority); the mineral the Damodar valley is richest in (coal).
India - Drainage System · River origins and lengths

Q38. India's physiographic divisions are diverse and include plateaus, plains, hills, and coastal regions. The Deccan Plateau is one of the largest volcanic plateaus in the world. Which of the following rivers does NOT originate from the Deccan Plateau?

  1. (a) Godavari
  2. (b) Krishna
  3. (c) Ganga
  4. (d) Tungabhadra
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ganga

Answer: Option 3 — Ganga
The Ganga is a Himalayan river: it rises as the Bhagirathi from the Gangotri glacier (Gaumukh, Uttarkashi) and becomes the Ganga at Devprayag, where the Alaknanda joins it.
The Godavari, Krishna and Tungabhadra are all peninsular rivers that rise on the western edge of the Deccan Plateau and flow east.
Revision note — Rivers of the Deccan Plateau
• Godavari: rises at Trimbakeshwar (Nashik, Maharashtra), about 1,465 km long — the longest peninsular river, called Dakshin Ganga.
• Krishna: rises at Mahabaleshwar in the Western Ghats, about 1,400 km; main tributaries Bhima, Tungabhadra, Koyna, Ghataprabha, Musi.
• Tungabhadra: formed by the Tunga and Bhadra, both rising in the Western Ghats of Karnataka, which meet at Koodli near Shivamogga; joins the Krishna in Andhra Pradesh.
• Other Deccan rivers: Kaveri (Talakaveri, Brahmagiri hills), Mahanadi (Sihawa, Chhattisgarh), Narmada and Tapi (west-flowing, through rift valleys).
• The Deccan Trap is a basalt cover formed by fissure eruptions about 66 million years ago; its weathering gives the black (regur) soil.
• Peninsular rivers are rain-fed and seasonal; Himalayan rivers are snow-fed and perennial.
Do not mix these up
• Godavari vs Krishna source — Godavari rises at Trimbakeshwar (Nashik); Krishna at Mahabaleshwar (Satara).
• Bhagirathi vs Alaknanda — the Bhagirathi comes from Gangotri, the Alaknanda from Satopanth glacier; they meet at Devprayag.
Also asked from this topic: the origin of the Ganga (Gangotri glacier); where the Bhagirathi and Alaknanda meet (Devprayag); the river called Dakshin Ganga (Godavari).
India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Peninsular plateau and hills

Q39. The Aravalli Range is one of the oldest fold mountain systems in the world. What is one major geological significance of this range in the Indian subcontinent?

  1. (a) It forms a major river basin
  2. (b) It acts as a climatic divide for monsoon winds
  3. (c) It contains rich mineral resources
  4. (d) It is a snow-fed mountain range
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It contains rich mineral resources

Answer: Option 3 — It contains rich mineral resources
The Aravalli is a Precambrian fold mountain, worn down over hundreds of millions of years; its ancient rocks hold copper (Khetri), lead-zinc (Zawar, Rampura-Agucha), marble (Makrana) and other minerals.
It is not snow-fed (highest point only 1,722 m), and it lies parallel to the Arabian Sea branch of the monsoon, so it does not act as a climatic divide.
Revision note — The Aravalli Range
• The oldest fold mountain range in India and one of the oldest in the world, formed in Precambrian (Proterozoic) times.
• Runs about 692 km from Delhi through Haryana and Rajasthan to Palanpur (Gujarat), in a north-east to south-west direction.
• Highest peak: Guru Shikhar (1,722 m) on Mount Abu, Rajasthan.
• Rivers rising in it: Banas, Luni, Sabarmati; the range also forms the eastern edge of the Thar Desert.
• Because the Aravalli runs parallel to the south-west monsoon winds from the Arabian Sea, they pass over Rajasthan without heavy rain — one reason the Thar Desert exists.
• The Aravalli Green Wall Project (2023) aims to restore a 5 km buffer around the range in Gujarat, Rajasthan, Haryana and Delhi.
Do not mix these up
• Aravalli vs Himalaya — the Aravalli is an old, residual fold mountain; the Himalaya is a young fold mountain still rising.
• Aravalli vs Western Ghats — the Ghats are a block mountain (fault-scarp) that does block the monsoon; the Aravalli does not.
Also asked from this topic: the oldest mountain range in India (Aravalli); its alignment (north-east to south-west); the states under the Aravalli Green Wall Project (Gujarat, Rajasthan, Haryana, Delhi).
India - Population and Census · Urbanisation and migration

Q40. The rural-urban migration in India is mostly driven by which of the following factors according to Census 2011?

  1. (a) Political instability
  2. (b) Educational expansion
  3. (c) Lack of agricultural employment
  4. (d) Access to entertainment and lifestyle
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Lack of agricultural employment

Answer: Option 3 — Lack of agricultural employment
Rural-to-urban migration in India is driven mainly by push factors in the village — poverty, pressure of population on land, and lack of work outside agriculture.
Work/employment is the leading reason recorded for male migrants in Census 2011.
Education and lifestyle are minor pull factors; political instability is not a recorded reason in India.
Revision note — Migration and Census 2011
• Census 2011 counted about 45.6 crore migrants, roughly 37 per cent of the population; rural-to-rural is the largest migration stream.
• Marriage is the largest single reason overall (mostly women); work/employment is the top reason for men.
• Push factors: poverty, unemployment, high population pressure on land, lack of health and education facilities, natural disasters.
• Pull factors: jobs, higher wages, education, better living conditions in cities.
• Urban population in 2011 was 31.16 per cent (about 37.7 crore); rural population 68.84 per cent.
• Uttar Pradesh has the largest rural population; Kerala recorded a fall in rural population between 2001 and 2011.
• Mumbai is the largest urban agglomeration; India had about 6.4 lakh villages in Census 2011.
Do not mix these up
• Push vs pull factor — a push factor drives people out of the source (lack of work); a pull factor draws them to the destination (city jobs).
• Migrant vs commuter — a migrant changes residence; a daily commuter does not count in the Census migration tables.
Also asked from this topic: urban population share in Census 2011 (31 per cent); the state with the largest rural population (Uttar Pradesh); the state whose rural population fell in 2001–2011 (Kerala).

Biology (2)

Diseases, Immunity and Health · Vaccines and vaccination

Q41. Which of the following statements best describes the design, working mechanism, and challenges associated with recombinant vector vaccines?

  1. (a) Recombinant vector vaccines use inactivated whole pathogens to stimulate immunity and require multiple booster doses due to their low immunogenicity.
  2. (b) These vaccines utilize a harmless viral or bacterial vector genetically engineered to express antigenic proteins of a target pathogen, eliciting a strong cellular and humoral immune response, but face challenges like vector immunity and stability issues.
  3. (c) Recombinant vector vaccines directly inject synthetic antigenic peptides without involving any genetic material, leading to rapid but short-lived immunity.
  4. (d) Such vaccines rely solely on the production of DNA plasmids without any viral components, making them ineffective against intracellular pathogens.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) These vaccines utilize a harmless viral or bacterial vector genetically engineered to express antigenic proteins of a target pathogen, eliciting a strong cellular and humoral immune response, but face challenges like vector immunity and stability issues.

Answer: Option 2 — These vaccines utilize a harmless viral or bacterial vector genetically engineered to express antigenic proteins of a target pathogen, eliciting a strong cellular and humoral immune response, but face challenges like vector immunity and stability issues.
A harmless carrier virus (usually an adenovirus) is given the gene for the pathogen's antigen; our own cells then make the antigen and both antibodies (humoral) and T-cells (cellular) respond.
The catch: if the body already knows the carrier virus, it destroys it before the antigen is made — vector immunity.
Revision note — Vaccine platforms
• Viral vector vaccines: Covishield (Oxford–AstraZeneca, made by the Serum Institute of India) uses the chimpanzee adenovirus ChAdOx1.
• Sputnik V uses adenoviruses Ad26 and Ad5; Johnson & Johnson uses Ad26; the Ebola vaccine Ervebo uses a VSV vector.
• India's iNCOVACC (Bharat Biotech, 2022) is an adenovirus-vectored intranasal COVID-19 vaccine — the world's first of its kind.
• Inactivated whole-virus vaccines: Covaxin (Bharat Biotech with ICMR–NIV Pune), Salk polio vaccine, rabies vaccine.
• Live attenuated: BCG, oral polio (Sabin), measles, MMR — weakened but living pathogen, strong long immunity.
• Protein subunit / recombinant protein: Hepatitis B vaccine (antigen made in yeast), Corbevax (Biological E), Covovax (SII–Novavax).
• Nucleic acid vaccines: mRNA — Pfizer, Moderna, and India's first, GEMCOVAC-19 by Gennova, Pune (2022); DNA — ZyCoV-D by Zydus Cadila (2021), the world's first DNA vaccine.
• Edward Jenner gave the first vaccine (smallpox, 1796); Louis Pasteur made the rabies vaccine (1885).
Do not mix these up
• Recombinant vector vaccine vs recombinant protein vaccine — the vector vaccine delivers a gene inside a carrier virus; the protein vaccine (Hepatitis B) delivers the ready-made protein.
• Vector vaccine vs mRNA vaccine — both make the body produce the antigen, but the vector uses a DNA gene inside a virus, the mRNA vaccine uses naked mRNA inside a lipid particle, with no virus at all.
Also asked from this topic: the developer of India's first mRNA vaccine (Gennova Biopharmaceuticals); the maker of the world's first DNA vaccine ZyCoV-D (Zydus Cadila); diseases covered under the UIP (12).
Nutrition and Digestion · Vitamins - sources, functions and deficiency

Q42. Which vitamin deficiency is most likely to impair night vision?

  1. (a) Vitamin C
  2. (b) Vitamin A
  3. (c) Vitamin D
  4. (d) Vitamin K
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Vitamin A

Answer: Option 2 — Vitamin A
The rod cells of the retina see in dim light using the pigment rhodopsin, which is made from retinal, a form of vitamin A.
Without enough vitamin A the rods cannot regenerate rhodopsin, so the eye fails in the dark — night blindness (nyctalopia).
Revision note — Vitamin A and the deficiency diseases
• Vitamin A = retinol; chemical name retinol, plant precursor beta-carotene; fat-soluble, stored in the liver.
• Sources: carrot, papaya, mango, spinach and green leafy vegetables (as carotene); liver, egg yolk, milk, butter, fish-liver oil (as retinol).
• Deficiency: night blindness first, then xerophthalmia (dry eye), Bitot's spots and keratomalacia, which can end in total blindness; also dry skin and poor immunity.
• Fat-soluble vitamins: A, D, E, K; water-soluble: B-complex and C.
• Vitamin C (ascorbic acid) → scurvy; Vitamin D (calciferol) → rickets in children, osteomalacia in adults; Vitamin K (phylloquinone) → delayed blood clotting.
• B1 (thiamine) → beriberi; B2 (riboflavin) → cheilosis; B3 (niacin) → pellagra; B12 (cobalamin) → pernicious anaemia; folic acid → anaemia and neural tube defects.
• Vitamins were named by Casimir Funk (1912); vitamin A was the first fat-soluble vitamin identified, by McCollum and Davis (1913).
Do not mix these up
• Night blindness vs colour blindness — night blindness is a dietary deficiency of vitamin A and is curable; colour blindness is genetic (X-linked) and affects the cone cells.
• Rickets vs osteomalacia — both are vitamin D deficiency; rickets bends the soft bones of children, osteomalacia weakens the bones of adults.
Also asked from this topic: the deficiency that causes night blindness (Vitamin A); the deficiency that causes beriberi (Vitamin B1); the fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, K).

Computer (1)

Emerging Technologies and E-Governance · AR, VR and extended reality

Q43. Which of the following statements accurately describes the technological principles, potential applications, and key challenges associated with Augmented Reality (AR)?

  1. (a) Augmented Reality fully immerses users in a virtual environment by replacing the physical world, primarily used in gaming and simulations, but limited by high hardware costs and motion sickness issues.
  2. (b) AR overlays computer-generated digital information onto the real-world environment in real time, enhancing perception and interaction in fields like healthcare, education, and defense, but faces challenges such as hardware limitations, privacy concerns, and context-awareness.
  3. (c) AR involves the use of brain-computer interfaces to directly manipulate neural activity for enhanced cognitive functions, with limited current commercial applications but significant ethical concerns.
  4. (d) AR technology depends solely on pre-recorded video content to provide user experiences, lacking real-time interactivity and adaptability to changing environments.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) AR overlays computer-generated digital information onto the real-world environment in real time, enhancing perception and interaction in fields like healthcare, education, and defense, but faces challenges such as hardware limitations, privacy concerns, and context-awareness.

Answer: Option 2 — AR overlays computer-generated digital information onto the real-world environment in real time, enhancing perception and interaction in fields like healthcare, education, and defense, but faces challenges such as hardware limitations, privacy concerns, and context-awareness.
AR adds to the real world — a Snapchat filter, a Pokémon on the pavement, a surgeon's scan floating over the patient.
The user still sees the real surroundings; that is what separates AR from virtual reality, which replaces the world entirely.
Revision note — AR, VR and the extended-reality family
• Augmented Reality (AR): digital layer over the real world, seen through a phone camera, smart glasses or a head-up display; examples — Pokémon Go (2016), Google Lens, IKEA Place, fighter-pilot HUDs.
• Virtual Reality (VR): complete immersion in a computer-made world through a head-mounted display such as Meta Quest or HTC Vive; the physical world is shut out.
• Mixed Reality (MR): virtual objects that interact with real ones — Microsoft HoloLens, Apple Vision Pro (2024), which Apple markets as spatial computing.
• Extended Reality (XR) is the umbrella term covering AR, VR and MR.
• The term augmented reality was coined by Tom Caudell of Boeing in 1990; Ivan Sutherland built the first head-mounted display in 1968.
• Developer platforms: ARCore (Google) and ARKit (Apple); AR needs a camera, sensors (gyroscope, GPS), a processor and a display working together in real time.
• Challenges: battery and processing limits on wearables, privacy (cameras always on), and context-awareness — the device must understand what it is looking at.
Do not mix these up
• AR vs VR — AR overlays information on the real world; VR replaces it with a virtual one.
• Brain-computer interface vs AR — a BCI (Neuralink) reads or writes neural signals; AR only changes what the eyes see.
Also asked from this topic: the input device least suited to navigating a virtual-reality environment (an ordinary optical mouse).

Chemistry (1)

Environmental Chemistry · Air quality management (AQI, NAAQS, NCAP, GRAP)

Q44. What public health advisory applies when AQI in Delhi exceeds 300 ('Very Poor')?

  1. (a) Reduced outdoor activity
  2. (b) Encourage jogging outside
  3. (c) No restrictions
  4. (d) Encourage open windows
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Reduced outdoor activity

Answer: Option 1 — Reduced outdoor activity
An AQI of 301 to 400 is "Very Poor": the CPCB warns it may cause respiratory illness on prolonged exposure, so people are advised to cut down outdoor exertion.
In Delhi-NCR this level triggers Stage II of GRAP.
Jogging outside or opening windows would increase exposure.
Revision note — National Air Quality Index (AQI)
• Launched by the CPCB in 2014; runs on a scale of 0 to 500 with six categories.
• Good 0–50, Satisfactory 51–100, Moderate 101–200, Poor 201–300, Very Poor 301–400, Severe 401–500.
• Based on eight pollutants: PM10, PM2.5, NO2, SO2, CO, O3, NH3 and lead (Pb); the worst sub-index becomes the AQI.
• Health note for Very Poor: respiratory illness on prolonged exposure; for Severe: affects even healthy people and seriously hits those with existing disease.
• GRAP (Graded Response Action Plan) for Delhi-NCR is enforced by the Commission for Air Quality Management (CAQM).
• GRAP stages: Stage I Poor, Stage II Very Poor, Stage III Severe (401–450), Stage IV Severe Plus (above 450).
• Real-time AQI data come from the CPCB's SAMEER app and the National Air Quality Monitoring Programme.
Do not mix these up
• Poor vs Very Poor — Poor is 201–300 (breathing discomfort on prolonged exposure); Very Poor is 301–400 (respiratory illness on prolonged exposure).
• AQI vs NAAQS — the AQI is a daily public index; the National Ambient Air Quality Standards are the legal limits for each pollutant.
Also asked from this topic: the number of pollutants in India's AQI (8); the AQI range for "Good" (0–50); the AQI value above which air is "Severe" (400); the agency that monitors AQI in cities (CPCB).

Current Affairs (1)

Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q45. Which country ranked 1st in the World Press Freedom Index 2026?

  1. (a) Denmark
  2. (b) Estonia
  3. (c) Netherlands
  4. (d) Norway
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Norway

Answer: Option 4 — Norway
Reporters Without Borders (RSF) placed Norway first in the World Press Freedom Index 2026 — its tenth consecutive year at the top, a run that began in 2017.
Revision note — World Press Freedom Index
• Published every year around 3 May, World Press Freedom Day, by Reporters Without Borders (RSF), a Paris-based body founded in 1985.
• Ranks 180 countries and territories on five indicators: political, economic, legislative, social and security context.
• 2025 edition: Norway 1st, followed by Estonia and the Netherlands; Eritrea 180th (last); the Nordic countries fill most of the top ten.
• India was 151st in 2025, up from 159th in 2024; RSF cites media ownership concentration, harassment of journalists and online censorship.
• Pair it with the other publishers: Global Hunger Index (Concern Worldwide and Welthungerhilfe), Human Development Index (UNDP), Global Gender Gap (WEF).
• Also Corruption Perceptions Index (Transparency International) and World Happiness Report (UN SDSN).
Do not mix these up
• World Press Freedom Index vs Freedom in the World — the first is RSF's ranking of press freedom; the second is Freedom House's rating of political rights and civil liberties.
Also asked from this topic: the number of countries ranked in the 2025 index (180); India's rank in 2025 (151st); the worst performer in 2025 (Eritrea).
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