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Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 22 December 2025 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 50 GK / GS questions asked in Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 on 22 December 2025 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Ancient History, Polity, Economics, Static GK, Medieval History, Physics.

📚 50 questions🗓️ 22 December 2025⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Ancient History (3) · Polity (7) · Economics (8) · Static GK (14) · Medieval History (1) · Physics (1) · Geography (3) · Modern History (2) · Current Affairs (10) · Computer (1)

Ancient History (3)

Buddhism, Jainism and Other Sects · Buddhist teachings and texts

Q1. Vinaya Pitaka is a division of the Tipitaka that comprises the rules related to __________.

  1. (a) Meditation techniques
  2. (b) Monastic discipline and ethics
  3. (c) Philosophical doctrines
  4. (d) Rituals and ceremonies
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Monastic discipline and ethics

The Vinaya Pitaka is one of the three main divisions of the Tipitaka (the Pali Canon of Theravada Buddhism). It contains all the rules and regulations governing the Buddhist Sangha (monastic community) — covering monastic discipline and ethics for monks and nuns, including rules on conduct, confession, and communal living. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Meditation techniques are primarily covered in the Sutta Pitaka (discourses of the Buddha), not the Vinaya Pitaka; the Vinaya specifically deals with monastic rules.
Option 3 is wrong: Philosophical doctrines are mainly contained in the Abhidhamma Pitaka (higher teachings on philosophy and psychology), not the Vinaya Pitaka.
Option 4 is wrong: Rituals and ceremonies are not the focus of the Vinaya Pitaka; it specifically governs monastic discipline and the code of conduct for Buddhist monks and nuns.
Mauryan Empire · Mauryan art and architecture

Q2. What is the defining feature of Mauryan art and architecture, particularly associated with Emperor Ashoka?

  1. (a) Large hemispherical domes (stupas)
  2. (b) Monumental stone temples
  3. (c) Monolithic pillars crowned with animal capitals
  4. (d) Free-standing sculptures of Buddha
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Monolithic pillars crowned with animal capitals

The most defining and distinctive feature of Mauryan art associated with Emperor Ashoka is the monolithic polished stone pillars (Ashokan Pillars), each crowned with animal capitals — the most famous being the Lion Capital of Sarnath (now India's national emblem) showing four back-to-back lions on an abacus with a Dhamma Chakra. These pillars were erected across the empire with Dhamma edicts. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: While stupas (hemispherical domes) like the Great Stupa at Sanchi were built or expanded during the Mauryan period, the stupa itself is not uniquely defining of Mauryan art — it was refined further during the Shunga and later periods; the Ashokan pillars are the most characteristic Mauryan element.
Option 2 is wrong: Monumental stone temples are NOT a feature of Mauryan architecture; the Mauryans primarily used wood and later stone for palaces and pillars, not elaborate stone temples — these became prominent in later periods.
Option 4 is wrong: Free-standing sculptures of Buddha as a human figure emerged only during the Kushana period (Mathura and Gandhara schools); in the Mauryan period, Buddha was represented symbolically (wheel, footprint, bodhi tree) — not in human form.
Gupta Empire · Gupta rulers

Q3. What title did Chandragupta I take during his reign?

  1. (a) Rajaraja
  2. (b) Maharajadhiraja
  3. (c) Chhatrapati
  4. (d) Samrat
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Maharajadhiraja

Chandragupta I (reigned c. 319-335 CE), the founder of the Gupta Empire, adopted the grand title ' Maharajadhiraja ' (Great King of Kings / Supreme Ruler of Kings), which signified his paramount sovereignty over many subordinate kings. This title was also used on Gupta coinage and inscriptions, marking the Gupta dynasty's imperial status. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: 'Rajaraja' (King of Kings) was used by rulers like Rajaraja Chola I of the Chola dynasty; Chandragupta I of the Gupta dynasty specifically adopted the grander title ' Maharajadhiraja .'
Option 3 is wrong: 'Chhatrapati' is a Maratha title meaning 'Lord of the Umbrella' (Supreme Ruler) used by Shivaji and the Maratha rulers — it is a medieval Indian title not associated with the ancient Gupta period.
Option 4 is wrong: 'Samrat' is a Sanskrit term for emperor used by various Indian rulers, but Chandragupta I specifically adopted the formal title ' Maharajadhiraja ' as found in Gupta-era records and coinage.

Polity (7)

Constitutional Development and Making · Constituent Assembly - formation and members

Q4. Who was the first and temporary president of the Constitutional Assembly formed to draft the Constitution of India?

  1. (a) B N Rau
  2. (b) BR Ambedkar
  3. (c) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
  4. (d) HVR Iyengar
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha

Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha was the first and temporary (provisional) president of the Constituent Assembly of India when it first met on December 9, 1946. He was the oldest member of the Assembly and served as the temporary president until Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the permanent president on December 11, 1946. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: B.N. Rau (Sir Benegal Narsing Rau) was the Constitutional Advisor to the Constituent Assembly who helped draft the initial draft of the Constitution; he was not the temporary president.
Option 2 is wrong: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee and is considered the principal architect of the Indian Constitution; he was not the temporary president of the Constituent Assembly.
Option 4 is wrong: H.V.R. Iyengar was a senior ICS officer and later served as the Governor of the Reserve Bank of India; he had no role as the president of the Constituent Assembly.
Polity Miscellaneous · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q5. What is the aim of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023?

  1. (a) To teach history
  2. (b) To make new school books
  3. (c) To clean rivers
  4. (d) To replace old criminal laws like the Indian Penal Code
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) To replace old criminal laws like the Indian Penal Code

The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, was enacted with the primary aim of replacing the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860 — a colonial-era law — with a modern Indian criminal code. The BNS introduces new provisions like organised crime, terrorism, and crimes against women, while updating and reorganising criminal laws to suit contemporary India. Option 4 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Teaching history is the objective of educational curriculum and institutions; it has nothing to do with the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, which is a criminal code.
Option 2 is wrong: Making new school books is the work of bodies like NCERT; the BNS is a comprehensive criminal law replacing the IPC, not an educational document.
Option 3 is wrong: Cleaning rivers is an environmental objective addressed by schemes like Namami Gange; the BNS is a penal code dealing with criminal offences and punishments.
Polity Miscellaneous · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q6. What new form of punishment introduced by the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, aims to keep convicts out of prison for minor offences?

  1. (a) Life imprisonment for minor offences
  2. (b) Community service
  3. (c) Capital punishment for lesser crimes
  4. (d) Fine and retribution
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Community service

The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, introduced Community Service as a new form of punishment for minor offences — a provision that did not exist in the old IPC. Under this, convicted persons serve the community (such as working in hospitals, schools, or cleaning public places) instead of going to jail, helping reduce prison overcrowding. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Life imprisonment is one of the most severe punishments reserved for serious crimes like murder; it would not be introduced as a new provision specifically to KEEP convicts OUT of prison for minor offences — that contradicts the purpose.
Option 3 is wrong: Capital punishment (death penalty) is applicable only to the most heinous crimes; introducing it for lesser crimes would violate constitutional principles and proportionality; this was not introduced by BNS.
Option 4 is wrong: Fines and retribution (payment of penalties) already existed in the IPC; they are not the new form of punishment specifically introduced by BNS for minor offences to keep convicts out of prison.
Polity Miscellaneous · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q7. What does Section 152 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, focus on, replacing the concept of sedition?

  1. (a) Acts causing public unrest and disturbances
  2. (b) Acts endangering the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India
  3. (c) Crimes related to terrorism and national security
  4. (d) Acts involving hate speech, defamation, and slander
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Acts endangering the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India

Section 152 of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, replaced the sedition law (Section 124A of IPC) and focuses on 'Acts endangering the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India.' Unlike the old sedition law, Section 152 of BNS targets acts that excite or attempt to excite secession, armed rebellion, or subversive activities against India. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Acts causing public unrest and disturbances are addressed under other sections of BNS dealing with public order offences; Section 152 specifically targets acts endangering national sovereignty and integrity.
Option 3 is wrong: Crimes related to terrorism and national security are covered under Chapter VII of BNS (Sections 111-113 deal with organized crime and terrorist acts); Section 152 specifically replaced sedition and addresses sovereignty and integrity.
Option 4 is wrong: Acts involving hate speech, defamation, and slander are covered under separate provisions in BNS relating to defamation and speech offences; Section 152 specifically replaced the sedition provision of IPC.
Preamble, Features, Parts and Schedules · Preamble - text and keywords

Q8. What is the correct sequence of values, from first to last, as mentioned in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) Justice, Equality, Liberty, Fraternity
  2. (b) Liberty, Justice, Equality, Fraternity
  3. (c) Equality, Liberty, Justice, Fraternity
  4. (d) Justice, Liberty, Equality, Fraternity
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Justice, Liberty, Equality, Fraternity

The Preamble of the Indian Constitution mentions the values in this order: JUSTICE (social, economic, and political); LIBERTY (of thought, expression, belief, faith and worship); EQUALITY (of status and opportunity); and FRATERNITY (assuring dignity of the individual and unity and integrity of the Nation). The sequence is Justice → Liberty → Equality → Fraternity. Option 4 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: 'Justice, Equality, Liberty, Fraternity' places Equality before Liberty — this is incorrect; in the Preamble, Liberty comes before Equality.
Option 2 is wrong: 'Liberty, Justice, Equality, Fraternity' starts with Liberty, but in the Preamble, Justice is mentioned first before Liberty.
Option 3 is wrong: 'Equality, Liberty, Justice, Fraternity' starts with Equality, which is third in the actual Preamble sequence; the correct order begins with Justice, not Equality.
State Government · Chief Minister and State Council of Ministers

Q9. To which body is the Council of Ministers in a State collectively accountable?

  1. (a) The Governor
  2. (b) The President of India
  3. (c) The State Legislative Council
  4. (d) The State Legislative Assembly
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) The State Legislative Assembly

Under Article 164(2) of the Indian Constitution, 'The Council of Ministers shall be collectively responsible to the Legislative Assembly of the State.' This means the state cabinet must maintain the confidence of the Vidhan Sabha (State Legislative Assembly) — if it loses a vote of no-confidence, the entire council of ministers must resign. Option 4 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: While the Governor appoints the Chief Minister and other ministers on the CM's advice and they formally hold office during the Governor's pleasure, the Constitution mandates their collective responsibility to the State Legislative Assembly — not to the Governor.
Option 2 is wrong: The President of India is the head of the Union; State Councils of Ministers are collectively responsible to their respective State Legislative Assemblies, not to the President of India.
Option 3 is wrong: The State Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad) is the upper house that exists only in a few states (bicameral states); collective responsibility of the State Council of Ministers is to the elected lower house — the State Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha), not the upper house.
Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies · Comptroller and Auditor General

Q10. What is the term of office for the Comptroller and Auditor General of India?

  1. (a) 5 years or until age 62
  2. (b) 6 years or until age 65
  3. (c) 9 years or until age 65
  4. (d) 7 years or until age 60
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 6 years or until age 65

Under Article 148 of the Indian Constitution, the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India holds office for a term of 6 years or until he/she attains the age of 65 years — whichever is earlier. The CAG is appointed by the President and can be removed only by impeachment by Parliament (like a Supreme Court judge). Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: A term of 5 years or until age 62 applies to the Election Commissioners (Chief Election Commissioner serves 6 years or till 65); the CAG specifically serves 6 years or till age 65.
Option 3 is wrong: A term of 9 years or until age 65 corresponds to the UPSC Chairman/Members; the CAG's constitutional term is 6 years or until age 65 — not 9 years.
Option 4 is wrong: A term of 7 years or until age 60 does not apply to the CAG; it partly resembles the President's term (5 years) or some other constitutional provisions, but the CAG's specific term is 6 years or until age 65.

Economics (8)

Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q11. What was the primary goal of the First Five-Year Plan (1951-1956) in India?

  1. (a) Promote heavy industries
  2. (b) Focus on agriculture
  3. (c) Develop foreign trade
  4. (d) Increase population
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Focus on agriculture

The First Five-Year Plan (1951-56) primarily focused on agriculture and rehabilitation of refugees after Partition. It was based on the Harrod-Domar model and prioritised food grain production, irrigation, and rural development to address food shortages. Agricultural output growth was the central objective. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Promoting heavy industries was the primary focus of the Second Five-Year Plan (1956-61) under the Mahalanobis model, not the First Plan.
Option 3 is wrong: Developing foreign trade was not the primary goal of the First Five-Year Plan; India's economic policy at the time was largely inward-looking, focused on domestic food security.
Option 4 is wrong: Increasing population was never an objective of any Five-Year Plan; India's plans have generally addressed population concerns as a challenge, not as a goal.
National Income · Per capita income

Q12. What does "per capita income" refer to in economic terms?

  1. (a) Average family income
  2. (b) Total income of a country
  3. (c) Total income divided by population
  4. (d) Government income
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Total income divided by population

Per capita income refers to the total national income (GDP or National Income) divided by the total population of a country. It is a measure of the average income earned per person in a given area over a specified period and is used to compare the economic performance and living standards across countries or regions. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Average family income refers to the mean income of households, not individuals; per capita income is calculated per person (capita = head/person), not per family unit.
Option 2 is wrong: Total income of a country refers to the aggregate national income (GDP/GNP) without dividing by population; per capita income requires dividing this total by the number of people.
Option 4 is wrong: Government income refers to the revenue earned by the government through taxes, fees, and other sources; this is a component of fiscal policy, not what 'per capita income' measures.
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q13. What term describes the removal of barriers or restrictions set by the government to promote foreign trade and investment?

  1. (a) Globalization
  2. (b) Liberalization
  3. (c) Protectionism
  4. (d) Nationalization
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Liberalization

Liberalization refers to the process of removing or reducing government restrictions, regulations, and barriers on economic activities — particularly those related to foreign trade, investment, and business operations. In India's context, the 1991 economic reforms brought liberalization by removing import quotas, industrial licensing, and foreign exchange restrictions. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Globalization refers to the broader process of increasing interconnectedness and interdependence of world economies, cultures, and populations; it is the outcome, while liberalization is the policy tool that promotes it.
Option 3 is wrong: Protectionism is the OPPOSITE of liberalization — it involves governments erecting barriers (tariffs, quotas, subsidies) to protect domestic industries from foreign competition, not removing them.
Option 4 is wrong: Nationalization refers to the transfer of private ownership of industries and assets to government (public) ownership; it represents MORE government control, not less — the opposite of liberalization.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Planning terms

Q14. Which of the following best describes the key requirement for ensuring balanced regional development (RBD) across India?

  1. (a) Dependence on financial resources without other factors
  2. (b) Focusing solely on technology and infrastructure
  3. (c) A mix of financial, natural, human, and technological resources
  4. (d) Relying on centralized planning and governance
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A mix of financial, natural, human, and technological resources

Balanced regional development requires a holistic combination of financial capital (investment), natural resources (land, water, minerals), human resources (skilled manpower), and technological resources (innovation, digital tools). No single factor alone can ensure balanced development — all must work in concert across regions. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Dependence only on financial resources without considering natural, human, and technological factors creates lopsided development; financial investment alone cannot develop a region lacking in skilled workers or infrastructure.
Option 2 is wrong: Focusing solely on technology and infrastructure ignores human development (education, health) and natural resource management; technology-only approaches often bypass rural communities and widen regional disparities.
Option 4 is wrong: Centralized planning and governance can actually impede balanced regional development by ignoring local needs and conditions; modern development theory emphasizes decentralization and participation of local governments and communities.
Industry and Infrastructure · Industrial Policy Resolutions (1948, 1956, 1991)

Q15. Which of the following was removed by the reform policies introduced after 1991 in India?

  1. (a) Control over all prices in the market
  2. (b) Industrial licensing for most sectors
  3. (c) Restrictions on foreign ownership in private firms
  4. (d) Government regulation of small-scale industries
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Industrial licensing for most sectors

The 1991 economic reforms introduced by Finance Minister Manmohan Singh abolished industrial licensing (the ' Licence Raj') for most sectors of the Indian economy. Previously, firms needed government permission ( licences ) to start, expand, or change production. The 1991 Industrial Policy Statement removed licensing requirements for all industries except 18 specified ones. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Control over all prices in the market was not fully removed by the 1991 reforms; the government retained price controls in sectors like petroleum, fertilizers, and essential commodities — it was a partial, not complete, decontrol.
Option 3 is wrong: The 1991 reforms actually RELAXED (not removed) restrictions on foreign ownership, allowing higher FDI limits in many sectors — but restrictions were not fully removed; they were reduced progressively over subsequent years.
Option 4 is wrong: Government regulation of small-scale industries was not removed by the 1991 reforms; the SSI reservation policy (reserving products exclusively for small enterprises) continued even after 1991 and was only gradually phased out from the 2000s.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q16. Which model was the First Five-Year Plan (1951-56) based on?

  1. (a) Solow-Swan Model
  2. (b) Harrod-Domar Model
  3. (c) Keynesian Model
  4. (d) Neoclassical Growth Model
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Harrod-Domar Model

The First Five-Year Plan (1951-56) of India was based on the Harrod-Domar Growth Model, which emphasizes that economic growth depends on the savings rate and the incremental capital-output ratio (ICOR). The plan focused on investment in agriculture and infrastructure, using this model to project that higher savings would lead to sustained growth. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: The Solow-Swan Model was developed in 1956 — the same year the Second Plan was being prepared; it was not the basis for the First Plan (1951-56), which was based on the earlier Harrod-Domar framework.
Option 3 is wrong: The Keynesian Model emphasizes aggregate demand and government spending to stabilize economies in recession; it was not the specific growth framework used for the First Five-Year Plan's planning methodology.
Option 4 is wrong: The Neoclassical Growth Model (associated with Solow-Swan) focuses on technological progress as the driver of long-term growth; this was developed in the mid-1950s and was not the basis of India's First Five-Year Plan.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Housing, sanitation and rural development schemes

Q17. The SVAMITVA Scheme aims to provide a 'Record of Rights' to rural household owners. This is primarily done through the issuance of which legal document?

  1. (a) Gram Sabha Resolution
  2. (b) Agricultural Land Passbook
  3. (c) Property Cards
  4. (d) Rural Housing Subsidy Certificate
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Property Cards

The SVAMITVA (Survey of Villages and Mapping with Improvised Technology in Village Areas) Scheme, launched on April 24, 2020 (National Panchayati Raj Day), provides 'Record of Rights' to rural household owners through the issuance of Property Cards (also called Adhikar Patra). These cards are prepared using drone-based mapping of inhabited (Abadi) land in villages. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Gram Sabha Resolution is a decision passed by the village assembly (Gram Sabha) regarding village matters; it is not the legal document through which the SVAMITVA scheme provides property rights to household owners.
Option 2 is wrong: Agricultural Land Passbook documents relate to agricultural land ownership (used in some states for farming land); SVAMITVA specifically targets residential (Abadi) land in villages — not agricultural plots.
Option 4 is wrong: Rural Housing Subsidy Certificate is related to housing subsidy schemes like PMAY-Gramin (Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana); the SVAMITVA scheme provides Property Cards for property rights, not housing subsidy certificates.
Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Poverty alleviation and employment programmes (MGNREGA, etc.)

Q18. The Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana - National Rural Livelihoods Mission (DAY-NRLM) aims to mobilize all rural poor households into Self Help Groups (SHG). What is the prescribed minimum number of women required to form a new SHG under the scheme guidelines?

  1. (a) 4
  2. (b) 8
  3. (c) 10
  4. (d) 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 10

Under the DAY-NRLM (Deendayal Antyodaya Yojana - National Rural Livelihoods Mission) guidelines, a Self Help Group (SHG) must have a minimum of 10 women members (and a maximum of 15) to be formed under the scheme. These women pool small savings, access credit, and undertake livelihood activities collectively. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: A minimum of 4 women is insufficient to form a valid SHG under DAY-NRLM guidelines; the minimum required is 10 women members to ensure effective group functioning and peer support.
Option 2 is wrong: A minimum of 8 women does not meet the DAY-NRLM requirement of at least 10 women members per SHG; groups below 10 members would not be eligible for the scheme's benefits.
Option 4 is wrong: A minimum of 2 women is far below the required threshold; SHGs under DAY-NRLM require at least 10 women (and up to 15) to be recognized as a valid group under the scheme.

Static GK (14)

Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q19. In which dance form do female dancers wear a costume known as 'Mekhela Chador'?

  1. (a) Kathakali
  2. (b) Sattriya
  3. (c) Odissi
  4. (d) Mohiniyattam
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Sattriya

Mekhela Chador (or Mekhela Sador) is the traditional two-piece attire of Assam, and it is specifically worn by female dancers in Sattriya — the classical dance form of Assam founded by the Vaishnavite saint Srimanta Sankardev. The Mekhela is the lower garment and the Chador is the upper wrap worn gracefully during performances. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Kathakali is a classical dance-drama of Kerala; its female characters wear elaborate costumes including a skirt, jacket, and heavy makeup — not the Mekhela Chador, which is specifically Assamese attire.
Option 3 is wrong: Odissi is the classical dance form of Odisha; its costumes typically consist of silk sarees draped in the Odishan style with specific ornaments — not the Mekhela Chador.
Option 4 is wrong: Mohiniyattam is the classical dance of Kerala performed by women; dancers wear an off-white Kerala kasavu saree with golden border — not the Mekhela Chador, which is the attire of Assam's Sattriya dance.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q20. The Bonalu festival in Telangana is dedicated to which deity?

  1. (a) Goddess Durga
  2. (b) Goddess Mahakali
  3. (c) Lord Shiva
  4. (d) Lord Vishnu
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Goddess Mahakali

Bonalu is a folk festival of Telangana (and parts of Andhra Pradesh) dedicated to Goddess Mahakali (also known as Ujjaini Mahankali or Golkonda Mahakali). Devotees, especially women, offer 'Bonam' (a pot of cooked rice) as a thanksgiving to the goddess for protecting them from diseases and disasters. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Goddess Durga is worshipped during Navratri and Durga Puja, which are separate festivals celebrated across India; Bonalu is specifically dedicated to Goddess Mahakali, not Durga.
Option 3 is wrong: Lord Shiva is not the deity associated with Bonalu ; this festival is exclusively dedicated to the mother goddess Mahakali in Telangana's folk tradition.
Option 4 is wrong: Lord Vishnu is worshipped in festivals like Vaikuntha Ekadashi and Janmashtami; Bonalu is a mother goddess festival dedicated to Mahakali, not Lord Vishnu.
Sports · Olympic Games

Q21. In which sport did India win its only gold medal at the 2020 Olympics?

  1. (a) Wrestling
  2. (b) Shooting
  3. (c) Javelin Throw
  4. (d) Boxing
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Javelin Throw

India won its only gold medal at the 2020 Tokyo Olympics (held in 2021) in Javelin Throw — when Neeraj Chopra threw the javelin 87.58 metres to win India's first-ever Olympic gold medal in athletics and only the second individual gold in Olympic history (after Abhinav Bindra). Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: In wrestling, Bajrang Punia won a bronze medal and Ravi Kumar Dahiya won a silver medal at the 2020 Tokyo Olympics — no gold was won in wrestling.
Option 2 is wrong: In shooting, no gold medal was won by India at the 2020 Tokyo Olympics; Saurabh Chaudhary, Manu Bhaker, and others competed but didn't win gold.
Option 4 is wrong: In boxing, Lovlina Borgohain won a bronze medal at the 2020 Tokyo Olympics in the 69kg welterweight category — not a gold medal.
Organisations and Headquarters · Regional groupings (SAARC, ASEAN, BIMSTEC, SCO, G20)

Q22. In which year was the South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation (SAARC) established?

  1. (a) 1985
  2. (b) 1980
  3. (c) 1990
  4. (d) 1995
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1985

SAARC (South Asian Association for Regional Cooperation) was established on December 8, 1985, in Dhaka, Bangladesh, when the leaders of seven South Asian nations (India, Pakistan, Bangladesh, Sri Lanka, Nepal, Bhutan, and Maldives) signed the SAARC Charter. Afghanistan joined later as the eighth member in 2007. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: 1980 predates the establishment of SAARC; the idea for SAARC was first proposed by Bangladeshi President Ziaur Rahman in 1980, but the formal establishment occurred in 1985.
Option 3 is wrong: 1990 is after SAARC was already established in 1985; by 1990, SAARC had already held multiple summits and developed regional cooperation frameworks.
Option 4 is wrong: 1995 is a decade after SAARC's founding in 1985; the organization had been operational and holding summits for ten years by this time.
Monuments and Heritage · Temples and religious places

Q23. Moti Masjid was built in Red Fort by the Mughal Emperor:

  1. (a) Shahjahan
  2. (b) Aurangzeb
  3. (c) Shah Aalam II
  4. (d) Akbar
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Aurangzeb

Moti Masjid (Pearl Mosque) inside the Red Fort in Delhi was built by Aurangzeb in 1659 CE, for his personal use as a private mosque. It is a small, elegant structure made of white marble with three domes. Aurangzeb added it to the Red Fort complex (which was originally built by Shahjahan). Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Shahjahan built the Red Fort itself (Lal Qila) between 1638-1648 CE, but it was Aurangzeb who later added the Moti Masjid within the fort premises.
Option 3 is wrong: Shah Aalam II was a much later Mughal emperor (18th century) whose reign saw the decline of Mughal power; he did not build the Moti Masjid in Red Fort.
Option 4 is wrong: Akbar predates the construction of Red Fort altogether — Red Fort was built by Shahjahan in Delhi, while Akbar built his capital at Agra and Fatehpur Sikri.
Sports · Number of players and field dimensions

Q24. Which of the following statements is correct regarding the goal post dimensions in football?

  1. (a) The goal post distance is 8.32 meters
  2. (b) The goal post height is 2.14 meters
  3. (c) The goal post distance is 7.32 meters
  4. (d) The goal post height is 2.54 meters
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The goal post distance is 7.32 meters

According to FIFA Laws of the Game, the distance between the two goalposts (the width of the goal) is 7.32 metres (8 yards), and the height of the crossbar from the ground is 2.44 metres (8 feet). Option 3 (goal post distance 7.32 metres ) is the correct statement.
Option 1 is wrong: The correct distance between the inner edges of the goalposts is 7.32 metres , not 8.32 metres ; 8.32m is an incorrect figure that does not correspond to any standard football measurement.
Option 2 is wrong: The goal post height (crossbar height from ground) is 2.44 metres , not 2.14 metres ; 2.14m is an incorrect figure for football goalposts.
Option 4 is wrong: The crossbar height in football is 2.44 metres , not 2.54 metres ; 2.54m is incorrect — this confusion may arise from mixing up units or sports (basketball backboard height differs).
Dances · Classical dance exponents

Q25. Fill in the blank:
Sitara Devi is recognized as a famous exponent of the __________.

  1. (a) Mohiniyattam
  2. (b) Kathak
  3. (c) Kuchipudi
  4. (d) Manipuri
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Kathak

Sitara Devi (1920-2014) was one of the greatest exponents of Kathak dance, known as the 'Maharani of Kathak.' She was awarded the Padma Shri (1969) and the Sangeet Natak Akademi Award. She trained under her father Sukhdev Maharaj and performed internationally, preserving the Lucknow gharana of Kathak. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Mohiniyattam is the classical solo dance of Kerala; its famous exponents include Sunanda Nair and Smitha Rajan — not Sitara Devi, who was a Kathak dancer.
Option 3 is wrong: Kuchipudi is the classical dance-drama of Andhra Pradesh, associated with performers like Yamini Krishnamurthy and Raja-Radha Reddy — not with Sitara Devi.
Option 4 is wrong: Manipuri is the classical dance of Manipur associated with Guru Bipin Singh and others; Sitara Devi's renowned contribution was exclusively to Kathak dance.
Awards and Honours · Nobel Prize and international awards

Q26. For which area of research did Venkatraman Ramakrishnan receive the Nobel Prize in Chemistry in 2009?

  1. (a) Development of green chemistry techniques
  2. (b) Studies of the structure and function of the ribosome
  3. (c) Discovery of catalytic RNA molecules
  4. (d) Research on protein folding mechanisms
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Studies of the structure and function of the ribosome

Venkatraman Ramakrishnan (along with Thomas A. Steitz and Ada E. Yonath ) was awarded the Nobel Prize in Chemistry 2009 for studies of the structure and function of the ribosome. Using X-ray crystallography, they determined the atomic structure of the ribosome — the cell's protein-making machinery — providing crucial insights into how living organisms translate genetic information into proteins. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Development of green chemistry techniques was recognized by the Nobel Chemistry Prize in 2005 (Grubbs, Schrock, Chauvin for metathesis); Ramakrishnan's work was on ribosome structure.
Option 3 is wrong: Discovery of catalytic RNA molecules (ribozymes) was the basis of the 1989 Nobel Chemistry Prize awarded to Thomas R. Cech and Sidney Altman; Ramakrishnan worked on ribosome structure, not catalytic RNA.
Option 4 is wrong: Research on protein folding mechanisms has been recognized in other Nobel Prizes (e.g., 2024 Nobel Chemistry for AlphaFold AI); Ramakrishnan's 2009 Nobel was specifically for determining ribosome structure and function.
Awards and Honours · Nobel Prize and international awards

Q27. Which other scientists shared the Nobel Prize in Chemistry with Venkatraman Ramakrishnan in 2009?

  1. (a) Ada Yonath and Thomas Steitz
  2. (b) James Watson and Francis Crick
  3. (c) Jennifer Doudna and Emmanuelle Charpentier
  4. (d) Linus Pauling and Dorothy Hodgkin
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Ada Yonath and Thomas Steitz

Venkatraman Ramakrishnan shared the 2009 Nobel Prize in Chemistry with Ada E. Yonath (Israel) and Thomas A. Steitz (USA). All three independently determined the structure of the ribosome at atomic resolution using X-ray crystallography — Yonath focusing on the small subunit, Steitz on the large subunit, and Ramakrishnan on both. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: James Watson and Francis Crick discovered the double helix structure of DNA in 1953 and shared the 1962 Nobel Prize in Physiology or Medicine (with Maurice Wilkins) — not the 2009 Nobel Chemistry Prize.
Option 3 is wrong: Jennifer Doudna and Emmanuelle Charpentier won the 2020 Nobel Prize in Chemistry for developing the CRISPR-Cas9 gene editing tool — not the 2009 Nobel Chemistry Prize.
Option 4 is wrong: Linus Pauling won the 1954 Nobel Chemistry Prize (for research on the nature of the chemical bond) and the 1962 Nobel Peace Prize; Dorothy Hodgkin won the 1964 Nobel Chemistry Prize for crystallographic determination of vitamin B12 structure — neither shared the 2009 prize.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Tribal festivals

Q28. Read the following statements and choose the correct option. Statement I: The Gaud Maria dance is performed at important events such as births and marriages.
Statement II: The Moatsu Mong festival is celebrated after hard work, including the sowing of seeds.

  1. (a) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
  2. (b) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true
  3. (c) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  4. (d) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both Statement I and Statement II are true

Both statements are true. Statement I: Gaud Maria is a folk dance of the Gond tribe performed at important social occasions including births, marriages, and festivals. Statement II: Moatsu Mong is a post-sowing festival of the Ao Naga tribe of Nagaland, celebrated in May after completing the hard work of sowing seeds, marking the beginning of leisure time. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Statement I being true but Statement II false is incorrect — Statement II is also true; the Moatsu Mong festival is indeed celebrated after the completion of sowing seeds by the Ao Nagas.
Option 2 is wrong: Statement I being false but Statement II true is incorrect — Statement I is also true; the Gaud Maria dance is performed at important social events including births and marriages among the Gond tribe.
Option 4 is wrong: Both statements being false is incorrect — both Statement I (Gaud Maria at births/marriages) and Statement II ( Moatsu Mong after sowing) are factually correct descriptions of these tribal traditions.
Books and Authors · International books and authors

Q29. Jason De Leon's "Soldiers and Kings" investigates which global issue?

  1. (a) Artificial intelligence regulation
  2. (b) Oceanic climate change
  3. (c) Human smuggling networks
  4. (d) Feminist political movements
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Human smuggling networks

"Soldiers and Kings: Survival and Hope in the World of Human Smuggling" by Jason De Leon is an anthropological study of human smuggling networks — specifically focusing on the people who work as smugglers (coyotes) guiding migrants across the US-Mexico border. The book investigates the complex world of migration, smuggling, and survival. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Artificial intelligence regulation is a tech policy issue; De Leon's work is in anthropology and focuses on migration and border politics, not AI governance.
Option 2 is wrong: Oceanic climate change is an environmental science topic; "Soldiers and Kings" is a work about human migration and smuggling networks along international borders, not climate science.
Option 4 is wrong: Feminist political movements are a separate area of political sociology; De Leon's book specifically examines the underground economy of human smuggling and the lives of smugglers and migrants.
Awards and Honours · Literary awards (Jnanpith, Sahitya Akademi)

Q30. Which novel by Khalid Jawed, awarded the JCB Prize in 2022?

  1. (a) Tomb of Sand
  2. (b) The Paradise of Food
  3. (c) Spirit Nights
  4. (d) The Seven Moons of Maali Almeida
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The Paradise of Food

"The Paradise of Food" (original Urdu title: Naimat Khana) by Khalid Jawed, translated into English by Baran Farooqi, won the JCB Prize for Literature in 2022. The novel explores food, memory, and family relationships in Aligarh through the perspective of a dysfunctional family. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: "Tomb of Sand" (Ret Samadhi) by Geetanjali Shree, translated by Daisy Rockwell, won the International Booker Prize 2022 — not the JCB Prize 2022. These are two different prizes.
Option 3 is wrong: "Spirit Nights" is not associated with the JCB Prize 2022; Khalid Jawed's "The Paradise of Food" was the actual JCB Prize 2022 winner.
Option 4 is wrong: "The Seven Moons of Maali Almeida" by Shehan Karunatilaka won the Booker Prize 2022 — not the JCB Prize 2022. The JCB Prize went to Khalid Jawed's "The Paradise of Food."
Sports · Sports and famous players

Q31. Which country does Javo khir Sindarov represent in chess?

  1. (a) Russia
  2. (b) Uzbekistan
  3. (c) China
  4. (d) India
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Uzbekistan

Javokhir Sindarov represents Uzbekistan in chess. Uzbekistan has emerged as a major chess powerhouse in recent years, with players like Nodirbek Abdusattorov (World Rapid Chess Champion 2021), Nodirbek Yakubboev, and Javokhir Sindarov representing the country at the highest levels of international chess. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Russia is represented by many top grandmasters including Ian Nepomniachtchi, Andrey Esipenko, and others; Javokhir Sindarov is from Uzbekistan, not Russia.
Option 3 is wrong: China has its own strong chess tradition with players like Ding Liren (World Chess Champion) and Wei Yi; Sindarov represents Uzbekistan, not China.
Option 4 is wrong: India's top chess players include D. Gukesh (World Chess Champion 2024), R. Praggnanandhaa , and Arjun Erigaisi; Javokhir Sindarov represents Uzbekistan, not India.
Organisations and Headquarters · United Nations and its agencies

Q32. What does the acronym WIPO stand for?

  1. (a) World International Patent Office
  2. (b) World Intellectual Property Organization
  3. (c) Worldwide Information Protection Organization
  4. (d) World Innovation Protection Office
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) World Intellectual Property Organization

WIPO stands for World Intellectual Property Organization. It is a specialized agency of the United Nations headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland, responsible for promoting the protection of intellectual property (patents, copyrights, trademarks, and trade secrets) worldwide and administering international IP treaties. India is a member of WIPO. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: 'World International Patent Office' is not the correct full form of WIPO; while WIPO does administer the Patent Cooperation Treaty (PCT), it covers all forms of intellectual property, not just patents, and is an 'Organization' not an 'Office.'
Option 3 is wrong: 'Worldwide Information Protection Organization' is not the correct expansion; WIPO deals with intellectual property rights (patents, copyrights, trademarks) — not 'information protection' in the data security sense.
Option 4 is wrong: 'World Innovation Protection Office' is not the correct full form; WIPO's mandate covers intellectual property broadly and it is an 'Organization' (a UN specialized agency), not merely an 'office.'

Medieval History (1)

Bhakti, Sufi and Sikh Movements · Bhakti saints of North India (Kabir, Ramananda, Surdas, Tulsidas, Mirabai)

Q33. Surdas was a disciple of:

  1. (a) Ramanujacharya
  2. (b) Ramananda
  3. (c) Vallabhacharya
  4. (d) Gyaneshwar
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Vallabhacharya

Surdas (1478-1583 CE), the celebrated blind saint-poet known for his devotional songs (padas) about Krishna's childhood ( Sursagar ), was a disciple of Vallabhacharya (Vallabha) — the founder of the Pushti Marga (Path of Grace) sect of Vaishnavism. Vallabhacharya initiated Surdas into the devotional tradition at Gaughat on the Yamuna. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Ramanujacharya (11th-12th century) was the founder of the Vishishtadvaita school of Vedanta and lived centuries before Surdas; Surdas was not his disciple.
Option 2 is wrong: Ramananda was the guru of Kabir and other Bhakti saints, but Surdas belonged to the Vallabha tradition of Vrindavan, not Ramananda's school.
Option 4 is wrong: Gyaneshwar (Jnanadeva, 13th century) was a Marathi saint-poet and follower of the Warkari tradition of Vithoba worship; Surdas was not his disciple and belonged to a different era and tradition.

Physics (1)

Units, Measurement & Dimensions · Unit conversions and prefixes

Q34. How many dynes are equivalent to 1 newton?

  1. (a) 10⁴ dyne
  2. (b) 10⁵ dyne
  3. (c) 10⁶ dyne
  4. (d) 10⁷ dyne
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 10⁵ dyne

1 Newton = 10^5 dynes. This follows from the definitions: 1 Newton (SI unit) = 1 kg·m /s², and 1 dyne (CGS unit) = 1 g·cm /s². Converting: 1 kg = 1000 g = 10^3 g, and 1 m = 100 cm = 10^2 cm. Therefore, 1 N = 10^3 g × 10^2 cm/s² = 10^5 dyne. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: 10^4 dyne is not equal to 1 Newton; this would correspond to 0.1 N, which is 100 times smaller than the correct value of 10^5 dyne.
Option 3 is wrong: 10^6 dyne would be equal to 10 Newtons, not 1 Newton; it is 10 times more than the correct conversion factor.
Option 4 is wrong: 10^7 dyne would equal 100 Newtons, not 1 Newton; this is 100 times larger than the correct conversion of 10^5 dyne per Newton.

Geography (3)

India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Rainfall distribution

Q35. Read the following statements and choose the correct option. Statement 1: The Western Ghats receive significant rainfall due to their proximity to the sea.
Statement 2: The Eastern Ghats receive more rainfall than the Western Ghats.

  1. (a) Only Statement 1 is correct
  2. (b) Only Statement 2 is correct
  3. (c) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct
  4. (d) Neither Statement 1 nor Statement 2 is correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only Statement 1 is correct

Only Statement 1 is correct. The Western Ghats (running parallel to the western coast) receive heavy rainfall — especially on their windward western slopes — because they intercept the moisture-laden Arabian Sea branch of the Southwest Monsoon. Statement 2 is false because the Eastern Ghats actually receive LESS rainfall than the Western Ghats, as they lie on the leeward side of the monsoon. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: Only Statement 2 being correct is wrong — Statement 2 is factually incorrect. The Eastern Ghats receive significantly less rainfall (mostly from the Northeast Monsoon's Bay of Bengal branch) compared to the much heavier rainfall on the Western Ghats.
Option 3 is wrong: Both statements cannot be correct because Statement 2 is false — the Eastern Ghats receive less rainfall than the Western Ghats, not more.
Option 4 is wrong: Neither statement being correct is also wrong — Statement 1 is absolutely true; the Western Ghats' proximity to the sea (Arabian Sea) is the primary reason for their heavy orographic rainfall.
India - Population and Census · Census 2011 - population and growth

Q36. By what process is the absolute increase in population calculated over a specific period, such as a decade?

  1. (a) Dividing the total population by the area
  2. (b) Subtracting the earlier population from the later population
  3. (c) Determining the percentage change per annum
  4. (d) Multiplying the births by the deaths and migrations
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Subtracting the earlier population from the later population

The absolute increase in population (also called absolute growth) is calculated by subtracting the population at the beginning of a period from the population at the end of that period: Absolute Increase = Population at end of period − Population at beginning of period. This gives the actual numerical increase in population. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Dividing total population by area gives population density (persons per square km), not the absolute increase in population over time.
Option 3 is wrong: Determining the percentage change per annum gives the annual growth rate of population (a relative measure), not the absolute numerical increase in population.
Option 4 is wrong: Multiplying births by deaths and migrations is not a valid demographic formula; the correct population change formula adds births and immigrants and subtracts deaths and emigrants — it does not involve multiplication.
Environment and Protected Areas · Endangered species and IUCN

Q37. According to the IUCN Red List, the Dugong (sea cow) is listed as what conservation status globally?

  1. (a) Critically Endangered
  2. (b) Endangered
  3. (c) Vulnerable
  4. (d) Near Threatened
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Vulnerable

The Dugong (Dugong dugon), also known as the sea cow, is listed as 'Vulnerable' on the IUCN Red List of Threatened Species. Dugongs face threats from habitat loss (seagrass degradation), hunting, boat strikes, and accidental entanglement in fishing nets. They are protected under CITES (Appendix I) and various national laws. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: 'Critically Endangered' is the most severe IUCN category (facing extremely high risk of extinction); the Dugong is listed as 'Vulnerable,' not Critically Endangered — though some regional populations face more severe threats.
Option 2 is wrong: 'Endangered' is a more severe IUCN category than 'Vulnerable'; the global IUCN Red List currently categorizes Dugong as Vulnerable, not Endangered, though their numbers are declining.
Option 4 is wrong: 'Near Threatened' would indicate a lower level of concern than the Dugong's actual status; Dugongs are categorized as 'Vulnerable' — meaning they face a high risk of extinction in the wild if threats continue.

Modern History (2)

Personalities, Newspapers, Books and Slogans · Freedom fighters and their titles

Q38. Who did Mahatma Gandhi praise with the words, "India would have attained independence long back if only it had a few stalwarts like him"?

  1. (a) Potti Sriramulu
  2. (b) Subhas Chandra Bose
  3. (c) Lala Lajpat Rai
  4. (d) Bhagat Singh
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Potti Sriramulu

Mahatma Gandhi praised Potti Sriramulu with these words. Potti Sriramulu (1901-1952) was an ardent follower of Gandhi known for his extraordinary fasting capacity and selfless service. He famously undertook a fast unto death (58 days) demanding a separate Telugu-speaking state, ultimately leading to the creation of Andhra State in 1953 — the first state formed on linguistic lines. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: Subhas Chandra Bose and Mahatma Gandhi had significant ideological differences on methods of achieving independence; Gandhi did not specifically praise Bose with this quote — Bose differed with Gandhi on armed struggle.
Option 3 is wrong: Lala Lajpat Rai was a respected freedom fighter (known as 'Punjab Kesari') who was part of the Lal-Bal-Pal trio; while Gandhi respected him, this particular praise was directed at Potti Sriramulu.
Option 4 is wrong: Bhagat Singh was a revolutionary who believed in armed struggle, which was philosophically different from Gandhi's non-violent approach; Gandhi did not specifically praise Bhagat Singh with this quote.
British Administration and Policies · Constitutional Acts under British rule

Q39. What was the primary purpose of the Regulating Act of 1773?

  1. (a) To establish a new administrative system for the East India Company
  2. (b) To grant complete independence to the East India Company
  3. (c) To control and regulate the affairs of the East India Company
  4. (d) To eliminate the British government's influence in India
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) To control and regulate the affairs of the East India Company

The Regulating Act of 1773 was the first step taken by the British Parliament to control and regulate the affairs of the East India Company. It created the post of Governor-General of Bengal (Warren Hastings became the first), established a Supreme Court in Calcutta, and subjected the Company's political activities to Parliamentary oversight — marking the beginning of British Crown's supervision over India. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: The Regulating Act did not establish an entirely new administrative system but rather reformed the existing EIC structure by creating a Governor-General and Council and a Supreme Court — it regulated the existing system rather than replacing it.
Option 2 is wrong: The Regulating Act did the OPPOSITE of granting independence — it placed the East India Company under greater Parliamentary control and supervision, reducing the Company's autonomy.
Option 4 is wrong: The Regulating Act actually INCREASED British government's influence over EIC and India by allowing Parliament to supervise EIC affairs; it was not meant to eliminate British influence.

Current Affairs (10)

Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q40. What is the primary purpose of ISRO's CMS-03 satellite?

  1. (a) Climate monitoring
  2. (b) Communication services
  3. (c) Cosmic research
  4. (d) Cartographic mapping
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Communication services

CMS-03 (Communication Satellite) is ISRO's geostationary communication satellite, also known as GSAT-7C. Its primary purpose is to provide communication services — including DTH television broadcasting, VSAT services, tele-education, telemedicine, and mobile satellite services. It is a high-throughput Ka-band satellite serving communication needs. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Climate monitoring satellites are a separate category (like ISRO's INSAT-3D, INSAT-3DR, and upcoming weather satellites); CMS-03 is a communication satellite, not a climate monitoring satellite.
Option 3 is wrong: Cosmic research is conducted by scientific satellites like AstroSat (India's space telescope); CMS-03 is a geostationary communication satellite serving terrestrial communication needs.
Option 4 is wrong: Cartographic mapping (making detailed maps) is done by ISRO's Earth observation satellites like CartoSat series; CMS-03 serves communication purposes from geostationary orbit.
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q41. Which option accurately describes the imaging payload used in the NISAR mission?

  1. (a) Optical camera with multispectral imaging capability
  2. (b) Dual-frequency (L & S) SAR with 12m reflector
  3. (c) Sub-millimeter radar system with a 4-meter phased array antenna
  4. (d) Optical imager with multispectral capability
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Dual-frequency (L & S) SAR with 12m reflector

NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar) mission uses a Dual-frequency Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) operating in both L-band (24 cm wavelength, NASA) and S-band (12 cm wavelength, ISRO), with a large 12-metre deployable reflector antenna. This dual-frequency capability allows it to measure subtle changes in Earth's land and ice surfaces. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: NISAR does not use an optical camera — it uses Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR), which operates in the microwave spectrum and can image Earth through clouds and at night, unlike optical cameras.
Option 3 is wrong: NISAR does not use a sub-millimeter radar system or a 4-meter phased array antenna; its radar operates in L-band and S-band (centimeter wavelengths, not sub-millimeter) with a 12-metre reflector.
Option 4 is wrong: NISAR is not an optical imager; it is a radar satellite using SAR technology that transmits and receives microwave signals — not visible light — making it all-weather and day-night capable.
Awards and Honours - Current · International awards - current

Q42. Which novel by David Szalay won the 2025 Booker Prize?

  1. (a) The Safekeep
  2. (b) Flesh
  3. (c) Prophet Song
  4. (d) Orbital
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Flesh

"Flesh" by David Szalay won the 2025 Booker Prize. The novel, which follows a man's complex relationships across different stages of life, was selected from the shortlist as the best novel of 2025 by the Booker Prize judges. David Szalay is a British-Canadian author known for his incisive character studies and fragmented narrative style. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: "The Safekeep" (by Yael van der Wouden ) was on the 2024 Booker Prize shortlist, not the 2025 shortlist; it did not win the 2025 Booker Prize.
Option 3 is wrong: "Prophet Song" by Paul Lynch won the 2023 Booker Prize for its dystopian portrayal of Ireland under authoritarian rule; it was not a 2025 Booker Prize winner.
Option 4 is wrong: "Orbital" by Samantha Harvey won the 2024 Booker Prize for its meditative narrative set aboard the International Space Station; it was not the 2025 Booker Prize winner.
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q43. Who won the 2025 FIDE World Cup?

  1. (a) Nodirbek Yakubboev
  2. (b) Andrey Esipenko
  3. (c) Javo khir Sindarov
  4. (d) Wei Yi
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Javo khir Sindarov

Javokhir Sindarov of Uzbekistan won the 2025 FIDE World Cup in chess. The young Uzbek grandmaster defeated his opponent in the final to claim the title. Sindarov is one of the prominent young talents to have emerged from Uzbekistan's strong chess tradition. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Nodirbek Yakubboev is another talented Uzbek chess grandmaster who has performed well in international competitions, but he did not win the 2025 FIDE World Cup.
Option 2 is wrong: Andrey Esipenko is a Russian chess grandmaster who has performed strongly in major tournaments, but he did not win the 2025 FIDE World Cup.
Option 4 is wrong: Wei Yi is a top Chinese chess grandmaster ranked among the world's elite players, but the 2025 FIDE World Cup was won by Javokhir Sindarov of Uzbekistan.
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q44. Fill in the blank:
In the Global Innovation Index 2025, India is ranked __________.

  1. (a) 50th
  2. (b) 38th
  3. (c) 30th
  4. (d) 45th
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 38th

India was ranked 38th in the Global Innovation Index (GII) 2025, published by the World Intellectual Property Organization (WIPO). This represents an improvement from India's 39th rank in GII 2024 and 40th in GII 2023, reflecting India's growing innovation ecosystem, digital infrastructure, and R&D investments. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: 50th is not India's rank in GII 2025; India has been consistently improving its GII ranking and was ranked 38th in 2025, not 50th.
Option 3 is wrong: 30th is not India's rank in GII 2025; while India aspires to improve further, the 2025 ranking was 38th — not yet at the 30th position.
Option 4 is wrong: 45th is not India's GII 2025 rank; India had already moved beyond the 45th position in previous years and stood at 38th in the 2025 index.
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q45. Which contingent topped the medal tally at the 38th National Games 2025?

  1. (a) Maharashtra
  2. (b) Haryana
  3. (c) Madhya Pradesh
  4. (d) Services Sports Control Board
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Services Sports Control Board

The Services Sports Control Board (SSCB) topped the medal tally at the 38th National Games 2025. The Services contingent — representing armed forces personnel and paramilitary forces — has traditionally dominated National Games medal tallies due to their rigorous physical training and sports infrastructure. Option 4 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Maharashtra is a large state with strong sporting infrastructure and typically finishes among the top states in National Games; however, the Services contingent topped the 38th National Games 2025 tally.
Option 2 is wrong: Haryana is known for producing excellent wrestlers, boxers, and athletes and often finishes high in National Games standings; however, Services topped the 38th National Games 2025.
Option 3 is wrong: Madhya Pradesh has been improving in sports infrastructure under schemes like Khelo India; however, the Services Sports Control Board topped the medal tally at the 38th National Games 2025.
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q46. Which event did India win a silver medal in at the 2025 Asian Athletics Championships?

  1. (a) Men's 4×100 metre relay
  2. (b) Women's 4×100 metre relay
  3. (c) Men's 1500 metre race
  4. (d) Women's 400 metre hurdles
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Women's 4×100 metre relay

India won a silver medal in the Women's 4×100 metre relay at the 2025 Asian Athletics Championships. The Indian women's relay team delivered a strong performance to finish second in this event, reflecting India's improving depth in sprint relay events at the continental level. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: India's Men's 4×100 metre relay did not win silver at the 2025 Asian Athletics Championships; the silver medal in relay events was won in the women's category.
Option 3 is wrong: The Men's 1500 metre race was not the event where India won silver at the 2025 Asian Athletics Championships; the silver came in the Women's 4×100 metre relay.
Option 4 is wrong: The Women's 400 metre hurdles was not the event where India won silver at the 2025 Asian Athletics Championships; India's silver medal was in the Women's 4×100 metre relay.
Awards and Honours - Current · National awards - current

Q47. India's celebrated javelin thrower, Neeraj Chopra, was conferred the honorary rank of Lieutenant Colonel in which Armed Force of India?

  1. (a) Indian Navy
  2. (b) Indian Air Force
  3. (c) Indian Army
  4. (d) Indian Coast Guard
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Indian Army

Olympic gold medalist Neeraj Chopra was conferred the honorary rank of Lieutenant Colonel in the Indian Army. Chopra had originally joined the Indian Army as a Junior Commissioned Officer (Subedar) and was later honoured with the honorary Lieutenant Colonel rank in recognition of his extraordinary achievements in athletics and bringing glory to India. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Neeraj Chopra's connection is with the Indian Army, not the Indian Navy; he was commissioned as an officer in the Army and received his honorary rank from the Army.
Option 2 is wrong: The Indian Air Force is a separate service; Neeraj Chopra's honorary rank of Lieutenant Colonel was bestowed by the Indian Army, not the Air Force.
Option 4 is wrong: The Indian Coast Guard is a paramilitary force under the Ministry of Defence ; Neeraj Chopra's honorary rank was in the Indian Army, not the Coast Guard.
Appointments and Resignations · Heads of organisations

Q48. Who was appointed as the new Director of the Botanical Survey of India (BSI), becoming the 13th director and the first mycologist to head the institute in September 2025?

  1. (a) Rakesh Sharma
  2. (b) A. A. Mao
  3. (c) Kanad Das
  4. (d) Shubhanshu Shukla
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Kanad Das

Kanad Das was appointed as the new Director of the Botanical Survey of India (BSI) in September 2025, becoming the 13th Director and the first mycologist (specialist in fungi) to head the institute. BSI, under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, is India's premier institution for botanical exploration and research. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Rakesh Sharma is an Indian astronaut (the first Indian in space, 1984 aboard Soyuz T-11); he was not appointed as the Director of BSI in September 2025.
Option 2 is wrong: A. A. Mao is associated with botanical research and may be connected to BSI, but it was Kanad Das who was specifically appointed as the 13th Director and first mycologist to head BSI in September 2025.
Option 4 is wrong: Shubhanshu Shukla is an Indian Air Force officer and astronaut selected for the ISRO-NASA Axiom Space mission; he was not appointed as the Director of the Botanical Survey of India.
Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q49. Who has recently assumed the charge of the Controller General of Communication Accounts (CGCA) in September 2025?

  1. (a) Kanad Das
  2. (b) Vandana Gupta
  3. (c) Anant Goenka
  4. (d) A. A. Mao
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Vandana Gupta

Vandana Gupta assumed the charge of the Controller General of Communication Accounts (CGCA) in September 2025. The CGCA oversees the financial management and accounting of the Department of Telecommunications (DoT) under the Ministry of Communications. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Kanad Das was appointed as the Director of the Botanical Survey of India (BSI) in September 2025 — a different appointment; he did not take charge as CGCA.
Option 3 is wrong: Anant Goenka is a business executive (associated with Indian Express Group); he was not appointed as the Controller General of Communication Accounts in September 2025.
Option 4 is wrong: A. A. Mao is associated with botanical/scientific research; he was not the person who assumed charge of the CGCA in September 2025 — that was Vandana Gupta.

Computer (1)

Emerging Technologies and E-Governance · E-governance and Digital India

Q50. Which digital platform is central to the implementation of the "National Programme for Civil Services Capacity Building" (NPCSCB), responsible for delivering training content?

  1. (a) DIKSHA Platform
  2. (b) Digital India Learning Hub
  3. (c) e-Governance Portal
  4. (d) iGOT-Karmayogi
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) iGOT-Karmayogi

The iGOT-Karmayogi (Integrated Government Online Training - Karmayogi ) platform is central to implementing the National Programme for Civil Services Capacity Building (NPCSCB or Mission Karmayogi ). This digital platform delivers training content, courses, and learning pathways for civil servants across the central government to build competency and capacity. Option 4 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: DIKSHA (Digital Infrastructure for Knowledge Sharing) platform is managed by NCERT/Ministry of Education for delivering school education content to teachers and students; it is not the platform for civil servants' capacity building.
Option 2 is wrong: Digital India Learning Hub is not the designated platform for NPCSCB; Mission Karmayogi specifically uses the iGOT-Karmayogi platform for civil service training.
Option 3 is wrong: e-Governance Portal is a broad term for digital governance portals; the specific platform designated for NPCSCB training content delivery is iGOT-Karmayogi , not a generic e-governance portal.
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