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Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 22 December 2025 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 49 GK / GS questions asked in Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 on 22 December 2025 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Modern History, Geography, Current Affairs, Static GK, Economics, Polity.

📚 49 questions🗓️ 22 December 2025⏰ Shift 3
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Subjects: Modern History (1) · Geography (9) · Current Affairs (6) · Static GK (20) · Economics (7) · Polity (4) · Biology (2)

Modern History (1)

Personalities, Newspapers, Books and Slogans · Freedom fighters and their titles

Q1. Who is known as the 'Father of the Nation' in India?

  1. (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
  2. (b) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
  3. (c) Bhagat Singh
  4. (d) Mahatma Gandhi
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Mahatma Gandhi

The correct answer is Mahatma Gandhi (Option 4).
Mahatma Gandhi is universally recognized as the 'Father of the Nation' in India for leading the non-violent independence movement against British rule.
Option 1 - Jawaharlal Nehru: He was India's first Prime Minister, known as 'Pandit Ji' or 'Chacha Nehru,' not the Father of the Nation.
Option 2 - Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel: He is known as the 'Iron Man of India' for integrating princely states into the Indian Union.
Option 3 - Bhagat Singh: He was a revolutionary freedom fighter who advocated armed resistance, not designated as the Father of the Nation.

Geography (9)

India - Population and Census · Urbanisation and migration

Q2. The urban population percentage of India in the 2011 Census was approximately:

  1. (a) 20%
  2. (b) 27%
  3. (c) 31%
  4. (d) 36%
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 31%

The correct answer is 31% (Option 3).
According to the 2011 Census of India, approximately 31.16% of the population lived in urban areas, reflecting a significant rise in urbanization.
Option 1 - 20%: This figure is too low and does not match the 2011 Census data.
Option 2 - 27%: This was closer to the urban percentage in the 2001 Census, not 2011.
Option 4 - 36%: This overstates the urban population; India reached this level only later.
India - Minerals, Energy and Industries · Coal, petroleum and natural gas fields

Q3. Where is India's oldest and first successful oil field located?

  1. (a) Mumbai High
  2. (b) Digboi, Assam
  3. (c) Ankleshwar , Gujarat
  4. (d) KG Basin
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Digboi, Assam

The correct answer is Digboi, Assam (Option 2).
Digboi in Assam is home to India's oldest and first successful oil field, with oil discovered in 1889. It is still operational today and houses Asia's oldest oil refinery.
Option 1 - Mumbai High: An offshore oil field discovered in the Arabian Sea in 1974, significant but not India's oldest.
Option 3 - Ankleshwar , Gujarat: A major onshore oil field discovered in the 1960s, not India's oldest.
Option 4 - KG Basin: The Krishna-Godavari Basin is a major natural gas reserve, not India's oldest oil field.
India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Soil types and distribution

Q4. What type of soil is typically associated with the absence of moisture and found in dry climates?

  1. (a) Red soil
  2. (b) Arid soil
  3. (c) Laterite soil
  4. (d) Black soil
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Arid soil

The correct answer is Arid soil (Option 2).
Arid soil is characteristically dry, found in desert and semi-desert regions with very low rainfall. It has poor moisture retention, high sand content, and low organic matter.
Option 1 - Red soil: Contains iron oxide giving it a reddish color; found in areas with moderate to high rainfall such as peninsular India.
Option 3 - Laterite soil: Formed in high-rainfall tropical regions through intense leaching; it retains moisture and is not found in dry climates.
Option 4 - Black soil (Regur): High moisture-retentive clay soil found in semi-arid regions; excellent for cotton cultivation.

Q5. Kuno National Park, famous for the 'Project Cheetah' reintroduction program, is located in which state?

  1. (a) Gujarat
  2. (b) Rajasthan
  3. (c) Madhya Pradesh
  4. (d) Maharashtra
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Madhya Pradesh

The correct answer is Madhya Pradesh (Option 3).
Kuno National Park is located in the Sheopur district of Madhya Pradesh. It became internationally famous in September 2022 when cheetahs were reintroduced from Namibia under Project Cheetah.
Option 1 - Gujarat: Known for Gir National Park (Asiatic lions), not Kuno National Park.
Option 2 - Rajasthan: Known for Ranthambore National Park (tigers), not Kuno.
Option 4 - Maharashtra: Has several national parks but not Kuno National Park.
Lithosphere - Earth's Interior and Landforms · Earthquakes and seismic waves

Q6. Strong earthquake tremors were felt across Delhi-NCR and North India in November 2023. What was the epicenter of this earthquake?

  1. (a) Afghanistan
  2. (b) Pakistan
  3. (c) Nepal
  4. (d) Bhutan
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Nepal

The correct answer is Nepal (Option 3).
In November 2023, a powerful earthquake (magnitude ~6.4) struck Nepal's Jajarkot district, with tremors strongly felt across Delhi-NCR and North India due to the seismic proximity.
Option 1 - Afghanistan: While Afghan earthquakes can affect parts of North India, the specific November 2023 earthquake that impacted Delhi-NCR was centered in Nepal.
Option 2 - Pakistan: Pakistani earthquakes occasionally affect North India, but the November 2023 tremors in Delhi-NCR were specifically from the Nepal earthquake.
Option 4 - Bhutan: Bhutan does not frequently have major earthquakes whose tremors significantly impact Delhi-NCR.
India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Soil types and distribution

Q7. 'Black Soil' (Regur Soil) is considered most suitable for the cultivation of which crop?

  1. (a) Rice
  2. (b) Wheat
  3. (c) Cotton
  4. (d) Tea
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Cotton

The correct answer is Cotton (Option 3).
Black soil (Regur or Cotton soil) is highly moisture-retentive, rich in calcium carbonate, magnesium, and iron. Its self-ploughing nature and high clay content make it ideal for cotton cultivation. The Deccan Plateau region is known for this.
Option 1 - Rice: Best grown in alluvial soil or clayey soil in waterlogged regions with high rainfall, not specifically black soil.
Option 2 - Wheat: Thrives in loamy soils with moderate rainfall and cool, dry climate during ripening.
Option 4 - Tea: Grows best in well-drained, slightly acidic, loamy soils found in hilly areas like Assam and Darjeeling.
India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Islands (Andaman & Nicobar, Lakshadweep)

Q8. The "Great Channel" is a maritime channel separating which territories, forming an important navigation route in the eastern Indian Ocean region?

  1. (a) India and Maldives
  2. (b) India's Andaman and Nicobar Islands
  3. (c) Nicobar Islands and Indonesia
  4. (d) Sri Lanka and Maldives
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Nicobar Islands and Indonesia

The correct answer is Nicobar Islands and Indonesia (Option 3).
The Great Channel is a maritime strait separating India's Nicobar Islands (Great Nicobar Island) from the Indonesian island of Sumatra. It serves as a crucial navigation route in the eastern Indian Ocean.
Option 1 - India and Maldives: The waters between mainland India and Maldives are part of the Arabian Sea/Laccadive Sea, not specifically the Great Channel.
Option 2 - India's Andaman and Nicobar Islands: The Ten Degree Channel separates the Andaman Islands from the Nicobar Islands within the archipelago, not the Great Channel.
Option 4 - Sri Lanka and Maldives: These two nations are separated by the Eight Degree Channel, not the Great Channel.
Universe and Solar System · Planets and their features

Q9. Which planet has the fastest rotation in the Solar System, completing a full rotation in approximately 10 hours, giving it the shortest day among all planets?

  1. (a) Jupiter
  2. (b) Saturn
  3. (c) Neptune
  4. (d) Earth
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Jupiter

The correct answer is Jupiter (Option 1).
Jupiter has the fastest rotation among all planets, completing one full rotation in approximately 9 hours 56 minutes, giving it the shortest day in the Solar System despite being the largest planet.
Option 2 - Saturn: Saturn also rotates quickly (approximately 10 hours 33 minutes) but not as fast as Jupiter.
Option 3 - Neptune: Completes a rotation in approximately 16 hours, much slower than Jupiter.
Option 4 - Earth: Takes approximately 23 hours 56 minutes (one sidereal day) for a full rotation, far slower than Jupiter.
Universe and Solar System · Asteroids, comets and meteors

Q10. What is the name of the largest asteroid?

  1. (a) Mars
  2. (b) Jupiter
  3. (c) Ceres
  4. (d) Vesta
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ceres

The correct answer is Ceres (Option 3).
Ceres is the largest object in the asteroid belt between Mars and Jupiter, with a diameter of about 940 km. It is so large that it is also classified as a dwarf planet by the IAU. NASA's Dawn spacecraft visited Ceres in 2015.
Option 1 - Mars: Mars is the fourth planet from the Sun, not an asteroid. It is far larger than any asteroid.
Option 2 - Jupiter: Jupiter is the largest planet in the Solar System, not an asteroid.
Option 4 - Vesta: Vesta is the second-largest object in the asteroid belt by volume and the largest by mass after Ceres, but it is smaller than Ceres overall.

Current Affairs (6)

Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q11. Who was appointed as the Director General of the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF) in January 2025?

  1. (a) Gyanendra Pratap Singh
  2. (b) Sudhir Krishnaswamy
  3. (c) Anish Dayal Singh
  4. (d) Harish Kumar Gupta
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Gyanendra Pratap Singh

The correct answer is Gyanendra Pratap Singh (Option 1).
Gyanendra Pratap Singh, a 1990-batch IPS officer, was appointed as the Director General of the CRPF in January 2025.
Option 2 - Sudhir Krishnaswamy: He is an eminent legal scholar and Vice-Chancellor, not a CRPF DG.
Option 3 - Anish Dayal Singh: He was a previous Director General of CRPF but not the January 2025 appointee.
Option 4 - Harish Kumar Gupta: He did not hold the position of CRPF DG in January 2025.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q12. Who addressed the second edition of Udyog Samagam 2025 as the chief speaker?

  1. (a) Hardeep Singh Puri
  2. (b) Piyush Goyal
  3. (c) Dharmendra Pradhan
  4. (d) Rajnath Singh
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Piyush Goyal

The correct answer is Piyush Goyal (Option 2).
Piyush Goyal, Union Minister for Commerce and Industry, addressed the second edition of Udyog Samagam 2025 as the chief speaker, emphasizing India's industrial growth and MSME sector development.
Option 1 - Hardeep Singh Puri: He is the Union Minister of Petroleum and Natural Gas & Housing and Urban Affairs, not the chief speaker at this event.
Option 3 - Dharmendra Pradhan: He is the Union Minister of Education, not the chief speaker at Udyog Samagam 2025.
Option 4 - Rajnath Singh: He is the Union Minister of Defence , not associated with this commerce event.
State News · State elections and results

Q13. Following a major political transition in the National Capital Territory, who was sworn in as the Chief Minister of Delhi in February 2025?

  1. (a) Atishi Marlena
  2. (b) Rekha Gupta
  3. (c) Swati Maliwal
  4. (d) Meenakshi Lekhi
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Rekha Gupta

The correct answer is Rekha Gupta (Option 2).
Rekha Gupta, a senior BJP leader, was sworn in as the Chief Minister of Delhi in February 2025 after the BJP's decisive victory in the Delhi Assembly elections, ending AAP's decade-long rule.
Option 1 - Atishi Marlena: She was a minister in the previous AAP government and briefly served as CM, but was not sworn in as CM in February 2025.
Option 3 - Swati Maliwal : She is a Rajya Sabha MP and former Delhi Commission for Women chairperson, not the CM.
Option 4 - Meenakshi Lekhi: She is a BJP politician and former Minister of State for External Affairs, but was not sworn in as Delhi CM.

Q14. In February 2025, how many new books were launched under the PM YUVA 2.0 scheme at the New Delhi World Book Fair?

  1. (a) 25
  2. (b) 32
  3. (c) 41
  4. (d) 50
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 41

The correct answer is 41 (Option 3).
At the New Delhi World Book Fair in February 2025, 41 new books were launched under the PM YUVA 2.0 (Young, Upcoming and Versatile Authors) scheme, which aims to mentor young Indian authors.
Option 1 - 25: This number is incorrect for the PM YUVA 2.0 launch at the 2025 World Book Fair.
Option 2 - 32: This figure does not match the reported number of books launched at this event.
Option 4 - 50: This overstates the number of books launched under the scheme at this event.
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q15. Which country holds the top global position in the Global Innovation Index 2025, maintaining its long-standing leadership in innovation capacity and output performance?

  1. (a) United States
  2. (b) Sweden
  3. (c) Switzerland
  4. (d) Singapore
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Switzerland

The correct answer is Switzerland (Option 3).
Switzerland has consistently topped the Global Innovation Index (GII) for many years, excelling in both innovation inputs (R&D, education) and innovation outputs (patents, technology exports).
Option 1 - United States: The US ranks highly in the GII but has not held the top global position in recent editions.
Option 2 - Sweden: Sweden is a strong innovation performer but typically ranks below Switzerland in the GII.
Option 4 - Singapore: Singapore leads in Asia but does not hold the number-one global position in the GII.
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q16. Which satellite was carried as the primary payload by GSLV-F15, designed for enhancing India's navigation capabilities?

  1. (a) NISAR
  2. (b) Gaganyaan capsule
  3. (c) NVS-02
  4. (d) Chandrayaan-4 module
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) NVS-02

The correct answer is NVS-02 (Option 3).
NVS-02 (Navigation with Indian Constellation Satellite-02) was the primary payload of GSLV-F15, launched to enhance India's NavIC (Navigation with Indian Constellation) system for navigation and positioning services.
Option 1 - NISAR: A joint NASA-ISRO Earth observation radar satellite designed to study Earth's ecosystems; not a navigation satellite carried by GSLV-F15.
Option 2 - Gaganyaan capsule: India's crewed spaceflight module being developed for human space missions; not related to GSLV-F15.
Option 4 - Chandrayaan-4 module: Part of India's future lunar sample-return mission; not the payload of GSLV-F15.

Static GK (20)

Dances · Folk dances by state

Q17. Which folk dance is performed with long sticks and is associated with Krishna's playful activities?

  1. (a) Garba
  2. (b) Dandiya Raas
  3. (c) Bihu
  4. (d) Gidda
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Dandiya Raas

The correct answer is Dandiya Raas (Option 2).
Dandiya Raas is a folk dance from Gujarat performed with colorful sticks, associated with Lord Krishna's Raas Leela and celebrated prominently during Navratri.
Option 1 - Garba: Also from Gujarat, Garba is performed in circular motions without sticks, honoring Goddess Durga during Navratri.
Option 3 - Bihu: A folk dance from Assam performed during the Bihu harvest festival, not associated with Krishna's activities.
Option 4 - Gidda: A lively folk dance performed by women in Punjab, not related to Krishna's activities.

Q18. Which festival in Maharashtra involves worshipping the goddess Parvati and is considered a festival for marital bliss?

  1. (a) Gudi Padwa
  2. (b) Teej
  3. (c) Ganesh Chaturthi
  4. (d) Makar Sankranti
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Teej

The correct answer is Teej (Option 2).
Teej is a festival dedicated to Goddess Parvati, celebrated by married and unmarried women for marital bliss and the well-being of their husbands. It is observed in Maharashtra and North India.
Option 1 - Gudi Padwa: This is the Maharashtrian New Year festival marking the beginning of the Hindu calendar, not specifically for marital bliss.
Option 3 - Ganesh Chaturthi: This festival celebrates the birth of Lord Ganesha, not Goddess Parvati.
Option 4 - Makar Sankranti: A harvest festival marking the sun's transit into Capricorn, not associated with Goddess Parvati.

Q19. Which festival in Odisha celebrates the menstrual cycle of the Earth and is observed by young girls with swings and songs?

  1. (a) Raja Parba
  2. (b) Pana Sankranti
  3. (c) Durga Puja
  4. (d) Holi
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Raja Parba

The correct answer is Raja Parba (Option 1).
Raja Parba (Raja Festival) is a three-day festival celebrated in Odisha that honors the menstrual cycle of Mother Earth (Bhudevi). Young girls enjoy swings, songs, and festivities during this celebration.
Option 2 - Pana Sankranti: This is Odisha's New Year festival ( Vishuva Sankranti), not related to Earth's menstrual cycle.
Option 3 - Durga Puja: This festival celebrates Goddess Durga's victory over the demon Mahishasura.
Option 4 - Holi: The festival of colors celebrated across India, not specific to Odisha or Earth's menstrual cycle.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q20. Who wrote 'Clear Light of Day', depicting the effects of Partition on Delhi families?

  1. (a) Anita Desai
  2. (b) Kamala Markandaya
  3. (c) Shashi Deshpande
  4. (d) Manju Kapur
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Anita Desai

The correct answer is Anita Desai (Option 1).
Anita Desai wrote 'Clear Light of Day' (1980), a novel set in Old Delhi that depicts the lasting effects of the Partition of India on a middle-class family through the story of two sisters.
Option 2 - Kamala Markandaya : Known for 'Nectar in a Sieve,' which deals with rural poverty in India, not Partition's effects on Delhi families.
Option 3 - Shashi Deshpande: Known for 'That Long Silence,' which explores women's roles in Indian society, not 'Clear Light of Day.'
Option 4 - Manju Kapur: Known for 'Difficult Daughters,' set during Partition but not the author of 'Clear Light of Day.'
Organisations and Headquarters · Regional groupings (SAARC, ASEAN, BIMSTEC, SCO, G20)

Q21. "Trilateral Maritime Security Cooperation" among India, Sri Lanka & Maldives was formalized through:

  1. (a) SAGAR Vision
  2. (b) Colombo Security Conclave
  3. (c) SAARC Convention
  4. (d) Indian Ocean Naval Symposium
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Colombo Security Conclave

The correct answer is Colombo Security Conclave (Option 2).
The Colombo Security Conclave (CSC) is a trilateral maritime and security cooperation framework among India, Sri Lanka, and Maldives (with Mauritius as an observer), formally institutionalized to address shared security challenges in the Indian Ocean.
Option 1 - SAGAR Vision: 'Security and Growth for All in the Region' is India's broader maritime doctrine for the Indian Ocean region, not a specific trilateral mechanism.
Option 3 - SAARC Convention: SAARC is a regional organization with eight South Asian members; it is not a trilateral mechanism for these three countries.
Option 4 - Indian Ocean Naval Symposium: A multilateral naval forum with many member nations, not limited to India, Sri Lanka, and Maldives.

Q22. Which festival is celebrated as a day of devotion to Lord Shiva and falls on the 14th day of the dark half of the Hindu month Phalguna?

  1. (a) Diwali
  2. (b) Maha Shivaratri
  3. (c) Holi
  4. (d) Ganesh Chaturthi
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Maha Shivaratri

The correct answer is Maha Shivaratri (Option 2).
Maha Shivaratri, meaning 'the Great Night of Shiva,' falls on the 14th day (Chaturdashi) of the dark fortnight (Krishna Paksha) of the Hindu month Phalguna. Devotees observe fasts and offer prayers to Lord Shiva.
Option 1 - Diwali: The festival of lights, associated with the return of Lord Rama to Ayodhya, celebrated on Amavasya of Kartik month.
Option 3 - Holi: The festival of colors celebrated on Purnima (full moon) of Phalguna, marking the victory of good over evil.
Option 4 - Ganesh Chaturthi: Celebrates the birth of Lord Ganesha on the fourth day (Chaturthi) of Bhadrapada month.
Organisations and Headquarters · Indian organisations and headquarters

Q23. In 2023, the Government of India announced the formation of a 'National Board' for which spice, to promote its growth and export?

  1. (a) Cardamom
  2. (b) Black Pepper
  3. (c) Turmeric
  4. (d) Cumin
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Turmeric

The correct answer is Turmeric (Option 3).
In 2023, the Government of India announced the establishment of a National Turmeric Board to promote the production, processing, and export of turmeric, India being the world's largest producer and exporter.
Option 1 - Cardamom: Governed by the Spices Board of India; no separate National Board for cardamom was announced in 2023.
Option 2 - Black Pepper: Also under the Spices Board of India; no dedicated national board was announced in 2023.
Option 4 - Cumin: Does not have a dedicated national board announced in 2023.
Awards and Honours · Gallantry awards

Q24. Captain Vikram Batra, hero of Operation Vijay during the Kargil conflict, was posthumously awarded which gallantry award for extraordinary bravery?

  1. (a) Maha Vir Chakra
  2. (b) Param Vir Chakra
  3. (c) Vir Chakra
  4. (d) Kirti Chakra
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Param Vir Chakra

The correct answer is Param Vir Chakra (Option 2).
Captain Vikram Batra, known as 'Sher Shah,' was posthumously awarded the Param Vir Chakra — India's highest military honor — for his extraordinary bravery and sacrifice during Operation Vijay in the Kargil War (1999).
Option 1 - Maha Vir Chakra: India's second-highest military gallantry award, awarded for acts of conspicuous gallantry in the presence of the enemy.
Option 3 - Vir Chakra: India's third-highest wartime gallantry award, given for acts of bravery in the presence of the enemy.
Option 4 - Kirti Chakra: A peacetime gallantry award for acts of bravery away from the battlefield, not the wartime honor given to Vikram Batra.
Dances · Folk dances by state

Q25. The folk dance 'Sambalpuri' is associated with which Indian state, performed during cultural celebrations with distinctive costumes and steps?

  1. (a) Odisha
  2. (b) Karnataka
  3. (c) Assam
  4. (d) Rajasthan
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Odisha

The correct answer is Odisha (Option 1).
Sambalpuri is a traditional folk dance originating from the Sambalpur region of western Odisha. It is performed during festivals and cultural celebrations, featuring distinctive colorful costumes and rhythmic steps.
Option 2 - Karnataka: Known for classical dance forms like Yakshagana and Bharatanatyam, not Sambalpuri.
Option 3 - Assam: Famous for Bihu dance, performed during the Bihu harvest festival.
Option 4 - Rajasthan: Known for folk dances like Ghoomar, Kalbelia , and Bhavai .
Books and Authors · International books and authors

Q26. Which Booker Prize-winning author wrote 'Life of Pi', a novel blending survival adventure, philosophical reflection, and spiritual exploration centered on a boy stranded at sea?

  1. (a) Yann Martel
  2. (b) Aravind Adiga
  3. (c) Kiran Desai
  4. (d) Salman Rushdie
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Yann Martel

The correct answer is Yann Martel (Option 1).
Yann Martel, a Canadian author, wrote 'Life of Pi' (2001), which won the Booker Prize in 2002. The novel follows a young boy named Pi Patel who survives 227 days at sea on a lifeboat with a Bengal tiger.
Option 2 - Aravind Adiga: Won the Booker Prize in 2008 for 'The White Tiger,' not 'Life of Pi.'
Option 3 - Kiran Desai: Won the Booker Prize in 2006 for 'The Inheritance of Loss.'
Option 4 - Salman Rushdie: Won the Booker Prize for 'Midnight's Children' (1981) and the Booker of Bookers; not the author of 'Life of Pi.'
Space, Defence and Technology · Science and technology missions and schemes

Q27. The 'Atal Innovation Mission' (AIM) is a flagship initiative to promote what in the country?

  1. (a) Sports and games
  2. (b) Innovation and entrepreneurship
  3. (c) Tourism
  4. (d) Traditional arts
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Innovation and entrepreneurship

The correct answer is Innovation and entrepreneurship (Option 2).
The Atal Innovation Mission (AIM), established under NITI Aayog, is India's flagship initiative to promote innovation and entrepreneurship. It operates through Atal Tinkering Labs (ATLs) in schools and Atal Incubation Centres (AICs) for startups.
Option 1 - Sports and games: Promoted by schemes like Khelo India and the Sports Authority of India (SAI), not AIM.
Option 3 - Tourism: Promoted by the Ministry of Tourism through schemes like Swadesh Darshan and PRASHAD.
Option 4 - Traditional arts: Supported by organizations like Sangeet Natak Akademi and Lalit Kala Akademi, not AIM.
Sports · National championships - venues and winners

Q28. Which state hosted the 35th edition of the National Games in 2015, conducted across multiple venues to encourage participation from different regions?

  1. (a) Goa
  2. (b) Kerala
  3. (c) Assam
  4. (d) Jharkhand
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Kerala

The correct answer is Kerala (Option 2).
Kerala hosted the 35th National Games in 2015, spread across multiple venues including Thiruvananthapuram, Kochi, and Thrissur, to encourage participation from across the country.
Option 1 - Goa: Hosted the 36th National Games in 2023, not 2015.
Option 3 - Assam: Hosted the 33rd National Games in 2007.
Option 4 - Jharkhand: Hosted the 34th National Games in 2011.
Sports · National championships - venues and winners

Q29. The 33rd edition of the National Games included multiple sports and aimed to promote athletic participation nationally. Which state hosted this edition in 2007?

  1. (a) Assam
  2. (b) Bihar
  3. (c) Punjab
  4. (d) Rajasthan
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Assam

The correct answer is Assam (Option 1).
Assam hosted the 33rd National Games in 2007 in Guwahati, featuring multiple sports disciplines to promote athletic participation across the country.
Option 2 - Bihar: Bihar has not hosted the National Games in recent editions.
Option 3 - Punjab: Punjab hosted the 28th National Games in 2001 (along with Chandigarh and Delhi).
Option 4 - Rajasthan: Rajasthan has not hosted the 33rd National Games; that edition was held in Assam.
Sports · Other sports and tournaments (tennis, chess, badminton, etc.)

Q30. The 2023 National Lawn Bowls Championship featured national-level competition in lawn bowls. Which city hosted this championship?

  1. (a) Ranchi
  2. (b) Kalinga
  3. (c) New Delhi
  4. (d) Guwahati
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Guwahati

The correct answer is Guwahati (Option 4).
The 2023 National Lawn Bowls Championship was hosted in Guwahati, Assam, bringing together national-level competitors in the sport of lawn bowls.
Option 1 - Ranchi: A prominent sports city in Jharkhand, but did not host the 2023 National Lawn Bowls Championship.
Option 2 - Kalinga: The Kalinga Stadium in Bhubaneswar is famous for hockey, not specifically the venue for this 2023 lawn bowls event.
Option 3 - New Delhi: Has hosted many national championships but not the specific 2023 National Lawn Bowls Championship.
Sports · Sports terminology

Q31. Which sport uses a "shot clock" to limit the maximum time a team can possess the ball, ensuring faster gameplay and strategic offensive decisions?

  1. (a) Volleyball
  2. (b) Basketball
  3. (c) Badminton
  4. (d) Hockey
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Basketball

The correct answer is Basketball (Option 2).
Basketball uses a shot clock (24 seconds in NBA; 30 seconds in FIBA competitions) to limit the time a team can possess the ball before attempting a shot, ensuring fast-paced gameplay.
Option 1 - Volleyball: Play is continuous until a point is scored; no shot clock mechanism is used.
Option 3 - Badminton: Points are scored on every rally with no possession clock; a shot clock is not applicable.
Option 4 - Hockey: Field hockey does not use a shot clock for ball possession time.
Sports · Sports bodies and headquarters

Q32. Which organization is responsible for organizing the Senior National Athletics Championships in India, coordinating competitions, rules, and athlete participation at the national level across track and field events?

  1. (a) AFI
  2. (b) SAI
  3. (c) IOA
  4. (d) NADA
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) AFI

The correct answer is AFI (Option 1).
AFI (Athletics Federation of India) is the national governing body for athletics in India. It organizes the Senior National Athletics Championships and coordinates track and field events, rules, and athlete participation at the national level.
Option 2 - SAI (Sports Authority of India): A government body under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports that manages sports infrastructure, training centers, and scholarships; it does not organize national athletics championships.
Option 3 - IOA (Indian Olympic Association): Represents India at the Olympic Games and manages India's participation in international multi-sport events; does not organize domestic athletics championships.
Option 4 - NADA (National Anti-Doping Agency): Responsible for enforcing anti-doping regulations in Indian sports; does not organize athletic competitions.
Sports · Asian Games and Commonwealth Games

Q33. India won its first gold medal in men's hockey at the Asian Games in which year, establishing dominance in field hockey at the continental level?

  1. (a) 1951
  2. (b) 1962
  3. (c) 1966
  4. (d) 1978
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1966

The correct answer is 1966 (Option 3).
India won the gold medal in men's field hockey at the 1966 Asian Games held in Bangkok, Thailand, establishing continental dominance in the sport.
Option 1 - 1951: The first Asian Games were held in New Delhi in 1951; field hockey was not part of the official competitive program at that edition.
Option 2 - 1962: The 1962 Asian Games were held in Jakarta; India participated but 1966 is recognized as the year India established continental dominance.
Option 4 - 1978: By this time, India had already won multiple Asian Games gold medals in hockey; 1966 was the specific year in question.
Sports · Other sports and tournaments (tennis, chess, badminton, etc.)

Q34. Who was India's first Grandmaster in chess, paving the way for the country's modern success in international chess competitions?

  1. (a) Vishwanathan Anand
  2. (b) Pentala Harikrishna
  3. (c) Krishnan Sasikiran
  4. (d) Gukesh D
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Vishwanathan Anand

The correct answer is Vishwanathan Anand (Option 1).
Viswanathan Anand became India's first International Grandmaster in chess in 1988. He went on to become a five-time World Chess Champion, inspiring a generation of Indian chess players.
Option 2 - Pentala Harikrishna: He became a Grandmaster in 2001, not India's first.
Option 3 - Krishnan Sasikiran: He became a Grandmaster in 2000, not India's first.
Option 4 - Gukesh D: He is a young chess prodigy and current World Chess Champion (2024) but was not India's first Grandmaster.
Sports · Sports bodies and headquarters

Q35. Where is the headquarters of the Asian Hockey Federation (AHF), the central office responsible for overseeing hockey development across Asia?

  1. (a) Kuala Lumpur
  2. (b) Dhaka
  3. (c) Tokyo
  4. (d) New Delhi
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Kuala Lumpur

The correct answer is Kuala Lumpur (Option 1).
The Asian Hockey Federation (AHF) has its headquarters in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia. It is the governing body for field hockey across the Asian continent.
Option 2 - Dhaka: The capital of Bangladesh; not the headquarters of the AHF.
Option 3 - Tokyo: Japan's capital; not the location of AHF headquarters.
Option 4 - New Delhi: India's capital; while India has significant hockey history, AHF is headquartered in Kuala Lumpur, not New Delhi.
Space, Defence and Technology · Indian space missions

Q36. Which mission marks India's first dedicated solar observatory launched by ISRO?

  1. (a) Chandrayaan-3
  2. (b) Aditya-L1
  3. (c) Mars Orbiter Mission
  4. (d) INSAT-3DS
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Aditya-L1

The correct answer is Aditya-L1 (Option 2).
Aditya-L1 is India's first dedicated solar observatory mission, launched by ISRO on September 2, 2023. It was placed at the Sun-Earth Lagrange Point 1 (L1) to study the Sun's corona, solar winds, and space weather phenomena.
Option 1 - Chandrayaan-3: India's third lunar exploration mission, which successfully landed on the Moon's south pole in August 2023; it is a lunar mission, not a solar observatory.
Option 3 - Mars Orbiter Mission (Mangalyaan): India's first interplanetary mission, launched in 2013 to orbit Mars; not a solar observatory.
Option 4 - INSAT-3DS: A meteorological satellite launched to monitor weather and climate over the Indian subcontinent; not a solar observatory.

Economics (7)

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Social welfare schemes

Q37. The 'Beti Bachao Beti Padhao' campaign was launched to address the decline in which specific demographic indicator?

  1. (a) Overall Literacy
  2. (b) Adult Sex Ratio
  3. (c) Child Sex Ratio (0-6 years)
  4. (d) Maternal Mortality
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Child Sex Ratio (0-6 years)

The correct answer is Child Sex Ratio (0-6 years) (Option 3).
The 'Beti Bachao Beti Padhao' campaign was launched in 2015 by PM Narendra Modi primarily to address the alarming decline in the Child Sex Ratio (CSR) in the 0-6 age group, caused by female foeticide and gender discrimination.
Option 1 - Overall Literacy: Addressed by schemes like Saakshar Bharat and National Literacy Mission, not specifically BBBP.
Option 2 - Adult Sex Ratio: While related, the campaign specifically targeted the child sex ratio (0-6 years), not the overall adult ratio.
Option 4 - Maternal Mortality: Addressed by schemes like Janani Suraksha Yojana and Pradhan Mantri Matru Vandana Yojana.
Economics Miscellaneous · Economists and their books

Q38. Who introduced the "Fractal Theory of Markets," applying mathematical fractal geometry to analyze complex financial market behavior and challenge traditional economic models?

  1. (a) Benoit Mandelbrot
  2. (b) Paul Krugman
  3. (c) Amartya Sen
  4. (d) Joseph Stiglitz
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Benoit Mandelbrot

The correct answer is Benoit Mandelbrot (Option 1).
Benoit Mandelbrot, the Polish-French-American mathematician, introduced the Fractal Theory of Markets, using fractal geometry (including the famous Mandelbrot Set) to analyze chaotic and complex financial market behavior.
Option 2 - Paul Krugman: Nobel laureate in economics, known for New Trade Theory and economic geography, not fractal market theory.
Option 3 - Amartya Sen: Nobel laureate known for welfare economics, social choice theory, and the capability approach to human development.
Option 4 - Joseph Stiglitz: Nobel laureate known for his work on information asymmetry and market failures, not fractal geometry.
Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Cost, revenue and utility concepts

Q39. In economics, what does "opportunity cost" refer to?

  1. (a) The next best alternative forgone
  2. (b) The total money spent
  3. (c) A discount offered
  4. (d) A tax collected
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) The next best alternative forgone

The correct answer is The next best alternative forgone (Option 1).
Opportunity cost in economics refers to the value of the next best alternative that is sacrificed when a choice is made. It represents the implicit cost of choosing one option over another.
Option 2 - The total money spent: This refers to actual expenditure or accounting cost, not opportunity cost.
Option 3 - A discount offered: A price reduction by a seller; completely unrelated to the concept of opportunity cost.
Option 4 - A tax collected: A compulsory levy by the government; not related to opportunity cost in economic theory.
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · FRBM Act and fiscal policy

Q40. A policy that increases government spending or reduces taxes is called:

  1. (a) Fiscal contraction
  2. (b) Monetary contraction
  3. (c) Expansionary fiscal policy
  4. (d) Neutral policy
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Expansionary fiscal policy

The correct answer is Expansionary fiscal policy (Option 3).
Expansionary fiscal policy involves increasing government expenditure or reducing taxes (or both) to stimulate economic growth, increase aggregate demand, and reduce unemployment.
Option 1 - Fiscal contraction: The opposite of expansionary policy; involves reducing government spending or increasing taxes to cool down an overheated economy.
Option 2 - Monetary contraction: A central bank policy of reducing money supply and raising interest rates; distinct from fiscal policy.
Option 4 - Neutral policy: A stance where fiscal policy neither stimulates nor restricts economic activity, maintaining the current level of spending and taxes.
Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Cost, revenue and utility concepts

Q41. The concept of "marginal utility" measures:

  1. (a) Total benefit from a product
  2. (b) Satisfaction from one extra unit
  3. (c) Maximum production possible
  4. (d) Profit earned
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Satisfaction from one extra unit

The correct answer is Satisfaction from one extra unit (Option 2).
Marginal utility is the additional satisfaction or utility gained by a consumer from consuming one more unit of a good or service. It typically diminishes as more units are consumed (Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility).
Option 1 - Total benefit from a product: This refers to total utility, which is the sum of satisfaction from all units consumed, not marginal utility.
Option 3 - Maximum production possible: This relates to production capacity or the Production Possibility Frontier, not a utility concept.
Option 4 - Profit earned: A business/financial metric (Revenue minus Cost); not a measure of consumer satisfaction.
Money and Banking · Commercial banks and bank nationalisation

Q42. How many additional banks were nationalized by the Indian government in 1980?

  1. (a) 5
  2. (b) 6
  3. (c) 10
  4. (d) 14
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 6

The correct answer is 6 (Option 2).
In 1980, the Indian government nationalized 6 more private banks in the second round of bank nationalization (in addition to the 14 banks nationalized in 1969), bringing the total nationalized banks to 20.
Option 1 - 5: Incorrect; the second round of nationalization in 1980 covered 6 banks, not 5.
Option 3 - 10: Incorrect; 10 is not the number nationalized in 1980. The first round in 1969 saw 14 banks nationalized.
Option 4 - 14: These were the banks nationalized in the first round in 1969, not in 1980.

Q43. What does the term 'Tariff' signify in the context of trade?

  1. (a) A tax on goods produced in the country
  2. (b) A subsidy on exports
  3. (c) A tax on goods imported from other countries
  4. (d) A limit on the quantity of imports
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A tax on goods imported from other countries

The correct answer is A tax on goods imported from other countries (Option 3).
A tariff is a tax imposed by a government on imported goods. It makes imported goods more expensive, protecting domestic industries and generating government revenue.
Option 1 - A tax on goods produced in the country: This describes an excise duty or production tax, not a tariff.
Option 2 - A subsidy on exports: A subsidy is a financial incentive given to exporters to make their goods cheaper abroad; the opposite of a tariff.
Option 4 - A limit on the quantity of imports: This describes an import quota, which restricts the volume of imports rather than imposing a tax.

Polity (4)

Fundamental Rights · Right to Freedom (Articles 19-22)

Q44. Right to freedom in our constitution is mentioned in which of the following sets of articles?

  1. (a) Art 5 to 11
  2. (b) Art 1 to 4
  3. (c) Art 19 to 22
  4. (d) Art 36 to 51
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Art 19 to 22

The correct answer is Art 19 to 22 (Option 3).
Articles 19 to 22 of the Indian Constitution collectively form the 'Right to Freedom,' which includes freedoms of speech, assembly, movement, and protection against arbitrary arrest.
Option 1 - Art 5 to 11: These articles deal with Citizenship provisions.
Option 2 - Art 1 to 4: These articles deal with the Union and its territory, naming of states, and formation of new states.
Option 4 - Art 36 to 51: These articles deal with the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP), which are non-justiciable guidelines for governance.
Judiciary · High Courts

Q45. The power to issue the writs to enforce the fundamental rights is given by constitution to High court mentioned in which article?

  1. (a) Art-32
  2. (b) Art-125
  3. (c) Art-226
  4. (d) Art-20
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Art-226

The correct answer is Art-226 (Option 3).
Article 226 of the Indian Constitution empowers High Courts to issue writs (Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, and Quo Warranto) for the enforcement of fundamental rights and for other legal purposes.
Option 1 - Art-32: This is the 'Right to Constitutional Remedies' which empowers the Supreme Court (not High Courts) to issue writs for enforcing fundamental rights.
Option 2 - Art-125: This article deals with the salaries and service conditions of Supreme Court judges.
Option 4 - Art-20: This article provides protection against double jeopardy, ex post facto laws, and self-incrimination.

Q46. Which among the following is NOT a constitutional body established directly under constitutional provisions?

  1. (a) UPSC
  2. (b) Finance Commission
  3. (c) CAG
  4. (d) NITI Aayog
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) NITI Aayog

The correct answer is NITI Aayog (Option 4).
NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) was established by an executive resolution of the Union Cabinet in January 2015, replacing the Planning Commission. It is NOT a constitutional body.
Option 1 - UPSC: The Union Public Service Commission is a constitutional body established under Article 315 of the Indian Constitution.
Option 2 - Finance Commission: A constitutional body established under Article 280 to recommend the distribution of financial resources between the Union and states.
Option 3 - CAG: The Comptroller and Auditor General is a constitutional body under Article 148, responsible for auditing government accounts.
Amendments and Important Articles · Major constitutional amendments

Q47. Which Constitutional Amendment made education a subject in the Concurrent List, allowing both Parliament and State Legislatures to legislate on educational matters and harmonize policies nationwide?

  1. (a) 42nd
  2. (b) 86th
  3. (c) 44th
  4. (d) 73rd
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 42nd

The correct answer is 42nd (Option 1).
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment (1976), enacted during the Emergency period, moved education from the State List to the Concurrent List, enabling both the Union and State governments to legislate on educational matters.
Option 2 - 86th Amendment (2002): Made elementary education (for children aged 6-14) a Fundamental Right under Article 21A but did not change education's list in the Seventh Schedule.
Option 3 - 44th Amendment (1978): Enacted to reverse some changes made by the 42nd Amendment, including restoring the right to property; not related to education in the Concurrent List.
Option 4 - 73rd Amendment (1992): Established the constitutional status of Panchayati Raj institutions (local self-government in rural areas).

Biology (2)

Cell - Structure and Function · Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells

Q48. Which of the following components is NOT common to both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

  1. (a) Plasma membrane
  2. (b) Cytoplasm
  3. (c) Nucleus
  4. (d) Ribosomes
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Nucleus

The correct answer is Nucleus (Option 3).
The nucleus is NOT present in prokaryotic cells. Prokaryotes (like bacteria) lack a membrane-bound nucleus; their genetic material is located in the nucleoid region. The nucleus is exclusive to eukaryotic cells.
Option 1 - Plasma membrane: Present in both prokaryotic (bacteria) and eukaryotic cells as the outer boundary.
Option 2 - Cytoplasm: Present in both types of cells as the fluid medium containing organelles and molecules.
Option 4 - Ribosomes: Present in both prokaryotic (70S) and eukaryotic cells (80S cytoplasmic ribosomes), though they differ in size.
Control and Coordination · Neuron and nerve impulse

Q49. What is the junction between two neurons called?

  1. (a) Synapse
  2. (b) Axon
  3. (c) Dendrite
  4. (d) Nucleus
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Synapse

The correct answer is Synapse (Option 1).
A synapse is the junction between two neurons (or between a neuron and an effector cell) where nerve impulses are transmitted via neurotransmitters across the synaptic cleft.
Option 2 - Axon: The long, slender projection of a neuron that carries electrical impulses away from the cell body. It is not a junction.
Option 3 - Dendrite: The branched extensions of a neuron that receive signals from other neurons and conduct them toward the cell body.
Option 4 - Nucleus: The control center of the cell containing genetic material; it is not a junction between neurons.
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