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Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 23 December 2025 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 47 GK / GS questions asked in Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 on 23 December 2025 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Polity, Economics, Biology, Physics, Geography, Static GK.

📚 47 questions🗓️ 23 December 2025⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Polity (7) · Economics (9) · Biology (1) · Physics (1) · Geography (3) · Static GK (8) · Modern History (3) · Ancient History (3) · Current Affairs (10) · Medieval History (2)

Polity (7)

Polity Miscellaneous · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q1. What is the focus of Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA)?

  1. (a) Traffic rules
  2. (b) Proof and evidence used in court
  3. (c) Farming laws
  4. (d) School exams
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Proof and evidence used in court

The correct answer is Proof and evidence used in court (Option 2).
The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023 replaced the Indian Evidence Act, 1872. It governs the rules relating to proof and evidence used in court proceedings in India, modernising provisions for electronic records and digital evidence.
Option 1 - Traffic rules: Traffic regulations are governed by the Motor Vehicles Act, not BSA.
Option 3 - Farming laws: Agricultural laws are separate legislation; BSA deals with evidence law.
Option 4 - School exams: Educational examinations are not within the scope of BSA.
Polity Miscellaneous · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q2. How many chapters and sections does the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, have in comparison to the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860?

  1. (a) 25 chapters, 400 sections
  2. (b) 20 chapters, 358 sections
  3. (c) 30 chapters, 500 sections
  4. (d) 18 chapters, 450 sections
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 20 chapters, 358 sections

The correct answer is 20 chapters, 358 sections (Option 2).
The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, which replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, has 20 chapters and 358 sections. The original IPC had 23 chapters and 511 sections. The BNS consolidated and modernised criminal law.
Option 1 - 25 chapters, 400 sections: Incorrect; BNS has 20 chapters and 358 sections.
Option 3 - 30 chapters, 500 sections: Incorrect; this exceeds both the BNS and IPC chapter/section counts.
Option 4 - 18 chapters, 450 sections: Incorrect; BNS has 20 chapters (not 18) and 358 sections (not 450).
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q3. What new provision does the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) introduce for the punishment of defamation?

  1. (a) Imprisonment for up to 5 years with or without a fine
  2. (b) Imprisonment for up to 1 year and mandatory community service
  3. (c) Imprisonment for up to 2 years, a fine, or both, with an option for community service
  4. (d) Imprisonment for life with or without a fine
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Imprisonment for up to 2 years, a fine, or both, with an option for community service

The correct answer is Imprisonment for up to 2 years, a fine, or both, with an option for community service (Option 3).
The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, introduced community service as an alternative punishment for defamation. The provision allows for imprisonment up to 2 years, a fine, or both, along with the novel option of community service — a significant reform from the Indian Penal Code.
Option 1 - Up to 5 years: Defamation under BNS does not carry a 5-year imprisonment term; the maximum is 2 years.
Option 2 - Up to 1 year and mandatory community service: The term is up to 2 years (not 1 year) and community service is optional (not mandatory).
Option 4 - Life imprisonment: Life imprisonment is not a punishment for defamation; it applies to serious offences like murder.
Preamble, Features, Parts and Schedules · Preamble - text and keywords

Q4. Which of the following is incorrectly matched with its description from the Preamble?

  1. (a) Sovereign - Independent in external and internal matters
  2. (b) Socialist - Promotes social equality
  3. (c) Secular - Promotes one religion above others
  4. (d) Democratic - Government elected by the people
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Secular - Promotes one religion above others

The correct answer is Secular - Promotes one religion above others (Option 3).
This is the INCORRECT match. Secularism in the Indian Constitution means the state does not favour or discriminate against any religion; it maintains equal respect for all religions (Sarva Dharma Sambhava) and separation of religion from state affairs. 'Promotes one religion above others' is the definition of a theocratic or communal state, which is the opposite of secular.
Option 1 - Sovereign: Correctly matched; sovereignty means India is independent in both external (foreign policy) and internal matters.
Option 2 - Socialist: Correctly matched; socialism in the Preamble reflects commitment to social equality and reducing economic inequalities.
Option 4 - Democratic: Correctly matched; India's democracy is based on elected governments representing the people's will.
Union, Territory and Citizenship · Citizenship Act - acquisition and loss

Q5. Who appoints the officer for registering migrants as citizens?

  1. (a) State Government
  2. (b) Central government of India
  3. (c) Supreme Court
  4. (d) President of India
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Central government of India

The correct answer is Central government of India (Option 2).
Under the Citizenship Act, 1955, the Central Government of India appoints officers for registering migrants and processing citizenship applications. Citizenship in India is a Union subject (Entry 17, Union List) under the Constitution, giving exclusive authority to the Central Government.
Option 1 - State Government: Citizenship is a Union subject; state governments do not have the power to grant citizenship or appoint citizenship registration officers.
Option 3 - Supreme Court: The Supreme Court adjudicates citizenship disputes but does not appoint registration officers.
Option 4 - President of India: While the President acts on the advice of the Council of Ministers, the formal appointing authority for citizenship registration officers is the Central Government.
Parliament · Rajya Sabha

Q6. Which Article of the Indian Constitution governs the allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha (Council of States)?

  1. (a) Article 81
  2. (b) Article 80
  3. (c) Article 88
  4. (d) Article 102
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 80

The correct answer is Article 80 (Option 2).
Article 80 of the Indian Constitution deals with the composition of the Council of States (Rajya Sabha). It specifies the maximum strength of Rajya Sabha (250 members — 238 elected by state/UT assemblies and 12 nominated by the President), and how seats are allocated among states.
Option 1 - Article 81: Article 81 governs the composition of the House of the People (Lok Sabha), not the Rajya Sabha.
Option 3 - Article 88: Article 88 gives ministers and the Attorney-General the right to speak in either House; it does not deal with Rajya Sabha seat allocation.
Option 4 - Article 102: Article 102 deals with disqualifications for membership of Parliament; not the composition of the Rajya Sabha.
State Government · Advocate General

Q7. For how long does the Advocate-General of a State hold office?

  1. (a) For a fixed 5-year term
  2. (b) During the pleasure of the Governor
  3. (c) Till age 65
  4. (d) Subject to confirmation by the High Court
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) During the pleasure of the Governor

The correct answer is During the pleasure of the Governor (Option 2).
Under Article 165 of the Indian Constitution, the Advocate-General of a State holds office during the pleasure of the Governor. The Governor appoints a person qualified to be a High Court judge as Advocate-General, who can be removed at any time by the Governor.
Option 1 - Fixed 5-year term: The Advocate-General has no fixed term; he/she serves at the pleasure of the Governor.
Option 3 - Till age 65: The age of 65 years is the retirement age for Supreme Court judges; it does not apply to the Advocate-General.
Option 4 - Subject to confirmation by the High Court: The Advocate-General is appointed by and serves at the pleasure of the Governor; High Court confirmation is not required.

Economics (9)

Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q8. Which industry was given priority during the Second Five-Year Plan (1956-1961) in India?

  1. (a) Textiles
  2. (b) Steel
  3. (c) Agriculture
  4. (d) Pharmaceuticals
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Steel

The correct answer is Steel (Option 2).
The Second Five-Year Plan (1956-61), based on the Mahalanobis model, prioritised heavy industries especially steel. Three major steel plants were established at Bhilai , Durgapur, and Rourkela during this period to build India's industrial base.
Option 1 - Textiles: Textiles were a focus in early industrial history but not the priority of the Second Five-Year Plan.
Option 3 - Agriculture: The First Five-Year Plan (1951-56) focused on agriculture; the Second Plan shifted to heavy industry.
Option 4 - Pharmaceuticals: Pharmaceuticals were not the central focus of the Second Five-Year Plan.
Money and Banking · Money - functions and types

Q9. What facility is provided by banks to ensure the safety of money and easy transactions?

  1. (a) Credit Cards
  2. (b) Demand Deposits
  3. (c) Loans
  4. (d) Foreign Exchange
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Demand Deposits

The correct answer is Demand Deposits (Option 2).
Demand deposits are funds held in bank accounts that can be withdrawn at any time without prior notice. They provide safety for money (backed by bank security and deposit insurance) and facilitate easy transactions through cheques, debit cards, and online transfers.
Option 1 - Credit Cards: Credit cards allow spending on credit; they are not primarily a facility for safety of deposits and easy transactions in the banking sense.
Option 3 - Loans: Loans are funds borrowed from banks; they are not a facility for keeping money safe.
Option 4 - Foreign Exchange: Foreign exchange deals with currency conversion; not primarily a safety/transaction facility for everyday money.
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q10. What is the primary role of foreign trade in the context of globalisation ?

  1. (a) To create a monopoly for producers
  2. (b) To restrict the movement of goods
  3. (c) To connect markets across countries
  4. (d) To increase the cost of production
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) To connect markets across countries

The correct answer is To connect markets across countries (Option 3).
Foreign trade is the exchange of goods and services across national borders. In the context of globalisation , its primary role is to connect markets of different countries, enabling international competition, specialisation , and economic integration.
Option 1 - To create a monopoly for producers: Foreign trade actually increases competition among producers globally, reducing monopolistic tendencies.
Option 2 - To restrict the movement of goods: This is the opposite of foreign trade's purpose; trade restrictions (tariffs, quotas) are barriers to trade, not its purpose.
Option 4 - To increase the cost of production: Foreign trade typically reduces production costs through access to cheaper raw materials and labour ; it does not aim to increase production costs.
Industry and Infrastructure · Industrial Policy Resolutions (1948, 1956, 1991)

Q11. Which industry stayed under government control after the 1991 deregulation?

  1. (a) Retail and textiles
  2. (b) Atomic energy and railway transport
  3. (c) Electronics and pharmaceuticals
  4. (d) Small-scale manufacturing
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Atomic energy and railway transport

The correct answer is Atomic energy and railway transport (Option 2).
After the 1991 economic liberalisation and deregulation in India, most industries were opened to private participation. However, strategic sectors like atomic energy (governed by the Atomic Energy Act) and railway transport remained under exclusive government control due to their national security and public service importance.
Option 1 - Retail and textiles: These sectors were opened to private and foreign investment progressively after 1991.
Option 3 - Electronics and pharmaceuticals: These industries were liberalised and are now largely private-sector driven.
Option 4 - Small-scale manufacturing: Small-scale industries were also subject to deregulation and private participation.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q12. What was one of the key focuses of the First Five-Year Plan (1951-56)?

  1. (a) Heavy industrialization and privatization
  2. (b) Focus on agriculture, price stability, power, and transport
  3. (c) Promotion of service sector growth
  4. (d) Industrial licensing and expansion of large firms
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Focus on agriculture, price stability, power, and transport

The correct answer is Focus on agriculture, price stability, power, and transport (Option 2).
The First Five-Year Plan (1951-56) primarily focused on agriculture, irrigation, and power, aiming to remedy the economic hardships of partition and ensure food security. It was based on the Harrod-Domar model and emphasised stabilising prices and building foundational infrastructure.
Option 1 - Heavy industrialization and privatization: Heavy industrialisation was the focus of the Second Five-Year Plan (1956-61), not the First.
Option 3 - Promotion of service sector growth: Service sector promotion became significant much later in India's planning history.
Option 4 - Industrial licensing and expansion of large firms: Industrial licensing was introduced more systematically from the Second Plan onwards with the Industries Act, 1951.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Youth development schemes

Q13. The Rashtriya Yuva Sashaktikaran Karyakram (RYSK), which includes programs like the National Service Scheme (NSS), aims to 'develop the personality and leadership skills of youth'. What is the primary age group targeted by the RYSK?

  1. (a) 10 to 18 years
  2. (b) 15 to 29 years
  3. (c) 25 to 40 years
  4. (d) 18 to 35 years
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 15 to 29 years

The correct answer is 15 to 29 years (Option 2).
The Rashtriya Yuva Sashaktikaran Karyakram (RYSK) under the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports targets the age group of 15 to 29 years, aligned with the National Youth Policy definition of 'youth' in India. Programs like NSS and Nehru Yuva Kendra Sangathan (NYKS) operate under this umbrella.
Option 1 - 10 to 18 years: This age group falls under the category of adolescents/children; the RYSK targets the broader youth age group starting from 15.
Option 3 - 25 to 40 years: This extends beyond the defined youth age bracket; RYSK targets up to 29 years.
Option 4 - 18 to 35 years: While some programmes target this range, the primary RYSK target age group per the National Youth Policy is 15-29 years.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Housing, sanitation and rural development schemes

Q14. The assistance under Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana-Gramin (PMAY-G) is linked to geo-tagging and Aadhaar seeding. What is the prescribed unit assistance amount provided to beneficiaries residing in plain areas?

  1. (a) Rs. 1.30 lakh
  2. (b) Rs. 7.20 lakh
  3. (c) Rs. 1.50 lakh
  4. (d) Rs. 1.20 lakh
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Rs. 1.20 lakh

The correct answer is Rs. 1.20 lakh (Option 4).
Under PMAY-G (Pradhan Mantri Awaas Yojana-Gramin), the unit assistance for beneficiaries in plain areas is Rs. 1.20 lakh. For hilly/difficult areas and IAP (Integrated Action Plan) districts, the assistance is Rs. 1.30 lakh. All beneficiaries are identified through the SECC data, and homes are geo-tagged and linked with Aadhaar.
Option 1 - Rs. 1.30 lakh: This is the unit assistance amount for beneficiaries in hilly/difficult/IAP areas, not plain areas.
Option 2 - Rs. 7.20 lakh: This amount is not associated with PMAY-G unit assistance; it significantly exceeds the prescribed amounts.
Option 3 - Rs. 1.50 lakh: This exceeds the prescribed plain area unit assistance under PMAY-G.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Global indices - publishers and methodology

Q15. Which organization is known for publishing the Global Peace Index, which ranks countries, including India, based on their levels of peace?

  1. (a) UNDP
  2. (b) IEP
  3. (c) IMF
  4. (d) RSF
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) IEP

The correct answer is IEP (Option 2).
The Global Peace Index (GPI) is published annually by the Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP), an independent think tank. It ranks 163 nations based on indicators of societal safety, ongoing conflict, and militarisation .
Option 1 - UNDP: The United Nations Development Programme publishes the Human Development Index (HDI); it does not publish the Global Peace Index.
Option 3 - IMF: The International Monetary Fund publishes economic/financial reports; it does not publish a peace index.
Option 4 - RSF: Reporters Without Borders (RSF) publishes the World Press Freedom Index, not the Global Peace Index.
Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Human Development Index and UNDP

Q16. Who publishes the Human Development Index (HDI)?

  1. (a) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
  2. (b) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
  3. (c) World Bank
  4. (d) World Health Organization (WHO)
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)

The correct answer is United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) (Option 2).
The Human Development Index (HDI) is published annually by the UNDP in its Human Development Report (HDR). The HDI measures countries based on three dimensions: life expectancy (health), education (mean years of schooling and expected years of schooling), and standard of living (GNI per capita).
Option 1 - IMF: Publishes the World Economic Outlook and Global Financial Stability Report; does not publish HDI.
Option 3 - World Bank: Publishes the World Development Report and Ease of Doing Business Index; does not publish HDI.
Option 4 - WHO: Publishes reports on global health; does not publish HDI.

Biology (1)

Ecology and Environment · Sustainable development and Earth's spheres

Q17. Which of the following is a direct result of unsustainable development?

  1. (a) Reduced global consumption
  2. (b) Enhanced resource regeneration
  3. (c) Environmental crisis and depletion of resources
  4. (d) Sustainable management of natural resources
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Environmental crisis and depletion of resources

The correct answer is Environmental crisis and depletion of resources (Option 3).
Unsustainable development prioritises short-term economic gains over long-term ecological health, leading to environmental crises such as pollution, biodiversity loss, climate change, and depletion of natural resources like forests, water, and minerals.
Option 1 - Reduced global consumption: Unsustainable development is typically associated with increased consumption and overexploitation, not reduction.
Option 2 - Enhanced resource regeneration: Unsustainable development depletes resources faster than they can regenerate, not enhancing regeneration.
Option 4 - Sustainable management of natural resources: This is the goal of sustainable development, which is the opposite of unsustainable development.

Physics (1)

Units, Measurement & Dimensions · Unit conversions and prefixes

Q18. Which of the following is equivalent to 1 joule in terms of ergs?

  1. (a) 10⁷ ergs
  2. (b) 10⁸ ergs
  3. (c) 10⁹ ergs
  4. (d) 10⁶ ergs
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 10⁷ ergs

The correct answer is 10⁷ ergs (Option 1).
1 joule (SI unit of energy) is equivalent to 10⁷ ergs (CGS unit of energy). This conversion arises because: 1 J = 1 kg·m²/s² = 1000 g × (100 cm)² / s² = 10⁷ g·cm²/s² = 10⁷ ergs.
Option 2 - 10⁸ ergs: This is 10 times larger than the correct value; 1 joule = 10⁷ ergs, not 10⁸.
Option 3 - 10⁹ ergs: This is 100 times larger than the correct value.
Option 4 - 10⁶ ergs: This is 10 times smaller than the correct value.

Geography (3)

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Location, extent and Standard Meridian

Q19. Read the following statements and choose the correct option. Statement 1: The Tropic of Cancer passes through the middle of India. Statement 2: The Tropic of Cancer lies mostly south of the Indian subcontinent.

  1. (a) Only Statement 1 is correct
  2. (b) Only Statement 2 is correct
  3. (c) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct
  4. (d) Neither Statement 1 nor Statement 2 is correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only Statement 1 is correct

The correct answer is Only Statement 1 is correct (Option 1).
Statement 1 is TRUE: The Tropic of Cancer (23.5°N latitude) passes through the middle of India, crossing states like Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West Bengal, Tripura, and Mizoram.
Statement 2 is FALSE: The Tropic of Cancer does NOT lie mostly south of the Indian subcontinent. It passes through the central part of India, dividing the country into roughly two halves.
Option 3 - Both correct: Incorrect, as Statement 2 is false.
Option 4 - Neither correct: Incorrect, as Statement 1 is true.
India - Population and Census · Census 2011 - population and growth

Q20. In the three-staged model of Demographic Transition, which societal description best characterises the final stage (Stage III)?

  1. (a) Rural Agrarian
  2. (b) Rural Industrial
  3. (c) Urban Industrial
  4. (d) Agricultural Industrial
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Urban Industrial

The correct answer is Urban Industrial (Option 3).
In the Demographic Transition Model (DTM), Stage III represents a society with low birth rates and low death rates, characteristic of urban industrial societies. High urbanisation , industrialisation , education, and access to family planning lead to falling birth rates in this stage.
Option 1 - Rural Agrarian: This describes Stage I (pre-industrial) societies with high birth and death rates.
Option 2 - Rural Industrial: This is a transitional description; Stage III societies are predominantly urban.
Option 4 - Agricultural Industrial: Not a standard societal description in the DTM; Stage III is best described as urban industrial.
Environment and Protected Areas · Wildlife sanctuaries

Q21. India's first Dugong Conservation Reserve, recognized by the IUCN in 2025, is specifically located in which body of water?

  1. (a) Gulf of Kutch
  2. (b) Gulf of Mannar
  3. (c) Palk Bay
  4. (d) Chilika Lake
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Palk Bay

The correct answer is Palk Bay (Option 3).
India's first Dugong Conservation Reserve is located in the Palk Bay, between Tamil Nadu and Sri Lanka. Dugongs (sea cows) are vulnerable marine mammals that feed on seagrass meadows, which are abundant in Palk Bay. The reserve was established to protect this critically endangered species.
Option 1 - Gulf of Kutch: Located off Gujarat; while it has a marine sanctuary, India's first Dugong Conservation Reserve is in Palk Bay.
Option 2 - Gulf of Mannar: Lies to the south of Palk Bay; while it has a Marine National Park, the specific Dugong Conservation Reserve is in Palk Bay.
Option 4 - Chilika Lake: A brackish water lagoon in Odisha known for Irrawaddy dolphins; dugongs are not typically found there and it is not the location of the Dugong Conservation Reserve.

Static GK (8)

Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Tribal festivals

Q22. Which festival in Odisha is associated with Dhemsa dances and drum performances?

  1. (a) Durga Puja
  2. (b) Chaitra Parab
  3. (c) Ratha Yatra
  4. (d) Kalinga Mahotsav
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Chaitra Parab

The correct answer is Chaitra Parab (Option 2).
Chaitra Parab is a major tribal festival of Odisha, particularly celebrated by the Kondh, Saura, and other tribal communities. It is held in the month of Chaitra (March-April) and is characterised by traditional Dhemsa group dances and vibrant drum performances.
Option 1 - Durga Puja: A Hindu festival celebrating Goddess Durga; while celebrated in Odisha, it is not specifically associated with Dhemsa dances.
Option 3 - Ratha Yatra: The chariot festival of Lord Jagannath in Puri; known for the grand chariot procession, not Dhemsa dances.
Option 4 - Kalinga Mahotsav: A cultural festival in Odisha showcasing martial arts like Paika Akhada; not specifically known for Dhemsa dances.
Dances · Classical dance exponents

Q23. Guru Bipin Singh is recognized as a famous Guru and exponent of which classical dance form?

  1. (a) Mohiniyattam
  2. (b) Kuchipudi
  3. (c) Manipuri
  4. (d) Kathak
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Manipuri

The correct answer is Manipuri (Option 3).
Guru Bipin Singh (1918-2000) was a legendary Manipuri dancer and guru who played a pivotal role in reviving and popularising Manipuri classical dance. He introduced Manipuri dance to wider audiences and trained many renowned dancers.
Option 1 - Mohiniyattam : Associated with gurus like Kalamandalam Kshemavathy and Sunanda Nair; not primarily associated with Guru Bipin Singh.
Option 2 - Kuchipudi: Associated with gurus like Vempati Chinna Satyam; not Guru Bipin Singh.
Option 4 - Kathak: Associated with masters like Birju Maharaj of the Lucknow gharana; not Guru Bipin Singh.
Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q24. Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
Statement I: The Odissi dance form, associated with Guru Kelucharan Mohapatra, originating from traditions including the Maharis -Devadasis and Gotipua .
Statement II: The Sattriya form's two main postures, purusha and prakriti, are performed in 64 basic exercises called sarpa and gopir nach .

  1. (a) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false
  2. (b) Statement I is false, but Statement II is true
  3. (c) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
  4. (d) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Statement I is true, but Statement II is false

The correct answer is Statement I is true, but Statement II is false (Option 1).
Statement I is TRUE: Odissi dance, associated with the legendary Guru Kelucharan Mohapatra, indeed traces its origins to the Mahari- Devadasi tradition and the Gotipua tradition (young male dancers dressed as females performing in temples of Odisha).
Statement II is FALSE: The two main postures of Sattriya dance are 'Purush Bhangi' (male stance) and ' Stri Bhangi' (female stance), not 'purusha and prakriti.' The 64 basic exercises are not called ' sarpa and gopir nach ' in classical Sattriya terminology.
Option 2 - Statement I false, II true: Incorrect; Statement I is true and Statement II is false.
Option 3 - Both true: Incorrect; Statement II contains factual errors about Sattriya .
Option 4 - Both false: Incorrect; Statement I is factually accurate.
National Symbols, Firsts and Superlatives · First in India - persons

Q25. Who was the first Indian woman to preside over the UN General Assembly?

  1. (a) V.K. Krishna Menon
  2. (b) Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
  3. (c) Hansa Mehta
  4. (d) Radhakrishnan
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit

The correct answer is Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit (Option 2).
Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit became the first Indian woman (and the first woman ever) to serve as President of the United Nations General Assembly in 1953. She was a distinguished diplomat and the sister of Jawaharlal Nehru.
Option 1 - V.K. Krishna Menon: A male diplomat who served as India's High Commissioner to the UK and Defence Minister; not the first woman to preside over the UNGA.
Option 3 - Hansa Mehta: A noted social activist and educationist who contributed to the Universal Declaration of Human Rights; she did not serve as UNGA President.
Option 4 - Radhakrishnan: Dr. S. Radhakrishnan was a male philosopher and President of India; he was not associated with the UNGA presidency.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q26. Who is the author of the book 'The Shadow Lines'?

  1. (a) Anita Desai
  2. (b) Vikram Seth
  3. (c) Amitav Ghosh
  4. (d) Rohinton Mistry
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Amitav Ghosh

The correct answer is Amitav Ghosh (Option 3).
'The Shadow Lines' (1988) is a novel by Amitav Ghosh. It explores the nature of borders, memory, and identity across generations, set between Calcutta, Dhaka, and London, touching on events from World War II to the communal riots of the 1960s.
Option 1 - Anita Desai: A renowned Indian novelist known for 'Clear Light of Day' and 'Fasting, Feasting'; she did not write 'The Shadow Lines.'
Option 2 - Vikram Seth: Known for 'A Suitable Boy' and 'The Golden Gate'; not the author of 'The Shadow Lines.'
Option 4 - Rohinton Mistry: A Canadian-Indian author known for 'A Fine Balance' and 'Such a Long Journey'; not the author of 'The Shadow Lines.'
Awards and Honours · Nobel Prize and international awards

Q27. In what year did Geetanjali Shree's Tomb of Sand become the first Hindi novel to win the International Booker Prize?

  1. (a) 2020
  2. (b) 2022
  3. (c) 2023
  4. (d) 2025
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 2022

The correct answer is 2022 (Option 2).
'Tomb of Sand' (Ret Samadhi in Hindi) by Geetanjali Shree, translated into English by Daisy Rockwell, won the International Booker Prize in 2022. It was the first Hindi-language novel and the first Indian novel to win this prestigious award.
Option 1 - 2020: The International Booker Prize in 2020 was won by 'The Discomfort of Evening' by Marieke Lucas Rijneveld; not 'Tomb of Sand.'
Option 3 - 2023: The 2023 International Booker Prize was won by 'Time Shelter' by Georgi Gospodinov; not 'Tomb of Sand.'
Option 4 - 2025: 'Tomb of Sand' won in 2022, not 2025.
Sports · Asian Games and Commonwealth Games

Q28. In which event did Team India win a silver medal at the 2023 Asian Games?

  1. (a) Women's 50m rifle 3 positions team
  2. (b) Men's skeet team
  3. (c) Men's 10m air pistol team
  4. (d) Women's lightweight double sculls
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Women's 50m rifle 3 positions team

The correct answer is Women's 50m rifle 3 positions team (Option 1).
At the 2023 Asian Games held in Hangzhou, China, the Indian Women's 50m rifle 3 positions team won a silver medal in shooting. India had a strong performance in shooting events at these games.
Option 2 - Men's skeet team: The Men's skeet team event result is not the specific silver medal referred to; the Women's 50m rifle 3P team won silver.
Option 3 - Men's 10m air pistol team: While India won medals in various shooting events, this specific event is not the silver medal in question.
Option 4 - Women's lightweight double sculls: This is a rowing event; India's silver in this context refers to shooting.
Organisations and Headquarters · India's foreign relations and connectivity projects

Q29. Chabahar Port is located on which body of water?

  1. (a) Persian Gulf
  2. (b) Arabian Sea
  3. (c) Gulf of Oman
  4. (d) Caspian Sea
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Gulf of Oman

The correct answer is Gulf of Oman (Option 3).
Chabahar Port, located in southeastern Iran's Sistan-Baluchestan province, is situated on the Gulf of Oman. It is a strategically important port that India has invested in to access Central Asia and Afghanistan bypassing Pakistan, as part of the International North-South Transport Corridor.
Option 1 - Persian Gulf: Chabahar is not on the Persian Gulf; it is on the Gulf of Oman (the mouth of the Persian Gulf, opening to the Arabian Sea).
Option 2 - Arabian Sea: The Gulf of Oman is a part of the Arabian Sea; however, more specifically, Chabahar is on the Gulf of Oman.
Option 4 - Caspian Sea: The Caspian Sea is a landlocked body of water in Central Asia; Chabahar is not located near it.

Modern History (3)

Peasant, Tribal and Civil Uprisings · Leaders of tribal movements

Q30. Which statement about Rani Gaidinliu is correct?

  1. (a) Led the Naga tribal revolt against the British
  2. (b) Organised Salt Satyagraha in Assam
  3. (c) Founded Azad Hind Fauj
  4. (d) Started the Quit India Movement in Nagaland
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Led the Naga tribal revolt against the British

The correct answer is Led the Naga tribal revolt against the British (Option 1).
Rani Gaidinliu was a Naga spiritual and political leader who led a tribal revolt against British colonial rule in Nagaland and Manipur from around 1929. She was imprisoned at age 16 and kept in jail for 14 years. Jawaharlal Nehru called her 'Rani' (Queen) of the Nagas.
Option 2 - Organised Salt Satyagraha in Assam: The Salt Satyagraha (1930) was led by Mahatma Gandhi and regional leaders; Rani Gaidinliu is not associated with it.
Option 3 - Founded Azad Hind Fauj: The Indian National Army (Azad Hind Fauj) was founded by Subhas Chandra Bose, not Rani Gaidinliu.
Option 4 - Started the Quit India Movement in Nagaland: The Quit India Movement (1942) was launched by the Indian National Congress; Rani Gaidinliu's resistance predated this movement.
Post-Independence India · Reorganisation of states (historical)

Q31. Potti Sriramulu is remembered for sacrificing his life for which cause?

  1. (a) Formation of linguistic states in India
  2. (b) Abolition of the zamindari system
  3. (c) Establishment of the Indian National Army
  4. (d) Creation of separate Dalit electorates
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Formation of linguistic states in India

The correct answer is Formation of linguistic states in India (Option 1).
Potti Sriramulu undertook a fast-unto-death demanding the creation of a separate Andhra state for Telugu-speaking people. He died on 15 December 1952 after 58 days of fasting, which led to massive protests and the formation of Andhra State in 1953 — the first state formed on linguistic lines in India.
Option 2 - Abolition of the zamindari system: Zamindari abolition was a government policy carried out through legislation; Sriramulu is not associated with this cause.
Option 3 - Establishment of the Indian National Army: The INA was founded by Subhas Chandra Bose; Sriramulu is not associated with it.
Option 4 - Creation of separate Dalit electorates: This was a cause championed by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, not Potti Sriramulu.
British Administration and Policies · Constitutional Acts under British rule

Q32. What was the primary purpose of the Government of India Act of 1858?

  1. (a) To establish a system of self-rule for the Indian population
  2. (b) To transfer governance from the East India Company to the British Crown
  3. (c) To introduce local Indian representation in the governance system
  4. (d) To grant full independence to the Indian subcontinent
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To transfer governance from the East India Company to the British Crown

The correct answer is To transfer governance from the East India Company to the British Crown (Option 2).
The Government of India Act, 1858, passed after the Revolt of 1857, transferred the governance of India from the East India Company directly to the British Crown. India came under the direct rule of the British monarch, administered through a Secretary of State for India and a Viceroy.
Option 1 - To establish self-rule: The Act actually strengthened British colonial control; it did not establish self-rule for Indians.
Option 3 - To introduce local Indian representation: The Act did not introduce significant Indian representation; that came later with the Indian Councils Acts.
Option 4 - To grant full independence: Full independence was granted in 1947 through the Indian Independence Act; the 1858 Act did the opposite — it strengthened British control.

Ancient History (3)

Indus Valley Civilisation · Artefacts and findings

Q33. Which Harappan city, located on an island in the Rann of Kutch, is known for its use of stone masonry in fortifications and advanced water management systems?

  1. (a) Mohenjo-daro
  2. (b) Dholavira
  3. (c) Harappa
  4. (d) Lothal
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Dholavira

The correct answer is Dholavira (Option 2).
Dholavira , located on Khadir Island in the Rann of Kutch (Gujarat), is a UNESCO World Heritage Site and one of the most remarkable Harappan cities. It is uniquely known for its sophisticated stone masonry in city fortifications and an elaborate water conservation and management system including reservoirs and channels.
Option 1 - Mohenjo-daro: Located in modern-day Pakistan (Sindh); known for the Great Bath and grid-planned city, but not specifically on an island in the Rann of Kutch.
Option 3 - Harappa: Located in Punjab, Pakistan; the type-site of the Indus Valley Civilisation , but not in the Rann of Kutch.
Option 4 - Lothal: A Harappan port city in Gujarat known for a dockyard, but located near the Gulf of Khambhat, not on an island in the Rann of Kutch.
Gupta Empire · Gupta rulers

Q34. Who is the real founder of the Gupta Empire?

  1. (a) Samudragupta
  2. (b) Chandragupta I
  3. (c) Chandragupta II
  4. (d) Skandagupta
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Chandragupta I

The correct answer is Chandragupta I (Option 2).
Chandragupta I (320-335 CE) is considered the real founder of the Gupta Empire. He was the first to assume the title ' Maharajadhiraja ' (King of Kings) and established a powerful, centralised empire. His marriage to Kumaradevi of the Lichchhavi clan strengthened his political base.
Option 1 - Samudragupta: Known as the 'Napoleon of India,' he was the son of Chandragupta I who expanded the empire significantly, but he did not found it.
Option 3 - Chandragupta II: Also known as Vikramaditya, he ruled after Samudragupta and presided over the golden age of the Guptas, but was not the founder.
Option 4 - Skandagupta : He was a later Gupta ruler known for repelling the Huna invasions; he was not the founder of the dynasty.
Gupta Empire · Gupta literature and scholars

Q35. Who composed the Prayaga Prashasti (also known as the Allahabad Pillar Inscription)?

  1. (a) Samudragupta
  2. (b) Harishena
  3. (c) Chandragupta I
  4. (d) Kalidasa
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Harishena

The correct answer is Harishena (Option 2).
The Prayaga Prashasti (Allahabad Pillar Inscription) was composed by Harishena, the court poet and minister ( Mahadandanayaka ) of Samudragupta. It is a panegyric written in Sanskrit praising Samudragupta's conquests and achievements.
Option 1 - Samudragupta: He was the emperor whose achievements are celebrated in the Prashasti; he did not compose it himself.
Option 3 - Chandragupta I: He was Samudragupta's father; he did not compose the Allahabad Pillar Inscription.
Option 4 - Kalidasa: A celebrated Sanskrit poet of the Gupta era known for works like Shakuntala and Meghaduta ; he is not the author of the Prayaga Prashasti.

Current Affairs (10)

Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q36. When did the NISAR mission enter its Science Phase?

  1. (a) July 25, 2025
  2. (b) November 28, 2025
  3. (c) January 1, 2025
  4. (d) August 15, 2025
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) November 28, 2025

The correct answer is November 28, 2025 (Option 2).
The NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar) mission, a joint Earth observation satellite mission by NASA and ISRO, entered its Science Phase on November 28, 2025. The satellite uses SAR technology to map Earth's surface changes with high precision.
Option 1 - July 25, 2025: This date is not associated with the NISAR mission's Science Phase commencement.
Option 3 - January 1, 2025: The NISAR mission had not yet entered its Science Phase by January 2025.
Option 4 - August 15, 2025: This date (India's Independence Day) is not the date on which NISAR entered its Science Phase.
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q37. When was the PSLV-C61/EOS-09 mission launched?

  1. (a) May 16, 2025
  2. (b) May 18, 2025
  3. (c) May 14, 2025
  4. (d) May 20, 2025
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) May 18, 2025

The correct answer is May 18, 2025 (Option 2).
The PSLV-C61/EOS-09 mission was launched by ISRO on May 18, 2025. EOS-09 (Earth Observation Satellite-09) is an advanced Earth observation satellite equipped with Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) for all-weather surveillance applications.
Option 1 - May 16, 2025: The launch did not take place on this date.
Option 3 - May 14, 2025: This is not the correct launch date for PSLV-C61/EOS-09.
Option 4 - May 20, 2025: The mission was launched on May 18, not May 20.
Awards and Honours - Current · International awards - current

Q38. Samantha Harvey's novel 'Orbital', set aboard the International Space Station, received which significant honour ?

  1. (a) National Book Award 2024
  2. (b) International Booker 2022
  3. (c) Booker Prize 2024
  4. (d) Sahitya Akademi Award 2023
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Booker Prize 2024

The correct answer is Booker Prize 2024 (Option 3).
Samantha Harvey's novel 'Orbital' won the Booker Prize 2024. Set entirely on the International Space Station over 24 hours, the novel explores themes of life, Earth's beauty, and human connection from the perspective of astronauts orbiting the planet.
Option 1 - National Book Award 2024: The National Book Award is a U.S. literary prize; 'Orbital' won the Booker Prize, not specifically the National Book Award.
Option 2 - International Booker 2022: The International Booker Prize recognises translated fiction; 'Orbital' is an English novel and won the (regular) Booker Prize in 2024, not the International Booker in 2022.
Option 4 - Sahitya Akademi Award 2023: This is an Indian literary award; 'Orbital' is a British novel and not eligible for this award.
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q39. Who won the bronze medal in the 2025 FIDE World Cup?

  1. (a) Wei Yi
  2. (b) Nodirbek Yakubboev
  3. (c) Andrey Esipenko
  4. (d) Javokh ir Sindarov
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Andrey Esipenko

The correct answer is Andrey Esipenko (Option 3).
Andrey Esipenko won the bronze medal at the 2025 FIDE World Cup. The FIDE World Cup is a prestigious chess knockout tournament that also serves as a qualifier for the Candidates Tournament.
Option 1 - Wei Yi: A strong Chinese grandmaster, but not the 2025 FIDE World Cup bronze medallist .
Option 2 - Nodirbek Yakubboev: An Uzbek grandmaster; not the 2025 FIDE World Cup bronze winner.
Option 4 - Javokh ir Sindarov: An Uzbek chess prodigy; not the 2025 FIDE World Cup bronze medallist .
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q40. Who participated in the 2025 XTX Markets London Chess Classic in the Open section to secure FIDE Circuit points?

  1. (a) Viswanathan Anand
  2. (b) Praggnanandhaa R
  3. (c) Abhinav Bindra
  4. (d) Nodirbek Yakubboev
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Praggnanandhaa R

The correct answer is Praggnanandhaa R (Option 2).
Praggnanandhaa R, the young Indian chess prodigy, participated in the 2025 XTX Markets London Chess Classic in the Open section to accumulate FIDE Circuit points. He is one of India's top grandmasters and regularly competes in elite international tournaments.
Option 1 - Viswanathan Anand: The legendary five-time World Chess Champion; while he competes in various events, the specific London Chess Classic Open participation for FIDE Circuit points refers to Praggnanandhaa .
Option 3 - Abhinav Bindra: A celebrated Olympic gold medallist in shooting, not chess; he is not a chess player.
Option 4 - Nodirbek Yakubboev: An Uzbek grandmaster; not the Indian participant referred to in this question.
Sports - Current · Venues and hosts

Q41. The 38th National Games of India 2025 were conducted between which dates?

  1. (a) 1-15 January 2025
  2. (b) 28 January-14 February 2025
  3. (c) 10-25 February 2025
  4. (d) 15-30 March 2025
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 28 January-14 February 2025

The correct answer is 28 January-14 February 2025 (Option 2).
The 38th National Games of India 2025 were held in Uttarakhand from 28 January to 14 February 2025. It was the first time Uttarakhand hosted the National Games, featuring competitions across multiple sports venues in cities like Dehradun, Haridwar, and Ramnagar .
Option 1 - 1-15 January 2025: The National Games did not commence on January 1; they started on January 28.
Option 3 - 10-25 February 2025: The games ended on February 14, not February 25.
Option 4 - 15-30 March 2025: The 38th National Games concluded in February, not March.
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q42. What was the duration of the Aerobics Gymnastics National Championship 2024-2025?

  1. (a) 1st February to 5th February 2025
  2. (b) 25th December to 30th December 2024
  3. (c) 10th January to 13th January 2025
  4. (d) 15th March to 20th March 2025
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 10th January to 13th January 2025

The correct answer is 10th January to 13th January 2025 (Option 3).
The Aerobics Gymnastics National Championship 2024-2025 was held from 10th January to 13th January 2025. This national-level gymnastics competition showcases aerobic gymnastics talent across different age categories in India.
Option 1 - 1st to 5th February 2025: This is not the correct duration for this championship.
Option 2 - 25th to 30th December 2024: The championship was held in January 2025, not December 2024.
Option 4 - 15th to 20th March 2025: The event took place in January 2025, not March.
Appointments and Resignations · Heads of organisations

Q43. The Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI) announced _______ as its President-elect, positioning him to lead the organization in 2025.

  1. (a) Shailesh Pathak
  2. (b) Anant Goenka
  3. (c) Sanjiv Puri
  4. (d) R. Dinesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Anant Goenka

The correct answer is Anant Goenka (Option 2).
Anant Goenka, Managing Director of The Indian Express Group, was announced as FICCI's President-elect, positioning him to lead the apex industry chamber in 2025. FICCI is one of India's leading industry associations representing businesses across sectors.
Option 1 - Shailesh Pathak: Not the announced FICCI President-elect for 2025.
Option 3 - Sanjiv Puri: Sanjiv Puri is the Chairman and MD of ITC Limited; he has been associated with FICCI but was not the 2025 President-elect.
Option 4 - R. Dinesh: A business leader associated with TVS Group; not the FICCI President-elect for 2025.
Appointments and Resignations · Heads of organisations

Q44. Who has been appointed as the first woman Vice Chancellor of the Indira Gandhi National Open University (IGNOU) since its establishment four decades ago?

  1. (a) Uma Kanjilal
  2. (b) Kanad Das
  3. (c) Vandana Gupta
  4. (d) P. Radhakrishnan
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Uma Kanjilal

The correct answer is Uma Kanjilal (Option 1).
Prof. Uma Kanjilal was appointed as the first woman Vice Chancellor of IGNOU, the world's largest open university established in 1985. Her appointment was a historic milestone for the institution, which had been led exclusively by male vice chancellors for four decades.
Option 2 - Kanad Das: Not associated with the IGNOU Vice Chancellor appointment.
Option 3 - Vandana Gupta: Not the first woman VC of IGNOU.
Option 4 - P. Radhakrishnan: A male academic/administrator; not the first woman VC of IGNOU.
Appointments and Resignations · Heads of organisations

Q45. Who assumed the charge as the Director of the 'Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre' (VSSC) on 1 August 2025?

  1. (a) Dr. S. Unnikrishnan Nair
  2. (b) Dr. K Sivan
  3. (c) Dr. A Rajarajan
  4. (d) Dr. G Satheesh Reddy
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Dr. A Rajarajan

The correct answer is Dr. A Rajarajan (Option 3).
Dr. A Rajarajan assumed charge as the Director of Vikram Sarabhai Space Centre (VSSC), ISRO's premier launch vehicle development centre located in Thiruvananthapuram, on 1 August 2025.
Option 1 - Dr. S. Unnikrishnan Nair: He served as a former VSSC Director; he did not assume the directorship on 1 August 2025.
Option 2 - Dr. K Sivan: Former Chairman of ISRO (2018-2022); he is not the August 2025 VSSC Director.
Option 4 - Dr. G Satheesh Reddy: Former Chairman of DRDO; not associated with VSSC directorship in August 2025.

Medieval History (2)

Medieval Culture, Literature and Travellers · Foreign travellers

Q46. In which language was Al-Biruni's Kitab-ul-Hind originally written?

  1. (a) Persian
  2. (b) Sanskrit
  3. (c) Arabic
  4. (d) Turkish
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Arabic

The correct answer is Arabic (Option 3).
Al-Biruni (973-1048 CE), the renowned scholar who accompanied Mahmud of Ghazni to India, wrote 'Kitab-ul-Hind' (Book of India) in Arabic. It is a comprehensive study of Indian religion, philosophy, mathematics, geography, and customs, written in Arabic for an Islamic scholarly audience.
Option 1 - Persian: While Persian was the court language of many Islamic rulers in India, Al-Biruni's 'Kitab-ul-Hind' was written in Arabic.
Option 2 - Sanskrit: Al-Biruni studied Sanskrit to understand Indian texts, but his own work 'Kitab-ul-Hind' was written in Arabic.
Option 4 - Turkish: Turkish was not a primary scholarly language in Al-Biruni's tradition; his work was in Arabic.
Early Medieval North India · Rajput dynasties

Q47. Which event led to the rise of several Rajput states in north India?

  1. (a) The collapse of the Mauryan Empire
  2. (b) The break-up of the Pratihara Empire
  3. (c) The decline of the Gupta Empire
  4. (d) The rise of the Seljuk Empire
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The break-up of the Pratihara Empire

The correct answer is The break-up of the Pratihara Empire (Option 2).
The fragmentation of the Gurjara-Pratihara Empire (around the 10th century CE) created a power vacuum in north India. Regional feudatories and chieftains who had been under Pratihara suzerainty declared independence, giving rise to several Rajput kingdoms like the Paramaras , Chandellas , Kalachuris, and Chahamanas .
Option 1 - The collapse of the Mauryan Empire: The Mauryan decline (circa 185 BCE) led to the rise of the Shunga and Kanva dynasties, not the medieval Rajput states.
Option 3 - The decline of the Gupta Empire: Gupta decline (5th-6th century CE) preceded the Rajput era but is not the direct cause of Rajput state formation.
Option 4 - The rise of the Seljuk Empire: The Seljuk Empire was a Central Asian Turkic dynasty with no direct link to the rise of Rajput states in north India.
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