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Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 23 December 2025 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 49 GK / GS questions asked in Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 on 23 December 2025 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Polity, Static GK, Current Affairs, Geography, Biology, Economics.

📚 49 questions🗓️ 23 December 2025⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Polity (10) · Static GK (16) · Current Affairs (8) · Geography (2) · Biology (2) · Economics (8) · Medieval History (2) · Physics (1)

Polity (10)

Preamble, Features, Parts and Schedules · Length, articles and original provisions

Q1. Fill in the blank: The Constitution of India originally comprises of _____ number of articles, which later on increased to 448 articles through amendments.

  1. (a) 395
  2. (b) 387
  3. (c) 410
  4. (d) 385
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 395

The correct answer is 395 (Option 1).
The Constitution of India, as adopted on 26 November 1949, originally had 395 Articles, 8 Schedules, and 22 Parts. Over time, through constitutional amendments, the number of articles increased to 448.
Option 2 - 387: Not the original number of articles in the Indian Constitution.
Option 3 - 410: Exceeds the original article count; the Constitution did not originally have 410 articles.
Option 4 - 385: Not the original number; the correct original count was 395.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q2. Which president of India gave assent to the law on right to information?

  1. (a) Pratibha Patil
  2. (b) APJ Abdul Kalam
  3. (c) Pranab Mukherjee
  4. (d) K.R. Narayanan
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) APJ Abdul Kalam

The correct answer is APJ Abdul Kalam (Option 2).
The Right to Information Act, 2005 was given assent by President A.P.J. Abdul Kalam on 15 June 2005. The Act came into force on 12 October 2005, empowering citizens to access information from public authorities.
Option 1 - Pratibha Patil: She served as President of India from 2007 to 2012, after the RTI Act was already enacted.
Option 3 - Pranab Mukherjee: He served as President from 2012 to 2017, well after the RTI Act was signed.
Option 4 - K.R. Narayanan: He served as President from 1997 to 2002, before the RTI Act was enacted.
Polity Miscellaneous · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q3. Which legislation replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860?

  1. (a) Criminal Justice (Reform) Act
  2. (b) Bharatiya Suraksha Sanhita
  3. (c) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita
  4. (d) Uniform Civil Code
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita

The correct answer is Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (Option 3).
The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, and came into effect on 1 July 2024. It modernized criminal law with new provisions addressing organized crime, terrorism, and cybercrimes.
Option 1 - Criminal Justice (Reform) Act: No such legislation exists in India; it is a fictitious name.
Option 2 - Bharatiya Suraksha Sanhita: This replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973, not the IPC.
Option 4 - Uniform Civil Code: This refers to a proposed civil law uniformly applicable to all citizens; it did not replace the IPC.
DPSP and Fundamental Duties · Important DPSP articles (39A, 40, 44, 45, 48A, 50, 51)

Q4. What does the Uniform Civil Code (UCC) deal with?

  1. (a) Traffic rules
  2. (b) Taxes and banking
  3. (c) Personal laws like marriage and inheritance
  4. (d) Criminal punishments
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Personal laws like marriage and inheritance

The correct answer is Personal laws like marriage and inheritance (Option 3).
The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) aims to replace personal laws (based on religion, caste, or tradition) with a common set of laws governing personal matters such as marriage, divorce, inheritance, and adoption for all citizens.
Option 1 - Traffic rules: These are governed by the Motor Vehicles Act, not the UCC.
Option 2 - Taxes and banking: These are governed by taxation laws and banking regulations, not the UCC.
Option 4 - Criminal punishments: These are governed by the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (formerly IPC), not the UCC.
State Government · Governor - appointment and powers

Q5. Who appoints the governor of a state?

  1. (a) Chief Minister
  2. (b) Parliament
  3. (c) President of India
  4. (d) Prime Minister
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) President of India

The correct answer is President of India (Option 3).
Under Article 155 of the Indian Constitution, the Governor of a state is appointed by the President of India. The Governor holds office at the pleasure of the President (Article 156) and serves as the constitutional head of the state.
Option 1 - Chief Minister: The Chief Minister is the head of the state government and is appointed by the Governor, not the other way around.
Option 2 - Parliament: Parliament does not appoint Governors; this is an executive function of the President.
Option 4 - Prime Minister: While the Prime Minister advises the President (as per constitutional convention), it is the President who formally appoints Governors.
Union Executive · President - powers (executive, legislative, veto, pardon, ordinance)

Q6. Under which circumstances can the President promulgate an ordinance under Article 123?

  1. (a) Lok Sabha alone is dissolved
  2. (b) Parliament is not in session
  3. (c) Both houses are prorogued or adjourned sine die
  4. (d) All of the above
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) All of the above

The correct answer is All of the above (Option 4).
Under Article 123 of the Indian Constitution, the President can promulgate an ordinance when: (1) Lok Sabha is dissolved, (2) Parliament is not in session, or (3) both Houses are prorogued or adjourned sine die. In all these circumstances, the President can issue an ordinance if satisfied of immediate action's necessity.
Option 1 - Lok Sabha alone is dissolved: This is one valid circumstance, but not the only one.
Option 2 - Parliament is not in session: This is one valid circumstance, but not the only one.
Option 3 - Both houses prorogued or adjourned sine die: This is one valid circumstance, but not the only one.
Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies · Finance Commission

Q7. The body that recommends distribution of net tax proceeds between the Union and the States is:

  1. (a) Finance Commission
  2. (b) Inter-State Council
  3. (c) NITI Aayog
  4. (d) Goods and Services Tax Council
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Finance Commission

The correct answer is Finance Commission (Option 1).
The Finance Commission, established under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution, recommends the distribution of net proceeds of taxes between the Union and States, as well as grants-in-aid to states. It is constituted every five years.
Option 2 - Inter-State Council: Promotes cooperation and coordination among states and between Centre and states; does not recommend tax distribution.
Option 3 - NITI Aayog: A policy think-tank replacing the Planning Commission; it does not have a constitutional role in tax distribution.
Option 4 - GST Council: Recommends GST rates and related matters; it is a constitutional body under Article 279A but does not distribute net tax proceeds.
Polity Miscellaneous · Political theory terms (sovereignty, secularism, federalism)

Q8. The term 'cooperative federalism' means:

  1. (a) Federalism based on judiciary
  2. (b) Supremacy of the Union over States
  3. (c) Competition between Union and States
  4. (d) Cooperation and coordination between Union and States
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Cooperation and coordination between Union and States

The correct answer is Cooperation and coordination between Union and States (Option 4).
Cooperative federalism refers to the concept where the central government and state governments work together in a spirit of cooperation and mutual coordination to achieve shared governance goals, rather than competing or conflicting with each other.
Option 1 - Federalism based on judiciary: Judicial federalism refers to the role of courts in resolving centre -state disputes; it is not the meaning of cooperative federalism.
Option 2 - Supremacy of the Union over States: This describes centralized or unitary tendencies, not cooperative federalism.
Option 3 - Competition between Union and States: This is associated with competitive federalism, not cooperative federalism.
Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies · Finance Commission

Q9. Which of the following is NOT a constitutional duty for the Finance Commission?

  1. (a) To recommend distribution of taxes
  2. (b) To evaluate the fiscal policy of states
  3. (c) To recommend grants-in-aid
  4. (d) To suggest measures to augment state finances
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To evaluate the fiscal policy of states

The correct answer is To evaluate the fiscal policy of states (Option 2).
Evaluating state fiscal policy is NOT a constitutional duty of the Finance Commission. Under Article 280, the Finance Commission's constitutional duties are: recommending tax revenue distribution between Union and States, recommending grants-in-aid, and suggesting measures to supplement state finances.
Option 1 - To recommend distribution of taxes: This IS a constitutional duty under Article 280(3)(a).
Option 3 - To recommend grants-in-aid: This IS a constitutional duty under Article 280(3)(b).
Option 4 - To suggest measures to augment state finances: This IS within the Finance Commission's constitutional mandate.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q10. Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha (Second) Sanhita, 2023, within how many days must a medical practitioner submit the medical examination report of a rape victim to the investigating officer?

  1. (a) Three days
  2. (b) Five days
  3. (c) Seven days
  4. (d) Ten days
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Seven days

The correct answer is Seven days (Option 3).
Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha (Second) Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, a medical practitioner who examines a rape victim must submit the medical examination report to the investigating officer within seven days of the examination.
Option 1 - Three days: Three days is not the prescribed time limit under BNSS for submitting the medical report.
Option 2 - Five days: Five days is not the specified duration under BNSS for this requirement.
Option 4 - Ten days: Ten days exceeds the prescribed limit; the law mandates submission within seven days.

Static GK (16)

Music and Musical Instruments · Hindustani music (ragas, gharanas)

Q11. The title of 'Aaftab-e- Mousiqi ' was awarded to Faiyaz Khan. He is associated with which Gharana of classical music?

  1. (a) Gwalior Gharana
  2. (b) Kirana Gharana
  3. (c) Patiala Gharana
  4. (d) Agra Gharana
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Agra Gharana

The correct answer is Agra Gharana (Option 4).
Ustad Faiyaz Khan, one of the greatest vocalists of Hindustani classical music, belonged to the Agra Gharana. He was bestowed the title 'Aaftab-e- Mousiqi ' (Sun of Music) for his mastery of khayal and dhrupad styles.
Option 1 - Gwalior Gharana: One of the oldest gharanas, known for its clear and simple style; Faiyaz Khan did not belong to this gharana.
Option 2 - Kirana Gharana: Known for its lyrical and meditative style; associated with Ustad Abdul Karim Khan, not Faiyaz Khan.
Option 3 - Patiala Gharana: Known for its ornate style; associated with Bade Ghulam Ali Khan, not Faiyaz Khan.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q12. Which Sikh festival commemorates the martyrdom of Guru Arjan Dev?

  1. (a) Baisakhi
  2. (b) Hola Mohalla
  3. (c) Shahidi Divas
  4. (d) Gurpurab
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Shahidi Divas

The correct answer is Shahidi Divas (Option 3).
Shahidi Divas (Martyrdom Day) commemorates the martyrdom of Guru Arjan Dev Ji, the fifth Sikh Guru, who was executed by the Mughal Emperor Jahangir in 1606. It is observed in June every year.
Option 1 - Baisakhi: Marks the founding of the Khalsa Panth in 1699 by Guru Gobind Singh Ji; it is a harvest festival, not specifically about Guru Arjan Dev's martyrdom.
Option 2 - Hola Mohalla: A Sikh festival introduced by Guru Gobind Singh, held the day after Holi, featuring martial arts and valor demonstrations.
Option 4 - Gurpurab : A general term for anniversaries related to Sikh Gurus (birth or death); while Guru Arjan Dev's martyrdom is a Gurpurab , Shahidi Divas is the specific term.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Tribal festivals

Q13. In which Indian state is the Behdienkhalam Festival celebrated?

  1. (a) Manipur
  2. (b) Mizoram
  3. (c) Meghalaya
  4. (d) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Meghalaya

The correct answer is Meghalaya (Option 3).
Behdienkhalam is a major festival of the Pnar (Jaintia) community of Meghalaya, celebrated in the month of July. It is a ritual festival that symbolizes the driving away of disease and evil spirits, marked by dancing, feasting, and the playing of traditional games.
Option 1 - Manipur: Manipur has its own tribal festivals like Lai Haraoba; Behdienkhalam is not from Manipur.
Option 2 - Mizoram: Mizoram is known for festivals like Chapchar Kut and Mim Kut; Behdienkhalam is not celebrated there.
Option 4 - Arunachal Pradesh: Arunachal Pradesh has festivals like Losar and Solung ; Behdienkhalam belongs to Meghalaya's Jaintia community.
Music and Musical Instruments · Hindustani music (ragas, gharanas)

Q14. What is the basic unit of rhythm in Hindustani classical music?

  1. (a) Tala
  2. (b) Swara
  3. (c) Raga
  4. (d) Alap
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Tala

The correct answer is Tala (Option 1).
Tala is the rhythmic cycle or time measure in Hindustani classical music. It is the basic unit of rhythm, consisting of a fixed number of beats ( matras ) arranged in a cyclical pattern, played on instruments like the tabla .
Option 2 - Swara: Swara refers to a musical note or pitch in Indian classical music, not the basic unit of rhythm.
Option 3 - Raga: Raga is the melodic framework or scale of notes used to create music; it is a melodic concept, not a rhythmic one.
Option 4 - Alap : Alap is the introductory, free-flowing improvisation of a raga without rhythmic accompaniment (no tala).
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q15. Which author won the Sahitya Akademi Award in Punjabi for the work "Ba Mulahaza Hoshiar" in 1976?

  1. (a) Narenderpal Singh
  2. (b) Prabhjot Kaur
  3. (c) Amrita Pritam
  4. (d) Surjit Patar
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Narenderpal Singh

The correct answer is Narenderpal Singh (Option 1).
Narenderpal Singh won the Sahitya Akademi Award for Punjabi literature in 1976 for the work 'Ba Mulahaza Hoshiar,' a significant contribution to Punjabi literary tradition.
Option 2 - Prabhjot Kaur: A noted Punjabi poetess, but not the winner of the 1976 Sahitya Akademi Award for this specific work.
Option 3 - Amrita Pritam: One of the greatest Punjabi authors, won the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1956 for ' Sunehe '; not for this work in 1976.
Option 4 - Surjit Patar: A renowned Punjabi poet who won the Sahitya Akademi Award in 2012, not in 1976.
Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q16. 'Sadir' was the old name for which classical dance form?

  1. (a) Kuchipudi
  2. (b) Bharatanatyam
  3. (c) Odissi
  4. (d) Kathak
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Bharatanatyam

The correct answer is Bharatanatyam (Option 2).
Bharatanatyam was historically known as 'Sadir' (also called Sadirattam or Dasi Attam), performed by devadasis in Tamil Nadu's temples. It was renamed 'Bharatanatyam' in 1932 by E. Krishna Iyer and Rukmini Devi Arundale, who revived and brought it to the mainstream stage.
Option 1 - Kuchipudi: A classical dance form from Andhra Pradesh; its earlier form was known as 'Kuchipudi Yakshagana ,' not Sadir.
Option 3 - Odissi: A classical dance from Odisha with roots in temple traditions; its old form was called 'Mahari' dance, not Sadir.
Option 4 - Kathak: A classical dance from North India with Mughal influences; it was not called Sadir.
Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q17. Which dance form is characterized by the prominent use of ' ghungroos ' (ankle bells) and rhythmic footwork with intricate tala patterns?

  1. (a) Kathak
  2. (b) Mohiniyattam
  3. (c) Odissi
  4. (d) Sattriya
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Kathak

The correct answer is Kathak (Option 1).
Kathak is a classical Indian dance form of North India known for its intricate footwork ( tatkar ), rapid spins ( chakkar ), and the prominent use of ghungroos (ankle bells) that create rhythmic patterns aligned with complex tala cycles, often showcasing the tabla's rhythmic interplay.
Option 2 - Mohiniyattam : A classical dance from Kerala characterized by graceful, swaying movements; while ghungroos are used, it does not focus primarily on intricate footwork and tala patterns.
Option 3 - Odissi: A lyrical and sculptural dance from Odisha; it features tribhangi posture and expressive movements, but heavy footwork with ghungroos is not its defining feature.
Option 4 - Sattriya : A classical dance from Assam originating in Vaishnavite monasteries; characterized by graceful movements and devotional themes, not primarily known for ghungroo -based footwork.
Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q18. Which classical dance form was traditionally performed by Maharis (female temple dancers) in the sanctum of Jagannath Temple?

  1. (a) Odissi
  2. (b) Kuchipudi
  3. (c) Sattriya
  4. (d) Mohiniyattam
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Odissi

The correct answer is Odissi (Option 1).
Odissi classical dance has its origins in the Mahari tradition, where Maharis (female temple dancers) performed devotional dances inside the Jagannath Temple in Puri, Odisha, as offerings to Lord Jagannath. This temple tradition forms the sacred foundation of Odissi.
Option 2 - Kuchipudi: Originated in Kuchipudi village of Andhra Pradesh; it was performed by Brahmin men and later by women, but not specifically in the Jagannath Temple by Maharis .
Option 3 - Sattriya : Originated in Assam's Vaishnavite satras (monasteries); it was performed by male monks ( bhokots ), not Maharis .
Option 4 - Mohiniyattam : A classical dance from Kerala associated with the temples of Kerala, not the Jagannath Temple in Odisha.
Sports · Sports terminology

Q19. In which sport is 'Spare' a scoring term?

  1. (a) Archery
  2. (b) Bowling
  3. (c) Golf
  4. (d) Shooting
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Bowling

The correct answer is Bowling (Option 2).
In ten-pin bowling, a 'Spare' is achieved when a player knocks down all remaining pins on the second ball of a frame (after the first ball did not knock all pins). A spare scores 10 plus the number of pins knocked down on the next ball.
Option 1 - Archery: Uses terms like Gold, Red, Blue based on the target zones; 'Spare' is not an archery term.
Option 3 - Golf: Uses terms like Birdie, Eagle, Bogey, Par; 'Spare' is not used in golf scoring.
Option 4 - Shooting: Uses terms like Bull's-eye, Inner, Outer; 'Spare' is not a shooting term.
Sports · Asian Games and Commonwealth Games

Q20. India's first Asian Games medal in artistic gymnastics came through _____.

  1. (a) Ashish Kumar
  2. (b) Deepa Karmakar
  3. (c) Pranati Nayak
  4. (d) Yamin D'Souza
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Ashish Kumar

The correct answer is Ashish Kumar (Option 1).
Ashish Kumar won India's first-ever Asian Games medal in artistic gymnastics, clinching a bronze in the Floor Exercise event at the 2010 Asian Games in Guangzhou, China. This was a historic achievement for Indian gymnastics.
Option 2 - Deepa Karmakar: A celebrated Indian gymnast who made history at the 2016 Rio Olympics, but she came after Ashish Kumar's 2010 Asian Games bronze.
Option 3 - Pranati Nayak: A gymnast who won bronze at the 2019 Asian Artistic Gymnastics Championships; she came after Ashish Kumar.
Option 4 - Yamin D'Souza: Not specifically associated with India's first Asian Games medal in artistic gymnastics.
Sports · Asian Games and Commonwealth Games

Q21. In the 1951 Asian Games, which medal count was highest for India among silver, bronze, and gold?

  1. (a) Gold
  2. (b) Silver
  3. (c) Bronze
  4. (d) Gold and Silver were tied
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Bronze

The correct answer is Bronze (Option 3).
At the first Asian Games held in New Delhi in 1951, India performed well as the host nation. Among the gold, silver, and bronze medals, India's bronze medal count was the highest in that edition.
Option 1 - Gold: India won gold medals in 1951 but not the highest count among the three categories.
Option 2 - Silver: India's silver medal count was not the highest in 1951.
Option 4 - Gold and Silver were tied: India's gold and silver counts were not equal and the highest count was in bronze.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q22. The literary work 'Tamas,' centered around the Partition, was authored by:

  1. (a) Bhisham Sahni
  2. (b) Khushwant Singh
  3. (c) Saadat Hasan Manto
  4. (d) Intizar Husain
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Bhisham Sahni

The correct answer is Bhisham Sahni (Option 1).
Bhisham Sahni wrote 'Tamas' (1974), a Hindi novel depicting the communal violence and human tragedy during the Partition of India. It won the Sahitya Akademi Award in 1975 and was adapted into a celebrated TV series by Govind Nihalani.
Option 2 - Khushwant Singh: Wrote 'Train to Pakistan,' another landmark novel on Partition, but not 'Tamas.'
Option 3 - Saadat Hasan Manto: A Urdu writer famous for short stories like 'Toba Tek Singh' about Partition; he did not write 'Tamas.'
Option 4 - Intizar Husain: A Pakistani Urdu writer known for works like 'Basti'; he did not write 'Tamas.'
Sports · Other sports and tournaments (tennis, chess, badminton, etc.)

Q23. Who was the first Indian athlete to win a medal at the World Athletics Championships?

  1. (a) Anju Bobby George
  2. (b) Neeraj Chopra
  3. (c) Milkha Singh
  4. (d) Seema Punia
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Anju Bobby George

The correct answer is Anju Bobby George (Option 1).
Anju Bobby George became the first Indian athlete to win a medal at the World Athletics Championships, winning bronze in the Long Jump at the 2003 World Athletics Championships in Paris.
Option 2 - Neeraj Chopra: Won gold at the 2022 World Athletics Championships in Eugene; this came two decades after Anju's historic bronze.
Option 3 - Milkha Singh: The legendary 'Flying Sikh' competed at the Olympics but did not win a medal at the World Athletics Championships.
Option 4 - Seema Punia: A discus thrower who has competed internationally but was not the first Indian to win a World Athletics Championships medal.
Sports · Football and hockey

Q24. Who was the first Indian footballer to play in a top-tier European league match?

  1. (a) Sunil Chhetri
  2. (b) Gurpreet Singh Sandhu
  3. (c) Bhaichung Bhutia
  4. (d) Subrata Paul
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Gurpreet Singh Sandhu

The correct answer is Gurpreet Singh Sandhu (Option 2).
Gurpreet Singh Sandhu became the first Indian footballer to play in a top-tier European league when he appeared for Stabaek FC in the Norwegian Tippeligaen (top division) in 2016-17, making history for Indian football.
Option 1 - Sunil Chhetri: India's greatest footballer and international captain, but he has played in ISL and I-League, not in Europe's top-tier leagues.
Option 3 - Bhaichung Bhutia: Played for Bury FC in the English third division (not top-tier) in 1999-2002, predating Gurpreet's top-tier appearance.
Option 4 - Subrata Paul: A goalkeeper who played in Denmark's lower divisions; did not play in a top-tier European league.
Sports · Sports terminology

Q25. What is the primary purpose of periodization in sports training?

  1. (a) To maintain the same intensity throughout the season
  2. (b) To vary training load to optimize peak performance
  3. (c) To ensure no rest days are required
  4. (d) To increase heart rate variability
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To vary training load to optimize peak performance

The correct answer is To vary training load to optimize peak performance (Option 2).
Periodization is a systematic approach to sports training that involves varying the training load (volume, intensity, frequency) in planned cycles (macrocycle, mesocycle, microcycle ) to optimize an athlete's peak performance during competitions while minimizing injury and overtraining.
Option 1 - Maintaining same intensity: Constant intensity leads to overtraining, burnout, and plateauing; periodization specifically varies intensity to avoid this.
Option 3 - No rest days required: Periodization actually incorporates planned recovery periods and rest days as essential components for adaptation and performance.
Option 4 - Increasing heart rate variability: While training can affect heart rate variability, it is not the primary purpose of periodization.
Space, Defence and Technology · Science and technology missions and schemes

Q26. The 2025 update on Vigyan Dhara mentions that beneficiaries include young students aged 10-15 years. Under which specific component does it promote innovation and early interest in science?

  1. (a) INSPIRE-Fellowship
  2. (b) INSPIRE-SHE
  3. (c) INSPIRE-MANAK
  4. (d) INSPIRE-Faculty
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) INSPIRE-MANAK

The correct answer is INSPIRE-MANAK (Option 3).
INSPIRE-MANAK (Million Minds Augmenting National Aspirations and Knowledge) is a component under the INSPIRE scheme (Vigyan Dhara update) targeting students aged 10-15 years. It promotes innovation and early interest in science by recognizing and nurturing young scientific ideas.
Option 1 - INSPIRE-Fellowship: Targets doctoral research students (post-graduate level) pursuing basic and natural sciences; not for 10-15 year olds .
Option 2 - INSPIRE-SHE (Scholarship for Higher Education): Targets college students (17-22 years) pursuing basic and natural sciences; not for 10-15 year olds .
Option 4 - INSPIRE-Faculty: Provides research fellowships to young scientists and technologists for independent research positions; not for 10-15 year old students.

Current Affairs (8)

Books, Obituaries and Days - Current · Obituaries

Q27. A.J.T. Johnsingh, who passed away on 7 June 2024, belonged to which field?

  1. (a) Wildlife conservationist
  2. (b) Entertainer
  3. (c) Poet
  4. (d) Politician
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Wildlife conservationist

The correct answer is Wildlife conservationist (Option 1).
Dr. A.J.T. Johnsingh was a renowned Indian wildlife biologist and conservationist who dedicated his life to the study and conservation of tigers, leopards, and other wildlife. He passed away on 7 June 2024.
Option 2 - Entertainer: A.J.T. Johnsingh was not an entertainer; he was a scientist and conservationist.
Option 3 - Poet: He was not known as a poet; his work was in wildlife biology and conservation.
Option 4 - Politician: He was not a politician; he worked with WWF-India and the Wildlife Institute of India.
Awards and Honours - Current · International awards - current

Q28. Which Indian-language work in the International Booker Prize lists is associated with translator Deepa Bhasthi?

  1. (a) Avarna
  2. (b) Heart Lamp
  3. (c) Chethana
  4. (d) Cobalt Blue
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Heart Lamp

The correct answer is Heart Lamp (Option 2).
'Heart Lamp' is a collection of short stories by Kannada author Banu Mushtaq, translated into English by Deepa Bhasthi. It was longlisted for the International Booker Prize, bringing Kannada literature to global attention.
Option 1 - Avarna: A Kannada novel by S.L. Bhyrappa , not specifically associated with translator Deepa Bhasthi for the International Booker Prize.
Option 3 - Chethana: Not associated with Deepa Bhasthi in the International Booker Prize context.
Option 4 - Cobalt Blue: A Marathi novel by Sachin Kundalkar, translated into English by Jerry Pinto, not Deepa Bhasthi.
Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q29. Who became the 51st Chief Justice of India (CJI) in November 2024?

  1. (a) Justice Surya Kant
  2. (b) Justice Sanjiv Khanna
  3. (c) Justice B. R. Gavai
  4. (d) Justice Vikram Nath
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Justice Sanjiv Khanna

The correct answer is Justice Sanjiv Khanna (Option 2).
Justice Sanjiv Khanna was sworn in as the 51st Chief Justice of India on 11 November 2024, succeeding Justice D.Y. Chandrachud. He served as a judge of the Supreme Court and was involved in several landmark judgments.
Option 1 - Justice Surya Kant: A senior Supreme Court judge; he did not become CJI in November 2024.
Option 3 - Justice B.R. Gavai: He became the 52nd CJI after Justice Sanjiv Khanna; not the November 2024 appointee.
Option 4 - Justice Vikram Nath: A Supreme Court judge; he did not become CJI in November 2024.
Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q30. Which Chief Minister attended the inaugural ceremony of the Orientation Programme for Haryana MLAs in February 2025?

  1. (a) Manohar Lal Khattar
  2. (b) Nayab Singh Saini
  3. (c) Bhupinder Singh Hooda
  4. (d) Shivraj Singh Chouhan
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Nayab Singh Saini

The correct answer is Nayab Singh Saini (Option 2).
Chief Minister Nayab Singh Saini of Haryana attended the inaugural ceremony of the Orientation Programme for newly elected Haryana MLAs in February 2025, aimed at familiarizing legislators with parliamentary procedures and governance.
Option 1 - Manohar Lal Khattar: Former Chief Minister of Haryana; he was replaced by Nayab Singh Saini in March 2024 and moved to the Central Cabinet.
Option 3 - Bhupinder Singh Hooda: Leader of the Congress opposition in Haryana; he did not attend as CM since BJP won the 2024 Haryana election.
Option 4 - Shivraj Singh Chouhan: Chief Minister of Madhya Pradesh before joining the Central Cabinet; not the CM of Haryana.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q31. Which Union Minister attended a programme where the 19th instalment of PM-KISAN Samman Nidhi was released?

  1. (a) Narendra Singh Tomar
  2. (b) Hardeep Singh Puri
  3. (c) Arjun Munda
  4. (d) Amit Shah
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Hardeep Singh Puri

The correct answer is Hardeep Singh Puri (Option 2).
Union Minister Hardeep Singh Puri attended the programme where the 19th instalment of the PM-KISAN Samman Nidhi scheme was released, transferring funds directly to the bank accounts of eligible farmer beneficiaries.
Option 1 - Narendra Singh Tomar: Former Agriculture Minister; he left the Agriculture Ministry after the 2024 general elections.
Option 3 - Arjun Munda: Former Minister of Tribal Affairs; not specifically associated with the 19th PM-KISAN instalment release event.
Option 4 - Amit Shah: Union Home Minister; not specifically associated with this PM-KISAN instalment event.
Sports - Current · Venues and hosts

Q32. The first Kho-Kho World Cup (Senior Men) was hosted in:

  1. (a) Pune
  2. (b) New Delhi
  3. (c) Kolkata
  4. (d) Hyderabad
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) New Delhi

The correct answer is New Delhi (Option 2).
The inaugural Kho-Kho World Cup (Senior Men) was hosted in New Delhi, India in January 2025. India hosted this historic event as the nation where Kho-Kho originated, showcasing the traditional Indian sport on a global platform.
Option 1 - Pune: A major sports city in Maharashtra; it did not host the first Kho-Kho World Cup.
Option 3 - Kolkata: An iconic sports city; it was not the venue for the inaugural Kho-Kho World Cup.
Option 4 - Hyderabad: Known for sports events, but the first Kho-Kho World Cup was held in New Delhi.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · New government schemes and missions

Q33. The incentive rate approved under the low-value BHIM-UPI P2M scheme for eligible transactions is:

  1. (a) 0.10% of transaction value
  2. (b) 0.15% of transaction value
  3. (c) 0.20% of transaction value
  4. (d) 0.25% of transaction value
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 0.15% of transaction value

The correct answer is 0.15% of transaction value (Option 2).
The government approved an incentive rate of 0.15% of the transaction value under the low-value BHIM-UPI Person to Merchant (P2M) scheme. This incentive is aimed at encouraging small merchants and businesses to adopt digital payments for transactions below a certain threshold.
Option 1 - 0.10%: This is lower than the approved incentive rate for low-value BHIM-UPI P2M transactions.
Option 3 - 0.20%: This is higher than the approved incentive rate under this specific scheme.
Option 4 - 0.25%: This exceeds the approved incentive rate for this low-value BHIM-UPI P2M scheme.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q34. The ' Sahyog ' Portal has been launched to expedite the process of sending notices to IT intermediaries under which legal provision?

  1. (a) Section 66F(b) of the IT Act, 2000
  2. (b) Section 43A of the IT Act, 2000
  3. (c) Section 79(3)(b) of the IT Act, 2000
  4. (d) Section 87A of the IT Act, 2000
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Section 79(3)(b) of the IT Act, 2000

The correct answer is Section 79(3)(b) of the IT Act, 2000 (Option 3).
The Sahyog Portal was launched by the Ministry of Electronics & IT (MeitY) to streamline and expedite the process of sending compliance notices to IT intermediaries (social media platforms, etc.) under Section 79(3)(b) of the IT Act, 2000, which relates to the removal of unlawful content.
Option 1 - Section 66F(b): Deals with cyber terrorism offenses; not the provision under which Sahyog Portal operates.
Option 2 - Section 43A: Deals with compensation for failure to protect sensitive personal data; not related to IT intermediary notices.
Option 4 - Section 87A: Not the relevant section for IT intermediary notice compliance under the Sahyog Portal framework.

Geography (2)

Atmosphere and Climate · Climate change and global warming

Q35. What is the main impact of the growing population on the climate?

  1. (a) Decrease in natural disasters
  2. (b) Increase in food production
  3. (c) Intensifying events such as floods, droughts, and wildfires
  4. (d) Improvement in air quality
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Intensifying events such as floods, droughts, and wildfires

The correct answer is Intensifying events such as floods, droughts, and wildfires (Option 3).
A growing population increases demand for energy, land, and resources, leading to greater greenhouse gas emissions. This accelerates climate change, which intensifies extreme weather events such as floods, droughts, and wildfires.
Option 1 - Decrease in natural disasters: Incorrect; growing population and associated emissions actually increase the frequency and intensity of natural disasters.
Option 2 - Increase in food production: While population growth drives demand for food, this is a consequence, not the main impact on climate. Intensive agriculture contributes to emissions.
Option 4 - Improvement in air quality: Population growth generally worsens air quality due to increased industrial activity, transportation, and energy use.
Universe and Solar System · The Sun

Q36. Which celestial body is at the center of our solar system?

  1. (a) Earth
  2. (b) Mars
  3. (c) The Sun
  4. (d) Jupiter
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The Sun

The correct answer is The Sun (Option 3).
The Sun is the star at the center of our solar system. All planets, including Earth and Mars, orbit the Sun due to its immense gravitational pull. The Sun contains about 99.86% of the total mass of the solar system.
Option 1 - Earth: Earth is the third planet from the Sun and orbits it; Earth is not the center of the solar system (heliocentric model).
Option 2 - Mars: Mars is the fourth planet from the Sun; it orbits the Sun and is not at the center.
Option 4 - Jupiter: Jupiter is the largest planet in the solar system but orbits the Sun; it is not at the center.

Biology (2)

Nutrition and Digestion · Modes of nutrition (autotrophic, heterotrophic, parasitic, saprophytic)

Q37. Which organisms break down food material outside their bodies and then absorb it?

  1. (a) Animals like cows and lions
  2. (b) Plants like grass and trees
  3. (c) Fungi like bread moulds , yeast, and mushrooms
  4. (d) Parasites like cuscuta and tape-worms
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Fungi like bread moulds , yeast, and mushrooms

The correct answer is Fungi like bread moulds , yeast, and mushrooms (Option 3).
Fungi are saprotrophic organisms that secrete digestive enzymes outside their bodies to break down complex organic matter into simpler substances, which they then absorb through their cell walls. This process is called extracellular digestion.
Option 1 - Animals like cows and lions: Animals digest food internally through their digestive systems, not outside their bodies.
Option 2 - Plants like grass and trees: Plants are autotrophs that make their own food through photosynthesis; they do not break down external food material.
Option 4 - Parasites like cuscuta and tape-worms: Parasites absorb nutrients from host organisms but do not typically break down food outside their bodies with enzymes.
Human Physiology - Respiration, Circulation and Excretion · Aerobic and anaerobic respiration

Q38. What is the byproduct of anaerobic respiration in yeast?

  1. (a) Lactic acid
  2. (b) Ethanol and carbon dioxide
  3. (c) Water and oxygen
  4. (d) Glucose and pyruvate
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ethanol and carbon dioxide

The correct answer is Ethanol and carbon dioxide (Option 2).
In anaerobic respiration (fermentation), yeast breaks down glucose in the absence of oxygen to produce ethanol (alcohol) and carbon dioxide. This process is used in brewing, winemaking, and bread-making.
Option 1 - Lactic acid: Lactic acid is produced during anaerobic respiration in animal muscle cells (not in yeast).
Option 3 - Water and oxygen: Water and oxygen are not byproducts of anaerobic respiration; water is produced in aerobic respiration.
Option 4 - Glucose and pyruvate: Glucose is the starting reactant, not a byproduct. Pyruvate is an intermediate product in glycolysis before fermentation.

Economics (8)

Agriculture and Food Security · Green Revolution and other agricultural revolutions

Q39. Which of the following was a major outcome of the Green Revolution in India during the 1960s?

  1. (a) Increase in agricultural productivity
  2. (b) Decrease in industrial output
  3. (c) Increase in import dependency
  4. (d) Decline in population growth
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Increase in agricultural productivity

The correct answer is Increase in agricultural productivity (Option 1).
The Green Revolution (1960s–70s) introduced high-yielding variety (HYV) seeds, chemical fertilizers, pesticides, and irrigation techniques, leading to a dramatic increase in agricultural productivity, particularly for wheat and rice. India achieved food self-sufficiency.
Option 2 - Decrease in industrial output: The Green Revolution specifically targeted agriculture, not industry, and did not cause industrial decline.
Option 3 - Increase in import dependency: The Green Revolution actually reduced India's dependence on food imports by boosting domestic production.
Option 4 - Decline in population growth: Population growth is driven by birth/death rates, not agricultural revolutions. India's population continued to grow during this period.
Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Human Development Index and UNDP

Q40. The Human Development Index (HDI) is published by which of the following organizations?

  1. (a) World Bank
  2. (b) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
  3. (c) World Economic Forum (WEF)
  4. (d) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) United Nations Development Programme (UNDP)

The correct answer is United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) (Option 4).
The Human Development Index (HDI) is published annually by the UNDP in its Human Development Report. It measures countries based on life expectancy, education, and per capita income indicators.
Option 1 - World Bank: Publishes the World Development Report and Ease of Doing Business Index, not HDI.
Option 2 - IMF: Publishes reports on global economic outlook and financial stability, not HDI.
Option 3 - WEF: Publishes the Global Competitiveness Report and Global Gender Gap Report, not HDI.
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · Economic groupings (BRICS, G20, ASEAN)

Q41. Who first coined the acronym BRIC in 2001?

  1. (a) World Bank
  2. (b) IMF
  3. (c) Goldman Sachs
  4. (d) United Nations
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Goldman Sachs

The correct answer is Goldman Sachs (Option 3).
The term BRIC (Brazil, Russia, India, China) was first coined by economist Jim O'Neill of Goldman Sachs in a 2001 research paper titled 'Building Better Global Economic BRICs,' highlighting these four emerging economies as future global powerhouses.
Option 1 - World Bank: Did not coin the BRIC acronym; it is a multilateral development institution.
Option 2 - IMF: Did not originate the BRIC term; it is the International Monetary Fund focused on global financial stability.
Option 4 - United Nations: Did not create the BRIC concept; it is an intergovernmental organization.
Industry and Infrastructure · Disinvestment

Q42. The role of disinvestment in the post-1991 period was:

  1. (a) To nationalize private companies
  2. (b) To reduce the government's stake in non-strategic public sector undertakings and improve efficiency
  3. (c) To increase public debt
  4. (d) To finance social programs
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To reduce the government's stake in non-strategic public sector undertakings and improve efficiency

The correct answer is To reduce the government's stake in non-strategic PSUs and improve efficiency (Option 2).
Post-1991 economic liberalization introduced disinvestment as a key policy to reduce the government's shareholding in non-strategic public sector undertakings (PSUs), improve their efficiency through market competition, and generate revenue for the government.
Option 1 - To nationalize private companies: Nationalization is the opposite of disinvestment; post-1991 reforms moved toward privatization, not nationalization.
Option 3 - To increase public debt: Disinvestment actually generates funds for the government, potentially reducing the need for borrowing.
Option 4 - To finance social programs: While disinvestment proceeds can be used for various purposes, its primary role is reducing government stake in PSUs and improving efficiency.
Industry and Infrastructure · Industrial Policy Resolutions (1948, 1956, 1991)

Q43. What was emphasized in the Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956?

  1. (a) Private sector monopoly
  2. (b) Promotion of foreign multinational corporations
  3. (c) Complete nationalization of all industries
  4. (d) Mixed economy with a large role for the public sector in heavy industries
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Mixed economy with a large role for the public sector in heavy industries

The correct answer is Mixed economy with a large role for the public sector in heavy industries (Option 4).
The Industrial Policy Resolution of 1956 established a framework of a mixed economy in India, assigning a dominant role to the public sector in heavy industries (steel, mining, defense, energy) while allowing the private sector in other areas. It classified industries into three schedules based on state control.
Option 1 - Private sector monopoly: The 1956 Resolution explicitly restricted private sector participation in strategic industries, giving the public sector the leading role.
Option 2 - Promotion of foreign multinationals: The 1956 policy was focused on domestic industry development, not promoting foreign corporations.
Option 3 - Complete nationalization of all industries: Only certain strategic industries were reserved for the public sector; the private sector was permitted in others.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q44. What was the core argument of the Mahalanobis model?

  1. (a) Investment in capital goods raises future productive capacity more than investment in consumer goods
  2. (b) Agricultural output is independent of industrial growth
  3. (c) Capital stock growth is limited by labour supply
  4. (d) Consumption goods determine long-term growth
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Investment in capital goods raises future productive capacity more than investment in consumer goods

The correct answer is Investment in capital goods raises future productive capacity more than investment in consumer goods (Option 1).
The Mahalanobis model (Second Five-Year Plan, 1956-61) argued that heavy investment in capital goods industries (steel, machinery, power) would expand future productive capacity more than consumer goods production, laying the foundation for long-term industrial growth.
Option 2 - Agricultural output independent of industrial growth: The Mahalanobis model actually recognized the interdependence of agriculture and industry.
Option 3 - Capital stock limited by labour supply: This reflects classical economics; the Mahalanobis model focused on capital formation, not labour supply constraints.
Option 4 - Consumption goods determine long-term growth: The model argued the opposite — capital goods investment, not consumer goods, drives long-term productive capacity.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Plan holidays and rolling plan

Q45. What does the term 'plan holiday' (1966-69) indicate?

  1. (a) Suspension of economic planning
  2. (b) Shift to zero-based budgeting
  3. (c) First time plan documents not publicly released
  4. (d) Adoption of Rolling Plan
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Suspension of economic planning

The correct answer is Suspension of economic planning (Option 1).
The 'Plan Holiday' (1966-1969) refers to the three-year period between the Third and Fourth Five-Year Plans when formal economic planning was suspended in India. During this period, Annual Plans were implemented instead of a comprehensive five-year plan, due to economic crises, wars (1962, 1965), and drought.
Option 2 - Shift to zero-based budgeting: Zero-based budgeting is a budget methodology; the Plan Holiday was about suspension of Five-Year Plans, not a budgeting technique shift.
Option 3 - First time plan documents not publicly released: Plan documents were publicly released; the issue was the suspension of the plan period itself.
Option 4 - Adoption of Rolling Plan: The Rolling Plan concept (continuous revision of plans) was proposed later in the Janata government era (1978-80), not during 1966-69.
Financial Markets and Institutions · Pension schemes (NPS, APY) and PFRDA

Q46. Under the Employees' Pension Scheme, 1995 (EPS-95), the Widow/Widower Pension becomes payable under which circumstance?

  1. (a) Permanent disability of the member
  2. (b) Retirement of the member
  3. (c) Death of the member or pensioner
  4. (d) Member switching employment
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Death of the member or pensioner

The correct answer is Death of the member or pensioner (Option 3).
Under the Employees' Pension Scheme, 1995 (EPS-95), the Widow/Widower Pension becomes payable to the spouse of a member upon the death of the member or pensioner. This provides financial security to the surviving spouse.
Option 1 - Permanent disability: Permanent disability triggers the Disablement Pension, not the Widow/Widower Pension.
Option 2 - Retirement: Retirement triggers the Member's Pension, not the Widow/Widower Pension.
Option 4 - Member switching employment: Changing employment does not trigger the Widow/Widower Pension; it may affect pension accumulation but not this specific pension.

Medieval History (2)

Delhi Sultanate · Slave (Mamluk) dynasty

Q47. When Rukn- ud -din was unfit to rule, then Iltutmish nominated _____ as his successor. However, the nobles in his court disapproved of his choice.

  1. (a) Begum Hazrat Mahal
  2. (b) Mehrunnisa
  3. (c) Raziya Sultan
  4. (d) Nadira Shah
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Raziya Sultan

The correct answer is Raziya Sultan (Option 3).
Sultan Iltutmish of the Delhi Sultanate nominated his daughter Raziya Sultan as his successor, recognizing her capability over his sons. After Rukn- ud -din Firuz's brief and incompetent reign, Raziya Sultan became the first woman ruler of the Delhi Sultanate in 1236, despite opposition from court nobles.
Option 1 - Begum Hazrat Mahal: She was the Begum of Nawab Wajid Ali Shah of Awadh, active during the 1857 revolt — unrelated to the Delhi Sultanate.
Option 2 - Mehrunnisa : This was the name of Empress Nur Jahan (Mughal period), not a successor nominated by Iltutmish.
Option 4 - Nadira Shah: Not a historical figure associated with the Delhi Sultanate succession.
Bhakti, Sufi and Sikh Movements · Sikh Gurus and Sikhism

Q48. Guru Gobind incorporated the writings of Guru Tegh Bahadur into the holy text known as 'Guru Granth Sahib' and also established the 'Khalsa Panth'. He was _____ preceptor.

  1. (a) ninth
  2. (b) tenth
  3. (c) eleventh
  4. (d) twelfth
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) tenth

The correct answer is tenth (Option 2).
Guru Gobind Singh was the tenth and final human Sikh Guru. He compiled the Guru Granth Sahib in its final form (adding the hymns of Guru Tegh Bahadur, the ninth Guru) and founded the Khalsa Panth on Baisakhi in 1699.
Option 1 - ninth: The ninth Sikh Guru was Guru Tegh Bahadur, whose writings Guru Gobind Singh incorporated into the Guru Granth Sahib.
Option 3 - eleventh: There is no eleventh human Sikh Guru; after Guru Gobind Singh, the Guru Granth Sahib itself became the eternal Guru.
Option 4 - twelfth: There is no twelfth Sikh Guru; the lineage of human Gurus ended with the tenth, Guru Gobind Singh.

Physics (1)

Physics Miscellaneous · Physicists and their discoveries

Q49. Who developed the concept of the 'General Theory of Relativity,' fundamentally altering modern physics?

  1. (a) Werner Heisenberg
  2. (b) Albert Einstein
  3. (c) Niels Bohr
  4. (d) Max Planck
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Albert Einstein

The correct answer is Albert Einstein (Option 2).
Albert Einstein developed the General Theory of Relativity, published in 1915. It fundamentally changed our understanding of gravity, space, and time, describing gravity as the curvature of spacetime caused by mass and energy.
Option 1 - Werner Heisenberg: Developed the Uncertainty Principle and made foundational contributions to quantum mechanics, not the General Theory of Relativity.
Option 3 - Niels Bohr: Developed the atomic model and contributed to quantum mechanics; not associated with the General Theory of Relativity.
Option 4 - Max Planck: Developed quantum theory (Planck's constant); not associated with the General Theory of Relativity.
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