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Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 23 December 2025 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 47 GK / GS questions asked in Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 on 23 December 2025 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Static GK, Biology, Polity, Economics, Geography, Physics.

📚 47 questions🗓️ 23 December 2025⏰ Shift 3
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Subjects: Static GK (8) · Biology (2) · Polity (5) · Economics (10) · Geography (7) · Physics (4) · Current Affairs (8) · Ancient History (2) · Medieval History (1)

Static GK (8)

Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q1. The Hemis Festival is celebrated in which region?

  1. (a) Mizoram
  2. (b) Ladakh
  3. (c) Arunachal Pradesh
  4. (d) Odisha
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ladakh

The correct answer is Ladakh (Option 2).
The Hemis Festival is celebrated in Ladakh at the Hemis Monastery near Leh. It is one of the largest Tibetan Buddhist festivals in India, held annually in the Tibetan month of Tse-Chu to commemorate the birth of Guru Padmasambhava.
Option 1 - Mizoram: Mizoram celebrates its own tribal festivals such as Chapchar Kut and Pawl Kut; Hemis is not associated with this state.
Option 3 - Arunachal Pradesh: Arunachal Pradesh has tribal festivals like Losar and Nyokum but not the Hemis Festival.
Option 4 - Odisha: Odisha is known for Rath Yatra, Puri Jagannath celebrations, and other Odia festivals, not the Hemis Festival.
Books and Authors · Ancient and medieval books

Q2. Who composed the 'Sangita Ratnakara' in the 13th century, a key text in both Hindustani and Carnatic music traditions?

  1. (a) Tansen
  2. (b) Swathi Thirunal
  3. (c) Sarangadeva
  4. (d) Jayadeva
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Sarangadeva

The correct answer is Sarangadeva (Option 3).
Sarangadeva composed the 'Sangita Ratnakara' (Ocean of Music) in the 13th century. It is a foundational treatise that served as a bridge text for both Hindustani and Carnatic classical music traditions, covering melody, rhythm, and aesthetics.
Option 1 - Tansen: Tansen was a renowned musician in Emperor Akbar's Navaratnas (court) in the 16th century; he did not compose the Sangita Ratnakara.
Option 2 - Swathi Thirunal: Swathi Thirunal was a 19th-century Kerala composer of Carnatic music; he lived centuries after the Sangita Ratnakara was written.
Option 4 - Jayadeva: Jayadeva composed the Gita Govinda (12th century), a devotional poem on Lord Krishna, not a music theory text.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q3. Fill in the blank:
The _______ festival in Tripura, dedicated to the worship of 14 deities, involves a ritual bath and the purification of sins.

  1. (a) Karva Chauth
  2. (b) Kharchi Puja
  3. (c) Makar Sankranti
  4. (d) Holi
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Kharchi Puja

The correct answer is Kharchi Puja (Option 2).
Kharchi Puja is an important festival of Tripura. It involves the worship of 14 deities of the Tripuri royal family. The festival begins with a ritual bathing of the deities in the Durgabari river to purify the earth of sins, and is celebrated with great devotion by the indigenous people of Tripura.
Option 1 - Karva Chauth: Karva Chauth is a North Indian festival observed by married Hindu women who fast for their husbands' longevity; it is not associated with Tripura.
Option 3 - Makar Sankranti: Makar Sankranti is a harvest festival marking the transition of the sun into Capricorn, celebrated across India; it does not involve worship of 14 deities.
Option 4 - Holi: Holi is the festival of colors celebrated across India to mark the arrival of spring; it does not involve the worship of 14 deities or a ritual river bath.
Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q4. Which dance form evolved in the regions of Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan?

  1. (a) Odissi
  2. (b) Kathak
  3. (c) Kuchipudi
  4. (d) Sattriya
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Kathak

The correct answer is Kathak (Option 2).
Kathak is a classical dance form that evolved in the regions of Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan. It traces its roots to the storytelling traditions of wandering bards ( Kathakas ) and was further refined in the courts of Lucknow (Lucknow gharana) and Jaipur (Jaipur gharana), blending Hindu temple traditions with Mughal court culture.
Option 1 - Odissi: Odissi is a classical dance form that originated in Odisha, not Uttar Pradesh or Rajasthan.
Option 3 - Kuchipudi: Kuchipudi is a classical dance-drama form that originated in the village of Kuchipudi in Andhra Pradesh.
Option 4 - Sattriya : Sattriya is a classical dance form from Assam, introduced by the Vaishnavite saint Srimanta Shankardev.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q5. Read the following statements and choose the correct option. Statement I: Pongal is celebrated primarily in Tamil Nadu as a harvest festival.
Statement II: Baisakhi is celebrated in Punjab, marking the Sikh New Year.

  1. (a) Only Statement I is correct
  2. (b) Only Statement II is correct
  3. (c) Both Statement I and II are correct
  4. (d) Neither Statement I nor Statement II is correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both Statement I and II are correct

The correct answer is Both Statement I and II are correct (Option 3).
Statement I is correct: Pongal is a major harvest festival celebrated in Tamil Nadu, typically in mid-January. It is a four-day festival dedicated to the Sun God, thanking nature for a good harvest.
Statement II is correct: Baisakhi is celebrated in Punjab on April 13 or 14 each year. It marks the harvest of the rabi (winter) crop and also commemorates the founding of the Khalsa Panth by Guru Gobind Singh in 1699.
Option 1 - Only Statement I correct: Statement II is also factually correct, making this option incomplete.
Option 4 - Neither correct: Both statements are accurate descriptions of the respective festivals, making this option incorrect.
Books and Authors · International books and authors

Q6. What is the central theme of The Vegetarian by Han Kang, who was awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2024?

  1. (a) The impact of war on family life
  2. (b) A woman's journey to break free from societal expectations
  3. (c) The search for eternal youth
  4. (d) A man's descent into madness
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) A woman's journey to break free from societal expectations

The correct answer is A woman's journey to break free from societal expectations (Option 2).
'The Vegetarian' by Han Kang tells the story of Yeong- hye , a South Korean woman who decides to stop eating meat after a disturbing dream. Her decision is seen as an act of rebellion against patriarchal norms and societal conformity. The novel explores themes of bodily autonomy, trauma, identity, and the violent response of those around her.
Option 1 - The impact of war on family life: This is the central theme of Han Kang's novel 'Human Acts' (2014), which deals with the 1980 Gwangju Uprising, not 'The Vegetarian'.
Option 3 - The search for eternal youth: Eternal youth is not a theme of 'The Vegetarian'; the novel focuses on autonomy and societal pressure.
Option 4 - A man's descent into madness: The protagonist of 'The Vegetarian' is a woman, Yeong- hye , not a man.
Sports · Sports terminology

Q7. Which of the following best describes the movement of the bishop in chess?

  1. (a) The bishop moves one square in any direction
  2. (b) The bishop moves horizontally and vertically
  3. (c) The bishop moves diagonally, only on the same color
  4. (d) The bishop moves in any direction for one square
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The bishop moves diagonally, only on the same color

The correct answer is The bishop moves diagonally, only on the same color (Option 3).
In chess, the bishop moves diagonally any number of squares in any diagonal direction, but it always remains on the same colour of square. Each player starts with two bishops - one on light squares and one on dark squares - and they never change the colour of their square.
Option 1 - Moves one square in any direction: Moving one square in any direction (including horizontally, vertically, and diagonally) describes the King's movement, not the bishop.
Option 2 - Moves horizontally and vertically: Moving horizontally and vertically (any number of squares) describes the Rook's movement in chess.
Option 4 - Moves in any direction for one square: This again describes the King's movement, which is limited to one square in any direction.
Space, Defence and Technology · Nuclear programme and institutions

Q8. The Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) was set up under the direct charge of the Prime Minister through a Presidential Order on August 3, 1954. Who took charge as Secretary to the Government of India, Department of Atomic Energy on May 03, 2023?

  1. (a) Dr. R. Chidambaram
  2. (b) Dr. Anil Kakodkar
  3. (c) Dr. Ajit Kumar Mohanty
  4. (d) Dr. Sekhar Basu
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Dr. Ajit Kumar Mohanty

The correct answer is Dr. Ajit Kumar Mohanty (Option 3).
Dr. Ajit Kumar Mohanty took charge as Secretary to the Government of India, Department of Atomic Energy (DAE), on May 3, 2023. He simultaneously served as Chairman of the Atomic Energy Commission (AEC) of India. He is a distinguished nuclear physicist.
Option 1 - Dr. R. Chidambaram: Dr. R. Chidambaram served as Chairman of AEC and Principal Scientific Adviser to the Government of India in an earlier period, not in the May 2023 appointment.
Option 2 - Dr. Anil Kakodkar: Dr. Anil Kakodkar served as Chairman of AEC and Secretary of DAE from 2000 to 2009, a much earlier period.
Option 4 - Dr. Sekhar Basu: Dr. Sekhar Basu served as Chairman of AEC and Secretary of DAE from 2012 to 2018, not in 2023.

Biology (2)

Cell - Structure and Function · Mitochondria

Q9. What is the function of the mitochondria in a cell?

  1. (a) Protein synthesis
  2. (b) DNA replication
  3. (c) Energy production
  4. (d) Waste removal
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Energy production

The correct answer is Energy production (Option 3).
Mitochondria are known as the 'powerhouses of the cell.' They produce energy in the form of ATP (adenosine triphosphate) through a process called cellular respiration, using oxygen and nutrients.
Option 1 - Protein synthesis: Protein synthesis is carried out by ribosomes, not mitochondria.
Option 2 - DNA replication: DNA replication occurs in the nucleus of the cell.
Option 4 - Waste removal: Waste removal and cellular digestion are functions of lysosomes.
Diversity and Classification of Living Organisms · Animal kingdom - chordates and vertebrate classes

Q10. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched?

  1. (a) Mammals - 4-chambered heart
  2. (b) Amphibians - 4-chambered heart
  3. (c) Reptiles - 1-chambered heart
  4. (d) Birds - 2-chambered heart
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Mammals - 4-chambered heart

The correct answer is Mammals - 4-chambered heart (Option 1).
Mammals (including humans) have a 4-chambered heart consisting of two atria and two ventricles. This completely separates oxygenated and deoxygenated blood, enabling efficient circulation to support high metabolic rates.
Option 2 - Amphibians - 4-chambered heart: Amphibians (frogs, toads, salamanders) have a 3-chambered heart (two atria and one ventricle), not 4-chambered.
Option 3 - Reptiles - 1-chambered heart: Most reptiles have a 3-chambered heart (two atria and one partially divided ventricle). Crocodilians are an exception with 4 chambers. No vertebrate has a 1-chambered heart.
Option 4 - Birds - 2-chambered heart: Birds, like mammals, have a 4-chambered heart. Fish have a 2-chambered heart (one atrium and one ventricle).

Polity (5)

Constitutional Development and Making · Objectives Resolution, adoption and enactment dates

Q11. The Constitution of India was adopted on:

  1. (a) 15th August 1947
  2. (b) 26th November 1949
  3. (c) 9th December 1946
  4. (d) 26th January 1950
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 26th November 1949

The correct answer is 26th November 1949 (Option 2).
The Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26th November 1949. This day is celebrated as Constitution Day ( Samvidhan Diwas). The Constitution came into effect on 26th January 1950, which is celebrated as Republic Day.
Option 1 - 15th August 1947: This is India's Independence Day, when India became free from British rule.
Option 3 - 9th December 1946: This was the date of the first meeting of the Constituent Assembly, not the adoption of the Constitution.
Option 4 - 26th January 1950: This is Republic Day, when the Constitution came into force, not when it was adopted.
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q12. The Union List, State List, and Concurrent List are mentioned in which schedule?

  1. (a) 6th Schedule
  2. (b) 7th Schedule
  3. (c) 8th Schedule
  4. (d) 9th Schedule
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 7th Schedule

The correct answer is 7th Schedule (Option 2).
The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution contains three lists that divide legislative powers between the Union and the States: Union List (97 subjects), State List (66 subjects), and Concurrent List (47 subjects).
Option 1 - 6th Schedule: The Sixth Schedule deals with provisions for the administration of tribal areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram.
Option 3 - 8th Schedule: The Eighth Schedule lists the 22 officially recognised languages of India.
Option 4 - 9th Schedule: The Ninth Schedule contains a list of central and state laws that are protected from judicial review.
Polity Miscellaneous · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q13. Which law has replaced the Indian Evidence Act (1872) in India?

  1. (a) BNS
  2. (b) BSA
  3. (c) BNSS
  4. (d) UCC
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) BSA

The correct answer is BSA (Option 2).
The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023 replaced the Indian Evidence Act (1872). It came into effect on July 1, 2024, along with BNS and BNSS. BSA modernises the law of evidence, including provisions for electronic records and digital evidence.
Option 1 - BNS: The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860, not the Evidence Act.
Option 3 - BNSS: The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973.
Option 4 - UCC: UCC (Uniform Civil Code) is a proposed legislation to provide a common set of civil laws; it has not replaced the Evidence Act.
Fundamental Rights · Right to Equality (Articles 14-18)

Q14. What subject matter is addressed under Article 17 of the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) Abolition of untouchability
  2. (b) Abolition of feudal titles
  3. (c) Right to equality
  4. (d) Right to freedom
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Abolition of untouchability

The correct answer is Abolition of untouchability (Option 1).
Article 17 of the Indian Constitution abolishes 'untouchability' in all its forms and forbids its practice. The enforcement of any disability arising out of untouchability is an offence punishable by law. The Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 was enacted to implement this provision.
Option 2 - Abolition of feudal titles: The abolition of titles (like Nawab, Maharaja for official/hereditary use) is addressed by Article 18, which abolishes titles except military and academic distinctions.
Option 3 - Right to equality: The Right to Equality is the broader right covered under Articles 14 to 18. Article 14 guarantees equality before law, Article 15 prohibits discrimination, and Article 16 provides equality of opportunity.
Option 4 - Right to freedom: The Right to Freedom is guaranteed under Articles 19 to 22, covering freedoms of speech, assembly, movement, profession, and rights against arbitrary arrest.
Union Executive · President - powers (executive, legislative, veto, pardon, ordinance)

Q15. Under which provision of the Indian Constitution can the President dissolve the Lok Sabha?

  1. (a) Article 85
  2. (b) Article 82
  3. (c) Article 123
  4. (d) Article 60
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 85

The correct answer is Article 85 (Option 1).
Article 85 of the Indian Constitution empowers the President to summon each House of Parliament, prorogue the Houses, and dissolve the Lok Sabha. The President exercises this power on the advice of the Council of Ministers (Cabinet) headed by the Prime Minister.
Option 2 - Article 82: Article 82 deals with the readjustment of seats in the Lok Sabha after each census (delimitation of constituencies), not with dissolution.
Option 3 - Article 123: Article 123 relates to the President's power to promulgate ordinances when Parliament (or either House) is not in session.
Option 4 - Article 60: Article 60 prescribes the oath or affirmation that the President takes before assuming office, not the power to dissolve the Lok Sabha.

Economics (10)

Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q16. How is globalization best described in the Indian context after 1991?

  1. (a) A policy of promoting complete economic self-reliance
  2. (b) An inward-looking trade strategy
  3. (c) Integration of domestic markets with the global economy through trade, investment, and technology
  4. (d) Limiting foreign capital flows to protect domestic industries
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Integration of domestic markets with the global economy through trade, investment, and technology

The correct answer is Integration of domestic markets with the global economy through trade, investment, and technology (Option 3).
After the 1991 economic reforms (LPG - Liberalisation , Privatisation , Globalisation ), India integrated its economy with the global economy by opening markets, inviting foreign investment, and adopting new technologies. This replaced the earlier inward-looking protectionist approach.
Option 1 - Complete economic self-reliance: This describes the pre-1991 approach of import substitution and self-sufficiency, which was reversed by the 1991 reforms.
Option 2 - Inward-looking trade strategy: This describes protectionism, the opposite of the globalization policy adopted post-1991.
Option 4 - Limiting foreign capital flows: Post-1991 India actively encouraged FDI and foreign capital, not limited it.
Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Sectors of the economy (primary, secondary, tertiary)

Q17. Which of these is an example of the 'Primary Sector' of the economy?

  1. (a) A car factory
  2. (b) A bank
  3. (c) Farming
  4. (d) A software company
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Farming

The correct answer is Farming (Option 3).
The Primary Sector involves the direct extraction and production of natural resources. Agriculture (farming), fishing, mining, and forestry are all examples of the Primary Sector, as they involve working directly with the earth's natural resources.
Option 1 - A car factory: A car factory belongs to the Secondary Sector (manufacturing), which transforms raw materials into finished goods.
Option 2 - A bank: A bank belongs to the Tertiary Sector (services), which provides services rather than goods.
Option 4 - A software company: A software company belongs to the Tertiary or Quaternary Sector, dealing with information and knowledge-based services.
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · FDI, FPI and FEMA

Q18. What is one impact of foreign investment on local economies?

  1. (a) Fewer jobs
  2. (b) Reduces access to resources
  3. (c) Helps expand production and job creation
  4. (d) Causes economic decline
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Helps expand production and job creation

The correct answer is Helps expand production and job creation (Option 3).
Foreign investment (FDI) typically brings capital, technology, and managerial expertise to local economies. This helps set up or expand industries, increases production capacity, and creates employment opportunities for the local workforce.
Option 1 - Fewer jobs: Foreign investment generally creates more jobs by establishing new businesses and industries, not fewer.
Option 2 - Reduces access to resources: Foreign investment can increase access to resources by bringing in capital and infrastructure development.
Option 4 - Causes economic decline: Foreign investment generally stimulates economic growth, not decline, by boosting output, exports, and employment.
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q19. What has been a significant result of globalisation in terms of consumer markets?

  1. (a) Reduced market competition
  2. (b) Increased consumer choice
  3. (c) Diminished product quality
  4. (d) Lower product availability
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Increased consumer choice

The correct answer is Increased consumer choice (Option 2).
A key result of globalisation is that consumers have access to a much wider variety of goods and services from across the world. Markets now offer products from multiple countries, brands, and price ranges, greatly expanding consumer choice.
Option 1 - Reduced market competition: Globalisation actually increases market competition as domestic companies compete with foreign firms, benefiting consumers.
Option 3 - Diminished product quality: Competition from globalisation typically improves product quality, as companies must maintain standards to survive in global markets.
Option 4 - Lower product availability: Globalisation increases product availability by opening up trade and supply chains worldwide.
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q20. In 1991, India faced an economic crisis primarily due to which of the following issues?

  1. (a) High inflation and a sharp fall in the value of the rupee
  2. (b) Inability to repay external debt and critical depletion of foreign exchange reserves
  3. (c) Political instability causing investor flight
  4. (d) Rising unemployment and stagnation in industrial production
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Inability to repay external debt and critical depletion of foreign exchange reserves

The correct answer is Inability to repay external debt and critical depletion of foreign exchange reserves (Option 2).
In 1991, India faced a severe balance of payments crisis. Foreign exchange reserves fell to just about two weeks' worth of imports, and India could barely service its external debt. To avert default, India pledged gold reserves to the IMF and implemented sweeping economic reforms (LPG reforms).
Option 1 - High inflation and fall in rupee value: While inflation existed, the immediate trigger of the 1991 crisis was the balance of payments problem and near-depletion of forex reserves.
Option 3 - Political instability: There was political instability in 1991, but it was not the primary economic cause of the crisis.
Option 4 - Rising unemployment and industrial stagnation: These were consequences of the economic problems rather than the primary cause of the 1991 crisis.
Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Population and demographic dividend

Q21. Which term best describes the demographic and economic phenomenon resulting from the outflow of a source region's highly skilled labor?

  1. (a) Skewed sex ratio
  2. (b) Anti-social activities
  3. (c) Brain drain concept
  4. (d) Fertility Rate
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Brain drain concept

The correct answer is Brain drain concept (Option 3).
The Brain Drain concept refers to the emigration of highly educated, skilled, or talented individuals (doctors, engineers, scientists) from a region or country to another region or country that offers better opportunities. This results in a loss of intellectual and human capital for the source region.
Option 1 - Skewed sex ratio: Skewed sex ratio refers to a disproportionate number of males versus females in a population, which is a demographic imbalance, not related to skilled labour outflow.
Option 2 - Anti-social activities: Anti-social activities refers to behaviours harmful to society and has no connection to skilled migration.
Option 4 - Fertility Rate: Fertility rate measures the average number of children born per woman and is a demographic indicator unrelated to skilled worker migration.
Industry and Infrastructure · MSME sector

Q22. Fill in the blank: In 1950, a small-scale industrial unit in India was defined as one with a maximum investment of ________.

  1. (a) Rs 1 crore
  2. (b) Rs 5 lakh
  3. (c) Rs 50 lakh
  4. (d) Rs 10 lakh
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Rs 5 lakh

The correct answer is Rs 5 lakh (Option 2).
In 1950, when India first formally defined small-scale industries (SSIs), a small-scale industrial unit was defined as one with a maximum investment of Rs 5 lakh in plant and machinery. This threshold was subsequently revised several times as the economy grew and costs increased.
Option 1 - Rs 1 crore: Rs 1 crore was introduced as the upper limit for SSIs in a much later period after several revisions to the original 1950 definition.
Option 3 - Rs 50 lakh: Rs 50 lakh is also a later revised limit and was not the original 1950 definition.
Option 4 - Rs 10 lakh: Rs 10 lakh is not the original 1950 threshold for SSIs in India.
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · Foreign trade policy and EXIM

Q23. What is the primary goal of the import substitution strategy adopted by India in the first seven 'five-year plans'?

  1. (a) To encourage more imports and less domestic production
  2. (b) To replace imports with domestic production
  3. (c) To increase the import of luxury goods
  4. (d) To remove tariffs and quotas on imported goods
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To replace imports with domestic production

The correct answer is To replace imports with domestic production (Option 2).
Import substitution industrialisation (ISI) was India's primary industrial strategy during the first seven Five-Year Plans. The goal was to reduce dependence on foreign goods by producing them domestically, thus saving foreign exchange and building self-reliance. High tariffs and import controls protected domestic industries.
Option 1 - To encourage more imports and less domestic production: This is the opposite of import substitution, which specifically aims to reduce imports.
Option 3 - To increase the import of luxury goods: Import substitution sought to reduce imports, not increase them, especially not luxury goods.
Option 4 - To remove tariffs and quotas: Removing tariffs and quotas is a feature of trade liberalisation , not import substitution, which actually relied on protective tariffs.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Plan holidays and rolling plan

Q24. What was the main agricultural strategy during the Three Annual Plans (1966-69)?

  1. (a) Promotion of urban industries
  2. (b) Distribution of high-yielding seeds and fertilizers
  3. (c) Expansion of heavy industries
  4. (d) Increase in agricultural imports
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Distribution of high-yielding seeds and fertilizers

The correct answer is Distribution of high-yielding seeds and fertilizers (Option 2).
The Three Annual Plans (1966-69) were formulated during a period of drought and food crisis. The main agricultural strategy was distributing High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds and chemical fertilizers to farmers, which formed the foundation of India's Green Revolution. This significantly increased food grain production.
Option 1 - Promotion of urban industries: While industrial development was ongoing, the Three Annual Plans focused specifically on addressing the agricultural and food crisis, not on promoting urban industries.
Option 3 - Expansion of heavy industries: Heavy industry expansion was more associated with the Second Five-Year Plan (1956-61); the Three Annual Plans prioritised agriculture.
Option 4 - Increase in agricultural imports: The goal was to achieve food self-sufficiency through domestic production, not by increasing agricultural imports.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Government schemes - nodal ministries and mixed facts

Q25. The 'Member of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme' (MPLADS) scheme, which allows MPs to recommend developmental works in their constituencies, is implemented by which Union Ministry?

  1. (a) Ministry of Rural Development
  2. (b) Ministry of Finance
  3. (c) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation
  4. (d) Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation

The correct answer is Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation (Option 3).
The MPLADS scheme is implemented by the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation ( MoSPI ). Under this scheme, each MP is entitled to recommend works worth Rs 5 crore per year for development in their constituency. The funds go directly to district authorities.
Option 1 - Ministry of Rural Development: The Ministry of Rural Development handles programmes like MGNREGS, PMGSY, and PMGRAM, not MPLADS.
Option 2 - Ministry of Finance: The Ministry of Finance manages taxation, budgeting, and economic affairs; it does not implement MPLADS.
Option 4 - Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs: This ministry coordinates the functioning of Parliament but does not implement the MPLADS scheme.

Geography (7)

India - Drainage System · Dams and river valley projects

Q26. India's highest dam, the Tehri Dam, is located in which state?

  1. (a) Himachal Pradesh
  2. (b) Uttarakhand
  3. (c) Jammu and Kashmir
  4. (d) Sikkim
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Uttarakhand

The correct answer is Uttarakhand (Option 2).
The Tehri Dam is located on the Bhagirathi River in Tehri Garhwal district of Uttarakhand. It is India's highest dam at about 261 metres and one of the tallest dams in the world. It was formerly part of Uttar Pradesh before Uttarakhand was created in 2000.
Option 1 - Himachal Pradesh: Himachal Pradesh has the Bhakra Nangal dam on the Sutlej River, not the Tehri Dam.
Option 3 - Jammu and Kashmir: J&K has several dams but not the Tehri Dam.
Option 4 - Sikkim: Sikkim has the Teesta hydroelectric projects but not the Tehri Dam.
India - Minerals, Energy and Industries · Power plants (thermal, hydro, nuclear, solar, wind)

Q27. The Tarapur Atomic Power Station, India's first nuclear power plant, is located in which state?

  1. (a) Tamil Nadu
  2. (b) Rajasthan
  3. (c) Maharashtra
  4. (d) Gujarat
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Maharashtra

The correct answer is Maharashtra (Option 3).
The Tarapur Atomic Power Station (TAPS), India's first nuclear power plant, is located in Tarapur , Palghar district, Maharashtra. It was commissioned in 1969 and was built with US assistance under an Indo-American cooperation agreement.
Option 1 - Tamil Nadu: Tamil Nadu hosts the Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant (built with Russian assistance), not the first nuclear plant.
Option 2 - Rajasthan: The Rajasthan Atomic Power Station (RAPS) is located in Rawatbhata , Rajasthan, but it is not India's first nuclear plant.
Option 4 - Gujarat: Gujarat has the Kakrapar Atomic Power Station, not the first nuclear plant.
India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Soil types and distribution

Q28. Which soil type covers the largest area in India and is found in the Northern Plains?

  1. (a) Alluvial Soil
  2. (b) Black Soil
  3. (c) Red Soil
  4. (d) Laterite Soil
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Alluvial Soil

The correct answer is Alluvial Soil (Option 1).
Alluvial soil covers the largest area in India, spanning the entire Indo-Gangetic Plain (Northern Plains). It is deposited by rivers like the Ganga, Brahmaputra, and their tributaries. It is highly fertile and ideal for growing wheat, rice, and sugarcane.
Option 2 - Black Soil: Black soil (regur) is found mainly in the Deccan Plateau, particularly in Maharashtra, Gujarat, and Madhya Pradesh. It is rich in iron and ideal for cotton cultivation.
Option 3 - Red Soil: Red soil is found in the eastern and southern parts of India (Jharkhand, Odisha, parts of Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka). It is less fertile than alluvial soil.
Option 4 - Laterite Soil: Laterite soil is found in high rainfall areas like Kerala, Meghalaya, and parts of Karnataka and Odisha. It is acidic and less fertile.
India - Population and Census · Census 2011 - population and growth

Q29. Statement 1: Population composition means the age, gender, and educational level of the people of a country.
Statement 2: The Population Pyramid helps in analysing the age and gender distribution of a country.

  1. (a) Statement 1 is correct and Statement 2 is incorrect
  2. (b) Statement 1 is incorrect and Statement 2 is correct
  3. (c) Both statements are correct
  4. (d) Both statements are incorrect
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both statements are correct

The correct answer is Both statements are correct (Option 3).
Statement 1 is correct: Population composition refers to the structural characteristics of a population including age, sex (gender), literacy, educational level, occupation, and economic status.
Statement 2 is correct: The Population Pyramid (age-sex pyramid) is a graphical representation that shows the distribution of various age groups and sexes in a population. It is a key tool for demographic analysis.
Option 1 - S1 correct S2 incorrect: Statement 2 is also correct, so this option is wrong.
Option 4 - Both incorrect: Both statements are factually accurate, so neither is incorrect.
India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Northern Plains

Q30. What is the characteristic feature of the Bhabar region in the Northern Plains?

  1. (a) Dense forests with slow-moving streams and marshes
  2. (b) Narrow belt of alluvial deposits with fast-flowing rivers disappearing underground
  3. (c) Dry region with minimal river flow and rocky terrain
  4. (d) Mountainous area with thick forests and cliffs
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Narrow belt of alluvial deposits with fast-flowing rivers disappearing underground

The correct answer is Narrow belt of alluvial deposits with fast-flowing rivers disappearing underground (Option 2).
The Bhabar is a narrow belt (8-16 km wide) lying along the foothills of the Himalayas. Rivers descend from the mountains with steep gradients and deposit pebbles and boulders here. The rivers often disappear underground (become lost streams) in the Bhabar, only to reappear further south in the Terai region.
Option 1 - Dense forests with slow-moving streams and marshes: This describes the Terai region, which lies south of the Bhabar and is characterised by marshy, swampy terrain and thick forests.
Option 3 - Dry region with minimal river flow: The Bhabar receives rivers from the Himalayas; the rivers disappear underground rather than being absent.
Option 4 - Mountainous area with thick forests: This describes the Himalayan foothills or Shivaliks , not the Bhabar plain.
Atmosphere and Climate · Composition and layers of the atmosphere

Q31. Which of the following represents the correct order of the first three layers of Earth's atmosphere, starting from the surface?

  1. (a) Stratosphere, Troposphere, Mesosphere
  2. (b) Troposphere, Mesosphere, Stratosphere
  3. (c) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere
  4. (d) Mesosphere, Stratosphere, Troposphere
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere

The correct answer is Troposphere, Stratosphere, Mesosphere (Option 3).
Starting from Earth's surface, the correct order is: Troposphere (0-12 km) - where weather occurs; Stratosphere (12-50 km) - containing the ozone layer; Mesosphere (50-80 km) - where meteors burn up; Thermosphere (80-700 km); Exosphere (beyond 700 km).
Option 1 - Stratosphere, Troposphere, Mesosphere: This is incorrect as the Troposphere is the lowest layer, not the Stratosphere.
Option 2 - Troposphere, Mesosphere, Stratosphere: This incorrectly places the Mesosphere before the Stratosphere; the Stratosphere lies between the Troposphere and Mesosphere.
Option 4 - Mesosphere, Stratosphere, Troposphere: This is in reverse order; the Troposphere is closest to the surface, not the Mesosphere.
Atmosphere and Climate · Composition and layers of the atmosphere

Q32. Why is the Troposphere the densest atmospheric layer?

  1. (a) It is closer to the Sun
  2. (b) Due to the compression from upper layers
  3. (c) It contains most of the Earth's oxygen
  4. (d) Due to the high amount of solar radiation
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Due to the compression from upper layers

The correct answer is Due to the compression from upper layers (Option 2).
The Troposphere is the densest atmospheric layer because the weight of all atmospheric layers above it compress it. This results in the troposphere containing approximately 75-80% of the total mass of the atmosphere. Density and pressure decrease with altitude.
Option 1 - It is closer to the Sun: The troposphere is actually the layer farthest from the Sun, not closest. Higher atmospheric layers are closer to the Sun but are less dense.
Option 3 - It contains most of the Earth's oxygen: While the troposphere does contain oxygen, it is the gravitational compression from above that makes it densest, not just oxygen content.
Option 4 - Due to the high amount of solar radiation: Solar radiation is actually absorbed by higher layers like the ozone in the stratosphere; radiation alone does not explain tropospheric density.

Physics (4)

Units, Measurement & Dimensions · Derived units and units named after scientists

Q33. What is the unit of energy in the erg system?

  1. (a) kg·m²/s²
  2. (b) g·cm²/s²
  3. (c) kg·cm²/s²
  4. (d) g·m²/s²
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) g·cm²/s²

The correct answer is g·cm²/s² (Option 2).
The erg is the unit of energy in the CGS (centimeter-gram-second) system. One erg equals 1 g·cm²/s² and is equivalent to 10⁻⁷ joules. It is named from the Greek word for 'work.'
Option 1 - kg·m²/s²: This is the joule, the unit of energy in the SI (MKS) system.
Option 3 - kg·cm²/s²: This mixes SI (kg) and CGS (cm) units and is not a standard unit of energy.
Option 4 - g·m²/s²: This also mixes CGS (g) and SI (m) units and is not a standard unit of energy.
Units, Measurement & Dimensions · Scalars and vectors

Q34. Which of the following statements is incorrect?

  1. (a) Speed is a scalar quantity
  2. (b) Displacement is a vector quantity
  3. (c) Distance can be negative
  4. (d) Force is a vector quantity
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Distance can be negative

The correct answer is Distance can be negative (Option 3) - this statement is incorrect.
Distance is a scalar quantity that measures the total path length traveled by an object. It is always non-negative (zero or positive) because it only has magnitude and no direction. Therefore, the statement 'Distance can be negative' is incorrect.
Option 1 - Speed is a scalar quantity: This is correct. Speed only has magnitude and no direction, making it a scalar.
Option 2 - Displacement is a vector quantity: This is correct. Displacement has both magnitude and direction (shortest path from start to end point).
Option 4 - Force is a vector quantity: This is correct. Force has both magnitude and direction, making it a vector quantity.
Heat and Thermodynamics · Conduction, convection and radiation

Q35. What process does heat from the sun use to reach the Earth?

  1. (a) Conduction
  2. (b) Convection
  3. (c) Radiation
  4. (d) Evaporation
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Radiation

The correct answer is Radiation (Option 3).
Heat from the sun reaches the Earth through radiation, specifically electromagnetic radiation (infrared, visible light, and ultraviolet). Radiation can travel through the vacuum of space without requiring any medium, unlike conduction or convection.
Option 1 - Conduction: Conduction requires direct physical contact between molecules to transfer heat. Since space is a near-vacuum, conduction cannot transmit solar energy to Earth.
Option 2 - Convection: Convection requires a fluid medium (liquid or gas) for heat transfer through circulation. The vacuum of space prevents convection.
Option 4 - Evaporation: Evaporation is a phase change process (liquid to gas) that absorbs heat; it is not a mode of heat transfer from the sun to Earth.
Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Current · Earth's magnetism

Q36. What is the approximate ratio of Earth's magnetic field strength at the equator compared to the poles?

  1. (a) 1:1
  2. (b) 1:2
  3. (c) 1:3
  4. (d) 1:4
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1:2

The correct answer is 1:2 (Option 2).
The Earth's magnetic field is stronger at the poles than at the equator. The approximate ratio of the magnetic field strength at the equator to the poles is 1:2, meaning the field at the poles is about twice as strong as at the equator. This is because the magnetic field lines are more concentrated and nearly vertical at the poles.
Option 1 - 1:1: A ratio of 1:1 would mean equal magnetic field strength at both the equator and the poles, which is not the case.
Option 3 - 1:3: A ratio of 1:3 would imply the poles have three times stronger field than the equator, which overestimates the difference.
Option 4 - 1:4: A ratio of 1:4 would imply four times stronger field at poles than at equator, which is a significant overestimate.

Current Affairs (8)

Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q37. Which individual, appointed as Governor of Bihar on 2 January 2025, had earlier served as Governor of Kerala and as a Union minister of Civil aviation?

  1. (a) Lakshman Prasad Acharya
  2. (b) Arif Mohammad Khan
  3. (c) Rajendra Vishwanath Arlekar
  4. (d) Pusapati Ashok Gajapathi Raju
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Arif Mohammad Khan

The correct answer is Arif Mohammad Khan (Option 2).
Arif Mohammad Khan was appointed as the Governor of Bihar on 2 January 2025. He had previously served as Governor of Kerala from 2019 to 2024. Earlier in his political career, he served as a Union Minister of Civil Aviation under Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi.
Option 1 - Lakshman Prasad Acharya: He was appointed as Governor of Assam; he did not serve as Governor of Kerala or as Union Minister of Civil Aviation.
Option 3 - Rajendra Vishwanath Arlekar: He served as Governor of Bihar before Arif Mohammad Khan and was subsequently appointed Governor of Kerala.
Option 4 - Pusapati Ashok Gajapathi Raju: He is a politician from Andhra Pradesh who served as Union Minister of Civil Aviation (2014-16) but was not appointed Governor of Bihar on this date.
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Reports and their publishers

Q38. Which organisation released the 'Fiscal Health Index (FHI) 2025' in January 2025?

  1. (a) Ministry of Finance
  2. (b) NITI Aayog
  3. (c) Reserve Bank of India
  4. (d) CAG
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) NITI Aayog

The correct answer is NITI Aayog (Option 2).
NITI Aayog released the Fiscal Health Index (FHI) 2025 in January 2025. The FHI ranks Indian states on their fiscal health based on five key dimensions: revenue mobilisation , expenditure quality, fiscal prudence, debt management, and debt sustainability.
Option 1 - Ministry of Finance: The Ministry of Finance releases the Union Budget, Economic Survey, and oversees economic policy but did not release the FHI.
Option 3 - Reserve Bank of India: The RBI publishes reports on monetary policy, financial stability, and state finances, but the FHI is a NITI Aayog publication.
Option 4 - CAG: The Comptroller and Auditor General of India audits government accounts and reports on fiscal matters but did not release the FHI 2025.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q39. The 10th-anniversary celebrations of the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) scheme are scheduled from:

  1. (a) January 1 to February 15, 2025
  2. (b) January 10 to March 1, 2025
  3. (c) January 22 to March 8, 2025
  4. (d) January 26 to April 1, 2025
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) January 22 to March 8, 2025

The correct answer is January 22 to March 8, 2025 (Option 3).
The 10th-anniversary celebrations of the Beti Bachao Beti Padhao (BBBP) scheme were scheduled from January 22 to March 8, 2025. The celebration culminated on March 8, International Women's Day, recognizing the scheme's decade-long efforts to address the declining child sex ratio and promote girl-child education.
Option 1 - January 1 to February 15: This period does not align with the official announced dates for the BBBP anniversary celebrations.
Option 2 - January 10 to March 1: This is not the announced period; the celebrations ended on March 8 (International Women's Day).
Option 4 - January 26 to April 1: While starting on Republic Day is plausible, the end date is April 1, which does not align with the International Women's Day culmination.
Awards and Honours - Current · International awards - current

Q40. In which year did David Szalay win the Booker Prize for his novel Flesh?

  1. (a) 2022
  2. (b) 2023
  3. (c) 2024
  4. (d) 2025
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 2025

The correct answer is 2025 (Option 4).
David Szalay won the Booker Prize in 2025 for his novel 'Flesh'. The Booker Prize is one of the most prestigious literary awards, given annually to the best novel written in English and published in the UK or Ireland.
Option 1 - 2022: The 2022 Booker Prize was won by Shehan Karunatilaka (Sri Lanka) for 'The Seven Moons of Maali Almeida'.
Option 2 - 2023: The 2023 Booker Prize was won by Paul Lynch (Ireland) for 'Prophet Song'.
Option 3 - 2024: The 2024 Booker Prize was won by Percival Everett (USA) for 'James', a retelling of Mark Twain's Huckleberry Finn.
Environment and Climate - Current · New protected areas and Ramsar sites

Q41. Which state government has declared the Dhanushkodi area as the 'Greater Flamingo Sanctuary'?

  1. (a) Kerala
  2. (b) Andhra Pradesh
  3. (c) Tamil Nadu
  4. (d) Odisha
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Tamil Nadu

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu (Option 3).
The Tamil Nadu government declared the Dhanushkodi area (near Rameswaram, at the southeastern tip of Tamil Nadu) as the 'Greater Flamingo Sanctuary.' The region attracts thousands of flamingos, especially during winter months, and the sanctuary aims to protect their habitat.
Option 1 - Kerala: Kerala does not include the Dhanushkodi area, which is located at the southern tip of Tamil Nadu's Pamban Island.
Option 2 - Andhra Pradesh: Andhra Pradesh is a separate state and does not encompass Dhanushkodi , which is geographically part of Tamil Nadu.
Option 4 - Odisha: Odisha has the Chilika Lake which hosts flamingos and other migratory birds, but the Greater Flamingo Sanctuary at Dhanushkodi was declared by Tamil Nadu.
State News · State firsts

Q42. Which village in Himachal Pradesh was declared as the state's first solar model village in June 2025, signifying a major push for renewable energy at the grassroots level?

  1. (a) Mukhya Khas Village
  2. (b) Raja Khas Village
  3. (c) Purana Khas Village
  4. (d) Suraj Khas Village
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Raja Khas Village

The correct answer is Raja Khas Village (Option 2).
Raja Khas Village in Himachal Pradesh was declared the state's first solar model village in June 2025. This initiative represents a significant step in promoting renewable energy adoption at the village level, helping communities transition to clean and sustainable energy sources.
Option 1 - Mukhya Khas Village: Mukhya Khas Village was not announced as the first solar model village in Himachal Pradesh.
Option 3 - Purana Khas Village: Purana Khas Village was not identified in official announcements as the solar model village.
Option 4 - Suraj Khas Village: Despite the name 'Suraj' (meaning Sun) seeming relevant, Suraj Khas Village was not the declared solar model village.
Sports - Current · Venues and hosts

Q43. Which Indian state hosted the 38th National Games of India in 2025?

  1. (a) Gujarat
  2. (b) Karnataka
  3. (c) Uttarakhand
  4. (d) Maharashtra
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Uttarakhand

The correct answer is Uttarakhand (Option 3).
Uttarakhand hosted the 38th National Games of India in 2025. The games were held across multiple venues in cities including Dehradun, Haridwar, Garhwal, and other locations in the state. It was a landmark multi-sport event showcasing the state's sports infrastructure.
Option 1 - Gujarat: Gujarat hosted the 36th National Games in 2022 across Ahmedabad, Gandhinagar, Surat, and other cities.
Option 2 - Karnataka: Karnataka did not host the 38th National Games; it has hosted earlier editions.
Option 4 - Maharashtra: Maharashtra has hosted National Games in the past but did not host the 38th edition in 2025.
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q44. Which team won India's first gold medal at the 2025 Asian Youth Games?

  1. (a) Boys' boxing team
  2. (b) Girls' kabaddi team
  3. (c) Mixed athletics relay team
  4. (d) Girls' beach wrestling team
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Girls' kabaddi team

The correct answer is Girls' kabaddi team (Option 2).
India's Girls' kabaddi team won India's first gold medal at the 2025 Asian Youth Games. Kabaddi is one of India's traditional sports, and the girls' team's gold medal was a proud achievement at the international youth-level competition.
Option 1 - Boys' boxing team: The boys' boxing team did not win India's first gold medal at the 2025 Asian Youth Games.
Option 3 - Mixed athletics relay team: The mixed athletics relay team was not reported as winning India's first gold at the event.
Option 4 - Girls' beach wrestling team: The girls' beach wrestling team was not identified as India's first gold medal winner at the 2025 Asian Youth Games.

Ancient History (2)

Gupta Empire · Gupta rulers

Q45. What was Chandragupta II's greatest military achievement?

  1. (a) Victory over the Shaka kings in western India
  2. (b) Victory over the Huns in the north
  3. (c) Expansion into South India
  4. (d) Conquest of Sri Lanka
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Victory over the Shaka kings in western India

The correct answer is Victory over the Shaka kings in western India (Option 1).
Chandragupta II's greatest military achievement was his conquest of the Shaka (Western Kshatrapas ) rulers in western India (Gujarat and Malwa). This victory extended the Gupta Empire to the western sea coast, boosted maritime trade, and earned Chandragupta II the title 'Vikramaditya.'
Option 2 - Victory over the Huns: The victory over the Huns (Hunas) is associated with Skandagupta , a later Gupta ruler, not Chandragupta II.
Option 3 - Expansion into South India: Gupta influence in South India was achieved through diplomatic alliances and marriages rather than as Chandragupta II's primary military achievement.
Option 4 - Conquest of Sri Lanka: Sri Lanka was never conquered by Chandragupta II; there is no historical record of such a campaign.
Indus Valley Civilisation · Town planning and structures

Q46. What is the Great Bath at Mohenjodaro known for?

  1. (a) A place for agricultural activities
  2. (b) A large rectangular tank
  3. (c) A residential building for high-ranking officials
  4. (d) A storage facility for grains
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) A large rectangular tank

The correct answer is A large rectangular tank (Option 2).
The Great Bath at Mohenjodaro is one of the most famous archaeological finds of the Indus Valley Civilisation . It is a large rectangular tank measuring approximately 12 metres long, 7 metres wide, and 2.4 metres deep. It is believed to have been used for ritual bathing and purification ceremonies.
Option 1 - A place for agricultural activities: Agricultural activities were conducted in fields outside the city; the Great Bath served a ritual, not agricultural, purpose.
Option 3 - A residential building for high-ranking officials: Residential structures at Mohenjodaro were separate from the Great Bath; officials likely lived in the Citadel area buildings.
Option 4 - A storage facility for grains: The Great Granary at Mohenjodaro served for grain storage; it is a distinct structure from the Great Bath.

Medieval History (1)

Early Medieval North India · Tripartite struggle (Palas, Pratiharas, Rashtrakutas)

Q47. What title did Bhoja adopt as a devotee of Vishnu?

  1. (a) Rajaraja
  2. (b) Adivaraha
  3. (c) Vikramaditya
  4. (d) Paramabhattaraka
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Adivaraha

The correct answer is Adivaraha (Option 2).
King Bhoja (Mihira Bhoja), the prominent ruler of the Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty (9th century CE), was a devoted follower of Vishnu. He adopted the title ' Adivaraha ' (meaning 'the first boar'), referring to Vishnu's Varaha (boar) avatar who rescued the earth.
Option 1 - Rajaraja: Rajaraja was a title used by the great Chola king Rajaraja I (985-1014 CE) of Tamil Nadu.
Option 3 - Vikramaditya: Vikramaditya was the legendary title of the king of Ujjain and was also used by Gupta ruler Chandragupta II; it was not Bhoja's Vaishnava title.
Option 4 - Paramabhattaraka : Paramabhattaraka was a general honorific title used by various Gupta and post-Gupta rulers, not specifically the Vaishnava title of Bhoja.
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