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Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 5 January 2026 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 49 GK / GS questions asked in Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 on 5 January 2026 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Geography, Polity, Static GK, Computer, Economics, Modern History.

📚 49 questions🗓️ 5 January 2026⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Geography (4) · Polity (8) · Static GK (18) · Computer (1) · Economics (8) · Modern History (4) · Medieval History (4) · Biology (1) · Ancient History (1)

Geography (4)

India - States and Union Territories · State capitals and formation dates

Q1. Which northeastern Indian states observed their Statehood Day on January 21, 2025?

  1. (a) Manipur, Meghalaya, Tripura
  2. (b) Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Tripura
  3. (c) Assam, Mizoram, Nagaland
  4. (d) Nagaland, Manipur, Mizoram
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Manipur, Meghalaya, Tripura

The correct answer is (a) Manipur, Meghalaya, Tripura.
Manipur, Meghalaya, and Tripura all became full-fledged states on January 21, 1972. Therefore, January 21, 2025 marked their 53rd Statehood Day.
(b) Arunachal Pradesh: Became a state on February 20, 1987; Sikkim on May 16, 1975. They do not share January 21 as Statehood Day.
(c) Assam: Statehood since 1950; Mizoram: February 20, 1987; Nagaland: December 1, 1963. None of these share January 21.
(d) Nagaland: December 1, 1963; this combination is incorrect.
World Geography · Countries and international boundaries

Q2. Which is the southernmost SAARC country geographically, located closest to the equator in the Indian Ocean region?

  1. (a) India
  2. (b) Sri Lanka
  3. (c) Maldives
  4. (d) Afghanistan
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Maldives

The correct answer is (c) Maldives.
The Maldives is the southernmost SAARC member country, located in the Indian Ocean at approximately 1-7°N latitude — very close to the equator. Being an archipelago in the central Indian Ocean, it is the closest to the equator among all SAARC nations.
(a) India: Its southernmost point (Indira Point) is at ~6.7°N in the Andaman & Nicobar Islands, but the main territory is farther north.
(b) Sri Lanka: Located at approximately 6-9°N; closer to the equator than mainland India but farther than the Maldives.
(d) Afghanistan: A landlocked country in Central/South Asia; far from the equator and the Indian Ocean.
Lithosphere - Earth's Interior and Landforms · Earthquakes and seismic waves

Q3. The Richter scale is used to measure which geophysical event, quantifying the energy released during such occurrences?

  1. (a) Magnitude of earthquakes
  2. (b) Intensity of volcanic eruptions
  3. (c) Atmospheric pressure variations
  4. (d) Tsunami heights
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Magnitude of earthquakes

The correct answer is (a) Magnitude of earthquakes.
The Richter Scale (developed by Charles F. Richter in 1935) measures the magnitude (size) of earthquakes — the amount of energy released at the earthquake's source (epicenter). It is a logarithmic scale; each whole number increase represents a 10-fold increase in wave amplitude.
(b) Intensity of volcanic eruptions: Measured using the Volcanic Explosivity Index (VEI); not the Richter scale.
(c) Atmospheric pressure variations: Measured using a barometer; not the Richter scale.
(d) Tsunami heights: Measured in terms of wave height and run-up; not the Richter scale.
Lithosphere - Earth's Interior and Landforms · Volcanoes and volcanic landforms

Q4. A caldera is best described as what type of geological feature, formed when a volcanic magma chamber empties and collapses?

  1. (a) Large volcanic crater formed after collapse of a magma chamber
  2. (b) Small cone-shaped volcano
  3. (c) Submarine trench
  4. (d) Lava plateau
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Large volcanic crater formed after collapse of a magma chamber

The correct answer is (a) Large volcanic crater formed after collapse of a magma chamber.
A caldera is a large, basin-shaped volcanic depression formed when a magma chamber empties after a major eruption and the overlying ground collapses inward. Famous calderas include Yellowstone Caldera (USA) and Crater Lake in Oregon.
(b) Small cone-shaped volcano: This describes a cinder cone; much smaller than a caldera.
(c) Submarine trench: An underwater depression in the ocean floor caused by tectonic subduction; not related to calderas.
(d) Lava plateau: A flat elevated area formed by successive lava flows; not a caldera.

Polity (8)

Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies · Lokpal and Lokayukta

Q5. What is the main function of the Lokpal?

  1. (a) To conduct elections
  2. (b) To investigate allegations of corruption against high public officials
  3. (c) To protect human rights
  4. (d) To act as the government's lawyer
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To investigate allegations of corruption against high public officials

The correct answer is (b) To investigate allegations of corruption against high public officials.
The Lokpal is an independent anti-corruption ombudsman established under the Lokpal and Lokayuktas Act, 2013. Its primary function is to investigate allegations of corruption against high public officials including the Prime Minister, Union Ministers, MPs, and senior bureaucrats.
(a) To conduct elections: This is the function of the Election Commission of India.
(c) To protect human rights: This is the function of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC).
(d) To act as the government's lawyer: This is the function of the Attorney General of India.
Parliament · Money bills and financial bills

Q6. The Speaker has a special power to certify a bill, declaring it cannot be blocked by the Rajya Sabha. What is this bill called?

  1. (a) A Money Bill
  2. (b) A Constitutional Amendment Bill
  3. (c) An Ordinary Bill
  4. (d) A Private Member's Bill
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) A Money Bill

The correct answer is (a) A Money Bill.
A Money Bill (Article 110) is certified by the Speaker and deals exclusively with financial matters like taxation and borrowing. Once certified, the Rajya Sabha can only suggest amendments (which Lok Sabha may accept or reject), making it effectively impossible for Rajya Sabha to block it.
(b) A Constitutional Amendment Bill: Requires a special majority in BOTH Houses; Rajya Sabha can block it.
(c) An Ordinary Bill: Can be blocked by Rajya Sabha; a joint sitting may be called to resolve deadlock.
(d) A Private Member's Bill: Introduced by a non-minister MP; not certified by Speaker for special passage.
Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies · NITI Aayog

Q7. NITI Aayog replaced which older organization in 2015?

  1. (a) The Finance Commission
  2. (b) The Planning Commission
  3. (c) The Election Commission
  4. (d) The National Development Council
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The Planning Commission

The correct answer is (b) The Planning Commission.
NITI Aayog (National Institution for Transforming India) was established on January 1, 2015 to replace the Planning Commission (established 1950). Unlike the Planning Commission, NITI Aayog is a policy think-tank without fund allocation powers and promotes cooperative federalism.
(a) The Finance Commission: A constitutional body for devolution of funds; not replaced by NITI Aayog.
(c) The Election Commission: A constitutional body conducting elections; not replaced by NITI Aayog.
(d) The National Development Council: An advisory body; it was effectively dissolved alongside the Planning Commission.
Constitutional Development and Making · Constituent Assembly - formation and members

Q8. How many members initially constituted the Indian Constituent Assembly formed to draft the Constitution before membership reduced after the partition?

  1. (a) 389
  2. (b) 390
  3. (c) 391
  4. (d) 392
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 389

The correct answer is (a) 389.
The Indian Constituent Assembly was formed in 1946 and initially had 389 members — 292 from British India provinces, 4 from Chief Commissioner's Provinces, and 93 from Princely States. After the partition of India in 1947, members from the areas now in Pakistan left, reducing the membership to 299.
(b) 390, (c) 391, (d) 392: These are all incorrect numbers; the initial strength of the Constituent Assembly was specifically 389 members.
Preamble, Features, Parts and Schedules · Parts of the Constitution

Q9. Which Part of the Indian Constitution contains provisions related to elections conducted by the Election Commission of India for Parliament, State Legislatures, and offices of President and Vice-President?

  1. (a) Part XV
  2. (b) Part XVI
  3. (c) Part XVII
  4. (d) Part XVIII
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Part XV

The correct answer is (a) Part XV.
Part XV of the Indian Constitution (Articles 324-329) deals with Elections. It contains provisions regarding the Election Commission of India and elections to Parliament, State Legislatures, and the offices of President and Vice-President.
(b) Part XVI: Deals with Special Provisions relating to certain classes (SC, ST, Anglo-Indians).
(c) Part XVII: Deals with the Official Language of the Union and States.
(d) Part XVIII: Deals with Emergency Provisions (Articles 352-360).
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q10. The 'Telecommunications Act, 2023' was passed to replace which very old, colonial-era law?

  1. (a) Indian Telegraph Act, 1885
  2. (b) Rowlatt Act, 1919
  3. (c) Post Office Act, 1898
  4. (d) Sedition Act, 1870
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Indian Telegraph Act, 1885

The correct answer is (a) Indian Telegraph Act, 1885.
The Telecommunications Act, 2023 was passed to replace the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885 — a 138-year-old colonial-era law — along with the Indian Wireless Telegraphy Act, 1933. The new Act modernizes India's telecom regulatory framework for the digital era.
(b) Rowlatt Act, 1919: A repressive colonial law that was already repealed after Independence; unrelated to telecommunications.
(c) Post Office Act, 1898: Governs postal services; not replaced by the Telecommunications Act.
(d) Sedition Act, 1870: Was part of the Indian Penal Code; unrelated to telecommunications.
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q11. Under which Article can the Union legislate on a State subject for implementing international treaties and agreements, ensuring India fulfils its international obligations?

  1. (a) Article 250
  2. (b) Article 252
  3. (c) Article 253
  4. (d) Article 258
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Article 253

The correct answer is (c) Article 253.
Article 253 of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to make any law for the whole or any part of India for implementing any treaty, agreement, or convention with any other country or any international decision — even if the subject matter falls under the State List.
(a) Article 250: Empowers Parliament to make laws on State List subjects during a National Emergency.
(b) Article 252: Allows Parliament to legislate for two or more states at their request (by resolutions in their legislatures).
(d) Article 258: Deals with the President entrusting certain Union executive functions to States.
State Government · Chief Minister and State Council of Ministers

Q12. Under which Article does the Governor administer oath of office to the Chief Minister and other Ministers, allowing them to legally assume executive responsibilities in the State?

  1. (a) Article 163
  2. (b) Article 165
  3. (c) Article 164
  4. (d) Article 167
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Article 164

The correct answer is (c) Article 164.
Article 164 of the Indian Constitution deals with the appointment and terms of office of the Chief Minister and Council of Ministers. Article 164(3) specifically states: 'Before a Minister enters upon his office, the Governor shall administer to him the oaths of office and of secrecy.'
(a) Article 163: Deals with the Council of Ministers to aid and advise the Governor; does not specifically address the oath-taking ceremony.
(b) Article 165: Deals with the appointment of the Advocate-General of the State.
(d) Article 167: Deals with the duties of the Chief Minister regarding furnishing information to the Governor.

Static GK (18)

Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q13. Which festival in West Bengal is celebrated with the immersion of elaborately decorated clay idols of Goddess Durga?

  1. (a) Kali Puja
  2. (b) Saraswati Puja
  3. (c) Durga Puja
  4. (d) Rath Yatra
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Durga Puja

The correct answer is (c) Durga Puja.
Durga Puja is the most significant festival in West Bengal, celebrated during the autumn months. Intricately crafted clay idols of Goddess Durga are worshipped for five days, culminating in the immersion (Visarjan) of idols in rivers. UNESCO inscribed it as Intangible Cultural Heritage in 2021.
(a) Kali Puja: Celebrates Goddess Kali; takes place around Diwali; does not involve elaborate Durga idol immersion.
(b) Saraswati Puja: Celebrates the Goddess of Learning; not known for elaborate clay idol immersion processions.
(d) Rath Yatra: Associated with Lord Jagannath; celebrated primarily in Puri, Odisha; involves a chariot procession.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q14. "Karaga," a ritualistic procession balancing a decorated pot on the head, is associated with which city?

  1. (a) Mysuru
  2. (b) Bengaluru
  3. (c) Kanchipuram
  4. (d) Madurai
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Bengaluru

The correct answer is (b) Bengaluru.
The Karaga festival is one of the oldest and most significant festivals of Bengaluru (Bangalore), Karnataka. Celebrated by the Thigala community, it involves a priest (Karaga Dhara) balancing a sacred, elaborately decorated water pot on his head and leading a procession through the city at night.
(a) Mysuru: Known for its grand Dasara celebrations; Karaga is not Mysuru's festival.
(c) Kanchipuram: Known for its silk sarees and ancient temples; not associated with the Karaga procession.
(d) Madurai: Known for Meenakshi Amman Temple festivals; not associated with the Karaga procession.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Handicrafts, textiles and GI tags

Q15. 'Koraput Kalajeera Rice', an aromatic rice variety that received a GI tag, is grown in which state?

  1. (a) West Bengal
  2. (b) Chhattisgarh
  3. (c) Odisha
  4. (d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Odisha

The correct answer is (c) Odisha.
Koraput Kalajeera Rice is an aromatic indigenous rice variety grown in the Koraput district of Odisha. It received a GI (Geographical Indication) tag for its unique aroma, fine grain, and distinct nutritional properties, often called the 'Prince of rice.'
(a) West Bengal: Known for Gobindobhog rice but not for Koraput Kalajeera.
(b) Chhattisgarh: Known for Bastar red rice and other varieties; not the state for Koraput Kalajeera.
(d) Andhra Pradesh: Not associated with this particular rice variety.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Handicrafts, textiles and GI tags

Q16. The 'Nayagarh Kanteimundi Brinjal', which was granted a GI tag, is a native vegetable of which state?

  1. (a) Tamil Nadu
  2. (b) Odisha
  3. (c) Kerala
  4. (d) Karnataka
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Odisha

The correct answer is (b) Odisha.
Nayagarh Kanteimundi Brinjal is a unique indigenous brinjal variety native to the Nayagarh district of Odisha. It received a GI tag for its elongated shape, distinct taste, and cultural significance in the region.
(a) Tamil Nadu: Not associated with this particular brinjal variety.
(c) Kerala: Not associated with this particular brinjal variety.
(d) Karnataka: Not associated with this particular brinjal variety.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Handicrafts, textiles and GI tags

Q17. 'Sundarbans Honey', which received a GI tag, is a unique honey collected from the mangrove forests of which state?

  1. (a) Odisha
  2. (b) West Bengal
  3. (c) Andhra Pradesh
  4. (d) Tamil Nadu
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) West Bengal

The correct answer is (b) West Bengal.
Sundarbans Honey (also called Mouli honey) is collected from the mangrove forests of the Sundarbans delta in West Bengal. It received a GI tag for its unique origin. Traditional honey hunters called Moulis collect it from the wild bee colonies in the mangroves.
(a) Odisha: Has its own mangrove regions but the Sundarbans is specifically in West Bengal/Bangladesh.
(c) Andhra Pradesh: Not associated with Sundarbans Honey.
(d) Tamil Nadu: Not associated with Sundarbans Honey.
Awards and Honours · Sports awards (Khel Ratna, Arjuna, Dronacharya, Dhyan Chand)

Q18. Who received the first Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award, India's highest sporting honor, recognizing outstanding performance and contributions to national sports achievements?

  1. (a) Leander Paes
  2. (b) Vishwanathan Anand
  3. (c) P.T. Usha
  4. (d) Karnam Malleswari
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Vishwanathan Anand

The correct answer is (b) Vishwanathan Anand.
Vishwanathan Anand (chess player) received the inaugural Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award in 1991-92. The award is now renamed the Major Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award (since 2021) and remains India's highest civilian sporting honor.
(a) Leander Paes: Received the Khel Ratna in 1996-97; not the first recipient.
(c) P.T. Usha: The legendary sprinter received the Arjuna Award in 1983; she was not the first Khel Ratna recipient.
(d) Karnam Malleswari: Weightlifter; received Khel Ratna in 1994-95; not the first recipient.
Awards and Honours · Padma awards

Q19. Lakhimi Baruah, awarded the Padma Shri in 2021, is recognized for which initiative that empowers women in financial inclusion and entrepreneurship?

  1. (a) Women-led football movement
  2. (b) Establishing a women-run bank
  3. (c) Environmental activism
  4. (d) Women's safety innovations
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Establishing a women-run bank

The correct answer is (b) Establishing a women-run bank.
Lakhimi Baruah from Assam received the Padma Shri in 2021 for her pioneering work in women's financial empowerment, specifically for her role in establishing a women-run cooperative bank in Assam (Paschim Assam Mahila Samabay Bank) that promotes financial inclusion and entrepreneurship among women.
(a) Women-led football movement: Not the initiative associated with Lakhimi Baruah.
(c) Environmental activism: Not her primary recognized contribution.
(d) Women's safety innovations: Not the initiative for which she received the Padma Shri.
Dances · Folk dances by state

Q20. The folk dance "Dollu Kunitha" is popular in India. Which state is associated with this dance, characterised by vigorous drum-based performances?

  1. (a) Karnataka
  2. (b) Kerala
  3. (c) Tamil Nadu
  4. (d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Karnataka

The correct answer is (a) Karnataka.
Dollu Kunitha is a vigorous drum-based folk dance from Karnataka, performed by the Kuruba community. Performers wear large cylindrical drums (Dollu) and dance energetically to its rhythmic beats during festivals, temple fairs, and cultural occasions.
(b) Kerala: Known for Theyyam, Kaikottikali, and other folk dances; not associated with Dollu Kunitha.
(c) Tamil Nadu: Known for Bharatanatyam, Karagam, and other dances; not associated with Dollu Kunitha.
(d) Andhra Pradesh: Known for Kuchipudi and Lambadi dances; not associated with Dollu Kunitha.
Dances · Folk dances by state

Q21. "Garba" is performed primarily to honor which Hindu deity, combining rhythmic circular movements, clapping, and folk songs, celebrated especially during the Navratri festival in India?

  1. (a) Goddess Durga
  2. (b) Lord Krishna
  3. (c) Lord Shiva
  4. (d) Goddess Lakshmi
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Goddess Durga

The correct answer is (a) Goddess Durga.
Garba is a devotional folk dance from Gujarat performed during Navratri (nine nights of the Mother Goddess), primarily to honor Goddess Durga (also known as Amba/Ambika). It features rhythmic circular movements, clapping, and vibrant folk songs celebrating the goddess.
(b) Lord Krishna: Garba is occasionally performed at Janmashtami, but its primary and definitive association is with Goddess Durga during Navratri.
(c) Lord Shiva: Not associated with the Garba dance tradition.
(d) Goddess Lakshmi: Not the primary deity honored during Garba/Navratri.
Books and Authors · International books and authors

Q22. Who wrote The Blind Assassin, which won the Booker Prize in 2000, combining family saga and science-fiction elements?

  1. (a) Margaret Atwood
  2. (b) Alice Munro
  3. (c) Doris Lessing
  4. (d) J.M. Coetzee
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Margaret Atwood

The correct answer is (a) Margaret Atwood.
Margaret Atwood, the renowned Canadian author, wrote The Blind Assassin (2000), which won the Booker Prize that year. The novel is a complex narrative combining family saga with embedded science-fiction elements within a story-within-a-story structure.
(b) Alice Munro: Canadian short story writer; won the Nobel Prize for Literature in 2013; not the author of The Blind Assassin.
(c) Doris Lessing: British author; won the Nobel Prize for Literature in 2007; not the author of The Blind Assassin.
(d) J.M. Coetzee: South African novelist; won the Booker Prize for Disgrace (1999); not the author of The Blind Assassin.
Books and Authors · International books and authors

Q23. Who wrote Snow, a novel analysing political Islam, secularism, and personal conflicts in modern Turkey?

  1. (a) Orhan Pamuk
  2. (b) Salman Rushdie
  3. (c) Amos Oz
  4. (d) Ngugi wa Thiong'o
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Orhan Pamuk

The correct answer is (a) Orhan Pamuk.
Orhan Pamuk, the Turkish Nobel laureate (Nobel Prize for Literature, 2006), wrote the novel 'Snow' (Kar in Turkish, published 2002), which explores themes of political Islam, secularism, identity, and personal conflicts in the fictional Turkish city of Kars.
(b) Salman Rushdie: Indian-British author known for The Satanic Verses and Midnight's Children; not the author of Snow.
(c) Amos Oz: Israeli author known for A Tale of Love and Darkness; not the author of Snow.
(d) Ngugi wa Thiong'o: Kenyan author known for Weep Not, Child; not the author of Snow.
Books and Authors · International books and authors

Q24. The Testaments, the sequel to The Handmaid's Tale, continuing the dystopian story of Gilead, is authored by which writer?

  1. (a) Margaret Atwood
  2. (b) Ursula K. Le Guin
  3. (c) Alice Walker
  4. (d) Toni Morrison
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Margaret Atwood

The correct answer is (a) Margaret Atwood.
Margaret Atwood wrote The Testaments (2019), the long-awaited sequel to her landmark 1985 dystopian novel The Handmaid's Tale. The Testaments won the Booker Prize in 2019 (shared with Bernardine Evaristo).
(b) Ursula K. Le Guin: American science fiction author (The Left Hand of Darkness, Earthsea series); not the author of The Testaments.
(c) Alice Walker: American author known for The Color Purple (Pulitzer Prize, 1983); not the author of The Testaments.
(d) Toni Morrison: American Nobel laureate known for Beloved and Song of Solomon; not the author of The Testaments.
Countries, Capitals and Currencies · Currencies of countries

Q25. Which of the following BRICS member countries uses the currency called "Real" for domestic and international transactions?

  1. (a) Russia
  2. (b) Brazil
  3. (c) South Africa
  4. (d) Egypt
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Brazil

The correct answer is (b) Brazil.
Brazil uses the Brazilian Real (BRL) as its official currency. The 'Real' was introduced in 1994 as part of the Plano Real economic stabilisation plan.
BRICS currencies: Brazil (Real), Russia (Ruble), India (Rupee), China (Yuan/Renminbi), South Africa (Rand).
(a) Russia: Uses the Russian Ruble (RUB).
(c) South Africa: Uses the South African Rand (ZAR).
(d) Egypt: Uses the Egyptian Pound (EGP); Egypt joined BRICS as a new member in 2024.
Sports · National championships - venues and winners

Q26. The 1958 National Games aimed at promoting athletics and sports nationwide. Which city hosted the 1958 edition of these games?

  1. (a) Madras
  2. (b) Ahmednagar
  3. (c) Bombay
  4. (d) Cuttack
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Cuttack

The correct answer is (d) Cuttack.
The 1958 National Games were hosted by Cuttack, Odisha. Cuttack, the historic 'Silver City' of Odisha, has long been an important centre for sports in the region.
(a) Madras (Chennai): Did not host the 1958 National Games.
(b) Ahmednagar: Did not host the 1958 National Games.
(c) Bombay (Mumbai): Did not host the 1958 National Games.
Sports · National championships - venues and winners

Q27. The 1966 National Games aimed at national sports promotion across multiple disciplines. Which city hosted the games in 1966?

  1. (a) Bangalore
  2. (b) Guwahati
  3. (c) Jalandhar
  4. (d) Indore
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Bangalore

The correct answer is (a) Bangalore.
The 1966 National Games were hosted by Bangalore (now Bengaluru), Karnataka.
(b) Guwahati: Did not host the 1966 National Games.
(c) Jalandhar: Did not host the 1966 National Games.
(d) Indore: Did not host the 1966 National Games.
Sports · Number of players and field dimensions

Q28. During a standard Olympic triathlon, what is the official distance of the swim portion that athletes must complete before the cycling and running segments?

  1. (a) 500 m
  2. (b) 750 m
  3. (c) 1.5 km
  4. (d) 2 km
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1.5 km

The correct answer is (c) 1.5 km.
The standard Olympic triathlon consists of: Swim — 1.5 km (1500 m), Cycling — 40 km, Running — 10 km. The total distance is 51.5 km. The 1.5 km swim has been the standard since triathlon debuted at the Sydney 2000 Olympics.
(a) 500 m: This is the swim distance for a Super Sprint triathlon, not the standard Olympic triathlon.
(b) 750 m: This is the swim distance for a Sprint triathlon, not Olympic.
(d) 2 km: Not a standard triathlon swim distance in the Olympic format.
Sports · Olympic Games

Q29. The Youth Olympic Games (YOG), designed for young athletes, were first held in which city, marking the inaugural edition of this international event?

  1. (a) Beijing
  2. (b) Singapore
  3. (c) Lausanne
  4. (d) Buenos Aires
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Singapore

The correct answer is (b) Singapore.
The inaugural Youth Olympic Games (YOG) were held in Singapore from August 14-26, 2010. The YOG is an international multi-sport event organized by the IOC for athletes aged 14-18 years, held every four years.
(a) Beijing: Hosted the 2008 Summer Olympics; not the first YOG.
(c) Lausanne: IOC headquarters; hosted the 3rd Winter Youth Olympic Games in 2020.
(d) Buenos Aires: Hosted the 3rd Summer Youth Olympic Games in 2018; not the inaugural edition.
Monuments and Heritage · Monuments - builders and locations

Q30. Which of the following structures exemplifies Indo-Saracenic architecture, blending Gothic and Mughal features prominently in India?

  1. (a) Victoria Memorial
  2. (b) Lotus Temple
  3. (c) Hampi Temple Complex
  4. (d) Golden Temple
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Victoria Memorial

The correct answer is (a) Victoria Memorial.
Victoria Memorial in Kolkata, designed by Sir William Emerson (constructed 1906-1921), is a prime example of Indo-Saracenic architecture. It blends Mughal elements with Gothic, Venetian, and Egyptian features in white Makrana marble. Built in memory of Queen Victoria, it is now a museum.
(b) Lotus Temple (Delhi): A Bahá'í House of Worship built in 1986 in a modern lotus-flower style; not Indo-Saracenic.
(c) Hampi Temple Complex: Ancient Hindu temples from the Vijayanagara Empire era; Dravidian architectural style.
(d) Golden Temple (Harmandir Sahib, Amritsar): A Sikh Gurdwara with distinct Sikh architectural style; not Indo-Saracenic.

Computer (1)

Cyber Security and Viruses · Cyber laws (IT Act 2000) and CERT-In

Q31. The National Cyber Forensic Laboratory (Evidence), providing forensic support for cybercrime evidence, was inaugurated in May 2022 at:

  1. (a) Mumbai
  2. (b) Hyderabad
  3. (c) New Delhi
  4. (d) Bengaluru
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Hyderabad

The correct answer is (b) Hyderabad.
The National Cyber Forensic Laboratory (Evidence) was inaugurated in Hyderabad in May 2022 to provide forensic support for cybercrime evidence across the country. The lab assists law enforcement agencies with scientific examination of digital evidence.
(a) Mumbai: Not the location of this specific laboratory.
(c) New Delhi: The Ministry of Home Affairs has cyber forensic capabilities in Delhi, but this specific NCFL (Evidence) was inaugurated in Hyderabad.
(d) Bengaluru: Not the location of this specific laboratory.

Economics (8)

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Housing, sanitation and rural development schemes

Q32. Affordable Rental Housing Complexes (ARHCs) were launched by the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs as a sub-scheme under:

  1. (a) AMRUT
  2. (b) Smart Cities Mission
  3. (c) Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana - Urban
  4. (d) National Urban Livelihoods Mission
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana - Urban

The correct answer is (c) Pradhan Mantri Awas Yojana - Urban.
Affordable Rental Housing Complexes (ARHCs) are a sub-scheme under PMAY-U, launched in 2020 to provide affordable rental housing to urban migrants and economically weaker sections near their workplaces.
(a) AMRUT (Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation): Focuses on urban infrastructure like water supply and sewerage; not the parent scheme for ARHCs.
(b) Smart Cities Mission: Focuses on developing smart city infrastructure; not related to ARHCs.
(d) National Urban Livelihoods Mission: Focuses on poverty alleviation for urban poor; not the parent scheme for ARHCs.
National Income · GDP, GNP, NDP and NNP

Q33. What specific economic activity does Gross Domestic Product (GDP) measure?

  1. (a) The total income of all citizens
  2. (b) The total value of final goods and services produced in a country
  3. (c) The total savings in a country
  4. (d) The total exports of a country
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The total value of final goods and services produced in a country

The correct answer is (b) The total value of final goods and services produced in a country.
GDP is the monetary value of all final goods and services produced within a country's borders during a specific time period (usually a year or quarter). It measures the size and health of an economy.
(a) Total income of all citizens: This is closer to GNP (Gross National Product) which includes income from abroad; GDP measures production within borders.
(c) Total savings: Not what GDP measures; national savings is a separate indicator.
(d) Total exports: Only one component of GDP (net exports = exports minus imports); not the complete definition.
Industry and Infrastructure · Classification of industries (size, ownership, raw material)

Q34. What is the primary objective of a company operating in the 'Private Sector'?

  1. (a) Social welfare
  2. (b) To make a profit
  3. (c) To follow government orders
  4. (d) To provide free services
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To make a profit

The correct answer is (b) To make a profit.
Private sector companies are owned by private individuals or shareholders and their primary objective is profit maximization. They operate in competitive markets driven by the motive of earning returns for their owners and shareholders.
(a) Social welfare: This is the primary motive of public sector enterprises, not private companies.
(c) To follow government orders: Private sector companies operate independently; they are not bound to follow government orders (though they must comply with laws).
(d) To provide free services: Not the motive of private companies; they charge market prices for goods and services.
Industry and Infrastructure · Public sector undertakings (Maharatna, Navratna, Miniratna)

Q35. What is the primary motive of a 'Public Sector' enterprise?

  1. (a) To make a profit only
  2. (b) Social welfare and providing services
  3. (c) To compete with foreign companies
  4. (d) To export goods
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Social welfare and providing services

The correct answer is (b) Social welfare and providing services.
Public sector enterprises (owned by the government) primarily aim to provide essential goods and services to society, achieve social welfare, promote balanced regional development, and work in the national interest rather than solely for profit.
(a) To make a profit only: This is the private sector's primary motive; public enterprises may earn profits but it is not their primary goal.
(c) To compete with foreign companies: While some public enterprises may face foreign competition, this is not their primary motive.
(d) To export goods: Not the primary motive of public sector enterprises.
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · FDI, FPI and FEMA

Q36. What does the acronym 'FDI' stand for in the context of economics?

  1. (a) Foreign Direct Investment
  2. (b) Fiscal Deficit Index
  3. (c) Forward Dollar Investment
  4. (d) Future Development Index
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Foreign Direct Investment

The correct answer is (a) Foreign Direct Investment.
FDI stands for Foreign Direct Investment — investment made by a company or individual in one country into business interests in another country, typically involving establishing business operations or acquiring ownership or controlling interest in a foreign company.
(b) Fiscal Deficit Index: Not a standard economic term or acronym.
(c) Forward Dollar Investment: Not a standard economic term; FDI has never stood for this.
(d) Future Development Index: Not a standard economic acronym.
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · Foreign trade policy and EXIM

Q37. In the context of international trade, what is the definition of a 'Quota'?

  1. (a) A tax on imports
  2. (b) A tax on exports
  3. (c) A physical limit on the quantity of a good that can be imported
  4. (d) A quality standard for goods
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A physical limit on the quantity of a good that can be imported

The correct answer is (c) A physical limit on the quantity of a good that can be imported.
A quota is a government-imposed trade restriction that limits the number or monetary value of goods that can be imported during a particular time period. It is a non-tariff barrier used to protect domestic industries from foreign competition.
(a) A tax on imports: This is the definition of a tariff (customs duty), not a quota.
(b) A tax on exports: This is an export duty; not a quota.
(d) A quality standard for goods: This describes a technical barrier to trade (sanitary/phytosanitary standard); not a quota.
Agriculture and Food Security · Green Revolution and other agricultural revolutions

Q38. The 'Yellow Revolution' is associated with an increase in the production of which commodity?

  1. (a) Turmeric
  2. (b) Gold
  3. (c) Pulses
  4. (d) Oil seeds
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Oil seeds

The correct answer is (d) Oil seeds.
The Yellow Revolution (1986-1990) refers to India's increase in oilseed production under the Technology Mission on Oilseeds (TMO). India significantly boosted production of groundnut, mustard, soybean, and sunflower during this period to reduce import dependence.
(a) Turmeric: Yellow in color but not associated with the 'Yellow Revolution' in India.
(b) Gold: Not an agricultural commodity; not associated with any agricultural revolution.
(c) Pulses: The White Revolution is for milk; Pink Revolution for meat; pulses production increase is not the 'Yellow Revolution.'
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · FDI, FPI and FEMA

Q39. What does the term 'Automatic Route' imply in the context of Foreign Direct Investment (FDI)?

  1. (a) FDI that requires Parliament approval
  2. (b) FDI that requires RBI approval
  3. (c) FDI that does not require prior government/RBI approval
  4. (d) FDI that is banned
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) FDI that does not require prior government/RBI approval

The correct answer is (c) FDI that does not require prior government/RBI approval.
Under India's FDI policy, the Automatic Route means foreign investment does not require prior approval from the Government of India or the RBI. The investor only needs to notify the RBI within 30 days of inward remittance. It covers most sectors up to specified limits.
(a) FDI that requires Parliament approval: No FDI route requires Parliament approval.
(b) FDI that requires RBI approval: This more accurately describes the Government/Approval Route (not Automatic Route) where prior approval is needed.
(d) FDI that is banned: FDI in sectors like atomic energy, lottery, and gambling is prohibited; this is not the definition of Automatic Route.

Modern History (4)

Personalities, Newspapers, Books and Slogans · Newspapers, journals and their founders

Q40. Who was the editor of the revolutionary nationalist journal Bande Mataram, which promoted Indian independence and mobilised public opinion against colonial rule?

  1. (a) Aurobindo Ghosh
  2. (b) Lala Lajpat Rai
  3. (c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
  4. (d) Bipin Chandra Pal
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Aurobindo Ghosh

The correct answer is (a) Aurobindo Ghosh.
Aurobindo Ghosh (later Sri Aurobindo) was the principal editor of the nationalist newspaper 'Bande Mataram,' published from Calcutta (1906-1908). The paper promoted Indian independence and mobilised public opinion against British colonial rule. Bipin Chandra Pal was a co-founder.
(b) Lala Lajpat Rai: Ran the Punjab Kesari newspaper; not the editor of Bande Mataram.
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak: Founded Kesari and Mahratta newspapers in Pune; not the editor of Bande Mataram.
(d) Bipin Chandra Pal: Was associated with Bande Mataram as a co-founder, but Aurobindo Ghosh served as the editor.
Peasant, Tribal and Civil Uprisings · Peasant movements (Indigo, Pabna, Deccan riots)

Q41. The 'Bardoli Satyagraha' (1928), a major farmer's protest against tax hikes, was led by?

  1. (a) Mahatma Gandhi
  2. (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
  3. (c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
  4. (d) B.R. Ambedkar
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel

The correct answer is (c) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel.
The Bardoli Satyagraha (1928) in Surat district, Gujarat, was a major non-violent protest by farmers against a 30% increase in land revenue. Vallabhbhai Patel organized the farmers to refuse payment. The British ultimately reversed the tax hike. The women of Bardoli conferred the title 'Sardar' (Chief) upon Patel for his leadership.
(a) Mahatma Gandhi: Supported the movement morally but did not directly lead the Bardoli Satyagraha.
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru: Not directly involved in the Bardoli Satyagraha.
(d) B.R. Ambedkar: Not connected to the Bardoli Satyagraha.
British Administration and Policies · Land revenue systems (Permanent, Ryotwari, Mahalwari)

Q42. The 'Ryotwari System' of land revenue, introduced in South India, was mainly associated with?

  1. (a) Lord Cornwallis
  2. (b) Warren Hastings
  3. (c) Thomas Munro
  4. (d) Lord Dalhousie
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Thomas Munro

The correct answer is (c) Thomas Munro.
The Ryotwari System was introduced in South India (Madras Presidency) by Sir Thomas Munro and Captain Alexander Read around 1820. Under this system, the government collected revenue directly from each individual cultivator (Ryot), bypassing zamindars, who dealt directly with the state.
(a) Lord Cornwallis: Introduced the Permanent Settlement (Zamindari System) in Bengal in 1793.
(b) Warren Hastings: Made revenue reforms but not specifically the Ryotwari System.
(d) Lord Dalhousie: Known for the Doctrine of Lapse and railway/telegraph expansion; not associated with the Ryotwari System.
British Administration and Policies · Governors-General and Viceroys - events

Q43. Under the Regulating Act of 1773, who became the first Governor-General of Bengal?

  1. (a) Robert Clive
  2. (b) Warren Hastings
  3. (c) Lord Cornwallis
  4. (d) Lord Wellesley
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Warren Hastings

The correct answer is (b) Warren Hastings.
The Regulating Act of 1773, passed by the British Parliament, created the office of Governor-General of Bengal. Warren Hastings was appointed as the first Governor-General of Bengal (1773-1785) under this act, marking the beginning of centralised British control over India.
(a) Robert Clive: Served as Governor of Bengal (not Governor-General); died in 1774, shortly after the Act.
(c) Lord Cornwallis: Was the second Governor-General of Bengal (1786-1793); introduced Permanent Settlement.
(d) Lord Wellesley: Was the fourth Governor-General of Bengal (1798-1805); known for Subsidiary Alliance.

Medieval History (4)

Delhi Sultanate · Tughlaq dynasty

Q44. Which city, founded by Firoz Shah Tughlaq, was known as the 'Shiraz of the East' as a center of culture?

  1. (a) Jaunpur
  2. (b) Firozabad
  3. (c) Hisar
  4. (d) Fatehabad
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Jaunpur

The correct answer is (a) Jaunpur.
Jaunpur was founded by Firoz Shah Tughlaq in 1359 CE on the banks of the Gomti River (present-day Uttar Pradesh). Under the Sharqi dynasty (1394-1479), it became a major centre of learning and culture, earning the title 'Shiraz of the East' — comparing it to Shiraz, Iran's renowned cultural city.
(b) Firozabad: Also founded by Firoz Shah Tughlaq but known for glass bangles, not as 'Shiraz of the East.'
(c) Hisar: Also founded by Firoz Shah Tughlaq; not known by this title.
(d) Fatehabad: Another city founded by Firoz Shah Tughlaq; not known as 'Shiraz of the East.'
Vijayanagara and Bahmani Kingdoms · Bahmani kingdom

Q45. 'Mahmud Gawan' was a famous prime minister and general who served which kingdom?

  1. (a) Vijayanagara Empire
  2. (b) Bahmani Kingdom
  3. (c) Sultanate of Gujarat
  4. (d) Sultanate of Malwa
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Bahmani Kingdom

The correct answer is (b) Bahmani Kingdom.
Mahmud Gawan (1411-1481) was a brilliant Persian-origin statesman, prime minister (Wazir-ul-Mamalik), and military commander of the Bahmani Sultanate of the Deccan. He extended the kingdom significantly and built a madrasa at Bidar. He was later falsely accused of treason and executed.
(a) Vijayanagara Empire: A Hindu empire of South India; Mahmud Gawan served the rival Bahmani Sultanate.
(c) Sultanate of Gujarat: A separate sultanate; not where Mahmud Gawan served.
(d) Sultanate of Malwa: Another separate sultanate; not associated with Mahmud Gawan.
Delhi Sultanate · Slave (Mamluk) dynasty

Q46. Who holds the distinction of being the first and only female Muslim ruler of the Delhi Sultanate?

  1. (a) Nur Jahan
  2. (b) Chand Bibi
  3. (c) Mumtaz Mahal
  4. (d) Razia Sultana
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Razia Sultana

The correct answer is (d) Razia Sultana.
Razia al-Din (Razia Sultana), daughter of Sultan Iltutmish, became the first and only female Sultan of the Delhi Sultanate, ruling from 1236 to 1240. She was the first female Muslim ruler in Indian history, governed without purdah, and wore men's clothing, but was eventually overthrown by dissatisfied nobles.
(a) Nur Jahan: A Mughal empress (wife of Emperor Jahangir); wielded significant power but was from a later period.
(b) Chand Bibi: A regent of the Bijapur and Ahmadnagar Sultanates; not of the Delhi Sultanate.
(c) Mumtaz Mahal: Wife of Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan; in whose memory the Taj Mahal was built; not ruler of Delhi Sultanate.
Bhakti, Sufi and Sikh Movements · Sikh Gurus and Sikhism

Q47. Who was the ninth Sikh Guru executed by the order of Aurangzeb?

  1. (a) Guru Hargobind
  2. (b) Guru Har Rai
  3. (c) Guru Tegh Bahadur
  4. (d) Guru Gobind Singh
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Guru Tegh Bahadur

The correct answer is (c) Guru Tegh Bahadur.
Guru Tegh Bahadur Ji (1621-1675) was the ninth of the Ten Sikh Gurus. He was executed on the orders of Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb on November 24, 1675 in Delhi (at Chandni Chowk) for refusing to convert to Islam and for defending the religious freedom of Kashmiri Pandits. Gurdwara Sis Ganj Sahib marks the site of his martyrdom.
(a) Guru Hargobind: The 6th Sikh Guru; was imprisoned by Emperor Jahangir but not executed.
(b) Guru Har Rai: The 7th Sikh Guru; died peacefully in 1661.
(d) Guru Gobind Singh: The 10th Sikh Guru and son of Guru Tegh Bahadur; was not executed by Aurangzeb.

Biology (1)

Diseases, Immunity and Health · Vaccines and vaccination

Q48. 'Mission Indradhanush' is a flagship health program of the Government of India related to what?

  1. (a) Vaccination of children and pregnant women
  2. (b) Providing iron tablets to school girls
  3. (c) Eye check-ups in rural areas
  4. (d) Cleaning rivers
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Vaccination of children and pregnant women

The correct answer is (a) Vaccination of children and pregnant women.
Mission Indradhanush (launched December 2014) aims to achieve full immunization coverage for children up to 2 years old and pregnant women against 12 vaccine-preventable diseases including diphtheria, measles, and polio. The rainbow name represents the 7 colors of a rainbow for the vaccines covered.
(b) Providing iron tablets to school girls: This is part of the National Iron Plus Initiative (NIPI) or WIFS; not Mission Indradhanush.
(c) Eye check-ups in rural areas: Not related to Mission Indradhanush.
(d) Cleaning rivers: This is the Namami Gange programme for river cleaning; completely unrelated.

Ancient History (1)

Buddhism, Jainism and Other Sects · Buddhist and Jain sites

Q49. The "Lumbini Project" is a major development initiative aimed at restoring and promoting the historical and cultural region of Lumbini. India collaborates with which country on this project?

  1. (a) Nepal
  2. (b) Sri Lanka
  3. (c) Bangladesh
  4. (d) Bhutan
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Nepal

The correct answer is (a) Nepal.
Lumbini, located in Nepal's Rupandehi district, is the birthplace of Gautama Buddha and a UNESCO World Heritage Site. India actively collaborates with Nepal on the Lumbini Development Project to restore and promote this sacred site. India has constructed the India International Centre for Buddhist Culture and Heritage in Lumbini.
(b) Sri Lanka: Has Buddhist heritage connections but is not specifically a partner on the Lumbini Project.
(c) Bangladesh: Not a partner in the Lumbini Project.
(d) Bhutan: Not specifically partnering with India on the Lumbini Project.
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