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Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 5 January 2026 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 48 GK / GS questions asked in Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 on 5 January 2026 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Geography, Current Affairs, Static GK, Modern History, Economics, Ancient History.

📚 48 questions🗓️ 5 January 2026⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Geography (5) · Current Affairs (5) · Static GK (19) · Modern History (4) · Economics (6) · Ancient History (1) · Polity (4) · Medieval History (3) · Physics (1)

Geography (5)

India - Drainage System · River origins and lengths

Q1. Which state in India is the primary source of the Godavari River?

  1. (a) Madhya Pradesh
  2. (b) Maharashtra
  3. (c) Karnataka
  4. (d) Telangana
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Maharashtra

The correct answer is (b) Maharashtra.
The Godavari River originates at Trimbakeshwar near Nashik in Maharashtra. It is the second-longest river in India after the Ganga, flowing eastward across the Deccan Plateau through Telangana and Andhra Pradesh before meeting the Bay of Bengal.
(a) Madhya Pradesh: The Narmada and Tapi rivers originate in Madhya Pradesh; not the Godavari.
(c) Karnataka: The Krishna River has significant origin points in Karnataka ( Mahabaleswar , Maharashtra also); Godavari does not originate here.
(d) Telangana: The Godavari flows through Telangana but does not originate there.
India - Agriculture · Food crops and leading states

Q2. Which Indian state is the largest producer of wheat?

  1. (a) Punjab
  2. (b) Haryana
  3. (c) Madhya Pradesh
  4. (d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Uttar Pradesh

The correct answer is (d) Uttar Pradesh.
Uttar Pradesh is the largest producer of wheat in India, accounting for approximately 33-35% of India's total wheat production. The state's fertile Gangetic plains and favorable climate make it ideal for wheat cultivation.
(a) Punjab: Punjab has the highest productivity (yield per hectare) of wheat and is called the 'Granary of India,' but in terms of total production volume, Uttar Pradesh surpasses it.
(b) Haryana: Second in terms of yield per hectare but not the largest total producer.
(c) Madhya Pradesh: Has emerged as a significant wheat producer in recent years but does not surpass Uttar Pradesh in total output.
India - Drainage System · Tributaries and confluences

Q3. The Teesta River, which saw a major flash flood in 2023, primarily flows through which two Indian states?

  1. (a) Sikkim and West Bengal
  2. (b) Assam and Arunachal Pradesh
  3. (c) Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh
  4. (d) Bihar and West Bengal
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Sikkim and West Bengal

The correct answer is (a) Sikkim and West Bengal.
The Teesta River originates in Sikkim (from the Tso Lhamo Lake near the Sikkim-Tibet border) and flows through Sikkim before entering West Bengal, ultimately joining the Brahmaputra in Bangladesh. In October 2023, a glacial lake outburst flood (GLOF) in Sikkim caused devastating flooding along the Teesta.
(b) Assam and Arunachal Pradesh: The Brahmaputra and Subansiri flow through these states; not the Teesta.
(c) Uttarakhand and Uttar Pradesh: The Ganga and Yamuna flow through these states; not the Teesta.
(d) Bihar and West Bengal: The Ganga flows through Bihar and West Bengal; the Teesta flows through Sikkim and West Bengal, not Bihar.
India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Coastal plains

Q4. What is the southern part of the Western Coastal Plain known as?

  1. (a) Konkan Coast
  2. (b) Kanara Coast
  3. (c) Coromandel Coast
  4. (d) Malabar Coast
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Malabar Coast

The correct answer is (d) Malabar Coast.
The Western Coastal Plain of India is divided into three sections from north to south: (1) Konkan Coast (northern part — Maharashtra and Goa), (2) Kanara/Karnataka Coast (middle part — Karnataka), and (3) Malabar Coast (southern part — Kerala). The Malabar Coast stretches from Mangalore to Kanyakumari.
(a) Konkan Coast: The northern section of the Western Coastal Plain (Maharashtra and Goa); not the southern part.
(b) Kanara Coast: The middle section of the Western Coastal Plain (Karnataka); not the southern part.
(c) Coromandel Coast: The southern part of the Eastern Coastal Plain (Tamil Nadu); belongs to the east coast, not the west coast.
World Geography · Straits, canals, gulfs and seas

Q5. The "Strait of Bab-el-Mandeb" is a critical maritime chokepoint connecting the Red Sea with which other body of water, vital for international shipping?

  1. (a) Mediterranean Sea
  2. (b) Persian Gulf
  3. (c) Gulf of Aden
  4. (d) Arabian Sea
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Gulf of Aden

The correct answer is (c) Gulf of Aden.
The Strait of Bab-el-Mandeb ('Gate of Tears') is a narrow strait separating the Arabian Peninsula (Yemen) from the Horn of Africa (Djibouti/Eritrea). It connects the Red Sea (to the north) with the Gulf of Aden (to the south). It is one of the world's most critical maritime chokepoints for oil tankers and cargo ships heading toward the Suez Canal.
(a) Mediterranean Sea: The Suez Canal connects the Red Sea to the Mediterranean Sea; not Bab-el-Mandeb.
(b) Persian Gulf: The Strait of Hormuz connects the Persian Gulf to the Gulf of Oman and Arabian Sea; not Bab-el-Mandeb.
(d) Arabian Sea: The Gulf of Aden leads to the Arabian Sea, so ships pass through Bab-el-Mandeb → Gulf of Aden → Arabian Sea; but the direct connection is to the Gulf of Aden, not directly to the Arabian Sea.

Current Affairs (5)

Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q6. According to the World Happiness Report 2025, what was India's rank for volunteering / charitable giving?

  1. (a) 10th
  2. (b) 25th
  3. (c) 57th
  4. (d) 100th
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 57th

The correct answer is (c) 57th.
According to the World Happiness Report 2025, India ranked 57th in volunteering/charitable giving among the countries surveyed. The World Happiness Report is published annually by the UN Sustainable Development Solutions Network.
(a) 10th: India did not rank this high in volunteering/charitable giving in the 2025 report.
(b) 25th: Not India's rank for this category in the 2025 report.
(d) 100th: Not India's rank; India's actual rank of 57th reflects moderate engagement in charitable activity.
Appointments and Resignations · Heads of organisations

Q7. Challa Sreenivasulu Setty (C.S. Setty) was appointed in August 2024 as the Chairman of which major bank?

  1. (a) HDFC Bank
  2. (b) ICICI Bank
  3. (c) State Bank of India (SBI)
  4. (d) Punjab National Bank
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) State Bank of India (SBI)

The correct answer is (c) State Bank of India (SBI).
Challa Sreenivasulu Setty was appointed as the Chairman of State Bank of India (SBI) in August 2024. He succeeded Dinesh Kumar Khara as the SBI Chairman. C.S. Setty previously served as the Managing Director of SBI.
(a) HDFC Bank: Sashidhar Jagdishan has been the MD & CEO of HDFC Bank; C.S. Setty was not appointed here.
(b) ICICI Bank: Sandeep Bakhshi is the MD & CEO of ICICI Bank; C.S. Setty was not appointed here.
(d) Punjab National Bank: Not where C.S. Setty was appointed.
Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q8. Which economist was appointed Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in April 2025?

  1. (a) Shirish Chandra Murmu
  2. (b) Poonam Gupta
  3. (c) Sanjay Malhotra
  4. (d) Ashish Kumar Bhutani
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Poonam Gupta

The correct answer is (b) Poonam Gupta.
Poonam Gupta, an economist and Director General of NCAER (National Council of Applied Economic Research), was appointed as Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) in April 2025. She is one of the few women to hold such a senior position at the RBI.
(a) Shirish Chandra Murmu: Former Comptroller and Auditor General of India; not appointed as RBI Deputy Governor in April 2025.
(c) Sanjay Malhotra: Was appointed as the Governor of RBI in December 2024, not Deputy Governor.
(d) Ashish Kumar Bhutani: Not associated with this RBI appointment.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · New government schemes and missions

Q9. Under the Mutual Credit Guarantee Scheme for Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MCGS–MSME), which organisation has been designated to provide a 60% guarantee cover on eligible loans?

  1. (a) SIDBI (Small Industries Development Bank of India)
  2. (b) NABARD (National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development)
  3. (c) NCGTC (National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Ltd.)
  4. (d) IFCI (Industrial Finance Corporation of India)
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) NCGTC (National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Ltd.)

The correct answer is (c) NCGTC (National Credit Guarantee Trustee Company Ltd.).
Under the Mutual Credit Guarantee Scheme for MSMEs (MCGS-MSME), NCGTC has been designated to provide a 60% guarantee cover on eligible loans (above ₹10 crore and up to ₹100 crore) to manufacturing MSMEs, enabling easier credit access.
(a) SIDBI: Provides refinancing and support to MSMEs but is not the designated entity for this specific 60% guarantee under MCGS-MSME.
(b) NABARD: Primarily focuses on agricultural and rural development credit; not the designated entity for MCGS-MSME.
(d) IFCI: An industrial finance institution; not the designated entity for this scheme.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · New government schemes and missions

Q10. The PM Internship Scheme (PMIS) Mela held in February 2025 was organized by which Ministry?

  1. (a) Ministry of Labour & Employment
  2. (b) Ministry of Corporate Affairs
  3. (c) Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship
  4. (d) Ministry of Education
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ministry of Corporate Affairs

The correct answer is (b) Ministry of Corporate Affairs.
The PM Internship Scheme (PMIS) is managed by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA). The PMIS Mela held in February 2025 was organized by MCA to facilitate internships for youth in top Indian companies. The scheme aims to provide 1 crore internships over 5 years.
(a) Ministry of Labour & Employment: Handles labour welfare policies; not the ministry managing PM Internship Scheme.
(c) Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship: Manages skill training programs like PMKVY; PM Internship Scheme is specifically under MCA.
(d) Ministry of Education: Handles school and higher education; not the organizing ministry for PMIS Mela.

Static GK (19)

Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Fairs and melas

Q11. The festival of " Ambubachi Mela" in Assam symbolically represents which natural phenomenon?

  1. (a) Monsoon onset
  2. (b) River flooding
  3. (c) Earth's renewal cycle
  4. (d) Mother Earth's fertility
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Mother Earth's fertility

The correct answer is (d) Mother Earth's fertility.
Ambubachi Mela is an annual Hindu festival held at the Kamakhya Temple in Guwahati, Assam. It symbolically represents the menstrual cycle (fertility) of Mother Earth — Goddess Kamakhya. During this period, the temple remains closed for three days as the Goddess is believed to be in her annual menstruation cycle, after which it reopens with grand celebrations.
(a) Monsoon onset: While the festival coincides with monsoon season, its symbolic representation is about Mother Earth's fertility, not the monsoon.
(b) River flooding: Not what Ambubachi Mela symbolizes.
(c) Earth's renewal cycle: This is partially related but does not specifically capture the fertility/menstrual symbolism of the festival.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q12. " Kulasai Dasara," famous for ferocious demon-themed make-up, is celebrated in which state?

  1. (a) Andhra Pradesh
  2. (b) Tamil Nadu
  3. (c) Kerala
  4. (d) Karnataka
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Tamil Nadu

The correct answer is (b) Tamil Nadu.
Kulasai Dasara (also known as Kulasekarapatnam Dasara) is celebrated at the Mutharamman Temple in Kulasekarapatnam village in Thoothukudi district, Tamil Nadu. It is famous for its unique and ferocious demon-themed make-up (called ' Karagam ' performers and demon costumes) during the 10-day festival.
(a) Andhra Pradesh: Not associated with Kulasai Dasara; this state has its own Dasara traditions.
(c) Kerala: Not associated with Kulasai Dasara.
(d) Karnataka: Known for the grand Mysuru Dasara; not associated with Kulasai Dasara.
Sports · Athletics - events, rules and specifications

Q13. Which biomechanical principle is MOST critical for maximizing javelin release distance?

  1. (a) High shoulder mobility
  2. (b) Optimal angle of release combined with high release velocity
  3. (c) Wide grip on the javelin
  4. (d) Maximizing run-up speed alone
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Optimal angle of release combined with high release velocity

The correct answer is (b) Optimal angle of release combined with high release velocity.
In javelin throw biomechanics, the release distance is primarily determined by: (1) release velocity (the greater the velocity, the farther it flies), and (2) optimal release angle (approximately 30-36° for maximum range considering javelin aerodynamics). The combination of these two factors is most critical.
(a) High shoulder mobility: Important for technique but not the most critical factor for maximizing distance.
(c) Wide grip on the javelin: Grip affects control and power transfer but is not the most critical biomechanical principle.
(d) Maximizing run-up speed alone: Run-up contributes to velocity but the angle of release is also essential; run-up speed alone cannot maximize distance without the optimal release angle.
Books and Authors · International books and authors

Q14. Kazuo Ishiguro is a Nobel Laureate whose novels explore memory, identity, and humanity. Which of the following works is authored by him?

  1. (a) The Handmaid's Tale
  2. (b) Never Let Me Go
  3. (c) Atonement
  4. (d) The Secret History
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Never Let Me Go

The correct answer is (b) Never Let Me Go.
Kazuo Ishiguro (Nobel Prize in Literature, 2017) wrote Never Let Me Go (2005), a dystopian novel about human clones raised for organ donation, exploring themes of memory, identity, and mortality. His other famous works include The Remains of the Day and Klara and the Sun.
(a) The Handmaid's Tale: Written by Margaret Atwood; a dystopian novel about a totalitarian state — not Ishiguro.
(c) Atonement: Written by Ian McEwan; explores themes of guilt, memory, and the power of storytelling — not Ishiguro.
(d) The Secret History: Written by Donna Tartt; a dark academia novel — not Ishiguro.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q15. The White Tiger, a satirical critique of modern Indian society and economic inequality, won the Man Booker Prize in 2008. Who is the author of this novel?

  1. (a) Aravind Adiga
  2. (b) Chetan Bhagat
  3. (c) Ruskin Bond
  4. (d) Vikram Chandra
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Aravind Adiga

The correct answer is (a) Aravind Adiga.
Aravind Adiga's debut novel The White Tiger won the Man Booker Prize in 2008. The novel is a first-person narrative of Balram Halwai, a servant who rises from poverty to become an entrepreneur, offering a satirical critique of modern India's class divisions and economic inequality.
(b) Chetan Bhagat: Popular Indian author of books like 5 Point Someone and 2 States; has not won the Booker Prize.
(c) Ruskin Bond: Renowned author of Indian children's literature and short stories; not the author of The White Tiger.
(d) Vikram Chandra: Author of Sacred Games and Love and Longing in Bombay; not the author of The White Tiger.
Monuments and Heritage · Monuments - builders and locations

Q16. Charminar in Hyderabad incorporates which combination of architectural influences in its arches, minarets, and stucco decoration?

  1. (a) Rajput and Maratha
  2. (b) Persian, Hindu, and Islamic
  3. (c) Dravidian and Vijayanagara
  4. (d) French Colonial
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Persian, Hindu, and Islamic

The correct answer is (b) Persian, Hindu, and Islamic.
Charminar (1591), built by Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah in Hyderabad, is a masterpiece blending Persian, Hindu, and Islamic architectural elements. Its four grand arches, ornate stucco decoration, and four minarets reflect Persian and Islamic influences, while some decorative motifs draw from Hindu traditions. It is often cited as an example of Deccani architecture.
(a) Rajput and Maratha: These are North Indian and Maharashtrian architectural styles; not the primary influences on Charminar.
(c) Dravidian and Vijayanagara : South Indian temple architecture styles; while there are some local Deccani influences, the primary description is Persian, Hindu, and Islamic.
(d) French Colonial: Not associated with Charminar's architecture.
Monuments and Heritage · Forts and palaces

Q17. Which Rajput palace is popularly known as the "Palace of Winds," featuring numerous jharokhas for ventilation?

  1. (a) Hawa Mahal
  2. (b) Amer Fort
  3. (c) Mehrangarh
  4. (d) Chittorgarh
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Hawa Mahal

The correct answer is (a) Hawa Mahal.
Hawa Mahal (Palace of Winds) in Jaipur, Rajasthan, was built in 1799 by Maharaja Sawai Pratap Singh. It has 953 small windows ( jharokhas ) decorated with intricate lattice work, which allowed royal women to observe street festivities while remaining unseen, and also provided natural ventilation — hence the name 'Palace of Winds.'
(b) Amer Fort: A magnificent Rajput fort-palace in Jaipur; not called the 'Palace of Winds.'
(c) Mehrangarh : A massive hilltop fort in Jodhpur; not associated with this name.
(d) Chittorgarh: A historic fort in Rajasthan known for Rani Padmini; not called 'Palace of Winds.'
Sports · Other sports and tournaments (tennis, chess, badminton, etc.)

Q18. The first-ever World Athletics Championships javelin event (men) took place in 1983 in:

  1. (a) Tokyo
  2. (b) Helsinki
  3. (c) Rome
  4. (d) Athens
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Helsinki

The correct answer is (b) Helsinki.
The inaugural World Athletics Championships were held in Helsinki, Finland from August 7-14, 1983. Daley Thompson of Great Britain won the decathlon and Detlef Michel of East Germany won the men's javelin event at this historic first edition.
(a) Tokyo: The 2023 World Athletics Championships were held in Budapest; Tokyo hosted the 1991 edition.
(c) Rome: The 1987 World Athletics Championships were held in Rome; not the 1983 inaugural edition.
(d) Athens: The 1997 World Athletics Championships were held in Athens; not the 1983 inaugural edition.
Sports · Olympic Games

Q19. The first-ever Youth Olympic Games were held in 2010 in:

  1. (a) Athens, Greece
  2. (b) Singapore
  3. (c) Sydney, Australia
  4. (d) Buenos Aires, Argentina
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Singapore

The correct answer is (b) Singapore.
The inaugural Summer Youth Olympic Games (YOG) were held in Singapore from August 14-26, 2010. The IOC created the Youth Olympic Games to engage athletes aged 14-18. Singapore hosted this historic first edition with 3,531 athletes from 204 countries competing.
(a) Athens, Greece: Athens hosted the 2004 Summer Olympics; not the first Youth Olympic Games.
(c) Sydney, Australia: Sydney hosted the 2000 Summer Olympics; not the first Youth Olympic Games.
(d) Buenos Aires, Argentina: Hosted the 3rd Summer Youth Olympic Games in 2018; not the inaugural edition.
Personalities and Nicknames · Famous personalities and their fields

Q20. Which of the following social reformers, born on December 26, 1914, in Hinganghat , Maharashtra, is best known for his work with leprosy patients and his contributions to social welfare?

  1. (a) Baba Amte
  2. (b) Medha Patkar
  3. (c) Kailash Satyarthi
  4. (d) Anna Hazare
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Baba Amte

The correct answer is (a) Baba Amte.
Murlidhar Devidas Amte (Baba Amte, 1914-2008), born on December 26, 1914 in Hinganghat , Maharashtra, was a renowned social activist who dedicated his life to the rehabilitation and welfare of leprosy patients. He founded Anandwan (Forest of Joy) ashram in Maharashtra for leprosy patients. He received the Padma Vibhushan and Ramon Magsaysay Award.
(b) Medha Patkar: Activist associated with the Narmada Bachao Andolan; not born in Hinganghat .
(c) Kailash Satyarthi: Nobel Peace Prize winner (2014) known for child labour activism; not from Hinganghat .
(d) Anna Hazare: Social activist known for anti-corruption movement (Jan Lokpal); not from Hinganghat .
Personalities and Nicknames · Nicknames and titles of persons

Q21. Dr. Tessy Thomas, known for leading India's missile programs including Agni-IV and Agni-V, is popularly referred to as:

  1. (a) Missile Woman of India
  2. (b) Rocket Lady
  3. (c) Lady of the Light
  4. (d) Iron Lady of DRDO
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Missile Woman of India

The correct answer is (a) Missile Woman of India.
Dr. Tessy Thomas is a distinguished scientist at DRDO ( Defence Research and Development Organisation ) who led the development of Agni-IV and Agni-V ballistic missiles. She is popularly known as the 'Missile Woman of India' — a title inspired by Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam (the 'Missile Man of India') under whom she worked.
(b) Rocket Lady: Not Dr. Tessy Thomas's popular title.
(c) Lady of the Light: Not associated with Dr. Tessy Thomas.
(d) Iron Lady of DRDO: Not Dr. Tessy Thomas's popular title; 'Iron Lady' is associated with Margaret Thatcher.
Awards and Honours · Nobel Prize and international awards

Q22. Who was the first Indian to win the Pritzker Architecture Prize, recognized globally for contributions to architecture and urban design?

  1. (a) B.V. Doshi
  2. (b) Charles Correa
  3. (c) Raj Rewal
  4. (d) Laurie Baker
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) B.V. Doshi

The correct answer is (a) B.V. Doshi.
Balakrishna Vithaldas Doshi (B.V. Doshi, 1927-2023) became the first Indian architect to win the Pritzker Architecture Prize in 2018. He was a student of Le Corbusier and Louis Kahn and created socially conscious architecture including the Aranya Community Housing project in Indore.
(b) Charles Correa: A pioneering Indian architect known for Gandhi Smarak Sangrahalaya and Kanchanjunga Apartments; never won the Pritzker Prize.
(c) Raj Rewal: Indian architect known for National Institute of Immunology in Delhi; did not win the Pritzker Prize.
(d) Laurie Baker: British-born Indian architect known for low-cost sustainable architecture in Kerala; did not win the Pritzker Prize.
Dances · Folk dances by state

Q23. "Tamasha" is a regional dance-theatre form. Which Indian state is traditionally associated with Tamasha, known for its folk storytelling and musical performance?

  1. (a) Maharashtra
  2. (b) Gujarat
  3. (c) Rajasthan
  4. (d) Kerala
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Maharashtra

The correct answer is (a) Maharashtra.
Tamasha is a traditional folk theatre form (dance-drama) of Maharashtra, combining music, dance, and comedy. It originated in the 17th century and involves lively performances with witty dialogues, songs (Lavani), and storytelling. Tamasha performers traditionally belonged to nomadic communities ( Kolhati , Mahar, etc.).
(b) Gujarat: Known for Garba dance and Bhavai folk theatre; not associated with Tamasha.
(c) Rajasthan: Known for Kalbelia dance, Kathputli puppetry, and Turra Kalagi folk theatre; not Tamasha.
(d) Kerala: Known for Kathakali, Mohiniyattam , and Theyyam ; not Tamasha.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q24. Which contemporary Indian author wrote An Era of Darkness, a detailed critique of British colonial rule that expands on his widely acclaimed Oxford Union speech arguing against the myth of benevolent imperialism?

  1. (a) Shashi Tharoor
  2. (b) Ramachandra Guha
  3. (c) Gurcharan Das
  4. (d) Pavan Varma
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Shashi Tharoor

The correct answer is (a) Shashi Tharoor.
Shashi Tharoor wrote An Era of Darkness: The British Empire in India (2016), a detailed critique of British colonialism that expanded upon his famous 2015 Oxford Union debate speech where he argued that Britain owed India reparations. The book argues against the narrative of 'benevolent imperialism.'
(b) Ramachandra Guha: Renowned historian and author of India After Gandhi and Gandhi Before India; not the author of An Era of Darkness.
(c) Gurcharan Das: Author of India Unbound and The Difficulty of Being Good; not the author of An Era of Darkness.
(d) Pavan Varma: Author of Being Indian and Chanakya's New Manifesto; not the author of An Era of Darkness.
Organisations and Headquarters · India's foreign relations and connectivity projects

Q25. The Sittwe Port, being developed by India under the Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit project, is located in which country?

  1. (a) Sri Lanka
  2. (b) Myanmar
  3. (c) Thailand
  4. (d) Bangladesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Myanmar

The correct answer is (b) Myanmar.
Sittwe Port is located in Myanmar (Rakhine State). It is being developed by India under the Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project, which aims to connect Kolkata (India) to Mizoram (Northeast India) via Myanmar using sea, river, and road transport. This reduces transport distance to Northeast India significantly.
(a) Sri Lanka: Has its own ports like Colombo and Hambantota; Sittwe is not in Sri Lanka.
(c) Thailand: Not the location of Sittwe Port; India's trilateral highway passes through Thailand but Sittwe is in Myanmar.
(d) Bangladesh: India has separate connectivity projects with Bangladesh (like the Agartala- Akhaura rail link); Sittwe Port is not in Bangladesh.
Organisations and Headquarters · India's foreign relations and connectivity projects

Q26. The Zaranj –Delaram Highway, constructed to enhance regional connectivity and trade, was built by India in which country?

  1. (a) Iran
  2. (b) Afghanistan
  3. (c) Pakistan
  4. (d) Turkmenistan
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Afghanistan

The correct answer is (b) Afghanistan.
The Zaranj –Delaram Highway (218 km) was built by India's Border Roads Organisation (BRO) in Afghanistan, connecting the Afghan city of Delaram to Zaranj near the Iranian border. Completed in 2009, it provides Afghanistan an alternative trade route to the sea via Iran, bypassing Pakistan. India invested approximately $150 million in this project.
(a) Iran: The highway connects Afghanistan to the Iranian border but is located within Afghanistan; it was built by India in Afghanistan.
(c) Pakistan: India does not have a highway construction project in Pakistan.
(d) Turkmenistan: India has some connectivity interests in Turkmenistan (TAPI pipeline), but the Zaranj -Delaram Highway is in Afghanistan.
Sports · Other sports and tournaments (tennis, chess, badminton, etc.)

Q27. The inaugural National Yogasana Championships in 2021 aimed to promote yoga as a competitive sport. Which city hosted this first edition of the championship?

  1. (a) Bhubaneswar
  2. (b) Ahmedabad
  3. (c) Haridwar
  4. (d) Surat
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Bhubaneswar

The correct answer is (a) Bhubaneswar.
The inaugural National Yogasana Sports Championship was held in Bhubaneswar, Odisha in 2021. The championship was organized to promote yoga as a competitive sport and was supported by the Ministry of Youth Affairs and Sports and the Yogasana Sports Federation of India.
(b) Ahmedabad: Not the host city of the inaugural National Yogasana Sports Championship.
(c) Haridwar: A major centre for yoga and spirituality; however, the inaugural championship was held in Bhubaneswar.
(d) Surat: Not the host city of the inaugural National Yogasana Sports Championship.
Music and Musical Instruments · Folk music and songs by state

Q28. Chhattisgarhi Pandavani songs are a form of traditional folk narrative. Which epic or story do these songs primarily narrate?

  1. (a) Mahabharata
  2. (b) Ramayana
  3. (c) Puranas
  4. (d) Folk tales
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Mahabharata

The correct answer is (a) Mahabharata.
Pandavani is a traditional folk singing and storytelling art form from Chhattisgarh that primarily narrates stories from the Mahabharata — particularly the tales of the Pandavas. The famous Pandavani exponent Teejan Bai (Padma Vibhushan awardee) is known for her captivating performances. The name itself — ' Pandavani ' — derives from the Pandavas.
(b) Ramayana: Pandavani specifically focuses on the Mahabharata/Pandavas, not the Ramayana.
(c) Puranas: While some Pandavani performances may touch on mythological themes, the primary epic narrated is the Mahabharata.
(d) Folk tales: Pandavani is based on the Mahabharata epic, not folk tales.
Sports · Sports bodies and headquarters

Q29. How often does the World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA) update its Prohibited List to include new performance-enhancing substances and ensure fairness in sports?

  1. (a) Every year
  2. (b) Every two years
  3. (c) Every four years
  4. (d) Only during Olympics
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Every year

The correct answer is (a) Every year.
WADA (World Anti-Doping Agency) updates its Prohibited List annually. The updated list comes into effect on January 1 of each year. This annual update ensures that newly developed performance-enhancing substances, methods, and masking agents are promptly added to keep sports fair and protect athlete health.
(b) Every two years: WADA updates its Prohibited List every year, not every two years.
(c) Every four years: A four-year cycle would leave too much time for doping without regulation; WADA updates annually.
(d) Only during Olympics: The Prohibited List is updated every year regardless of whether it is an Olympic year.

Modern History (4)

Gandhian Era · Rowlatt Act and Jallianwala Bagh

Q30. On the recommendations of which committee was the Rowlatt Act passed?

  1. (a) Frazer Committee
  2. (b) Hunter Committee
  3. (c) Minto Committee
  4. (d) Rowlett Sedition Committee
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Rowlett Sedition Committee

The correct answer is (d) Rowlett Sedition Committee.
The Rowlatt Act (1919), also known as the Anarchical and Revolutionary Crimes Act, was passed on the recommendations of the Rowlatt Sedition Committee (named after its chairman, British judge Sir Sidney Rowlatt). The committee was set up to investigate revolutionary activities and recommended emergency wartime laws to suppress political activities.
(a) Frazer Committee: Not related to the Rowlatt Act.
(b) Hunter Committee: Was formed to investigate the Jallianwala Bagh massacre (1919); not responsible for the Rowlatt Act.
(c) Minto Committee: Not related to the Rowlatt Act; Lord Minto was Viceroy during Morley-Minto Reforms.
British Administration and Policies · Civil services, police and judiciary under the British

Q31. What was the Ilbert Bill controversy?

  1. (a) Vernacular education
  2. (b) Recruitment of Indians in Indian Civil Services
  3. (c) Equality of judicial powers for Indian judges
  4. (d) Press freedom
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Equality of judicial powers for Indian judges

The correct answer is (c) Equality of judicial powers for Indian judges.
The Ilbert Bill (1883), introduced by Sir Courtenay Ilbert (Law Member of the Viceroy's Council) under Lord Ripon, proposed to allow Indian and native magistrates and district judges to try cases involving European/British subjects in criminal courts. This was seen as an effort to achieve equality of judicial powers. European settlers in India bitterly opposed it, leading to a massive controversy. The final bill was heavily amended.
(a) Vernacular education: The Vernacular Press Act (1878) dealt with press restrictions; not related to the Ilbert Bill.
(b) Recruitment of Indians in ICS: This was a different struggle; Surendranath Banerjee fought for this issue.
(d) Press freedom: The Vernacular Press Act addressed press issues; not the Ilbert Bill.
British Administration and Policies · Constitutional Acts under British rule

Q32. The act first introduced "federal court" in India:

  1. (a) Cabinet Mission Plan
  2. (b) Government of India Act, 1935
  3. (c) Morley-Minto Reforms
  4. (d) Govt of India Act, 1919
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Government of India Act, 1935

The correct answer is (b) Government of India Act, 1935.
The Government of India Act, 1935 introduced the Federal Court of India — the first apex judicial body to hear appeals from High Courts on constitutional and federal matters. The Federal Court began functioning in 1937 and was the forerunner of the Supreme Court of India (established 1950).
(a) Cabinet Mission Plan (1946): A political framework for India's independence and constitution-making; did not introduce the federal court.
(c) Morley-Minto Reforms (1909): Introduced separate electorates and expanded legislative councils; no federal court.
(d) Government of India Act, 1919 (Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms): Introduced dyarchy in provinces but did not create a federal court.
Rise of Nationalism and Indian National Congress · Foundation of the INC (1885)

Q33. The first session of the Indian National Congress (INC) was held in 1885 in which city?

  1. (a) Calcutta
  2. (b) Madras
  3. (c) Delhi
  4. (d) Bombay (Mumbai)
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Bombay (Mumbai)

The correct answer is (d) Bombay (Mumbai).
The first session of the Indian National Congress was held on December 28-31, 1885 at Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College in Bombay (now Mumbai). It was founded by A.O. Hume, Dadabhai Naoroji, and Dinshaw Wacha. Womesh Chunder Bonnerjee served as the first president. The session had 72 delegates.
(a) Calcutta: The second INC session (1886) was held in Calcutta; not the first.
(b) Madras: The third INC session (1887) was held in Madras; not the first.
(c) Delhi: The INC has held sessions in Delhi but the historic inaugural session was in Bombay.

Economics (6)

Agriculture and Food Security · Agricultural policies and missions

Q34. In February 2025, the Government approved the implementation of the transportation component of the Market Intervention Scheme (MIS) for which crop?

  1. (a) Onion
  2. (b) Potato
  3. (c) Tomato
  4. (d) Garlic
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Tomato

The correct answer is (c) Tomato.
In February 2025, the Government of India approved the implementation of the transportation component of the Market Intervention Scheme (MIS) for Tomato. MIS is implemented for perishable horticultural commodities when there is a glut in production and prices fall below production cost. The transportation component helps move surplus tomatoes from producing regions to deficit areas.
(a) Onion: While onion frequently faces price volatility and government intervention, this specific February 2025 MIS transportation approval was for tomato.
(b) Potato: Not the crop for this specific MIS approval in February 2025.
(d) Garlic: Not the crop for this specific MIS approval in February 2025.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Global indices - publishers and methodology

Q35. Which international organization releases the Global Social Mobility Index that ranks countries based on equality of opportunity, access to education, healthcare, fair wages, and social advancement for their citizens?

  1. (a) UNDP
  2. (b) World Economic Forum
  3. (c) World Bank
  4. (d) OECD
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) World Economic Forum

The correct answer is (b) World Economic Forum.
The Global Social Mobility Index is published by the World Economic Forum (WEF). First released in 2020, it measures social mobility across five pillars: health, education, technology, work, and protection, to assess equality of opportunity and social advancement across countries.
(a) UNDP: Publishes the Human Development Index (HDI); not the Global Social Mobility Index.
(c) World Bank: Publishes the Human Capital Index and Doing Business Report; not the Global Social Mobility Index.
(d) OECD: Publishes economic and social reports but not specifically the Global Social Mobility Index.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Skill development and employment schemes

Q36. Pradhan Mantri Virasat Ka Samvardhan (PM VIKAS) was launched by converging how many earlier minority welfare schemes?

  1. (a) Three
  2. (b) Four
  3. (c) Five
  4. (d) Six
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Five

The correct answer is (c) Five.
PM VIKAS (Pradhan Mantri Virasat Ka Samvardhan), launched in 2023 by the Ministry of Minority Affairs, was created by converging five earlier schemes for minority communities: (1) Seekho aur Kamao, (2) USTTAD, (3) Hamari Dharohar , (4) Nai Manzil, and (5) Nai Roshni. It aims to develop traditional artisanal skills and leadership in minority communities.
(a) Three: Incorrect; PM VIKAS was formed by converging five schemes.
(b) Four: Incorrect; the actual number is five.
(d) Six: Incorrect; the actual number is five.
Inflation · Types of inflation (demand-pull, cost-push, stagflation)

Q37. In economics, what is the definition of 'inflation'?

  1. (a) A decrease in the price of goods
  2. (b) A general increase in the price of goods and services
  3. (c) A government's budget being in surplus
  4. (d) A period of high employment
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) A general increase in the price of goods and services

The correct answer is (b) A general increase in the price of goods and services.
Inflation is defined as the sustained, general increase in the price level of goods and services in an economy over a period of time. When inflation occurs, each unit of currency buys fewer goods and services, reducing purchasing power. It is measured by indices like CPI (Consumer Price Index) and WPI (Wholesale Price Index).
(a) A decrease in the price of goods: This describes deflation, which is the opposite of inflation.
(c) A government's budget being in surplus: A budget surplus occurs when revenue exceeds expenditure; this is a fiscal concept unrelated to inflation's definition.
(d) A period of high employment: High employment is a macroeconomic goal; while it can sometimes correlate with inflation, it is not the definition of inflation.
Agriculture and Food Security · Green Revolution and other agricultural revolutions

Q38. Who is popularly known as the 'Father of the Green Revolution' in India?

  1. (a) Verghese Kurien
  2. (b) M.S. Swaminathan
  3. (c) P.C. Mahalanobis
  4. (d) Homi Bhabha
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) M.S. Swaminathan

The correct answer is (b) M.S. Swaminathan.
Dr. M.S. Swaminathan (1925-2023) is widely known as the 'Father of the Green Revolution in India.' He played a pivotal role in India's Green Revolution of the 1960s by introducing high-yielding variety (HYV) seeds of wheat and rice, transforming India from a food-deficient country to a food-surplus nation. He received the World Food Prize, Padma Vibhushan, and the Ramon Magsaysay Award.
(a) Verghese Kurien: Known as the 'Father of the White Revolution' (Operation Flood / milk revolution); not the Green Revolution.
(c) P.C. Mahalanobis : Founder of ISI (Indian Statistical Institute) and key architect of India's Five-Year Plans; not associated with the Green Revolution.
(d) Homi Bhabha: Father of India's nuclear programme ; not associated with the Green Revolution.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q39. Which two major events disrupted the implementation of the 'Third Five-Year Plan' (1961-66)?

  1. (a) Economic reforms and bank nationalization
  2. (b) Indo-China War (1962) and Indo-Pak War (1965)
  3. (c) Green Revolution and White Revolution
  4. (d) A major famine and a cyclone
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Indo-China War (1962) and Indo-Pak War (1965)

The correct answer is (b) Indo-China War (1962) and Indo-Pak War (1965).
The Third Five-Year Plan (1961-66) aimed at self-sufficient and self-reliant growth but was severely disrupted by two wars: the Indo-China War (1962) and the Indo-Pak War (1965). These wars diverted resources to defense, caused economic hardship, and led to the depletion of foreign exchange reserves. This resulted in 'Plan Holidays' (1966-1969) instead of a Fourth Five-Year Plan.
(a) Economic reforms and bank nationalization: Bank nationalization occurred in 1969 (during Plan Holidays), after the Third Plan period.
(c) Green Revolution and White Revolution: These were developmental achievements that took place from the mid-1960s onwards; not disruptions to the Third Plan.
(d) A major famine and a cyclone: While India faced food shortages during this period, the primary disruptions cited were the two wars.

Ancient History (1)

Post-Mauryan Period · Sangam literature

Q40. Who composed the famous Tamil epic Cilappatikaram, one of the Five Great Epics of Tamil literature, narrating the story of love, honor, and justice?

  1. (a) Ilango Adigal
  2. (b) Thiruvalluvar
  3. (c) Kambar
  4. (d) Bharathidasan
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Ilango Adigal

The correct answer is (a) Ilango Adigal .
Cilappatikaram (The Tale of an Anklet ) is one of the Five Great Epics ( Aimperumkappiyangal ) of Tamil literature, composed by Ilango Adigal, a Chera prince who became a Jain monk. It narrates the story of Kannagi, who demands justice for her wrongly executed husband Kovalan from the Pandya king.
(b) Thiruvalluvar: Author of Thirukkural , a classic work on ethics, polity, and love; not the composer of Cilappatikaram.
(c) Kambar : Composed Kamba Ramayanam (Tamil version of Ramayana); not Cilappatikaram.
(d) Bharathidasan: A 20th-century Tamil poet known for his revolutionary poetry; not the ancient composer of Cilappatikaram.

Polity (4)

Amendments and Important Articles · Major constitutional amendments

Q41. Which Constitutional Amendment reduced the voting age for Indian citizens from 21 years to 18 years for elections to all democratic bodies?

  1. (a) 42nd
  2. (b) 44th
  3. (c) 52nd
  4. (d) 61st
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 61st

The correct answer is (d) 61st.
The 61st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1988 (effective from March 28, 1989) lowered the voting age in India from 21 years to 18 years for elections to Lok Sabha, State Legislative Assemblies, and all other democratic bodies. This enfranchised millions of young citizens .
(a) 42nd Amendment (1976): Called the 'Mini-Constitution'; added words 'Socialist' and 'Secular' to the Preamble; not related to voting age.
(b) 44th Amendment (1978): Restored fundamental rights diluted during Emergency; not related to voting age.
(c) 52nd Amendment (1985): Added the Tenth Schedule (anti-defection law); not related to voting age.
Judiciary · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q42. The 'National Green Tribunal' (NGT) was set up in 2010 to handle cases related to?

  1. (a) The stock market
  2. (b) Family disputes
  3. (c) Environmental protection and forests
  4. (d) Consumer rights
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Environmental protection and forests

The correct answer is (c) Environmental protection and forests.
The National Green Tribunal (NGT) was established under the National Green Tribunal Act, 2010 to provide a specialized forum for speedy disposal of cases relating to environmental protection, conservation of forests and other natural resources, enforcement of environmental laws, and compensation for damages caused to persons and property from environmental disasters.
(a) The stock market: SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) regulates the stock market; not the NGT.
(b) Family disputes: Family courts or civil courts handle family disputes; not the NGT.
(d) Consumer rights: Consumer forums/courts handle consumer rights cases; not the NGT.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q43. The new 'Telecommunications Act, 2023' empowers the government to take which specific action in the interest of national security?

  1. (a) Take over, manage, or suspend telecom services for national security
  2. (b) Provide free phones to all
  3. (c) Ban all foreign telecom companies
  4. (d) Set the price of all phone calls
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Take over, manage, or suspend telecom services for national security

The correct answer is (a) Take over, manage, or suspend telecom services for national security.
The Telecommunications Act, 2023 empowers the Central Government to take over, manage, or suspend the operation of any telecommunication network or service in the interest of national security, public safety, or in cases of emergencies. This is a key provision of the Act that replaced the Indian Telegraph Act, 1885.
(b) Provide free phones to all: Not a provision of the Telecommunications Act, 2023.
(c) Ban all foreign telecom companies: Not a provision; foreign companies can operate in India's telecom sector.
(d) Set the price of all phone calls: Tariff regulation is handled by TRAI (Telecom Regulatory Authority of India), not directly empowered as such under the 2023 Act.
Parliament · Sessions, adjournment, prorogation and dissolution

Q44. According to the Constitution, what is the maximum permissible gap between two sessions of Parliament to ensure regular legislative functioning?

  1. (a) 3 months
  2. (b) 4 months
  3. (c) 6 months
  4. (d) 12 months
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 6 months

The correct answer is (c) 6 months.
Article 85(1) of the Indian Constitution states that the President shall summon each House of Parliament at such intervals that the gap between the last sitting of one session and the first sitting of the next session shall not be more than six months. This ensures Parliament meets at least twice a year.
(a) 3 months: Not the constitutional provision; the maximum gap allowed is 6 months.
(b) 4 months: Not the constitutional provision.
(d) 12 months: A 12-month gap would mean Parliament could meet as infrequently as once a year, which contradicts the constitutional requirement.

Medieval History (3)

Mughal Empire · Shah Jahan

Q45. The 'Peacock Throne' (Takht- i - Taus ), a famous jeweled throne, was commissioned by which Mughal emperor?

  1. (a) Akbar
  2. (b) Jahangir
  3. (c) Shah Jahan
  4. (d) Aurangzeb
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Shah Jahan

The correct answer is (c) Shah Jahan.
The Peacock Throne (Takht-e- Taus ) was commissioned by Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan in the 17th century. It was an extraordinarily jeweled throne decorated with peacock figures inlaid with precious gems including diamonds, rubies, emeralds, and pearls. It was looted by Nadir Shah of Persia during his invasion of Delhi in 1739.
(a) Akbar: Known for the Fatehpur Sikri complex and tolerant reign; did not commission the Peacock Throne.
(b) Jahangir: Known for his love of art and nature; did not commission the Peacock Throne.
(d) Aurangzeb: The last great Mughal emperor; inherited the throne from Shah Jahan but did not commission the Peacock Throne.
Delhi Sultanate · Sayyid dynasty

Q46. Who founded the Sayyid Dynasty in Delhi?

  1. (a) Mubarak Shah
  2. (b) Khizr Khan
  3. (c) Ala- ud -din Alam Shah
  4. (d) Bahlul Lodi
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Khizr Khan

The correct answer is (b) Khizr Khan.
Khizr Khan (ruled 1414-1421) founded the Sayyid Dynasty — the fourth dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate. He was appointed by Timur (Tamerlane) as governor of Multan and Punjab, and later captured Delhi after the decline of the Tughluq dynasty. The Sayyids claimed descent from Prophet Muhammad (hence 'Sayyid').
(a) Mubarak Shah: The second ruler of the Sayyid Dynasty (1421-1434); not the founder.
(c) Ala- ud -din Alam Shah: The fourth and last ruler of the Sayyid Dynasty (1445-1451); not the founder.
(d) Bahlul Lodi: Founded the Lodi Dynasty (1451-1526) after the Sayyids; not the founder of the Sayyid Dynasty.
Mughal Empire · Babur and his battles

Q47. Who fought against Babur in the First Battle of Panipat in 1526?

  1. (a) Rana Sanga
  2. (b) Sikandar Lodi
  3. (c) Ibrahim Lodi
  4. (d) Sher Shah Suri
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ibrahim Lodi

The correct answer is (c) Ibrahim Lodi.
The First Battle of Panipat (April 21, 1526) was fought between Babur (founder of the Mughal Empire) and Ibrahim Lodi (the last ruler of the Delhi Sultanate). Babur's forces defeated and killed Ibrahim Lodi, establishing the Mughal Empire in India. Babur used superior tactics ( tulughma ) and artillery which overwhelmed Ibrahim Lodi's elephant-based army.
(a) Rana Sanga: The Rajput ruler who fought Babur in the Battle of Khanwa (1527); not the First Battle of Panipat.
(b) Sikandar Lodi: Was Ibrahim Lodi's father and previous Delhi Sultan; died in 1517, before the Battle of Panipat.
(d) Sher Shah Suri: Defeated Babur's son Humayun in the battles of Chausa (1539) and Kanauj (1540); not present at the First Battle of Panipat.

Physics (1)

Magnetism and Magnetic Effects of Current · Magnetic materials (dia, para, ferro)

Q48. Which of the following is an example of a paramagnetic material that is weakly attracted to an external magnetic field?

  1. (a) Iron
  2. (b) Aluminium
  3. (c) Lead
  4. (d) Copper
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Aluminium

The correct answer is (b) Aluminium .
Aluminium is a paramagnetic material — it has unpaired electrons that cause it to be weakly attracted to an external magnetic field. Paramagnetic materials have a small, positive magnetic susceptibility.
(a) Iron: Iron is a ferromagnetic material — it has strong, permanent magnetic properties and is strongly attracted to magnets. Not paramagnetic.
(c) Lead: Lead is a diamagnetic material — it is weakly repelled by magnetic fields, not attracted.
(d) Copper: Copper is also a diamagnetic material — it is weakly repelled by an external magnetic field.
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