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Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 6 January 2026 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 47 GK / GS questions asked in Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 on 6 January 2026 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Geography, Economics, Static GK, Current Affairs, Modern History, Ancient History.

📚 47 questions🗓️ 6 January 2026⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Geography (6) · Economics (5) · Static GK (16) · Current Affairs (6) · Modern History (4) · Ancient History (1) · Medieval History (4) · Physics (2) · Polity (3)

Geography (6)

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Location, extent and Standard Meridian

Q1. What is the standard meridian of India, used to determine Indian Standard Time (IST)?

  1. (a) 82°30' E
  2. (b) 80°30' E
  3. (c) 78°30' E
  4. (d) 84°30' E
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 82°30' E

The correct answer is (a) 82°30' E.
The standard meridian of India is 82°30' East longitude, which passes through Mirzapur (Uttar Pradesh). Indian Standard Time (IST) is UTC+5:30, which is 5 hours and 30 minutes ahead of Greenwich Mean Time (GMT). The meridian 82°30'E was chosen as it passes approximately through the center of India.
(b) 80°30' E: This is not the standard meridian of India; 80°E roughly passes through Chennai.
(c) 78°30' E: Not the standard meridian; this roughly passes through areas west of Chennai.
(d) 84°30' E: Not the standard meridian; this passes through parts of Odisha and Jharkhand.
Environment and Protected Areas · Tiger reserves and Project Tiger

Q2. India's 54th Tiger Reserve, ' Dholpur-Karauli ', has been notified in which state?

  1. (a) Madhya Pradesh
  2. (b) Rajasthan
  3. (c) Uttar Pradesh
  4. (d) Chhattisgarh
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Rajasthan

The correct answer is (b) Rajasthan.
Dholpur-Karauli was notified as India's 54th Tiger Reserve in Rajasthan. It covers the Dholpur and Karauli districts of eastern Rajasthan, along the Chambal River valley. The reserve provides a crucial wildlife corridor connecting the Ranthambore Tiger Reserve with other wildlife areas.
(a) Madhya Pradesh: Has several tiger reserves like Bandhavgarh, Pench, Kanha; Dholpur-Karauli is in Rajasthan.
(c) Uttar Pradesh: Has Dudhwa Tiger Reserve; Dholpur-Karauli is not in UP.
(d) Chhattisgarh: Has Indravati and Udanti-Sitanadi Tiger Reserves; Dholpur-Karauli is in Rajasthan.
Geography Miscellaneous · Nicknames of places

Q3. Which river is popularly known as the 'Dakshina Ganga' or 'Ganga of the South'?

  1. (a) Krishna
  2. (b) Mahanadi
  3. (c) Kaveri
  4. (d) Godavari
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Godavari

The correct answer is (d) Godavari.
The Godavari river (originating from Trimbakeshwar , Nashik, Maharashtra) is popularly known as the 'Dakshina Ganga' (Ganga of the South) due to its sacred significance and length. It is the second-longest river in India (about 1,465 km) flowing through Maharashtra, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh before meeting the Bay of Bengal.
(a) Krishna: Another major river of southern India; flows through Maharashtra, Karnataka, and Andhra Pradesh; not called Dakshina Ganga.
(b) Mahanadi: Flows through Chhattisgarh and Odisha; known as the 'Sorrow of Odisha'; not Dakshina Ganga.
(c) Kaveri: Sacred river of South India flowing through Karnataka and Tamil Nadu; also called 'Dakshina Ganga' in some references, but Godavari is the most commonly accepted and primary river with this epithet.
World Geography · Countries and international boundaries

Q4. Which of the following countries is landlocked, lacking any coastline or direct access to the sea?

  1. (a) Laos
  2. (b) Thailand
  3. (c) Vietnam
  4. (d) Cambodia
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Laos

The correct answer is (a) Laos.
Laos (Lao PDR) is a landlocked country in Southeast Asia, surrounded entirely by China (north), Vietnam (east), Cambodia (south), Thailand (west), and Myanmar (northwest). It has no access to the sea, making it one of the two landlocked countries in Southeast Asia (the other being Mongolia in East Asia).
(b) Thailand: Has an extensive coastline on the Gulf of Thailand (east) and the Andaman Sea (west via the Malay Peninsula); not landlocked.
(c) Vietnam: Has a long coastline along the South China Sea; not landlocked.
(d) Cambodia: Has a coastline on the Gulf of Thailand; not landlocked.
World Geography · Straits, canals, gulfs and seas

Q5. The Suez Canal is a vital waterway connecting the Mediterranean Sea with which other body of water, facilitating global maritime trade?

  1. (a) Red Sea
  2. (b) Black Sea
  3. (c) Caspian Sea
  4. (d) Dead Sea
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Red Sea

The correct answer is (a) Red Sea.
The Suez Canal (opened in 1869) is a man-made waterway in Egypt that connects the Mediterranean Sea (at Port Said) with the Red Sea (at Suez/Port Tewfik), providing a direct shipping route between Europe and Asia without circumnavigating Africa. It dramatically shortens the voyage between the Atlantic/Mediterranean and the Indian Ocean.
(b) Black Sea: Located north of Turkey and south of Ukraine/Russia; connected to the Mediterranean through the Bosphorus and Dardanelles straits; not connected by the Suez Canal.
(c) Caspian Sea: A landlocked sea/lake; it has no connection to any ocean; not linked to the Suez Canal.
(d) Dead Sea: A landlocked salt lake between Israel and Jordan; has no outlet to any ocean; not connected by the Suez Canal.
India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Soil types and distribution

Q6. Which type of soil is most suitable for cotton cultivation in India?

  1. (a) Alluvial soil
  2. (b) Black soil
  3. (c) Desert soil
  4. (d) Laterite soil
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Black soil

The correct answer is (b) Black soil.
Black soil (Regur soil / Black Cotton Soil) is the most suitable for cotton cultivation in India. It is found in the Deccan Plateau covering parts of Maharashtra, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, and Karnataka. Black soil has high clay content (montmorillonite), retains moisture well, is rich in calcium carbonate, and provides the ideal conditions for cotton — hence called 'Black Cotton Soil.'
(a) Alluvial soil: Rich and fertile for rice, wheat, sugarcane; while cotton can grow in some alluvial areas, black soil is most ideal.
(c) Desert soil: Found in Rajasthan; low in nutrients and moisture; not suitable for cotton.
(d) Laterite soil: Found in high rainfall areas; acidic, poor in nutrients; not ideal for cotton cultivation.

Economics (5)

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Global indices - publishers and methodology

Q7. Which variable is not part of the six main components of the World Happiness Report?

  1. (a) Social support
  2. (b) Life expectancy
  3. (c) Freedom to make life choices
  4. (d) Multidimensional poverty
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Multidimensional poverty

The correct answer is (d) Multidimensional poverty.
The World Happiness Report evaluates countries based on six key variables: (1) GDP per capita, (2) Social support, (3) Healthy life expectancy, (4) Freedom to make life choices, (5) Generosity, and (6) Perceptions of corruption. 'Multidimensional poverty' is NOT one of the six components — it is a measure used in other indices like the UNDP's Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI).
(a) Social support: IS one of the six components of the WHR.
(b) Life expectancy: 'Healthy life expectancy' IS one of the six components.
(c) Freedom to make life choices: IS one of the six components of the WHR.
Economics Miscellaneous · Economic terms and abbreviations

Q8. In the context of the startup ecosystem, what is the definition of a 'Unicorn'?

  1. (a) A company with 100 employees
  2. (b) A privately held startup valued at over $1 billion
  3. (c) A startup that makes a profit in the first year
  4. (d) A government-owned startup
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) A privately held startup valued at over $1 billion

The correct answer is (b) A privately held startup valued at over $1 billion.
A 'Unicorn' in the startup ecosystem refers to a privately held startup company with a valuation exceeding $1 billion (USD). The term was coined by venture capitalist Aileen Lee in 2013. India has one of the world's largest unicorn ecosystems (with companies like Flipkart, Ola, Paytm, Byju's , Zomato having achieved unicorn status).
(a) A company with 100 employees: The number of employees has no bearing on unicorn status; it is defined by valuation.
(c) A startup that makes a profit in the first year: Unicorn status is based on valuation (over $1 billion), not profitability; many unicorns are not immediately profitable.
(d) A government-owned startup: Unicorns are specifically PRIVATELY held companies; government ownership would disqualify them from being startups in the traditional sense.
Agriculture and Food Security · Green Revolution and other agricultural revolutions

Q9. In which Indian states was the 'Green Revolution' initially most successful?

  1. (a) Punjab and Haryana
  2. (b) Bihar and West Bengal
  3. (c) Kerala and Tamil Nadu
  4. (d) Gujarat and Maharashtra
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Punjab and Haryana

The correct answer is (a) Punjab and Haryana.
The Green Revolution (mid-1960s to late 1970s) was initially most successful in Punjab and Haryana. These states had flat, irrigated land, access to canal irrigation, enthusiastic farmers, and strong government support for High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds, fertilizers, and mechanization. Punjab became India's 'breadbasket' with record wheat and rice production.
(b) Bihar and West Bengal: Largely missed the initial Green Revolution benefits due to poor irrigation infrastructure and land fragmentation.
(c) Kerala and Tamil Nadu: Kerala has diverse agriculture; Tamil Nadu had some Green Revolution impact later; not the primary states of the initial Green Revolution.
(d) Gujarat and Maharashtra: Had some benefits in irrigated areas; but the Green Revolution's initial and most dramatic success was in Punjab and Haryana.
Agriculture and Food Security · Land reforms

Q10. What was the main objective of 'Land Reforms' in India after independence?

  1. (a) To promote large corporate farms
  2. (b) To abolish intermediaries (like Zamindars) and give land to the tiller
  3. (c) To sell land to foreign investors
  4. (d) To use all land for industrial use
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To abolish intermediaries (like Zamindars) and give land to the tiller

The correct answer is (b) To abolish intermediaries (like Zamindars) and give land to the tiller.
The primary objective of Land Reforms in post-independence India was the abolition of the zamindari and other intermediary systems, and redistributing land to actual cultivators ('land to the tiller' principle). Key measures included: Zamindari Abolition Acts (early 1950s), Land Ceiling Acts (limiting maximum landholding), tenancy reforms (protecting tenant rights), and consolidation of landholdings.
(a) To promote large corporate farms: The opposite was intended — land reforms aimed to distribute land to small farmers, not concentrate it in corporate hands.
(c) To sell land to foreign investors: Land reforms were directed at domestic redistribution to cultivators; selling to foreign investors was never the objective.
(d) To use all land for industrial use: Land reforms were focused on agricultural land redistribution for farming purposes, not industrial conversion.
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · ADB, AIIB, NDB and other banks

Q11. The headquarters of the New Development Bank (NDB), established by BRICS countries to support infrastructure and sustainable development projects, is located in which city?

  1. (a) Shanghai
  2. (b) Brasilia
  3. (c) New Delhi
  4. (d) Johannesburg
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Shanghai

The correct answer is (a) Shanghai.
The New Development Bank (NDB), also known as the BRICS Development Bank, has its headquarters in Shanghai, China. It was established in 2015 by the BRICS nations (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa) to fund infrastructure and sustainable development projects in BRICS and other emerging economies. The first President was K.V. Kamath from India.
(b) Brasilia: Capital of Brazil; a BRICS member, but not the location of NDB headquarters.
(c) New Delhi: Capital of India; a BRICS member, but not the NDB headquarters city.
(d) Johannesburg: South Africa's financial center; not the NDB headquarters city.

Static GK (16)

Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Tribal festivals

Q12. The Toda tribe's " Modhwidsh " festival revolves around the worship of which element?

  1. (a) Fire
  2. (b) Water
  3. (c) Stone
  4. (d) Sacred buffalo
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Sacred buffalo

The correct answer is (d) Sacred buffalo.
The Toda tribe, indigenous to the Nilgiri Hills of Tamil Nadu, centers much of their cultural, religious, and economic life around the sacred buffalo ( mili ). The Modhwidsh festival (also related to dairy rituals) is closely tied to their reverence for the buffalo. Toda priests ( palol ) conduct elaborate rituals at sacred dairy temples ( ti ) involving buffalo milk. The buffalo is considered divine among the Toda people.
(a) Fire: While fire is sacred in many cultures, it is not the primary focus of the Toda Modhwidsh festival.
(b) Water: Not the central element of this festival.
(c) Stone: Toda culture involves some stone structures for dairy temples, but stone is not the worship element of the Modhwidsh festival.
Awards and Honours · Nobel Prize and international awards

Q13. This Indian poet and author received the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1913 for Gitanjali, a collection of spiritual poems reflecting universal humanism. Who was he?

  1. (a) Rabindranath Tagore
  2. (b) R.K. Narayan
  3. (c) Mulk Raj Anand
  4. (d) Anita Desai
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Rabindranath Tagore

The correct answer is (a) Rabindranath Tagore.
Rabindranath Tagore (1861-1941) was awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1913 for Gitanjali (Song Offerings), a collection of 103 prose poems that reflect on the relationship between the human soul and the divine. He was the first non-European to win the Nobel Prize in Literature. He also wrote India's national anthem Jana Gana Mana.
(b) R.K. Narayan: A prominent Indian author writing in English, known for the Malgudi stories; never won the Nobel Prize.
(c) Mulk Raj Anand: Pioneer of Indian English literature known for Untouchable and Coolie; never won the Nobel Prize.
(d) Anita Desai: Renowned Indo-British author known for Clear Light of Day; three-time Booker Prize shortlistee ; never won the Nobel Prize.
Awards and Honours · Nobel Prize and international awards

Q14. Interpreter of Maladies, exploring the Indian diaspora experience, won the Pulitzer Prize in 2000. Who authored this acclaimed short story collection?

  1. (a) Jhumpa Lahiri
  2. (b) Arundhati Roy
  3. (c) Kiran Desai
  4. (d) Amitav Ghosh
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Jhumpa Lahiri

The correct answer is (a) Jhumpa Lahiri.
Jhumpa Lahiri, an Indian-American author, won the Pulitzer Prize for Fiction in 2000 for her debut short story collection Interpreter of Maladies (1999). The nine stories explore the lives of Indian and Indian-American characters navigating cultural dislocation, identity, and relationships.
(b) Arundhati Roy: Won the Booker Prize for The God of Small Things (1997); not the author of Interpreter of Maladies.
(c) Kiran Desai: Won the Booker Prize for The Inheritance of Loss (2006); not the author of Interpreter of Maladies.
(d) Amitav Ghosh: Acclaimed author of The Sea of Poppies trilogy and In an Antique Land; not the author of Interpreter of Maladies.
Sports · Number of players and field dimensions

Q15. A hockey match (FIH rules) consists of:

  1. (a) 2 halves of 35 minutes each
  2. (b) 4 quarters of 15 minutes each
  3. (c) 4 quarters of 12 minutes each
  4. (d) 2 halves of 30 minutes each
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 4 quarters of 15 minutes each

The correct answer is (b) 4 quarters of 15 minutes each.
According to FIH (International Hockey Federation) Rules of Hockey (revised 2015), a field hockey match consists of four quarters of 15 minutes each, with 2-minute breaks between quarters 1-2 and 3-4, and a 10-minute halftime interval between quarters 2-3. Total playing time is 60 minutes.
(a) 2 halves of 35 minutes each: The old format (pre-2015) was 2 halves of 35 minutes each (70 minutes total); this was changed to 4 quarters in 2015.
(c) 4 quarters of 12 minutes each: Not the FIH standard; 15-minute quarters are the rule.
(d) 2 halves of 30 minutes each: Not the FIH standard; the current format is four 15-minute quarters.
Sports · Number of players and field dimensions

Q16. The duration of a kabaddi match in senior men's competitions is:

  1. (a) 2 × 15 minutes (no break)
  2. (b) 2 × 20 minutes (5 min break)
  3. (c) 2 × 20 minutes (no break)
  4. (d) 3 × 15 minutes
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 2 × 20 minutes (5 min break)

The correct answer is (b) 2 × 20 minutes (5 min break).
In senior men's kabaddi competitions, as per the rules of the Amateur Kabaddi Federation of India (AKFI) and Kabaddi World Cup, a match consists of two halves of 20 minutes each with a 5-minute break at halftime. Total playing time is 40 minutes plus the 5-minute interval.
(a) 2 × 15 minutes (no break): This is the format for junior men's and women's competitions; not senior men's.
(c) 2 × 20 minutes (no break): The halves are correct (20 minutes each) but there IS a 5-minute break at halftime.
(d) 3 × 15 minutes: Kabaddi matches are played in two halves, not three periods.
Awards and Honours · Bharat Ratna

Q17. Which prestigious civilian award was conferred upon M. Visvesvaraya in 1955?

  1. (a) Bharat Ratna
  2. (b) Padma Vibhushan
  3. (c) Padma Bhushan
  4. (d) Padma Shri
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Bharat Ratna

The correct answer is (a) Bharat Ratna.
Sir Mokshagundam Visvesvaraya (1860-1962), the renowned engineer and statesman of Karnataka, was awarded the Bharat Ratna — India's highest civilian honor — in 1955. He is known for designing the flood protection system for Hyderabad and the Krishna Raja Sagara dam. His birthday, September 15, is celebrated as Engineers' Day in India.
(b) Padma Vibhushan: India's second-highest civilian honor; while distinguished, it is lower than Bharat Ratna, which was what Visvesvaraya received.
(c) Padma Bhushan: India's third-highest civilian honor; not the award given to Visvesvaraya in 1955.
(d) Padma Shri: India's fourth-highest civilian honor; significantly lower than the Bharat Ratna awarded to Visvesvaraya.
Space, Defence and Technology · Science and technology missions and schemes

Q18. According to the 2025 update of the INSPIRE Faculty Fellowship, what is the consolidated monthly emolument awarded to each selected fellow for the full five-year tenure?

  1. (a) ₹1,00,000
  2. (b) ₹1,10,000
  3. (c) ₹1,25,000
  4. (d) ₹1,50,000
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) ₹1,25,000

The correct answer is (c) ₹1,25,000.
As per the 2025 update of the INSPIRE Faculty Fellowship (Innovation in Science Pursuit for Inspired Research) by the Department of Science and Technology (DST), the consolidated monthly emolument for each selected fellow is ₹1,25,000 for the full five-year tenure. INSPIRE Faculty Fellowship supports young researchers in developing independent research programs in India.
(a) ₹1,00,000: Not the updated 2025 consolidated monthly emolument for INSPIRE Faculty Fellowship.
(b) ₹1,10,000: Not the updated 2025 amount; the correct figure is ₹1,25,000.
(d) ₹1,50,000: Higher than the specified amount; not the 2025 consolidated monthly emolument.
Music and Musical Instruments · Musicians and singers

Q19. Pandit Ravi Shankar, renowned globally for his performances and compositions, was primarily associated with which Indian classical musical instrument?

  1. (a) Tabla
  2. (b) Sitar
  3. (c) Sarod
  4. (d) Santoor
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Sitar

The correct answer is (b) Sitar.
Pandit Ravi Shankar (1920-2012) was one of the greatest musicians of the 20th century and is most renowned for his mastery of the Sitar. He brought Indian classical music to global audiences through collaborations with George Harrison of The Beatles, concerts at Woodstock and Monterey Pop Festival, and his founding of Kinnara School of Music.
(a) Tabla : A percussion instrument; played by tabla maestros like Zakir Hussain; not the instrument associated with Ravi Shankar.
(c) Sarod: A stringed instrument associated with Ustad Ali Akbar Khan and Amjad Ali Khan; not Ravi Shankar's instrument.
(d) Santoor: A hammered dulcimer from Kashmir, associated with Pandit Shiv Kumar Sharma; not Ravi Shankar's primary instrument.
Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q20. Which dance is considered the "graceful feminine dance" of Kerala, known for gentle movements, subtle expressions, and slow, rhythmic steps?

  1. (a) Mohiniyattam
  2. (b) Bharatanatyam
  3. (c) Kathakali
  4. (d) Kuchipudi
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Mohiniyattam

The correct answer is (a) Mohiniyattam .
Mohiniyattam (Dance of the Enchantress/Mohini) is a classical dance form of Kerala characterized by graceful, gentle movements, soft expressions, and slow rhythmic steps. It is performed exclusively by women, wearing white and gold costumes, depicting themes from Hindu mythology especially relating to Mohini (the female avatar of Vishnu). It is one of the eight classical dance forms of India.
(b) Bharatanatyam: A classical dance from Tamil Nadu; more vigorous and angular in style; not specifically known as Kerala's graceful feminine dance.
(c) Kathakali: A classical dance-drama of Kerala known for elaborate colorful costumes, large face masks, and highly dramatic, vigorous movements; traditionally performed by men; opposite of 'graceful feminine.'
(d) Kuchipudi: A classical dance from Andhra Pradesh; more vigorous with distinctive features like dancing on the rim of a brass plate; not Kerala's graceful feminine dance.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q21. The Onam festival in Kerala celebrates the annual visit of which benevolent king, marking harvest season with floral decorations, boat races, and cultural programs across the state?

  1. (a) King Mahabali
  2. (b) King Ashoka
  3. (c) King Chera
  4. (d) King Vikramaditya
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) King Mahabali

The correct answer is (a) King Mahabali.
Onam is Kerala's most important harvest festival celebrated to welcome the annual visit of the mythical King Mahabali ( Maveli ), a benevolent Asura king who ruled Kerala during a golden age of prosperity and equality. According to legend, Lord Vishnu (in the Vamana avatar) sent Mahabali to the netherworld but granted him permission to visit his beloved subjects once a year — celebrated as Onam ( Thiruvonam ).
(b) King Ashoka: The Mauryan Emperor known for his conversion to Buddhism; not associated with Onam.
(c) King Chera: The Chera dynasty ruled parts of Kerala in ancient times; not the king whose visit is celebrated at Onam.
(d) King Vikramaditya: A legendary emperor associated with northern India; not connected to the Onam festival in Kerala.
Sports · Other sports and tournaments (tennis, chess, badminton, etc.)

Q22. The 2023 Senior National Basketball Championship for men provided a competitive platform. In which city was this championship held?

  1. (a) Ludhiana
  2. (b) Jalandhar
  3. (c) Amritsar
  4. (d) Patiala
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Ludhiana

The correct answer is (a) Ludhiana.
The 2023 Senior National Basketball Championship for men was held in Ludhiana, Punjab. Ludhiana is a major sports hub in Punjab and has hosted several national-level sporting events.
(b) Jalandhar: Another Punjab city known for sports goods manufacturing; was not the venue for this championship.
(c) Amritsar: The holy city of the Sikhs; not the venue for the 2023 Senior National Basketball Championship.
(d) Patiala: Home to the National Institute of Sports (NIS); a major sports city but not the host of this particular championship.
Music and Musical Instruments · Hindustani music (ragas, gharanas)

Q23. Raga Jaunpuri in Hindustani classical music is derived from which thaat , often performed in late morning sessions and conveying gentle, devotional moods?

  1. (a) Bilawal
  2. (b) Kafi
  3. (c) Asavari
  4. (d) Bhairav
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Asavari

The correct answer is (c) Asavari.
Raga Jaunpuri is derived from the Asavari Thaat (parent scale) in Hindustani classical music. Like the Asavari Thaat , it uses the Komal (flat) Ga, Dha, and Ni. Raga Jaunpuri is performed during late morning hours (approximately 9 AM to noon) and conveys a mood of gentle pathos and devotion ( karunak ). It is named after the city of Jaunpur in Uttar Pradesh.
(a) Bilawal Thaat : The parent scale of ragas like Bilawal and Alhaiya Bilawal; uses all shuddha (natural) notes; Jaunpuri is not from this thaat .
(b) Kafi Thaat : Uses Komal Ga and Ni; parent of ragas like Kafi, Bageshri, Bhimpalasi ; Jaunpuri belongs to Asavari, not Kafi.
(d) Bhairav Thaat : Uses Komal Re and Dha; parent of early morning ragas; Jaunpuri belongs to Asavari, not Bhairav.
Sports · Cricket

Q24. In T20 cricket, which tie-break method was replaced by the Super Over format to determine the winner of a match?

  1. (a) Replay match
  2. (b) Bowl-out
  3. (c) Golden ball
  4. (d) Boundary count rule
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Bowl-out

The correct answer is (b) Bowl-out.
The Bowl-out was the original tie-breaking method in limited-overs cricket where five players from each side would bowl at an unguarded wicket, and the team with more hits would win. The Super Over (also called One Over Eliminator) replaced the bowl-out method in T20 International cricket, introduced to provide a more exciting and fair tie-breaking mechanism.
(a) Replay match: Playing the entire match again is not a standard tie-breaking mechanism; not what Super Over replaced.
(c) Golden ball: Not a recognized cricket tie-breaking method; this term is used in some football formats.
(d) Boundary count rule: A secondary tie-breaker in some knockout matches when Super Overs are also tied; it was not the primary method replaced by Super Over.
Sports · Sports terminology

Q25. Which sport uses a device called a "cue" to strike balls, requiring precision and control to score points during competition?

  1. (a) Squash
  2. (b) Snooker
  3. (c) Fencing
  4. (d) Baseball
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Snooker

The correct answer is (b) Snooker.
Snooker is a cue sport played on a large baize-covered table, where players use a long tapered cue stick to strike a white cue ball to pot colored balls into pockets. The sport requires extreme precision, positional play, and tactical control. India's Pankaj Advani is a noted snooker player.
(a) Squash: Uses a racket (not a cue) to strike a rubber ball against walls in an enclosed court.
(c) Fencing: A combat sport using a sword/foil/epee/saber; no cue is involved.
(d) Baseball: Uses a bat to strike a ball thrown by a pitcher; no cue is involved.
Sports · Olympic Games

Q26. In which year was the International Olympic Committee (IOC) founded by Pierre de Coubertin to revive the Olympic Games and establish global governance for sports?

  1. (a) 1894
  2. (b) 1900
  3. (c) 1896
  4. (d) 1904
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1894

The correct answer is (a) 1894.
The International Olympic Committee (IOC) was founded on June 23, 1894, at the Sorbonne Congress in Paris, France, by Pierre de Coubertin. The IOC was established to revive the ancient Olympic Games and create an international body to govern them. The first modern Olympic Games were held in Athens, Greece, in 1896 — two years after the IOC was founded.
(b) 1900: The year of the second modern Olympic Games (Paris); not the IOC founding year.
(c) 1896: The year of the first modern Olympic Games (Athens); not the IOC founding year (which was 1894).
(d) 1904: The year of the third modern Olympic Games (St. Louis); not the IOC founding year.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q27. Which Indian author wrote The Hungry Tide, a novel focusing on the Sundarbans' ecology, human struggles, and the interaction between nature and local communities?

  1. (a) Amitav Ghosh
  2. (b) Aravind Adiga
  3. (c) Salman Rushdie
  4. (d) Vikram Seth
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Amitav Ghosh

The correct answer is (a) Amitav Ghosh.
Amitav Ghosh wrote The Hungry Tide (2004), a novel set in the Sundarbans delta region of West Bengal and Bangladesh. The novel explores the fragile ecology of the mangrove forests, the conflict between wildlife conservation and the rights of local communities, and the interaction between an urban researcher and a local fisherman-interpreter.
(b) Aravind Adiga: Author of The White Tiger (2008 Booker Prize winner); not the author of The Hungry Tide.
(c) Salman Rushdie: Author of Midnight's Children and The Satanic Verses; not the author of The Hungry Tide.
(d) Vikram Seth: Author of A Suitable Boy and The Golden Gate; not the author of The Hungry Tide.

Current Affairs (6)

Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q28. Who was appointed as Secretary of the Ministry of Civil Aviation on 18 August 2025?

  1. (a) Samir Kumar Sinha
  2. (b) Rajiv Gauba
  3. (c) Ashim Kumar Ghosh
  4. (d) Ajay Kumar Bhalla
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Samir Kumar Sinha

The correct answer is (a) Samir Kumar Sinha.
Samir Kumar Sinha (IAS officer) was appointed as Secretary of the Ministry of Civil Aviation on 18 August 2025. The Ministry of Civil Aviation oversees the development and regulation of civil aviation in India, including the operations of the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) and airport development.
(b) Rajiv Gauba: Served as Cabinet Secretary of India (2019-2024); not the Civil Aviation Secretary appointed on this date.
(c) Ashim Kumar Ghosh: Not the person appointed as Civil Aviation Secretary on 18 August 2025.
(d) Ajay Kumar Bhalla: Served as Union Home Secretary; not the Civil Aviation Secretary.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · New government schemes and missions

Q29. In February 2025, the Government approved development of tribal homestays under which tourism scheme?

  1. (a) Incredible India 2.0
  2. (b) PRASHAD Scheme
  3. (c) Swadesh Darshan Scheme
  4. (d) Dekho Apna Desh
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Swadesh Darshan Scheme

The correct answer is (c) Swadesh Darshan Scheme.
In February 2025, the Government of India approved the development of tribal homestays under the Swadesh Darshan Scheme (Swadesh Darshan 2.0), which promotes thematic tourism circuits in India. The scheme supports tribal tourism by developing tribal village circuits and homestays to boost community-based tourism and provide livelihood opportunities to tribal communities.
(a) Incredible India 2.0: A branding and marketing campaign by the Ministry of Tourism; not specifically for tribal homestay development.
(b) PRASHAD Scheme: Pilgrimage Rejuvenation and Spiritual, Heritage Augmentation Drive; focuses on development of pilgrimage sites; not tribal homestays.
(d) Dekho Apna Desh: An initiative to encourage Indian citizens to explore their own country; a promotional initiative, not a development scheme for tribal homestays.
State News · State schemes and events

Q30. Which district in Odisha was declared child marriage-free on 3rd January 2022 due to initiatives like "Nirbhaya Kadhi" and "Mo Gelha Jhia"?

  1. (a) Keonjhar
  2. (b) Deogarh
  3. (c) Dhenkanal
  4. (d) Ganjam
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Ganjam

The correct answer is (d) Ganjam.
Ganjam district in Odisha was declared child marriage-free on January 3, 2022, owing to successful community-driven initiatives like 'Nirbhaya Kadhi' (fearless girl child) and 'Mo Gelha Jhia' (my daughter-in-law's daughter). The district administration, NGOs, and community leaders worked together to prevent child marriages and promote girls' education and rights.
(a) Keonjhar : An Odisha district known for mining; not declared child marriage-free under these specific initiatives.
(b) Deogarh: A smaller Odisha district; not associated with this specific announcement.
(c) Dhenkanal: An Odisha district; not declared child marriage-free under these initiatives.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · New government schemes and missions

Q31. As per the March 2025 update, the Vigyan Dhara scheme came into effect on 16th January 2025 following the merger of how many umbrella schemes of the Department of Science and Technology?

  1. (a) Two
  2. (b) Three
  3. (c) Four
  4. (d) Five
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Three

The correct answer is (b) Three.
The Vigyan Dhara scheme was launched by the Department of Science and Technology (DST) on 16 January 2025, following the merger of three umbrella schemes: (1) INSPIRE (Innovation in Science Pursuit for Inspired Research), (2) SERB (Science and Engineering Research Board) programs, and (3) National Science and Technology Entrepreneurship Development Board (NSTEDB) programs. This consolidation aimed to streamline DST's research and innovation funding.
(a) Two: Only two schemes were not merged; Vigyan Dhara merged three DST umbrella schemes.
(c) Four: Not the correct number; three schemes were merged into Vigyan Dhara.
(d) Five: Not the correct number; the merger involved three schemes.
Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q32. Who has been appointed as the 9th Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission recently?

  1. (a) S.P. Kurdukar
  2. (b) V. Ramasubramanian
  3. (c) Ramkrishna Gavai
  4. (d) Kuldip Singh
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) V. Ramasubramanian

The correct answer is (b) V. Ramasubramanian.
Justice V. Ramasubramanian (former Judge of the Supreme Court of India) was appointed as the 9th Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) of India. The NHRC was established in 1993 under the Protection of Human Rights Act and is mandated to protect and promote human rights in India.
(a) S.P. Kurdukar : Not the 9th NHRC Chairperson.
(c) Ramkrishna Gavai: Chief Justice of India (appointed 2024); not the NHRC Chairperson.
(d) Kuldip Singh: Not the 9th NHRC Chairperson.
Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q33. Who has been appointed as the Chairperson of the 23rd Law Commission of India in April 2025?

  1. (a) Mukundakam Sharma
  2. (b) Dinesh Maheshwari
  3. (c) Jatindra Prasad Das
  4. (d) Hrishikesh Roy
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Dinesh Maheshwari

The correct answer is (b) Dinesh Maheshwari.
Justice Dinesh Maheshwari (former Judge of the Supreme Court of India) was appointed as the Chairperson of the 23rd Law Commission of India in April 2025. The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory body established by the Government of India to carry out research and make recommendations for legal reforms.
(a) Mukundakam Sharma: Former Supreme Court Judge who chaired the 22nd Law Commission of India; not the 23rd Commission chair.
(c) Jatindra Prasad Das: Not associated with this appointment.
(d) Hrishikesh Roy: Retired Supreme Court Judge; not appointed as 23rd Law Commission Chairperson.

Modern History (4)

Rise of Nationalism and Indian National Congress · Surat Split

Q34. In which year did the Indian National Congress split after witnessing a sharp ideological division between the Extremists and the Moderates?

  1. (a) 1905
  2. (b) 1907
  3. (c) 1919
  4. (d) 1920
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1907

The correct answer is (b) 1907.
The Indian National Congress split into two factions — the Extremists (led by Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Bipin Chandra Pal, and Lala Lajpat Rai) and the Moderates (led by Gopal Krishna Gokhale) — at the Surat Session of 1907. The split occurred primarily over the issues of Swadeshi, boycott, national education, and self-government (Swaraj), as well as the extension of the boycott movement beyond Bengal.
(a) 1905: The partition of Bengal occurred in 1905, which triggered the Swadeshi Movement; the INC split came later in 1907.
(c) 1919: The INC adopted the non-cooperation movement in 1919-1920; not the year of the Extremist-Moderate split.
(d) 1920: The Congress adopted Gandhi's Non-Cooperation Movement; not the Extremist-Moderate split year.
Personalities, Newspapers, Books and Slogans · Slogans and their authors

Q35. Which of the following leaders, known for combining radical political agitation with mass mobilization, famously declared, "Swaraj is my birthright, and I shall have it," symbolizing the assertive demand for self-rule during the early 20th century?

  1. (a) Bipin Chandra Pal
  2. (b) Lala Lajpat Rai
  3. (c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
  4. (d) Subhas Chandra Bose
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

The correct answer is (c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak.
Bal Gangadhar Tilak (Lokmanya Tilak) famously declared 'Swaraj is my birthright, and I shall have it' ( Swarajya maza janmasiddha hak aahe , ani to mee milavnarach ). He was the leader of the Extremist faction of the INC and was known for his radical political views, mass mobilization (through Ganesh Chaturthi and Shivaji festivals), and assertive demand for self-rule.
(a) Bipin Chandra Pal: A prominent Extremist leader, part of the Lal-Bal-Pal trio; known for promoting radical nationalism, but not the one who made this specific declaration.
(b) Lala Lajpat Rai: The 'Lion of Punjab'; another member of the Lal-Bal-Pal trio; known for his opposition to the Simon Commission (1928); did not make this specific declaration.
(d) Subhas Chandra Bose: Known for 'Give me blood and I will give you freedom'; a later leader; not associated with this declaration.
Personalities, Newspapers, Books and Slogans · Books and authors of the modern period

Q36. Who authored the three-part autobiography My Experiments with Truth, detailing his life, philosophy, and experiences with nonviolence and social reform?

  1. (a) Mahatma Gandhi
  2. (b) Rajendra Prasad
  3. (c) Jawaharlal Nehru
  4. (d) Maulana Azad
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Mahatma Gandhi

The correct answer is (a) Mahatma Gandhi.
Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi (Mahatma Gandhi) wrote My Experiments with Truth (An Autobiography), originally published in Gujarati as 'Satya na Prayogo athva Atmakatha ' between 1925-1929. The autobiography covers his life from childhood in Porbandar to 1921, detailing his experiments with truth, brahmacharya, nonviolence, and his transformation into a national leader.
(b) Rajendra Prasad: Wrote Atmakatha (autobiography); did not write My Experiments with Truth.
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru: Wrote The Discovery of India and An Autobiography (Toward Freedom); not the author of My Experiments with Truth.
(d) Maulana Azad: Wrote India Wins Freedom; not the author of My Experiments with Truth.
Peasant, Tribal and Civil Uprisings · Moplah and Eka movements

Q37. In which region of India did the Moplah Rebellion (1921) take place?

  1. (a) Bengal
  2. (b) Punjab
  3. (c) Malabar
  4. (d) Awadh
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Malabar

The correct answer is (c) Malabar.
The Moplah Rebellion (Malabar Rebellion) of 1921 was an armed uprising by the Moplah (Mappila) Muslims in the Malabar region of Kerala (then part of Madras Presidency). It combined elements of the Khilafat movement and resistance to British and Hindu landlord exploitation. The rebellion started in August 1921 and was suppressed by British forces by early 1922, with significant casualties on both sides.
(a) Bengal: Famous for the partition of Bengal (1905) and the Naxalite movement; not the location of the 1921 Moplah Rebellion.
(b) Punjab: Associated with the Jallianwala Bagh massacre (1919) and Ghadar Movement; not the Moplah Rebellion location.
(d) Awadh: Associated with the Kisan Sabha movements in UP; not the location of the Moplah Rebellion.

Ancient History (1)

Ancient Art, Culture and Science · Cave architecture (Ajanta, Ellora, Elephanta, etc.)

Q38. The Ellora caves include temples representing which religious traditions in India, spanning the 6th to 10th centuries?

  1. (a) Buddhist only
  2. (b) Hindu only
  3. (c) Jain only
  4. (d) Buddhist, Hindu, and Jain
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Buddhist, Hindu, and Jain

The correct answer is (d) Buddhist, Hindu, and Jain.
The Ellora Caves (Maharashtra, UNESCO World Heritage Site) comprise 34 rock-cut cave temples representing three major Indian religions: Buddhist (Caves 1-12, approximately 5th-7th century), Hindu (Caves 13-29, 7th-9th century, including the famous Kailasa Temple — Cave 16), and Jain (Caves 30-34, 9th-11th century). This coexistence of three religious traditions makes Ellora unique.
(a) Buddhist only: Ellora does have Buddhist caves but also Hindu and Jain caves.
(b) Hindu only: While the Kailasa Temple is the most famous, Ellora also has Buddhist and Jain caves.
(c) Jain only: The Jain caves are the last of the three groups at Ellora; the complex also has Buddhist and Hindu caves.

Medieval History (4)

Mughal Empire · Mughal architecture

Q39. Which Mughal structure in Fatehpur Sikri served as the emperor's hall for public audience and court proceedings?

  1. (a) Diwan- i -Khas
  2. (b) Diwan- i -Aam
  3. (c) Panch Mahal
  4. (d) Buland Darwaza
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Diwan- i -Aam

The correct answer is (b) Diwan- i -Aam.
The Diwan- i -Aam (Hall of Public Audience) in Fatehpur Sikri was where Emperor Akbar held public court sessions, received petitions from commoners, and administered justice. It was an open-air pillared hall accessible to the general public.
(a) Diwan- i -Khas: The Hall of PRIVATE Audience — where the emperor met important dignitaries, ambassadors, and held confidential discussions; not open to the general public.
(c) Panch Mahal: A five- storeyed open pavilion at Fatehpur Sikri, used as a pleasure pavilion by the royal ladies; not the public audience hall.
(d) Buland Darwaza : The grand gateway at Fatehpur Sikri built by Akbar to commemorate his Gujarat victory; an entrance gate, not a hall.
Vijayanagara and Bahmani Kingdoms · Krishnadevaraya

Q40. Who is considered the most famous and powerful ruler of the Vijayanagara Empire?

  1. (a) Deva Raya I
  2. (b) Deva Raya II
  3. (c) Krishnadevaraya
  4. (d) Achyuta Deva Raya
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Krishnadevaraya

The correct answer is (c) Krishnadevaraya .
Krishnadevaraya (1509-1529 CE) of the Tuluva dynasty is widely regarded as the greatest ruler of the Vijayanagara Empire. During his reign, the empire reached its territorial and cultural zenith. He was a great patron of arts and literature (Telugu literature flourished with his court having Ashtadiggajas — eight great poets), a skilled military commander, and a devout Vaishnava.
(a) Deva Raya I: Ruled 1406-1422; expanded the empire and introduced Islamic cavalry; significant but overshadowed by Krishnadevaraya .
(b) Deva Raya II: Ruled 1424-1446; known as ' Gajabetegara ' (elephant hunter); made significant military and administrative contributions; not considered the greatest.
(d) Achyuta Deva Raya: Ruled 1529-1542, after Krishnadevaraya ; the empire began to weaken during his reign.
Vijayanagara and Bahmani Kingdoms · Battle of Talikota

Q41. Which great empire collapsed as a result of the Battle of Talikota in 1565?

  1. (a) Bahmani Kingdom
  2. (b) Vijayanagara Empire
  3. (c) Chola Empire
  4. (d) Mughal Empire
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Vijayanagara Empire

The correct answer is (b) Vijayanagara Empire.
The Battle of Talikota (January 23, 1565) was fought between the Vijayanagara Empire (under Rama Raya) and a coalition of four Deccan Sultanates (Bijapur, Ahmadnagar , Bidar, and Golconda). The Vijayanagara army was decisively defeated; Rama Raya was killed, and the capital Vijayanagara ( Hampi ) was sacked and destroyed. This marked the effective end of the Vijayanagara Empire's dominance.
(a) Bahmani Kingdom: Had already fragmented into five successor Deccan Sultanates before 1565; it FOUGHT AGAINST Vijayanagara in the Talikota coalition.
(c) Chola Empire: Had declined centuries earlier (by 13th century); not involved in the 1565 Battle of Talikota .
(d) Mughal Empire: Was in its consolidation phase in north India in 1565 under Akbar; not involved in the Talikota battle.
Mughal Empire · Humayun and Sher Shah Suri

Q42. The Grand Trunk Road (Sadak- i -Azam) built by Sher Shah Suri connected which two major regions?

  1. (a) Agra to Kabul
  2. (b) Delhi to Mumbai
  3. (c) Sonargaon to Peshawar
  4. (d) Agra to Gujarat
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Sonargaon to Peshawar

The correct answer is (c) Sonargaon to Peshawar.
The Grand Trunk Road (Sadak- i -Azam or Badshahi Sadak) built by Sher Shah Suri (1540-1545) ran approximately 2,500 km from Sonargaon (near present-day Dhaka, Bangladesh) in the east to Peshawar (now in Pakistan) in the northwest. It passed through Bengal, Bihar, UP, Delhi, and Punjab, connecting eastern and northwestern parts of the subcontinent.
(a) Agra to Kabul: Part of the Grand Trunk Road's route but not the full extent; Sonargaon-Peshawar is the complete historical route.
(b) Delhi to Mumbai: Mumbai (Bombay) was not on the Grand Trunk Road; the road ran east-west across northern India, not to the western coast.
(d) Agra to Gujarat: Not the Grand Trunk Road route; Gujarat is to the southwest and not connected by the GT Road.

Physics (2)

Physics Miscellaneous · Physicists and their discoveries

Q43. Which scientist proposed the Indian Calendar Reform Committee report, aiming to standardize Indian calendars and align them with scientific observations of solar and lunar cycles?

  1. (a) Meghnad Saha
  2. (b) Vikram Sarabhai
  3. (c) P.C. Mahalanobis
  4. (d) C.V. Raman
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Meghnad Saha

The correct answer is (a) Meghnad Saha.
Meghnad Saha (1893-1956), the eminent astrophysicist known for his Thermal Ionization Equation (Saha Ionization Equation), chaired the Indian Calendar Reform Committee (1952-1955). The committee proposed the National Calendar of India (Saka Calendar), adopted in 1957, which standardized the many regional calendars in India and aligned them with the Gregorian calendar.
(b) Vikram Sarabhai: Father of India's space program; established ISRO; not associated with the Calendar Reform Committee.
(c) P.C. Mahalanobis : Renowned statistician; founder of the Indian Statistical Institute; known for the Mahalanobis distance; not associated with calendar reform.
(d) C.V. Raman: Nobel laureate (1930) for discovery of the Raman Effect; worked in optics and spectroscopy; not associated with the Calendar Reform Committee.
Electricity · Resistance, resistivity and their factors

Q44. A wire of resistance R is stretched to double its original length. What is the new resistance of the wire, assuming uniform cross-section?

  1. (a) R/2
  2. (b) 2R
  3. (c) 4R
  4. (d) R
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 4R

The correct answer is (c) 4R.
When a wire is stretched to double its length, the volume remains constant:
Original: Length = L, Area = A, Resistance = R = ρL /A
New: Length = 2L. Since Volume = L×A = 2L×A', so A' = A/2
New Resistance = ρ(2L)/(A/2) = 4ρL/A = 4R
Alternatively: R ∝ L²/Volume, so if L doubles → R increases by 4 times.
(a) R/2: This would be the result if only the length changed without volume conservation.
(b) 2R: This is incorrect; doubling the length with volume conservation quadruples the resistance.
(d) R: The resistance doesn't stay the same when the dimensions change.

Polity (3)

Preamble, Features, Parts and Schedules · Preamble - amendment and judicial views

Q45. Which amendment added the terms "Socialist" and "Secular" to the Preamble, significantly expanding its ideological foundation during constitutional restructuring?

  1. (a) 24th
  2. (b) 31st
  3. (c) 42nd
  4. (d) 44th
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 42nd

The correct answer is (c) 42nd.
The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act (1976), enacted during the Emergency period under PM Indira Gandhi, is called the 'Mini Constitution' because of the extensive changes it made. It added the words 'Socialist', 'Secular', and 'Integrity' to the Preamble of the Constitution, making India a 'Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic' with 'Integrity' in national unity.
(a) 24th Amendment (1971): Affirmed Parliament's power to amend Fundamental Rights; did not add Socialist and Secular to the Preamble.
(b) 31st Amendment (1973): Increased the number of Lok Sabha seats; not related to Preamble changes.
(d) 44th Amendment (1978): Enacted by the Janata government to undo some 42nd Amendment changes; restored certain fundamental rights but did not remove Socialist and Secular from the Preamble.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q46. In which year was the 'Right to Education' (RTE) Act passed by the Indian Parliament?

  1. (a) 2005
  2. (b) 2009
  3. (c) 2012
  4. (d) 2015
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 2009

The correct answer is (b) 2009.
The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education Act (RTE Act) was passed by the Indian Parliament in August 2009. It came into force on April 1, 2010. The Act makes education a fundamental right for children aged 6-14 years, mandates free and compulsory education, requires 25% reservation for economically weaker sections in private schools, and sets norms for teacher qualifications.
(a) 2005: The year the Right to Information (RTI) Act was passed; not the RTE Act.
(c) 2012: The RTE Act was already in force by 2012; not the year of its passage.
(d) 2015: The Sustainable Development Goals were adopted in 2015; not the year RTE Act was passed.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q47. In which year was the 'Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act' enacted?

  1. (a) 2014
  2. (b) 2017
  3. (c) 2019
  4. (d) 2022
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 2019

The correct answer is (c) 2019.
The Transgender Persons (Protection of Rights) Act, 2019 was enacted by the Indian Parliament to provide rights and protections for transgender persons in India. It prohibits discrimination in education, employment, and healthcare, establishes a process for recognition of transgender identity, and provides for welfare measures. It received Presidential assent in December 2019.
(a) 2014: The year of the Supreme Court's landmark NALSA judgment recognizing transgender persons as the 'third gender'; the Act itself came in 2019.
(b) 2017: No specific transgender protection act was enacted in 2017 (a bill was introduced but not passed).
(d) 2022: The Act was already enacted in 2019 and was in force by 2022.
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