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Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 6 January 2026 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 49 GK / GS questions asked in Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 on 6 January 2026 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Polity, Geography, Current Affairs, Modern History, Economics, Physics.

📚 49 questions🗓️ 6 January 2026⏰ Shift 3
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Subjects: Polity (8) · Geography (6) · Current Affairs (2) · Modern History (6) · Economics (3) · Physics (1) · Ancient History (1) · Static GK (15) · Medieval History (3) · Biology (4)

Polity (8)

Elections, Parties and Representation · Election facts and firsts

Q1. To encourage higher voter turnout, the Election Commission of India (ECI) appointed cricket legend Sachin Tendulkar to what role for the 2024 elections?

  1. (a) Chief Election Commissioner
  2. (b) Brand Ambassador
  3. (c) National Icon
  4. (d) Security Advisor
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) National Icon

The correct answer is (c) National Icon.
The Election Commission of India appointed cricket legend Sachin Tendulkar as a 'National Icon' (not merely Brand Ambassador) to encourage higher voter turnout for the 2024 General Elections. National Icons are appointed by ECI to inspire citizens, especially youth, to participate in the democratic process.
(a) Chief Election Commissioner: A constitutional appointee heading the ECI; Sachin Tendulkar was appointed as a symbolic figure, not as CEC.
(b) Brand Ambassador: While the term is sometimes used loosely, ECI's formal designation for Sachin Tendulkar and other celebrities is 'National Icon,' which carries a specific mandate to promote voter awareness.
(d) Security Advisor: This is a completely different role related to security advisory; not applicable to Sachin Tendulkar's ECI appointment.
Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies · National Commission for Women, Minorities and other commissions

Q2. The Ministry of Minority Affairs implements schemes for the socio-economic empowerment of how many centrally notified minority communities?

  1. (a) Four
  2. (b) Five
  3. (c) Six
  4. (d) Eight
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Six

The correct answer is (c) Six.
The Ministry of Minority Affairs implements schemes for six centrally notified minority communities in India: (1) Muslims, (2) Christians, (3) Sikhs, (4) Buddhists, (5) Jains, and (6) Zoroastrians (Parsis). These communities were notified under the National Commission for Minorities Act, 1992.
(a) Four: Only four minority communities would exclude Jains and Zoroastrians; the correct number is six.
(b) Five: Only five would exclude one community; the actual number of notified minority communities is six.
(d) Eight: There are no eight centrally notified minority communities; the correct number is six.
Constitutional Development and Making · Constituent Assembly - formation and members

Q3. On which date did the Constituent Assembly of undivided India hold its first official meeting to begin drafting the Constitution?

  1. (a) Dec 9, 1946
  2. (b) Aug 9, 1946
  3. (c) July 9, 1946
  4. (d) Nov 26, 1949
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Dec 9, 1946

The correct answer is (a) Dec 9, 1946.
The Constituent Assembly of India held its first meeting on December 9, 1946, in the Constitution Hall (now Parliament House). Dr. Sachidananda Sinha was elected as the temporary Chairman. Dr. Rajendra Prasad was later elected as the permanent President of the Constituent Assembly.
(b) Aug 9, 1946: August 9 is associated with the Quit India Movement (1942); not the date of the Constituent Assembly's first meeting.
(c) July 9, 1946: Not associated with the Constituent Assembly's first meeting; the elections to the Constituent Assembly were held in July 1946, but the first meeting was in December 1946.
(d) Nov 26, 1949: This is Constitution Day (Samvidhan Divas) — the date when the Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution; not the date of the first meeting.
Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies · Election Commission of India

Q4. Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India, the head of the constitutional body responsible for supervising nationwide elections?

  1. (a) Prime minister
  2. (b) President
  3. (c) Governor
  4. (d) Speaker of Loksabha
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) President

The correct answer is (b) President.
The Chief Election Commissioner of India is appointed by the President of India under Article 324 of the Constitution. The Election Commission of India is an autonomous constitutional authority responsible for administering Union and State election processes.
(a) Prime minister: Under the Chief Election Commissioner and other Election Commissioners (Appointment, Conditions of Service and Term of Office) Act 2023, a Selection Committee recommends candidates (including the PM), but the formal appointment is made by the President.
(c) Governor: The Governor is appointed by the President and has no role in appointing the CEC.
(d) Speaker of Loksabha: The Speaker presides over Lok Sabha sessions and has no role in appointing constitutional authorities like the CEC.
Amendments and Important Articles · Major constitutional amendments

Q5. The 'Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam' (Women's Reservation Bill) also provides a 'quota-within-a-quota' for:

  1. (a) OBC women
  2. (b) Rural women
  3. (c) Urban women
  4. (d) SC/ST women
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) SC/ST women

The correct answer is (d) SC/ST women.
The Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam (Constitution 106th Amendment Act, 2023) provides 33% reservation for women in the Lok Sabha and State Legislative Assemblies. Within this 33% women's quota, there is a 'quota-within-a-quota' for SC (Scheduled Caste) and ST (Scheduled Tribe) women, proportional to their existing SC/ST reservations in those legislative bodies.
(a) OBC women: While OBC reservation for women was widely demanded and debated, the Act does NOT provide a specific quota-within-quota for OBC women; it was deliberately excluded.
(b) Rural women: No specific rural women's sub-quota was created within the 33% reservation.
(c) Urban women: No specific urban women's sub-quota was created within the 33% reservation.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q6. The 'Right to Education' (RTE) Act, 2009, makes education a fundamental right for children of which age group?

  1. (a) 3-6 years
  2. (b) 6-14 years
  3. (c) 5-15 years
  4. (d) 14-18 years
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 6-14 years

The correct answer is (b) 6-14 years.
The Right of Children to Free and Compulsory Education (RTE) Act, 2009 makes education a fundamental right under Article 21A of the Indian Constitution for children in the 6-14 years age group. All children in this age group are entitled to free and compulsory education in a neighbourhood school.
(a) 3-6 years: Pre-school/early childhood education for this age group is covered under the National Education Policy 2020 and ECCE programs; the RTE Act specifically covers 6-14 years.
(c) 5-15 years: Not the age range specified in the RTE Act; the Act covers 6-14 years.
(d) 14-18 years: Secondary education; this age group is not covered under the RTE Act, which ends at age 14.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q7. The 'Mental Healthcare Act' of 2017 is significant because it decriminalized:

  1. (a) Drinking alcohol
  2. (b) Jaywalking
  3. (c) Attempt to commit suicide
  4. (d) Begging
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Attempt to commit suicide

The correct answer is (c) Attempt to commit suicide.
The Mental Healthcare Act, 2017, which replaced the Mental Health Act, 1987, is significant because it decriminalized the attempt to commit suicide. Previously, Section 309 of the Indian Penal Code (IPC) made suicide attempt a criminal offense punishable with imprisonment. The Act presumed that a person attempting suicide is under severe mental stress and should receive care and treatment, not punishment.
(a) Drinking alcohol: Not related to the Mental Healthcare Act; regulation of alcohol varies by state laws.
(b) Jaywalking: Not related to the Mental Healthcare Act; jaywalking violations are traffic-related offenses.
(d) Begging: Decriminalization of begging has been the subject of separate court orders (like the Delhi HC ruling in 2018); not part of the Mental Healthcare Act, 2017.
Parliament · Parliamentary proceedings (Question Hour, Zero Hour, motions)

Q8. Which parliamentary period begins around noon, following the Question Hour, enabling members to raise urgent matters without prior notice?

  1. (a) Question hour
  2. (b) Debating hour
  3. (c) Zero hour
  4. (d) Complain hour
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Zero hour

The correct answer is (c) Zero hour.
Zero Hour is an informal parliamentary device in India that begins immediately after Question Hour (around noon). During Zero Hour, members of Parliament can raise urgent matters of public importance without any prior notice to the Chair or the government. It is unique to Indian parliamentary practice and is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure.
(a) Question hour: The first hour of a parliamentary sitting (11 AM to 12 noon) where members ask questions to ministers about their departments; this precedes Zero Hour, not the other way around.
(b) Debating hour: Not a formal parliamentary term in India; debates take place during various legislative sessions.
(d) Complain hour: Not a parliamentary term in India; 'Zero Hour' is the correct term for urgent matters raised without prior notice.

Geography (6)

India - Population and Census · Socio-Economic and Caste Census (SECC)

Q9. The 'Socio-Economic and Caste Census' (SECC) 2011 for rural areas was conducted by which Ministry?

  1. (a) Ministry of Home Affairs
  2. (b) Ministry of Rural Development
  3. (c) Ministry of Statistics
  4. (d) Ministry of Finance
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ministry of Rural Development

The correct answer is (b) Ministry of Rural Development.
The Socio-Economic and Caste Census (SECC) 2011 for rural areas was conducted by the Ministry of Rural Development, Government of India. It was the first comprehensive survey after Independence to simultaneously collect data on the socio-economic status and caste of Indian households, covering all rural and urban areas.
(a) Ministry of Home Affairs: Conducts the decennial Population Census; the SECC was separate and conducted by Ministry of Rural Development for rural areas.
(c) Ministry of Statistics: Conducts economic surveys and NSSO surveys; the SECC was not under its purview.
(d) Ministry of Finance: Not involved in conducting the SECC 2011.
India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Islands (Andaman & Nicobar, Lakshadweep)

Q10. Which island group is located in the Bay of Bengal?

  1. (a) Lakshadweep
  2. (b) Andaman and Nicobar
  3. (c) Malabar
  4. (d) Minicoy Island
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Andaman and Nicobar

The correct answer is (b) Andaman and Nicobar.
The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are a group of over 572 islands located in the Bay of Bengal, southeast of the Indian mainland. They form a Union Territory of India. Port Blair is the capital. The islands are strategically important for their location near the Strait of Malacca.
(a) Lakshadweep: A Union Territory consisting of coral islands located in the Arabian Sea (not the Bay of Bengal), about 200-440 km west of the Kerala coast.
(c) Malabar: Refers to the Malabar Coast on the southwestern coast of India (Kerala); not an island group in the Bay of Bengal.
(d) Minicoy Island: The southernmost island of the Lakshadweep group; located in the Arabian Sea, not the Bay of Bengal.
India - Drainage System · Water resources and water-body census

Q11. As per the first Water Body Census, what is the most common type of water body in India?

  1. (a) Tanks
  2. (b) Lakes
  3. (c) Ponds
  4. (d) Reservoirs
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ponds

The correct answer is (c) Ponds.
As per India's first Water Body Census (2018-19), released in 2020, ponds are the most common type of water body in India, accounting for approximately 59.5% (about 24.24 lakh out of 24.24 lakh total water bodies surveyed). West Bengal had the largest number of water bodies.
(a) Tanks: Tanks (man-made water storage) are significant but far fewer in number than ponds.
(b) Lakes: Lakes are natural water bodies but far fewer in number than ponds across India.
(d) Reservoirs: Reservoirs are large artificial water bodies; while important for water storage and power, they are far fewer in number than ponds.
India - Population and Census · Census - history and organisation

Q12. As per the 2011 Census, a person is classified as a 'Main Worker' if they have worked for how many days in the preceding year?

  1. (a) For 183 days or more
  2. (b) For 120 days
  3. (c) For less than 183 days
  4. (d) For at least 100 days
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) For 183 days or more

The correct answer is (a) For 183 days or more.
As per the 2011 Census of India, a person is classified as a 'Main Worker' if they have worked for 183 days (6 months) or more in the preceding year. Those who worked for fewer than 183 days are classified as 'Marginal Workers.' Non-workers are those who did not work at all during the reference period.
(b) For 120 days: 120 days is less than 183; a person working only 120 days would be classified as a Marginal Worker, not a Main Worker.
(c) For less than 183 days: This is the criteria for Marginal Workers, not Main Workers.
(d) For at least 100 days: 100 days is well below the 183-day threshold for Main Workers; MGNREGS guarantees 100 days of work, but that is a different context.
Universe and Solar System · Planets and their features

Q13. Which planet has the longest day in the Solar System, rotating very slowly with a single rotation taking approximately 243 Earth days?

  1. (a) Venus
  2. (b) Mercury
  3. (c) Jupiter
  4. (d) Mars
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Venus

The correct answer is (a) Venus.
Venus has the longest rotation period (sidereal day) of any planet in the Solar System — approximately 243 Earth days. Interestingly, a day on Venus (243 days) is actually longer than a year on Venus (about 225 Earth days). Additionally, Venus rotates in the opposite direction to most planets (retrograde rotation), so the Sun rises in the west and sets in the east.
(b) Mercury: While Mercury's solar day is very long (~176 Earth days), its sidereal rotation period (~59 Earth days) is shorter than Venus's 243 days; Venus has the longest rotation.
(c) Jupiter: Has the SHORTEST day of all planets — only about 10 hours; it rotates extremely fast.
(d) Mars: Mars has a day (sol) of about 24 hours 37 minutes — very similar to Earth's day; far shorter than Venus's day.
Universe and Solar System · The Sun

Q14. Which layer of the Sun is primarily responsible for the formation of sunspots, appearing as dark regions due to intense magnetic activity and cooler temperatures compared to surrounding areas?

  1. (a) Photosphere
  2. (b) Chromosphere
  3. (c) Corona
  4. (d) Core
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Photosphere

The correct answer is (a) Photosphere.
Sunspots form in the Photosphere — the visible surface of the Sun. They appear as dark regions because intense magnetic activity inhibits convection of hot plasma from below, resulting in localized areas that are cooler (about 3,500-4,500 K) compared to the surrounding photosphere (~5,500 K). This temperature difference makes them appear dark.
(b) Chromosphere: The layer above the Photosphere; features solar flares and prominences; sunspots originate in the Photosphere, not the Chromosphere.
(c) Corona: The outermost layer of the Sun extending millions of kilometers; extremely hot (1-3 million K) and visible during solar eclipses; sunspots do not originate in the Corona.
(d) Core: The innermost layer of the Sun where nuclear fusion occurs; sunspots are surface phenomena of the Photosphere, not the Core.

Current Affairs (2)

Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q15. Which person replaced M Rajeshwar Rao as Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India in September 2025?

  1. (a) Sanjay Malhotra
  2. (b) Shirish Chandra Murmu
  3. (c) Shaktikanta Das
  4. (d) Ashwani Lohani
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Shirish Chandra Murmu

The correct answer is (b) Shirish Chandra Murmu.
Shirish Chandra Murmu replaced M. Rajeshwar Rao as Deputy Governor of the Reserve Bank of India in September 2025. The RBI has multiple Deputy Governors who oversee different departments of the central bank.
(a) Sanjay Malhotra: Became the Governor (not Deputy Governor) of the RBI in December 2024, succeeding Shaktikanta Das.
(c) Shaktikanta Das: Served as RBI Governor from 2018 to December 2024; he is a former IAS officer and was never a Deputy Governor.
(d) Ashwani Lohani: A former IAS officer who served as Chairman of Indian Railways and Air India; not associated with this RBI appointment.
State News · State schemes and events

Q16. Which state or Union Territory (UT) government announced the 'Pujari Granthi Samman Yojna' to provide a monthly allowance to religious figures?

  1. (a) Punjab
  2. (b) Haryana
  3. (c) Delhi
  4. (d) Uttarakhand
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Delhi

The correct answer is (c) Delhi.
The Delhi government (under Aam Aadmi Party) announced the 'Pujari Granthi Samman Yojana' to provide a monthly financial allowance of ₹18,000 to Hindu temple priests (pujaris) and Sikh gurdwara granthis in Delhi. The scheme aimed to provide financial security to religious figures who serve communities but often lack regular income.
(a) Punjab: The Punjab government (also AAP) has its own welfare schemes but did not announce the Pujari Granthi Samman Yojana; this was a Delhi-specific scheme.
(b) Haryana: Has its own state welfare schemes; the Pujari Granthi Samman Yojana was not from Haryana.
(d) Uttarakhand: A BJP-governed state with different welfare priorities; the Pujari Granthi Samman Yojana was not announced here.

Modern History (6)

Swadeshi, Revolutionaries and Home Rule · Ghadar Party and revolutionaries abroad

Q17. The "Indian Sociologist", a revolutionary publication from London, was established by:

  1. (a) Shyamji Krishna Varma
  2. (b) Madame Cama
  3. (c) Savarkar
  4. (d) Lala Hardaya
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Shyamji Krishna Varma

The correct answer is (a) Shyamji Krishna Varma.
The Indian Sociologist was a revolutionary nationalist monthly journal published from London, established in January 1905 by Shyamji Krishna Varma (also spelled Shyamji Krishna Verma). He founded India House in London and used the journal to propagate revolutionary nationalism and advocate for Indian independence.
(b) Madame Cama: A revolutionary nationalist who co-founded the Paris India Society and helped publish Bande Mataram (from Geneva/Paris); did not establish the Indian Sociologist from London.
(c) Savarkar: Vinayak Damodar Savarkar was associated with Abhinav Bharat and India House; he was a contributor to India House's activities but did not establish the Indian Sociologist.
(d) Lala Hardaya: Lala Har Dayal founded the Ghadar Party in San Francisco (1913); not associated with establishing the Indian Sociologist.
Personalities, Newspapers, Books and Slogans · Freedom fighters and their titles

Q18. Which ideology did Ram Manohar Lohia strongly advocate in Indian politics?

  1. (a) Capitalism
  2. (b) Communism
  3. (c) Socialism
  4. (d) Liberalism
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Socialism

The correct answer is (c) Socialism.
Ram Manohar Lohia (1910-1967) was a prominent Indian socialist political leader who advocated democratic socialism in Indian politics. He was a leading figure in the Socialist Party of India, promoted the concept of 'Teesri Shakti' (Third Force) as an alternative to both capitalism and communism, and championed causes of social justice, women's rights, and the poor.
(a) Capitalism: Lohia strongly opposed capitalism, free-market economics, and economic inequality; it was not his ideology.
(b) Communism: While Lohia believed in socialism, he distinctly opposed Soviet-style communism and Marxist-Leninist ideology; he advocated a democratic, indigenous form of socialism.
(d) Liberalism: Classical liberalism emphasizes individual liberty and free markets; Lohia's focus was on collective social justice and economic equality through socialist means.
Socio-Religious Reform Movements · Reformers of South India

Q19. The social reformer who pioneered the "Self-Respect Movement" in Tamil society, promoting equality, rationalism, and anti-caste ideology, was:

  1. (a) Narayana Guru
  2. (b) E.V. Ramasamy Periyar
  3. (c) B.R. Ambedkar
  4. (d) K. Kelappan
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) E.V. Ramasamy Periyar

The correct answer is (b) E.V. Ramasamy Periyar.
E.V. Ramasamy Periyar (Periyar, 1879-1973) founded the Self-Respect Movement (Tamil: Suyamariyathai Iyakkam) in 1925 in Tamil Nadu. The movement aimed to eliminate caste discrimination, promote rationalism, advocate women's rights, and challenge Brahminical dominance in society.
(a) Narayana Guru: A great philosopher-saint from Kerala who worked against caste discrimination and promoted social equality through the motto 'One Caste, One Religion, One God'; his movement was in Kerala, not in Tamil society.
(c) B.R. Ambedkar: Led the Dalit rights movement across India and championed social justice; associated with the annihilation of caste movement but not specifically the Self-Respect Movement in Tamil society.
(d) K. Kelappan: A prominent freedom fighter from Kerala, associated with Vaikom Satyagraha; not the founder of the Self-Respect Movement.
Swadeshi, Revolutionaries and Home Rule · HRA, HSRA, Bhagat Singh and Kakori

Q20. The 'Kakori Conspiracy' (1925) was a train robbery near Lucknow, organized by which revolutionary group?

  1. (a) Anushilan Samiti
  2. (b) Ghadar Party
  3. (c) Hindustan Republican Association (HRA)
  4. (d) Jugantar
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Hindustan Republican Association (HRA)

The correct answer is (c) Hindustan Republican Association (HRA).
The Kakori Conspiracy (also called Kakori Case) of August 9, 1925, was organized by members of the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA), founded by Sachindra Nath Sanyal. The revolutionaries looted the British government treasury from a train at Kakori (near Lucknow) to fund revolutionary activities. Key participants included Ram Prasad Bismil, Ashfaqulla Khan, Chandrashekhar Azad, and others.
(a) Anushilan Samiti: A revolutionary organization based in Bengal; not directly responsible for the Kakori Conspiracy.
(b) Ghadar Party: A revolutionary organization founded in 1913 by Lala Har Dayal in San Francisco among Indian immigrants; not directly responsible for the Kakori Conspiracy.
(d) Jugantar: A revolutionary organization based in Bengal; not responsible for the Kakori Conspiracy.
Swadeshi, Revolutionaries and Home Rule · Partition of Bengal and Swadeshi Movement

Q21. The 'Partition of Bengal' (1905) was annulled (cancelled) in which year, following mass protests?

  1. (a) 1908
  2. (b) 1911
  3. (c) 1914
  4. (d) 1919
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1911

The correct answer is (b) 1911.
The Partition of Bengal, announced by Lord Curzon in October 1905, was annulled in December 1911 during the Delhi Durbar by King George V (under Viceroy Lord Hardinge), following sustained mass protests, the Swadeshi Movement, and Bengal boycott. On the same occasion, the capital of British India was moved from Calcutta to Delhi.
(a) 1908: The Swadeshi movement and anti-partition protests were still active; the partition was not annulled in 1908.
(c) 1914: This marks the beginning of World War I; the partition was already annulled in 1911.
(d) 1919: This is the year of the Rowlatt Act and Jallianwala Bagh massacre; not the year of Bengal partition's annulment.
Rise of Nationalism and Indian National Congress · Foundation of the INC (1885)

Q22. The Indian National Congress (INC) was founded in 1885 by which retired British civil servant?

  1. (a) Lord Dufferin
  2. (b) A.O. Hume
  3. (c) William Wedderburn
  4. (d) Lord Ripon
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) A.O. Hume

The correct answer is (b) A.O. Hume.
Allan Octavian Hume (1829-1912), a retired Indian Civil Service officer and ornithologist, founded the Indian National Congress in December 1885. The first session was held in Bombay, presided over by Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee. Hume believed that a political safety valve for Indian nationalism would be beneficial.
(a) Lord Dufferin: Was the Viceroy of India when INC was founded; he encouraged Hume's initiative but did not found the INC himself.
(c) William Wedderburn: Another retired ICS officer who was sympathetic to the Indian cause and later served as INC president (1889 and 1910); did not found the INC.
(d) Lord Ripon: Was Viceroy of India (1880-1884), known for the Ilbert Bill controversy and local self-government; not the founder of INC.

Economics (3)

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Education and research schemes

Q23. The student interaction programme under the PM YASASVI Scheme in January 2025 was addressed by which Union Minister?

  1. (a) Dharmendra Pradhan
  2. (b) Virendra Kumar
  3. (c) Annpurna Devi
  4. (d) Rajkumar Ranjan Singh
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Virendra Kumar

The correct answer is (b) Virendra Kumar.
The student interaction programme under the PM YASASVI (Young Achievers Scholarship Award Scheme for Vibrant India) Scheme in January 2025 was addressed by Virendra Kumar, the Union Minister for Social Justice and Empowerment. PM YASASVI is a scholarship scheme for students from OBC, EBC (Extremely Backward Classes), and DNT (De-notified, Nomadic, and Semi-Nomadic Tribes) categories.
(a) Dharmendra Pradhan: Served as Union Minister for Education; while involved in education schemes, PM YASASVI falls under Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
(c) Annpurna Devi: Served as Union Minister of State for Education; not the minister who addressed this programme.
(d) Rajkumar Ranjan Singh: Served as Minister of State for External Affairs and Education; not associated with PM YASASVI.
Money and Banking · Monetary policy tools (repo, reverse repo, CRR, SLR, MSF, bank rate)

Q24. What is the banking term for the portion of deposits that commercial banks must mandatorily keep with themselves in liquid assets (like gold or cash)?

  1. (a) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR)
  2. (b) Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)
  3. (c) Repo Rate
  4. (d) Reverse Repo Rate
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR)

The correct answer is (b) Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR).
Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) is the minimum percentage of deposits that banks must maintain WITH THEMSELVES in the form of liquid assets such as gold, government securities, or cash. It is mandated by the RBI under the Banking Regulation Act. SLR ensures bank solvency and restricts credit expansion.
(a) Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR): The percentage of deposits banks must keep AS CASH with the RBI (not with themselves); this is fundamentally different — CRR is kept with the central bank, not as the bank's own holdings.
(c) Repo Rate: The rate at which the RBI lends short-term funds to commercial banks; a monetary policy tool, not a deposit reserve requirement.
(d) Reverse Repo Rate: The rate at which the RBI borrows funds from commercial banks; again a monetary policy tool, not a deposit reserve requirement.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Housing, sanitation and rural development schemes

Q25. In the 'Swachh Bharat Mission', what does the term 'ODF' stand for?

  1. (a) Open Dustbin Free
  2. (b) Our Daily Food
  3. (c) Open Defecation Free
  4. (d) One District First
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Open Defecation Free

The correct answer is (c) Open Defecation Free.
ODF stands for Open Defecation Free in the context of the Swachh Bharat Mission (Clean India Mission), launched in 2014. The mission aimed to eliminate open defecation by constructing household and community toilets. On October 2, 2019, India declared itself ODF (Swachh Bharat Mission Phase-1 completion).
(a) Open Dustbin Free: This is not the correct expansion; ODF relates to defecation, not dustbins.
(b) Our Daily Food: A completely incorrect expansion with no relation to the Swachh Bharat Mission.
(d) One District First: Not the correct expansion; ODF under Swachh Bharat Mission specifically means Open Defecation Free.

Physics (1)

Gravitation · Satellites, orbital velocity and escape velocity

Q26. If a satellite in 700 km orbit completes 15 orbits/day, how many minutes per orbit?

  1. (a) 96 min
  2. (b) 95 min
  3. (c) 100 min
  4. (d) 105 min
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 96 min

The correct answer is (a) 96 min.
Calculation: 1 day = 24 hours = 24 × 60 = 1440 minutes
Number of orbits per day = 15
Time per orbit = 1440 ÷ 15 = 96 minutes
This is consistent with actual orbital data: satellites at approximately 700 km altitude (Low Earth Orbit) complete each orbit in about 96-98 minutes.
(b) 95 min: 15 × 95 = 1425 minutes, which is less than 1440 minutes/day — incorrect.
(c) 100 min: 15 × 100 = 1500 minutes, more than 1440 — incorrect.
(d) 105 min: 15 × 105 = 1575 minutes, more than 1440 — incorrect.

Ancient History (1)

Ancient Art, Culture and Science · Cave architecture (Ajanta, Ellora, Elephanta, etc.)

Q27. Which rock-cut cave temple in Maharashtra exemplifies a combination of Buddhist, Hindu, and Jain architecture carved into solid rock formations?

  1. (a) Ellora
  2. (b) Meenakshi Temple
  3. (c) Konark
  4. (d) Fatehpur Sikri
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Ellora

The correct answer is (a) Ellora.
The Ellora Caves in Maharashtra (near Aurangabad) are a UNESCO World Heritage Site comprising 34 rock-cut cave temples representing three religions: Buddhist caves (1-12), Hindu caves (13-29, including the famous Kailasa Temple — Cave 16), and Jain caves (30-34), all carved between the 6th and 11th centuries.
(b) Meenakshi Temple: A famous Dravidian-style Hindu temple in Madurai, Tamil Nadu; it is a freestanding structure, not a rock-cut cave temple.
(c) Konark: Famous for the Sun Temple in Odisha, a UNESCO World Heritage Site built in the 13th century; it is a structural temple, not a rock-cut cave, and represents only Hindu architecture.
(d) Fatehpur Sikri: A Mughal architectural complex in Uttar Pradesh built by Emperor Akbar; not a rock-cut cave temple.

Static GK (15)

Monuments and Heritage · Forts and palaces

Q28. Mughal forts, such as Agra Fort, are noted for which defining architectural feature emphasizing defensive strength and ceremonial grandeur?

  1. (a) Floating terraces
  2. (b) Massive bastions and gates
  3. (c) Dravidian gopurams
  4. (d) Curvilinear shikharas
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Massive bastions and gates

The correct answer is (b) Massive bastions and gates.
Mughal forts like Agra Fort, Red Fort (Delhi), and Lahore Fort are characterized by massive bastions (burj) and imposing gates (darwaza) built from red sandstone or marble. These massive defensive structures — thick walls, circular towers (bastions), and grand gateways — served both military (defensive) and ceremonial purposes.
(a) Floating terraces: Not a characteristic feature of Mughal forts; this is not a recognized architectural term for Mughal structures.
(c) Dravidian gopurams: Tall, ornate gateway towers of South Indian temple architecture (like Meenakshi Temple); not a feature of Mughal forts.
(d) Curvilinear shikharas: The tower/spire found in Nagara-style North Indian Hindu temples (like Khajuraho); not characteristic of Mughal forts.
Sports · Asian Games and Commonwealth Games

Q29. The first Commonwealth Games athletics events were held in which city (1930)?

  1. (a) Sydney
  2. (b) Hamilton
  3. (c) London
  4. (d) Toronto
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Hamilton

The correct answer is (b) Hamilton.
The first British Empire Games (now known as the Commonwealth Games) were held in Hamilton, Ontario, Canada, in August 1930. They featured 400 athletes from 11 nations competing in 6 sports including athletics, swimming, boxing, rowing, lawn bowls, and wrestling.
(a) Sydney: Sydney hosted the Commonwealth Games in 1938 (British Empire Games); not the first games in 1930.
(c) London: London has hosted the Commonwealth Games in 1934 and 2022; not the first games of 1930.
(d) Toronto: Toronto has never hosted the Commonwealth Games; the first games were in Hamilton, a different Ontario city.
National Symbols, Firsts and Superlatives · Largest, longest, highest, smallest - India

Q30. What is the name of India's longest cable-stayed bridge, inaugurated in 2024, connecting Okha and Beyt Dwarka in Gujarat?

  1. (a) Atal Setu
  2. (b) Sudarshan Setu
  3. (c) Bhupen Hazarika Setu
  4. (d) Pamban Bridge
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Sudarshan Setu

The correct answer is (b) Sudarshan Setu.
Sudarshan Setu (also called Sudama Setu) is India's longest cable-stayed bridge, inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in February 2024. It connects Okha on the mainland of Gujarat with Beyt Dwarka (Shankhodhara) island, spanning about 2.32 km. The bridge facilitates pilgrimage to the Dwarkadheesh temple on Beyt Dwarka island.
(a) Atal Setu: This is the Mumbai Trans Harbour Link, India's longest sea bridge (a causeway/viaduct, not a cable-stayed bridge); connects Mumbai with Navi Mumbai.
(c) Bhupen Hazarika Setu: India's longest river bridge (Dhola-Sadiya bridge) connecting Assam with Arunachal Pradesh over the Lohit river; not a cable-stayed bridge connecting Gujarat locations.
(d) Pamban Bridge: A rail bridge connecting Rameshwaram island to mainland Tamil Nadu; not the longest cable-stayed bridge.
Sports · Asian Games and Commonwealth Games

Q31. India won its first Commonwealth Games medal in javelin in which year?

  1. (a) 1958
  2. (b) 1970
  3. (c) 1978
  4. (d) 2018
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 2018

The correct answer is (d) 2018.
Neeraj Chopra won India's first-ever Commonwealth Games gold medal in javelin throw at the 2018 Gold Coast Commonwealth Games (Australia), with a throw of 86.47 metres. This historic achievement marked India's first medal in javelin at the CWG.
(a) 1958: India's participation in these early Commonwealth Games was limited; no javelin medal was won in 1958.
(b) 1970: India did not win a javelin medal at the 1970 Edinburgh Commonwealth Games.
(c) 1978: India did not win a javelin medal at the 1978 Edmonton Commonwealth Games; the first javelin medal came only in 2018.
Monuments and Heritage · Monuments - builders and locations

Q32. Who is credited with building the city of Chandigarh as its chief architect, designing its modernist layout under Nehru's vision for planned urban development?

  1. (a) Le Corbusier
  2. (b) Laurie Baker
  3. (c) Edward Lutyens
  4. (d) B.V. Doshi
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Le Corbusier

The correct answer is (a) Le Corbusier.
Le Corbusier (Charles-Édouard Jeanneret-Gris), a Swiss-French architect, was the chief architect of Chandigarh. He designed the master plan of Chandigarh and the Capitol Complex (including the Legislative Assembly, High Court, and Secretariat). The Capitol Complex is a UNESCO World Heritage Site. Nehru famously called Chandigarh a 'city unfettered by the past.'
(b) Laurie Baker: A British-Indian architect known for his low-cost housing and vernacular architecture, especially in Kerala; not associated with Chandigarh's design.
(c) Edward Lutyens: Designed New Delhi and the Presidential palace (Rashtrapati Bhavan) in the early 20th century; not associated with Chandigarh.
(d) B.V. Doshi: A renowned Indian architect and 2018 Pritzker Prize winner; he worked with Le Corbusier on Chandigarh but was not the chief architect.
Dances · Folk dances by state

Q33. "Rouf" is a folk dance originating from which Indian region, performed traditionally by women using rhythmic movements in circular formations?

  1. (a) Jammu & Kashmir
  2. (b) Himachal Pradesh
  3. (c) Punjab
  4. (d) Uttarakhand
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Jammu & Kashmir

The correct answer is (a) Jammu & Kashmir.
Rouf is a traditional folk dance of Kashmir (Jammu & Kashmir), performed exclusively by women in circular formations. It is especially performed during spring season and on festive occasions like Eid. Dancers wear colorful traditional Kashmiri attire and perform synchronized, graceful movements while singing traditional songs called 'wanawun.'
(b) Himachal Pradesh: Has its own folk dances like Nati (one of the world's largest folk dances); Rouf is not from Himachal Pradesh.
(c) Punjab: Has vibrant folk dances like Bhangra (men) and Giddha (women); Rouf is not from Punjab.
(d) Uttarakhand: Has folk dances like Langvir Nritya, Choliya, and Jhumailo; Rouf is not from Uttarakhand.
Books and Authors · International books and authors

Q34. Who authored A Bend in the River, a novel examining post-colonial Africa, identity, and social transformation in a newly independent nation's unstable political landscape?

  1. (a) V.S. Naipaul
  2. (b) Chinua Achebe
  3. (c) Ngugi wa Thiong'o
  4. (d) Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) V.S. Naipaul

The correct answer is (a) V.S. Naipaul.
A Bend in the River (1979) was written by V.S. Naipaul (Vidiadhar Surajprasad Naipaul), a Trinidadian-British writer of Indian descent who won the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2001. The novel depicts the disillusionment and disintegration of post-colonial Africa (loosely based on Zaire/Congo), following the protagonist Salim's experiences in a town at the bend of a great river.
(b) Chinua Achebe: Nigerian author of Things Fall Apart (1958) about colonialism's impact; did not write A Bend in the River.
(c) Ngugi wa Thiong'o: Kenyan author of A Grain of Wheat and Petals of Blood; did not write A Bend in the River.
(d) Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie: Nigerian author of Things Fall Apart (sequel Half of a Yellow Sun) and Americanah; not the author of A Bend in the River.
Awards and Honours · Nobel Prize and international awards

Q35. Which author won the 2013 Nobel Prize in Literature for her short stories portraying everyday human experiences, relationships, and subtle social commentary?

  1. (a) Alice Munro
  2. (b) Alice Walker
  3. (c) Orhan Pamuk
  4. (d) Haruki Murakami
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Alice Munro

The correct answer is (a) Alice Munro.
Alice Munro (1931-2024), a Canadian author, won the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2013. The Swedish Academy described her as the 'master of the contemporary short story.' Her collections include Dance of the Happy Shades, Lives of Girls and Women, and Dear Life, known for their psychological depth and portrayal of everyday lives.
(b) Alice Walker: American author of The Color Purple (Pulitzer Prize 1983); has not won the Nobel Prize in Literature.
(c) Orhan Pamuk: Turkish novelist who won the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2006, not 2013; known for Snow and My Name is Red.
(d) Haruki Murakami: A prominent Japanese novelist (Norwegian Wood, Kafka on the Shore); has been frequently mentioned as a Nobel contender but has not won.
Music and Musical Instruments · Hindustani music (ragas, gharanas)

Q36. In Hindustani classical music, Raga Yaman is derived from which thaat, characterized by Tivra Ma, and often performed in evening concerts with serene and devotional melodies?

  1. (a) Bilawal
  2. (b) Kalyan
  3. (c) Bhairav
  4. (d) Kafi
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Kalyan

The correct answer is (b) Kalyan.
Raga Yaman is derived from the Kalyan Thaat (parent scale) in Hindustani classical music. The defining characteristic is the use of Tivra (sharp) Madhyama (Ma) — the only note that distinguishes Kalyan Thaat from Bilawal Thaat. Yaman is a deeply serene, devotional raga performed at the beginning of evening (sunset to late evening).
(a) Bilawal Thaat: Uses all shuddha (natural) swaras including shuddha Ma; Yaman uses Tivra Ma, placing it in Kalyan, not Bilawal.
(c) Bhairav Thaat: Uses Komal Re and Komal Dha; associated with early morning ragas — quite different from Yaman's structure and time.
(d) Kafi Thaat: Uses Komal Ga and Komal Ni; associated with holi season ragas; completely different structure from Yaman.
Countries, Capitals and Currencies · Currencies of countries

Q37. Which Indian Ocean island country uses the "Rufiyaa" as its official currency for domestic and international transactions?

  1. (a) Sri Lanka
  2. (b) Maldives
  3. (c) Mauritius
  4. (d) Seychelles
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Maldives

The correct answer is (b) Maldives.
The Maldivian Rufiyaa (MVR) is the official currency of the Maldives, an island nation in the Indian Ocean known for its coral atolls and luxury resorts. The currency is issued by the Maldives Monetary Authority.
(a) Sri Lanka: Uses the Sri Lankan Rupee (LKR) as its official currency; not the Rufiyaa.
(c) Mauritius: Uses the Mauritian Rupee (MUR) as its official currency; not the Rufiyaa.
(d) Seychelles: Uses the Seychellois Rupee (SCR) as its official currency; not the Rufiyaa.
Organisations and Headquarters · Regional groupings (SAARC, ASEAN, BIMSTEC, SCO, G20)

Q38. Which country hosts the headquarters of the Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA), promoting maritime cooperation, trade, and sustainable ocean management?

  1. (a) South Africa
  2. (b) Mauritius
  3. (c) Australia
  4. (d) India
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Mauritius

The correct answer is (b) Mauritius.
The headquarters of the Indian Ocean Rim Association (IORA) is located in Ebène, Mauritius. IORA was established in 1997 and has 23 member states bordering the Indian Ocean. It promotes regional cooperation in trade, maritime safety, fisheries, disaster risk management, and academic-science-technology cooperation.
(a) South Africa: A founding member of IORA; while an important member, it does not host the IORA headquarters.
(c) Australia: A founding member and active participant in IORA; does not host the headquarters.
(d) India: India is a founding member and one of the most active IORA members; New Delhi hosts many IORA events, but the permanent headquarters is in Mauritius.
Organisations and Headquarters · India's foreign relations and connectivity projects

Q39. The "Matarbari Port," a strategic maritime infrastructure project, is being developed in which country to enhance trade and regional connectivity?

  1. (a) Bangladesh
  2. (b) Myanmar
  3. (c) Sri Lanka
  4. (d) Indonesia
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Bangladesh

The correct answer is (a) Bangladesh.
The Matarbari Deep Sea Port is being developed in Matarbari, Cox's Bazar district, Bangladesh, with assistance from Japan International Cooperation Agency (JICA). It is one of Bangladesh's most ambitious infrastructure projects, aimed at creating Bangladesh's first deep sea port to boost trade, reduce logistical costs, and enhance regional maritime connectivity.
(b) Myanmar: Has its own port development projects (like the Kyaukphyu deep sea port funded by China); Matarbari is in Bangladesh.
(c) Sri Lanka: Has the Colombo Port (being expanded) and Hambantota Port; Matarbari Port is not in Sri Lanka.
(d) Indonesia: An archipelagic nation with many ports; Matarbari Port is not in Indonesia.
Music and Musical Instruments · Hindustani music (ragas, gharanas)

Q40. Raga Bageshree is typically performed during which time, conveying moods of longing, devotion, and serenity in Hindustani classical music?

  1. (a) Morning
  2. (b) Noon
  3. (c) Evening
  4. (d) Night
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Night

The correct answer is (d) Night.
Raga Bageshree is a late-night raga in Hindustani classical music, typically performed in the third prahar of the night (approximately midnight to 3 AM). It belongs to the Kafi Thaat and uses Komal Ga and Komal Ni. It conveys deep longing (viraha), devotion, and emotional introspection.
(a) Morning: Morning ragas include Bhairav, Todi, and Ahir Bhairav; Bageshree is specifically a night raga.
(b) Noon: Midday ragas include Bhimpalasi and Madhuvanti; Bageshree is not performed at noon.
(c) Evening: Evening ragas include Yaman, Marwa, and Puriya; while Bageshree is sometimes performed in late evening, its primary and authentic time is late night.
Sports · Asian Games and Commonwealth Games

Q41. When did India win its first-ever medal in Men's Table Tennis at the Asian Games, marking a historic achievement for the country in this sport?

  1. (a) 2010
  2. (b) 2014
  3. (c) 2018
  4. (d) 2022
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 2018

The correct answer is (c) 2018.
India won its first-ever Asian Games medal in Men's Table Tennis (Team event) at the 2018 Asian Games held in Jakarta and Palembang, Indonesia. The Indian team (comprising Achanta Sharath Kamal, G. Sathiyan, Harmeet Desai, and Anthony Amalraj) won a historic bronze medal, marking a landmark achievement for Indian table tennis.
(a) 2010: The 2010 Asian Games were held in Guangzhou, China; India did not win a medal in Men's Table Tennis.
(b) 2014: The 2014 Asian Games were held in Incheon, South Korea; India did not win a Men's Table Tennis medal.
(d) 2022: The 2022 Asian Games were held in Hangzhou, China (in 2023 due to COVID delay); while India had a strong performance, the first medal came in 2018.
Sports · Football and hockey

Q42. In football, when was the "Golden Goal" rule, which ended a match immediately after a goal in extra time, officially abolished by governing bodies?

  1. (a) 2004
  2. (b) 2005
  3. (c) 2006
  4. (d) 2007
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 2004

The correct answer is (a) 2004.
The Golden Goal rule (also called 'sudden death' extra time) was officially abolished by FIFA/IFAB (International Football Association Board) in 2004. The rule, introduced in 1993, stated that a goal scored in extra time immediately ended the match. It was used at the 1996 Euro (Germany won the final with a Golden Goal) and 2000 Euro, but proved unpopular as it made teams defensive. FIFA officially abolished it before the 2004 European Championship (Euro 2004).
(b) 2005: The Golden Goal rule was already abolished in 2004; not 2005.
(c) 2006: The 2006 FIFA World Cup was played without the Golden Goal rule (already abolished in 2004).
(d) 2007: Incorrect; the abolition occurred in 2004.

Medieval History (3)

Mughal Empire · Jahangir

Q43. Which Mughal empress was the real power behind the throne during Jahangir's reign?

  1. (a) Mumtaz Mahal
  2. (b) Nur Jahan
  3. (c) Jahanara Begum
  4. (d) Hajji Begum
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Nur Jahan

The correct answer is (b) Nur Jahan.
Nur Jahan (born Mehr-un-Nissa, 1577-1645) was the 20th and most influential wife of Emperor Jahangir. She wielded extraordinary power during his reign — issuing imperial farmans, having coins struck in her name (along with Jahangir), and virtually administering the empire especially during Jahangir's later years when he was incapacitated by addiction to opium and alcohol.
(a) Mumtaz Mahal: The beloved wife of Emperor Shah Jahan; the Taj Mahal was built in her memory; she died in 1631 and had no political power during Jahangir's reign.
(c) Jahanara Begum: The daughter of Shah Jahan and Mumtaz Mahal who wielded some influence during her father's reign; not connected to Jahangir's reign.
(d) Hajji Begum: Was Humayun's wife and mother of Akbar; she lived during an earlier Mughal era, not during Jahangir's reign.
Mughal Empire · Mughal painting, literature and music

Q44. Which Mughal emperor was a great connoisseur of painting and claimed he could identify the artist of any work?

  1. (a) Akbar
  2. (b) Jahangir
  3. (c) Shah Jahan
  4. (d) Aurangzeb
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Jahangir

The correct answer is (b) Jahangir.
Emperor Jahangir (1569-1627) was a great patron of art and a renowned connoisseur of painting. In his autobiography Tuzuk-i-Jahangiri, he claimed he could identify by sight the artist of any painting even without a signature. The Mughal school of painting flourished under his patronage, with famous artists like Bishandas, Mansur (who excelled at natural history paintings), and Abul Hasan.
(a) Akbar: While Akbar established the imperial Mughal atelier and was a great patron of the arts, he was not specifically renowned for claiming to identify any artist's work.
(c) Shah Jahan: Known more for his passion for architecture (Taj Mahal, Red Fort); while he patronized art, he was not famous for this specific claim.
(d) Aurangzeb: Was a devout Muslim who discouraged fine arts, particularly representational painting; he is known for the opposite — reducing patronage of painting.
Marathas · Maratha administration (Ashtapradhan, chauth, sardeshmukhi)

Q45. What were 'Chauth' and 'Sardeshmukhi' in the context of Maratha administration?

  1. (a) Two Maratha forts
  2. (b) Two Maratha taxes
  3. (c) Shivaji's sons
  4. (d) Two types of soldiers
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Two Maratha taxes

The correct answer is (b) Two Maratha taxes.
Chauth and Sardeshmukhi were two taxes levied by the Maratha Empire:
• Chauth: One-fourth (25%) of the revenue of a territory; collected in lieu of providing protection against plunder and marauding.
• Sardeshmukhi: An additional 10% of revenue; Shivaji claimed this as the hereditary right of the Maratha chief (Sardeshmukh) over all of Maharashtra.
These taxes became the primary source of Maratha imperial income as they expanded.
(a) Two Maratha forts: The Maratha Empire had many forts (like Raigad, Pratapgad, Sinhagad); Chauth and Sardeshmukhi were taxes, not forts.
(c) Shivaji's sons: Sambhaji and Rajaram were Shivaji's sons; Chauth and Sardeshmukhi were taxation systems.
(d) Two types of soldiers: The Maratha army had horsemen (bargirs and siledars); Chauth and Sardeshmukhi were fiscal instruments, not soldier categories.

Biology (4)

Heredity and Evolution · Chromosomes, genes and DNA

Q46. Which nitrogenous base is found in RNA but replaced by thymine in DNA molecules?

  1. (a) Adenine
  2. (b) Uracil
  3. (c) Guanine
  4. (d) Cytosine
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Uracil

The correct answer is (b) Uracil.
Uracil (U) is a pyrimidine nitrogenous base found in RNA. In DNA, Uracil is replaced by Thymine (T). Both Uracil and Thymine pair with Adenine (A) through hydrogen bonds. The presence of Thymine (instead of Uracil) in DNA makes DNA more chemically stable, as Thymine is a methylated form of Uracil.
(a) Adenine: A purine base found in BOTH DNA and RNA; it pairs with Thymine in DNA and Uracil in RNA; Adenine is NOT replaced by Thymine.
(c) Guanine: A purine base found in BOTH DNA and RNA; it pairs with Cytosine; Guanine is not replaced by Thymine.
(d) Cytosine: A pyrimidine base found in BOTH DNA and RNA; it pairs with Guanine; Cytosine is not replaced by Thymine.
Heredity and Evolution · Chromosomes, genes and DNA

Q47. Which enzyme joins Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand during DNA replication to create a continuous DNA strand?

  1. (a) Helicase
  2. (b) Ligase
  3. (c) Primase
  4. (d) Polymerase
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ligase

The correct answer is (b) Ligase.
DNA Ligase is the enzyme that joins Okazaki fragments on the lagging strand during DNA replication. After DNA Polymerase I removes RNA primers and fills in the gaps with DNA, DNA Ligase seals the nick between adjacent Okazaki fragments by forming phosphodiester bonds, creating a continuous DNA strand.
(a) Helicase: Unwinds and separates the double helix at the replication fork by breaking hydrogen bonds between base pairs; does not join Okazaki fragments.
(c) Primase: Synthesizes short RNA primers on the template strand to initiate DNA synthesis; required before Polymerase can act; does not join Okazaki fragments.
(d) Polymerase: DNA Polymerase III synthesizes the new DNA strand; DNA Polymerase I removes RNA primers; neither joins the final fragments — that is Ligase's role.
Nutrition and Digestion · Absorption and assimilation

Q48. Which part of the human digestive system is primarily responsible for absorbing nutrients such as carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, and minerals?

  1. (a) Stomach
  2. (b) Large intestine
  3. (c) Small intestine
  4. (d) Liver
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Small intestine

The correct answer is (c) Small intestine.
The small intestine is the primary site for digestion and absorption of nutrients in the human digestive system. It has three parts: duodenum (where most digestion occurs), jejunum, and ileum (where most absorption occurs). The inner surface has finger-like projections called villi and microvilli that increase the surface area for absorption of carbohydrates, proteins, fats, vitamins, and minerals.
(a) Stomach: Primarily responsible for mechanical digestion (churning) and chemical digestion of proteins (by pepsin); very limited absorption (only alcohol and some drugs).
(b) Large intestine: Primarily responsible for water absorption and formation of feces; not the primary site for nutrient absorption.
(d) Liver: Processes absorbed nutrients (received via portal vein), produces bile, and performs metabolic functions; it is not the site of direct nutrient absorption from food.
Cell - Structure and Function · Mitochondria

Q49. Some organelles generate energy for the cell. Which organelle is commonly called the "powerhouse of the cell"?

  1. (a) Nucleus
  2. (b) Mitochondria
  3. (c) Ribosome
  4. (d) Lysosome
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Mitochondria

The correct answer is (b) Mitochondria.
Mitochondria are called the 'powerhouse of the cell' because they generate most of the cell's supply of ATP (adenosine triphosphate) through the process of cellular respiration (oxidative phosphorylation). They have a double-membrane structure with an inner folded membrane called cristae. Mitochondria have their own DNA and are thought to have evolved from ancient bacteria (endosymbiotic theory).
(a) Nucleus: The control center of the cell containing genetic material (DNA); directs cell activities but does not generate energy.
(c) Ribosome: The site of protein synthesis; translates mRNA into protein; does not generate ATP energy.
(d) Lysosome: Contains digestive enzymes; responsible for breaking down waste materials and cellular debris (autophagocytosis); does not generate energy.
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