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Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 6 January 2026 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 47 GK / GS questions asked in Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 on 6 January 2026 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Static GK, Current Affairs, Modern History, Geography, Polity, Economics.

📚 47 questions🗓️ 6 January 2026⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Static GK (19) · Current Affairs (4) · Modern History (4) · Geography (5) · Polity (5) · Economics (3) · Medieval History (2) · Biology (4) · Chemistry (1)

Static GK (19)

Organisations and Headquarters · Indian organisations and headquarters

Q1. Anil Kumar Lahoti was appointed as the new Chairman of TRAI in 2024. What does TRAI regulate?

  1. (a) Railways
  2. (b) Airports
  3. (c) Telecom services
  4. (d) Stock Markets
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Telecom services

The correct answer is (c) Telecom services.
TRAI stands for the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India. It was established in 1997 under the TRAI Act to regulate telecom services, protect the interests of consumers, and ensure fair competition in the telecommunications sector. Anil Kumar Lahoti was appointed as its new Chairman in 2024.
(a) Railways: Regulated by the Railway Board under the Ministry of Railways; a separate sector from telecommunications.
(b) Airports: Regulated by the Airports Authority of India (AAI) and the AERA (Airports Economic Regulatory Authority of India); not TRAI.
(d) Stock Markets: Regulated by SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India); not related to telecommunications.
Monuments and Heritage · Forts and palaces

Q2. Which Rajput fort, built atop a hill in Jodhpur, is famously called the "Mountain Fortress" due to its strategic location and massive defensive walls?

  1. (a) Chittorgarh
  2. (b) Mehrangarh
  3. (c) Gwalior
  4. (d) Amer
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Mehrangarh

The correct answer is (b) Mehrangarh.
Mehrangarh Fort in Jodhpur, Rajasthan, is famously called the 'Mountain Fortress' (or 'Majestic Fort'). Built on a perpendicular rocky cliff about 125 m above the city by Rao Jodha in 1459, it features massive walls up to 36 m high and 21 m thick. The name 'Mehrangarh' means 'Fort of the Sun.'
(a) Chittorgarh: Another great Rajput fort in Rajasthan on a hill, but it is known for its historical significance in Rajput battles and jauhar (mass self-immolation), not specifically called the 'Mountain Fortress.'
(c) Gwalior: Gwalior Fort in Madhya Pradesh is also built on a rock outcrop; sometimes called 'the pearl among fortresses'; it is not specifically in Jodhpur.
(d) Amer: Amer (Amber) Fort near Jaipur is a renowned Rajput fort; it is not specifically called the 'Mountain Fortress' and is not in Jodhpur.
Sports · Olympic Games

Q3. The first modern Olympic Marathon in 1896 was run from:

  1. (a) Athens to Delphi
  2. (b) Olympia to Sparta
  3. (c) Marathon to Athens
  4. (d) Marathon to Corinth
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Marathon to Athens

The correct answer is (c) Marathon to Athens.
The first modern Olympic Marathon was run at the 1896 Athens Olympics from the town of Marathon to the Olympic Stadium in Athens — a distance of approximately 40 km (later standardized to 42.195 km). The route was chosen to commemorate the legendary run of the Greek soldier Pheidippides who is said to have run from Marathon to Athens to announce the Greek victory over the Persians in 490 BCE.
(a) Athens to Delphi: Delphi is northwest of Athens, not the direction associated with the Marathon run; the marathon was from Marathon (northeast of Athens) to Athens.
(b) Olympia to Sparta: This route does not correspond to the historical Marathon run; the 1896 marathon specifically ran from Marathon to Athens.
(d) Marathon to Corinth: Corinth is west of Athens; the historic and Olympic marathon route ends in Athens, not Corinth.
Sports · Asian Games and Commonwealth Games

Q4. The first Asian Games javelin throw gold medal (men) was won in 1951 by an athlete from:

  1. (a) Japan
  2. (b) India
  3. (c) Iran
  4. (d) Philippines
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Japan

The correct answer is (a) Japan.
At the 1st Asian Games held in New Delhi in 1951, the men's javelin throw gold medal was won by an athlete from Japan. Japan performed strongly in track and field events at the inaugural Asian Games.
(b) India: India won several gold medals at the 1951 Asian Games as the host nation, but the men's javelin gold went to Japan.
(c) Iran: Iran participated in the 1951 Asian Games but did not win the men's javelin gold.
(d) Philippines: Participated in the 1951 Asian Games but did not win the men's javelin gold.
Sports · Sports and famous players

Q5. Who was the first Indian woman to win the World Boxing Championship, achieving global recognition and inspiring the rise of women's boxing in India?

  1. (a) Sarita Devi
  2. (b) Lovlina Borgohain
  3. (c) Mary Kom
  4. (d) Jenny R.L.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Mary Kom

The correct answer is (c) Mary Kom.
M.C. Mary Kom (Mangte Chungneijang Mary Kom) from Manipur became the first Indian woman to win the World Boxing Championship in 2002 (in Antalya, Turkey). She went on to win the world championship six times, making her the most successful women's boxer in the history of the World Amateur Boxing Championships.
(a) Sarita Devi: A talented boxer from Manipur who has won multiple Commonwealth Championship medals; but Mary Kom was the first Indian woman World Champion (2002) before Sarita's achievements.
(b) Lovlina Borgohain: Olympic bronze medalist at Tokyo 2020; distinguished boxer but came after Mary Kom.
(d) Jenny R.L.: A boxer who has competed internationally but is not known as the first World Champion.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q6. Who wrote Kamayani, a foundational Chhayavaad work, reflecting philosophical, emotional, and symbolic literary expression of early 20th-century Hindi poetry?

  1. (a) Ramdhari Singh Dinkar
  2. (b) Suryakant Tripathi Nirala
  3. (c) Jaishankar Prasad
  4. (d) Mahadevi Verma
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Jaishankar Prasad

The correct answer is (c) Jaishankar Prasad.
Jaishankar Prasad (1889-1937) wrote Kamayani (1936), an epic poem considered the greatest masterpiece of the Chhayavaad movement in Hindi literature. The poem is based on the Vedic myth of Manu and Shraddha (Noah and his wife equivalent), exploring themes of love, philosophy, nature, and the quest for spiritual salvation.
(a) Ramdhari Singh Dinkar: Known for his Veer Ras (heroic) poetry; wrote Rashmirathi and Kurukshetra; associated with Pragativad (Progressive poetry), not Chhayavaad.
(b) Suryakant Tripathi Nirala: A key Chhayavaad poet known for Ram Ki Shakti Puja and Saroj Smriti; wrote many celebrated poems but not Kamayani.
(d) Mahadevi Verma: A prominent Chhayavaad poet known for her lyrical poetry (Yama, Nihar, Neerja); called the 'Modern Meera'; did not write Kamayani.
Important Days and Themes · National days

Q7. From which year did India begin celebrating Constitution Day on 26 November to honor Dr. B.R. Ambedkar's 125th birth anniversary?

  1. (a) 2010
  2. (b) 2015
  3. (c) 2009
  4. (d) 2000
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 2015

The correct answer is (b) 2015.
India began officially celebrating Constitution Day (Samvidhan Divas) on 26 November from 2015. This was done to mark the 125th birth anniversary of Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, the principal architect of the Constitution. The date 26 November is significant because the Constituent Assembly adopted the Constitution on 26 November 1949.
(a) 2010: No specific government notification was issued in 2010 to celebrate Constitution Day.
(c) 2009: Not the year Constitution Day celebrations were officially initiated.
(d) 2000: Much before the 125th birth anniversary of Dr. Ambedkar; the official celebration started in 2015.
Monuments and Heritage · Monuments - builders and locations

Q8. The 'Buland Darwaza' (Gate of Magnificence) at Fatehpur Sikri was built by Akbar to commemorate?

  1. (a) His birth
  2. (b) His victory over Gujarat
  3. (c) His new religion, Din-i-Ilahi
  4. (d) His marriage to Jodha Bai
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) His victory over Gujarat

The correct answer is (b) His victory over Gujarat.
The Buland Darwaza (Gate of Magnificence) at Fatehpur Sikri was built by Emperor Akbar in 1602 to commemorate his victory over Gujarat (1572-73). Standing 54 m high, it is the largest gateway in the world. It is located at the southern entrance of the Jama Masjid complex at Fatehpur Sikri.
(a) His birth: Akbar did not build Buland Darwaza to commemorate his birth; it was specifically built after the Gujarat military campaign.
(c) His new religion, Din-i-Ilahi: While Akbar did promote Din-i-Ilahi, the Buland Darwaza was built to mark military triumph in Gujarat, not the founding of this syncretic religious movement.
(d) His marriage to Jodha Bai: Akbar's marriage to Harkha Bai (Jodha Bai) of Amber occurred before 1562; the Buland Darwaza was built decades later to commemorate the Gujarat victory.
Dances · Folk dances by state

Q9. Which folk dance uses "Ghumar" as a primary dance step, characterized by graceful circular movements performed mainly by women during celebrations?

  1. (a) Rajasthani folk dance
  2. (b) Bhangra
  3. (c) Garba
  4. (d) Lavani
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Rajasthani folk dance

The correct answer is (a) Rajasthani folk dance.
Ghumar is a traditional Rajasthani folk dance performed primarily by women. The name 'Ghumar' comes from 'ghoomna' (to spin/twirl in Hindi), referring to the graceful circular spinning movements that characterize the dance. It originated among the Bhil tribe and was later adopted by Rajput women. Ghumar was traditionally performed during festivals and special occasions, with dancers wearing swirling ghagras (skirts).
(b) Bhangra: A lively folk dance from Punjab, traditionally performed by men during harvest celebrations; uses energetic jumping and arm movements, not circular Ghumar steps.
(c) Garba: A folk dance from Gujarat also performed in circles, especially during Navratri; uses clapping and dandiya sticks; distinct from Rajasthani Ghumar.
(d) Lavani: A folk dance form from Maharashtra combining powerful rhythm and dance; performed by women to songs with earthy themes; not associated with 'Ghumar' as a dance step.
Books and Authors · International books and authors

Q10. Which author's novel Half of a Yellow Sun was adapted into a 2013 film, bringing the Nigerian Biafran War story and personal narratives to a global audience?

  1. (a) Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie
  2. (b) Chinua Achebe
  3. (c) Wole Soyinka
  4. (d) Ben Okri
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie

The correct answer is (a) Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie.
Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie, a Nigerian author, wrote Half of a Yellow Sun (2006), which won the Orange Prize for Fiction in 2007. The novel is set before and during the Nigerian-Biafran War (1967-70) and was adapted into a film in 2013 directed by Biyi Bandele, starring Chiwetel Ejiofor and Thandie Newton.
(b) Chinua Achebe: Renowned Nigerian author known for Things Fall Apart (1958); his work deals with pre-colonial Igbo society and its clash with colonialism; did not write Half of a Yellow Sun.
(c) Wole Soyinka: Nigerian Nobel Laureate (1986) in Literature; known for plays and poetry; not the author of Half of a Yellow Sun.
(d) Ben Okri: Nigerian Booker Prize winner known for The Famished Road; not the author of Half of a Yellow Sun.
Books and Authors · International books and authors

Q11. One Hundred Years of Solitude, a seminal magical realism work depicting the Buendía family across generations in Macondo, was authored by which writer?

  1. (a) Gabriel García Márquez
  2. (b) Jorge Luis Borges
  3. (c) Isabel Allende
  4. (d) Pablo Neruda
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Gabriel García Márquez

The correct answer is (a) Gabriel García Márquez.
Gabriel García Márquez (Colombia, 1927-2014) wrote One Hundred Years of Solitude (Cien años de soledad, 1967), widely regarded as one of the greatest novels of the 20th century and a masterpiece of magical realism. It traces the Buendía family across seven generations in the fictional town of Macondo. García Márquez was awarded the Nobel Prize in Literature in 1982.
(b) Jorge Luis Borges: Argentine writer known for his philosophical short stories (Ficciones, Labyrinths); a pioneer of magical realism but did not write One Hundred Years of Solitude.
(c) Isabel Allende: Chilean author known for The House of the Spirits; influenced by magical realism but did not write this novel.
(d) Pablo Neruda: Chilean Nobel Laureate known for his poetry (Canto General, Twenty Love Poems); not a novelist; did not write this work.
Dances · Folk dances by state

Q12. Which Indian state is renowned for Giddha, a lively folk dance performed by women featuring traditional songs, colorful attire, and energetic rhythmic movements?

  1. (a) Punjab
  2. (b) Assam
  3. (c) Gujarat
  4. (d) Rajasthan
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Punjab

The correct answer is (a) Punjab.
Giddha is the traditional women's folk dance of Punjab. It is the female equivalent of Bhangra and is performed by women in circular formations, incorporating bolis (folk verses/couplets) about various aspects of life, love, and celebrations. Giddha is typically performed at festivals, weddings, and cultural events, with performers dressed in colorful phulkari-embroidered attire.
(b) Assam: Famous for Bihu dance performed during the Bihu festivals; not the home of Giddha.
(c) Gujarat: Known for Garba and Dandiya Raas, especially during Navratri; not associated with Giddha.
(d) Rajasthan: Known for Ghumar, Kalbelia, and Teratali folk dances; not traditionally associated with Giddha.
Space, Defence and Technology · Evacuation and humanitarian relief operations

Q13. What was the purpose of 'Operation Ganga', launched by the Indian government in 2022?

  1. (a) To clean the Ganga river
  2. (b) To evacuate Indian citizens stranded in Ukraine
  3. (c) To provide aid to Sri Lanka
  4. (d) To protect the Ganges river dolphin
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To evacuate Indian citizens stranded in Ukraine

The correct answer is (b) To evacuate Indian citizens stranded in Ukraine.
Operation Ganga was a humanitarian evacuation mission launched by the Indian government in February-March 2022 to evacuate Indian nationals (primarily students) stranded in Ukraine following Russia's military invasion of Ukraine. Multiple special flights were operated from neighboring countries (Romania, Hungary, Poland, Slovakia) to evacuate thousands of Indians.
(a) To clean the Ganga river: Namami Gange Programme is the initiative for Ganga rejuvenation; not called Operation Ganga.
(c) To provide aid to Sri Lanka: Operation Karuna was the Indian mission providing humanitarian aid to Sri Lanka during its economic crisis (2022); not Operation Ganga.
(d) To protect the Ganges river dolphin: Conservation efforts are part of Project Dolphin (launched 2020); not Operation Ganga.
Organisations and Headquarters · Regional groupings (SAARC, ASEAN, BIMSTEC, SCO, G20)

Q14. The Colombo Security Conclave (CSC) was initially established between India and which countries as a trilateral framework for maritime security cooperation?

  1. (a) Sri Lanka & Maldives
  2. (b) Bhutan & Nepal
  3. (c) Myanmar & Thailand
  4. (d) UAE & Oman
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Sri Lanka & Maldives

The correct answer is (a) Sri Lanka & Maldives.
The Colombo Security Conclave (CSC) was originally established as a trilateral security framework between India, Sri Lanka, and Maldives in 2011 (initially called the 'Trilateral Maritime Security Cooperation Framework'). It focuses on maritime security, counter-terrorism, cybersecurity, and human trafficking. Mauritius joined as the 4th member in 2020.
(b) Bhutan & Nepal: These Himalayan nations are not part of the CSC; their security cooperation with India follows bilateral frameworks.
(c) Myanmar & Thailand: Southeast Asian countries; not part of the CSC which is an Indian Ocean security framework.
(d) UAE & Oman: Gulf nations; not part of the CSC maritime security framework.
Music and Musical Instruments · Hindustani music (ragas, gharanas)

Q15. Raga Shankara is a Hindustani classical raga performed at a specific time. During which part of the day is it traditionally rendered, conveying a meditative and devotional mood?

  1. (a) Morning
  2. (b) Afternoon
  3. (c) Evening
  4. (d) Night
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Night

The correct answer is (d) Night.
Raga Shankara is a Hindustani classical raga traditionally performed at night, typically in the late evening to midnight hours. It belongs to the Kalyan Thaat (parent scale) and evokes a mood of devotion, depth, and spiritual contemplation — qualities associated with nighttime in Indian classical music. It is dedicated to Lord Shiva (Shankara).
(a) Morning: Morning ragas typically include Bhairav, Lalit, Ahir Bhairav, and Bhatiyar; Raga Shankara is not a morning raga.
(b) Afternoon: Afternoon ragas include Bhoopali, Bhimpalasi, and Multani; not associated with Raga Shankara.
(c) Evening: Evening ragas include Yaman, Puriya, and Marwa; while Raga Shankara has some evening associations in some gharanas, it is primarily classified as a night raga.
Organisations and Headquarters · India's foreign relations and connectivity projects

Q16. The International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) connects India with which regions, providing a multimodal transport link for trade and economic cooperation?

  1. (a) Central Asia and Russia
  2. (b) South-East Asia
  3. (c) Africa
  4. (d) Australia
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Central Asia and Russia

The correct answer is (a) Central Asia and Russia.
The International North-South Transport Corridor (INSTC) is a 7,200 km multimodal (ship, rail, road) transport network linking India to Russia via Iran and the Caspian Sea region, passing through Central Asian countries. Established in 2000 by India, Iran, and Russia, it provides a shorter and cheaper alternative to the traditional Suez Canal route for India-Russia trade.
(b) South-East Asia: Connected to India via ASEAN connectivity projects and the India-Myanmar-Thailand Trilateral Highway; not the INSTC route.
(c) Africa: Connectivity to Africa is pursued through other maritime routes and agreements; not the INSTC.
(d) Australia: India-Australia connectivity uses Indo-Pacific maritime routes; not connected via INSTC.
Organisations and Headquarters · India's foreign relations and connectivity projects

Q17. The "One Belt One Road (OBOR)" initiative, focused on regional connectivity and infrastructure development, is primarily led by which country?

  1. (a) India
  2. (b) Russia
  3. (c) China
  4. (d) USA
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) China

The correct answer is (c) China.
The One Belt One Road (OBOR) initiative, also known as the Belt and Road Initiative (BRI), was launched by Chinese President Xi Jinping in 2013. It is a massive infrastructure and connectivity project aimed at reviving ancient Silk Road trade routes connecting Asia, Africa, Europe, and beyond through a network of railways, roads, ports, and pipelines. India has not participated in BRI due to concerns about the China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC) passing through Pakistan-occupied Kashmir.
(a) India: India has opposed the BRI, particularly the CPEC component; India is developing its own connectivity initiatives.
(b) Russia: Participates in BRI but does not lead it; develops its own Eurasian Economic Union.
(d) USA: Has not participated in BRI; the USA has developed the Blue Dot Network as an alternative to BRI's infrastructure financing.
Sports · Football and hockey

Q18. Who won the men's Hockey World Cup in 2023, after a competitive final showcasing top-level performance and skills in international hockey?

  1. (a) India
  2. (b) Belgium
  3. (c) Netherlands
  4. (d) Germany
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Germany

The correct answer is (d) Germany.
Germany won the FIH Men's Hockey World Cup 2023, defeating Belgium 5-4 in the final via a shoot-out (the match itself ended 3-3 after regulation) in Bhubaneswar, Odisha, India. It was Germany's record-extending 4th World Cup title. The tournament was co-hosted by Rourkela and Bhubaneswar.
(a) India: The host nation reached the quarterfinals but was eliminated; did not win the 2023 World Cup.
(b) Belgium: The 2023 World Cup runners-up; lost to Germany in the final shoot-out after a 3-3 draw.
(c) Netherlands: Participated but did not reach the final; not the 2023 World Cup winner.
Sports · Sports bodies and headquarters

Q19. Where is the headquarters of the International Weightlifting Federation (IWF), the organization responsible for governing and regulating international weightlifting competitions?

  1. (a) Lausanne, Switzerland
  2. (b) Budapest, Hungary
  3. (c) Vienna, Austria
  4. (d) Tokyo, Japan
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Lausanne, Switzerland

The correct answer is (a) Lausanne, Switzerland.
The International Weightlifting Federation (IWF) relocated its headquarters from Budapest, Hungary to Lausanne, Switzerland in 2020-2021, following governance reforms and anti-doping issues. Lausanne is also home to the International Olympic Committee (IOC) and many other international sports federations.
(b) Budapest, Hungary: Was the previous headquarters of IWF before the relocation to Lausanne; no longer the current HQ.
(c) Vienna, Austria: Home to several international organizations (like OPEC and IAEA) but not the current IWF headquarters.
(d) Tokyo, Japan: A major sports hub in Asia; not the IWF headquarters.

Current Affairs (4)

Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q20. Chirag Paswan, a key ally of the NDA, was appointed to the Union Cabinet for the first time. Which ministry did he get?

  1. (a) Minister of Steel
  2. (b) Minister of Food Processing Industries
  3. (c) Minister of Agriculture
  4. (d) Minister of Railways
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Minister of Food Processing Industries

The correct answer is (b) Minister of Food Processing Industries.
Chirag Paswan, leader of Lok Janshakti Party (Ram Vilas), was appointed as Union Cabinet Minister for Food Processing Industries in the Modi 3.0 government formed in June 2024. This was his first time as a Union Cabinet minister. The Food Processing Industries ministry focuses on developing the food processing sector and agro-based industries.
(a) Minister of Steel: A separate portfolio not assigned to Chirag Paswan.
(c) Minister of Agriculture: A key portfolio assigned to Shivraj Singh Chouhan in Modi 3.0; not to Chirag Paswan.
(d) Minister of Railways: A major portfolio held by Ashwini Vaishnaw in Modi 3.0; not assigned to Chirag Paswan.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q21. Which ministries jointly organized the National Tribal Health Conclave 2025?

  1. (a) Ministry of AYUSH and Ministry of Health
  2. (b) Ministry of Tribal Affairs and Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  3. (c) Ministry of Home Affairs and Ministry of Social Justice
  4. (d) Ministry of Rural Development and Ministry of Tribal Affairs
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ministry of Tribal Affairs and Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

The correct answer is (b) Ministry of Tribal Affairs and Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
The National Tribal Health Conclave 2025 was jointly organized by the Ministry of Tribal Affairs and the Ministry of Health and Family Welfare to address health challenges specific to tribal communities in India, focusing on improving healthcare access, addressing tribal-specific diseases, and strengthening tribal health infrastructure.
(a) Ministry of AYUSH and Ministry of Health: AYUSH focuses on traditional medicine systems; not the primary organizer of the tribal health conclave.
(c) Ministry of Home Affairs and Ministry of Social Justice: Home Affairs deals with internal security; not the organizer of this health conclave.
(d) Ministry of Rural Development and Ministry of Tribal Affairs: Rural Development focuses on rural infrastructure; the health-specific conclave was jointly organized with Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q22. As per the IQAir 'World Air Quality Report 2023', which city was ranked as the world's 'most polluted capital city' for the fourth consecutive time?

  1. (a) Dhaka
  2. (b) New Delhi
  3. (c) Baghdad
  4. (d) N'Djamena
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) New Delhi

The correct answer is (b) New Delhi.
According to IQAir's World Air Quality Report 2023, New Delhi was ranked as the world's most polluted capital city for the fourth consecutive year. Delhi consistently struggles with air quality due to vehicular emissions, industrial pollution, crop burning in neighboring states, and unfavorable meteorological conditions during winter months.
(a) Dhaka: Bangladesh's capital; also highly polluted but ranked lower than New Delhi in the IQAir 2023 report for the most polluted capital.
(c) Baghdad: Iraq's capital; while it has air quality concerns, it was not ranked as the most polluted capital in 2023.
(d) N'Djamena: Capital of Chad; appears in pollution reports due to dust and sand storms, but was not ranked as the most polluted capital city for 2023.
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q23. What is the specified orbit altitude of the NISAR spacecraft?

  1. (a) 520 km
  2. (b) 650 km
  3. (c) 747 km
  4. (d) 820 km
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 747 km

The correct answer is (c) 747 km.
NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar) is a joint Earth observation satellite developed by NASA and ISRO. It was launched on March 30, 2025 by ISRO's GSLV-F16. NISAR orbits in a Sun-synchronous near-polar orbit at an altitude of approximately 747 km above Earth's surface. It carries both L-band (NASA) and S-band (ISRO) radar systems to observe Earth's surface changes.
(a) 520 km: Not the specified orbital altitude of NISAR; too low for its mission design.
(b) 650 km: Not the specified orbital altitude of NISAR.
(d) 820 km: Not the specified orbital altitude of NISAR; slightly higher than its actual orbit.

Modern History (4)

British Administration and Policies · Governors-General and Viceroys - events

Q24. The 'Delhi Durbar' of 1911 was held to commemorate the coronation of which British monarch?

  1. (a) Queen Victoria
  2. (b) King Edward VII
  3. (c) King George V
  4. (d) King George VI
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) King George V

The correct answer is (c) King George V.
The Delhi Durbar of 1911 was held to commemorate the coronation of King George V and Queen Mary as Emperor and Empress of India. It was the only Durbar where the reigning British monarch was present in person. The event was held in Delhi (at Coronation Park) and it was during this Durbar that the transfer of the capital from Calcutta to Delhi was announced.
(a) Queen Victoria: A Durbar was held in her honor in 1877 (when she was proclaimed Empress of India) and another in 1903 (posthumously, for Edward VII); she did not attend the 1911 Durbar.
(b) King Edward VII: The 1903 Delhi Durbar was held to commemorate his coronation; he did not personally attend.
(d) King George VI: Became king in 1936 after Edward VIII's abdication; not associated with the 1911 Delhi Durbar.
Rise of Nationalism and Indian National Congress · INC sessions, venues and presidents

Q25. The first Indian woman to preside over an Indian National Congress Session:

  1. (a) Sarojini Naidu
  2. (b) Sucheta Kriplani
  3. (c) Vijayalakshmi Pandit
  4. (d) Annie Besant
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Sarojini Naidu

The correct answer is (a) Sarojini Naidu.
Sarojini Naidu (the Nightingale of India) became the first Indian woman to preside over the Indian National Congress when she was elected President of the INC at its Kanpur Session in 1925. Annie Besant had earlier presided (1917), but she was British, not Indian.
(b) Sucheta Kriplani: A prominent freedom fighter who later became the first woman Chief Minister of an Indian state (Uttar Pradesh, 1963); was not the first woman INC president.
(c) Vijayalakshmi Pandit: Nehru's sister and an eminent diplomat; was not the first Indian woman to preside over the INC.
(d) Annie Besant: A British social reformer and theosophist who presided over the INC Calcutta Session in 1917; she was the first woman to preside over the INC, but she was British, not Indian. Sarojini Naidu was the first INDIAN woman to do so.
British Administration and Policies · Constitutional Acts under British rule

Q26. The reforms that introduced dyarchy in provincial governments and expanded Indian participation in governance were implemented by:

  1. (a) Regulating Act, 1773
  2. (b) Government of India Act, 1919
  3. (c) Indian Councils Act, 1909
  4. (d) Government of India Act, 1935
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Government of India Act, 1919

The correct answer is (b) Government of India Act, 1919.
The Government of India Act, 1919 (Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms) introduced the system of Dyarchy (dual government) in provincial governments. Under dyarchy, subjects were divided into 'reserved' subjects (administered by the Governor with Executive Council) and 'transferred' subjects (administered by elected ministers responsible to the legislature). It also expanded the Legislative Councils.
(a) Regulating Act, 1773: The first attempt by the British Parliament to regulate the East India Company's affairs; introduced the post of Governor-General; no dyarchy.
(c) Indian Councils Act, 1909 (Morley-Minto Reforms): Introduced separate electorates for Muslims and expanded legislative councils; no dyarchy system.
(d) Government of India Act, 1935: Replaced the 1919 Act; introduced provincial autonomy and proposed an all-India federation; abolished dyarchy at the provincial level.
Gandhian Era · Quit India Movement

Q27. Ram Manohar Lohia was a prominent leader associated with which movement in India?

  1. (a) Quit India Movement
  2. (b) Non-Cooperation Movement
  3. (c) Swadeshi Movement
  4. (d) Champaran Movement
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Quit India Movement

The correct answer is (a) Quit India Movement.
Ram Manohar Lohia was a prominent socialist leader and freedom fighter who played a key role in the Quit India Movement of 1942. He was one of the organizers of the underground resistance and was arrested by the British. He later became a major political figure in independent India and founded the Socialist Party.
(b) Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-22): Led by Mahatma Gandhi; Lohia was too young (born 1910) to have been a prominent leader of this movement.
(c) Swadeshi Movement (1905-11): An early nationalist movement; Lohia was a child during this movement.
(d) Champaran Movement (1917): Focused on indigo farmers' rights in Bihar; led by Gandhi; not specifically associated with Lohia.

Geography (5)

India - Population and Census · Census 2011 - population and growth

Q28. Which is the only state in India to record a negative decadal population growth rate (-0.6%) in the 2011 Census?

  1. (a) Kerala
  2. (b) Nagaland
  3. (c) Goa
  4. (d) Sikkim
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Nagaland

The correct answer is (b) Nagaland.
According to the 2011 Census of India, Nagaland was the only state to record a negative decadal population growth rate of -0.6%, meaning its population actually decreased between 2001 and 2011. This was primarily due to out-migration, especially of young people seeking education and employment in other states.
(a) Kerala: Recorded a positive but low decadal growth rate of about 4.9% in 2011 Census; not negative.
(c) Goa: Recorded a positive population growth in 2011 Census; not negative.
(d) Sikkim: Despite being a small state, recorded a positive population growth in 2011 Census; not negative.
India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Soil types and distribution

Q29. Which soil type is most prominent in the Northern Plains?

  1. (a) Alluvial Soil
  2. (b) Black Soil
  3. (c) Red Soil
  4. (d) Laterite Soil
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Alluvial Soil

The correct answer is (a) Alluvial Soil.
Alluvial soil ( जलोढ़ मिट्टी ) is the most prominent soil type in the Northern Plains (Indo-Gangetic Plain) of India. It is formed by sediments deposited by rivers like the Ganga, Yamuna, Indus, and Brahmaputra over millions of years. Alluvial soil is extremely fertile and rich in minerals, supporting intensive agriculture.
(b) Black Soil (Regur): Found in the Deccan Plateau, particularly in Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat, and Andhra Pradesh; associated with cotton cultivation.
(c) Red Soil: Found in the Eastern Deccan Plateau (Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Tamil Nadu); formed due to weathering of ancient crystalline rocks; not dominant in Northern Plains.
(d) Laterite Soil: Found in high rainfall areas like Malabar Coast, Chota Nagpur Plateau, and parts of Assam; not prominent in Northern Plains.
Atmosphere and Climate · Cyclones (tropical and temperate)

Q30. Cyclone 'Hamoon', which formed in October 2023 soon after 'Tej', developed in which sea?

  1. (a) Arabian Sea
  2. (b) Bay of Bengal
  3. (c) Caspian Sea
  4. (d) Red Sea
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Bay of Bengal

The correct answer is (b) Bay of Bengal.
Cyclone Hamoon formed in the Bay of Bengal in October 2023, shortly after Cyclone Tej had formed in the Arabian Sea. Hamoon made landfall in Bangladesh in October 2023. The Bay of Bengal is more cyclone-prone than the Arabian Sea and typically accounts for about 70% of tropical cyclones in the North Indian Ocean.
(a) Arabian Sea: Cyclone Tej formed in the Arabian Sea around the same time (October 2023); Hamoon was in the Bay of Bengal.
(c) Caspian Sea: A landlocked water body between Europe and Asia; tropical cyclones cannot form here as it does not have sufficient tropical conditions.
(d) Red Sea: A narrow sea between the Arabian Peninsula and Africa; tropical cyclones are extremely rare in the Red Sea.
India - Population and Census · Demographic concepts and transition

Q31. Which of these states is not part of the 'BIMARU' states, an acronym for states with poor demographic indicators?

  1. (a) Bihar
  2. (b) Madhya Pradesh
  3. (c) Rajasthan
  4. (d) Karnataka
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Karnataka

The correct answer is (d) Karnataka.
BIMARU is an acronym coined by demographer Ashish Bose in 1980s for states with poor demographic indicators. It stands for: Bihar (B), Madhya Pradesh (M), Rajasthan (R), and Uttar Pradesh (U). Karnataka is NOT part of the BIMARU states; it is a relatively more developed southern state with better human development indices.
(a) Bihar: The 'B' in BIMARU; historically one of India's poorest states with high population growth and poverty.
(b) Madhya Pradesh: The 'M' in BIMARU; large central state with significant development challenges.
(c) Rajasthan: The 'R' in BIMARU (though some versions use the first 'R' for Rajasthan and the 'U' for Uttar Pradesh).
Atmosphere and Climate · Humidity, clouds and precipitation

Q32. Which type of cloud is most closely associated with thunderstorms, producing lightning, thunder, and heavy rainfall?

  1. (a) Cumulonimbus
  2. (b) Cirrus
  3. (c) Stratus
  4. (d) Altostratus
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Cumulonimbus

The correct answer is (a) Cumulonimbus.
Cumulonimbus clouds (also called thunderheads) are massive, vertically developed clouds associated with severe weather including thunderstorms, lightning, heavy rainfall, hail, and tornadoes. They can extend from the lower troposphere up to the tropopause (12-15 km). Their characteristic anvil-shaped top is formed by strong upper-level winds.
(b) Cirrus: High-altitude, thin wispy clouds composed of ice crystals; associated with fair weather or approaching warm fronts; NOT associated with thunderstorms.
(c) Stratus: Low-level, flat, grey clouds that produce light rain or drizzle (not heavy thunderstorms); create overcast sky conditions.
(d) Altostratus: Mid-level clouds appearing as grey or blue-grey sheets; associated with continuous moderate precipitation from approaching warm fronts; not the primary thunderstorm cloud.

Polity (5)

Judiciary · Landmark judgments

Q33. Which institution has issued guidelines to prevent arbitrary exercise of police powers, such as custodial torture or illegal detention?

  1. (a) National Human Rights Commission
  2. (b) Law Commission of India
  3. (c) Supreme Court of India
  4. (d) Central Bureau of Investigation
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Supreme Court of India

The correct answer is (c) Supreme Court of India.
The Supreme Court of India has issued landmark guidelines to prevent arbitrary police powers. The most famous is the D.K. Basu vs. State of West Bengal (1997) judgment, where the Supreme Court laid down detailed guidelines on arrest procedures, detainee rights, and custodial responsibilities to prevent custodial torture and illegal detention.
(a) National Human Rights Commission: Can investigate human rights violations and make recommendations, but its guidelines are advisory; the binding guidelines on police powers come from the Supreme Court.
(b) Law Commission of India: An advisory body that recommends legal reforms; does not issue binding guidelines.
(d) Central Bureau of Investigation: An investigative agency; does not issue guidelines to prevent police powers.
Union Executive · President - powers (executive, legislative, veto, pardon, ordinance)

Q34. Commutation, remission, reprieve and other forms of clemency granted to convicted individuals fall under which category of constitutional powers exercised by the President?

  1. (a) Emergency power
  2. (b) Pardoning power
  3. (c) Legislative power
  4. (d) Administrative power
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Pardoning power

The correct answer is (b) Pardoning power.
Article 72 of the Indian Constitution grants the President the pardoning power, which includes: Pardon (full forgiveness), Commutation (substitution of lesser punishment), Remission (reduction of sentence without changing its nature), Reprieve (stay of execution for limited period), and Respite (awarding lesser sentence due to special circumstances). These are exercised on the advice of the Council of Ministers.
(a) Emergency power: Relates to the President's powers to proclaim National Emergency (Article 352), State Emergency (Article 356), or Financial Emergency (Article 360); separate from pardoning.
(c) Legislative power: Relates to the President's role in the legislative process (summoning Parliament, giving assent to bills); not clemency powers.
(d) Administrative power: Relates to executive functions of governance; clemency is specifically categorized under pardoning power.
State Government · Governor - appointment and powers

Q35. Among the listed categories, which type of power does the Governor NOT possess under the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) Diplomatic power
  2. (b) Executive power
  3. (c) Legislative power
  4. (d) Judicial power
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Diplomatic power

The correct answer is (a) Diplomatic power.
Under the Indian Constitution, the Governor possesses Executive power (Article 154), Legislative power (Articles 168, 174, 175), and Judicial power (Article 161 - pardoning power). However, the Governor does NOT possess Diplomatic power. Diplomatic power (conducting foreign affairs, signing treaties, appointing ambassadors) is exclusively vested in the President of India, not the Governor.
(b) Executive power: The Governor is the constitutional head of the state and exercises executive power under Article 154.
(c) Legislative power: The Governor is an integral part of the state legislature — summons, prorogues and dissolves the Assembly, addresses the legislature, gives assent to bills.
(d) Judicial power: Under Article 161, the Governor has the power to grant pardons, reprieves, and remissions for offences against state law.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q36. The law to ban 'Triple Talaq' (instant divorce) was passed by Parliament in which year?

  1. (a) 2017
  2. (b) 2018
  3. (c) 2019
  4. (d) 2020
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 2019

The correct answer is (c) 2019.
The Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriage) Act, 2019, which criminalized the practice of instant Triple Talaq (talaq-e-biddat), was passed by the Indian Parliament in July 2019. The law made the practice of instant triple talaq illegal and punishable with up to 3 years imprisonment. The Supreme Court had declared triple talaq unconstitutional in August 2017.
(a) 2017: The Supreme Court declared triple talaq unconstitutional in August 2017 (Shayara Bano case), but the law was not passed by Parliament that year.
(b) 2018: The bill was introduced in Parliament but not passed in 2018; the law was enacted in 2019.
(d) 2020: The law was already in force by 2020; it was enacted in 2019.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q37. The 'Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act' of 2015 was in the news because it allows?

  1. (a) Children to vote
  2. (b) Children to drive
  3. (c) Children (16-18) who commit heinous crimes to be tried as adults
  4. (d) Children to work
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Children (16-18) who commit heinous crimes to be tried as adults

The correct answer is (c) Children (16-18) who commit heinous crimes to be tried as adults.
The Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2015 was a landmark legislation that introduced a provision allowing children aged 16-18 years who are accused of heinous offences (punishable by 7 or more years imprisonment) to be tried as adults. This was enacted in response to the 2012 Delhi gang rape case where one perpetrator was a minor.
(a) Children to vote: The voting age in India is 18 years for adults; the JJ Act 2015 has no provision about voting.
(b) Children to drive: Driving regulations are governed by the Motor Vehicles Act; not related to the Juvenile Justice Act.
(d) Children to work: Child labor is prohibited under the Child Labour (Prohibition and Regulation) Amendment Act, 2016; the JJ Act focuses on care, protection, and rehabilitation, not allowing child labor.

Economics (3)

Financial Markets and Institutions · Pension schemes (NPS, APY) and PFRDA

Q38. Under the Employees' Pension Scheme (EPS-95), the standard age for receiving Member Pension upon superannuation is:

  1. (a) 55 years
  2. (b) 56 years
  3. (c) 58 years
  4. (d) 60 years
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 58 years

The correct answer is (c) 58 years.
Under the Employees' Pension Scheme (EPS-95), the standard age of superannuation for receiving the Member Pension is 58 years. An employee can also opt for a reduced pension at age 50 (with a 4% reduction for each year before 58), or can defer the pension up to 60 years (with a 4% increment per year).
(a) 55 years: Not the standard superannuation age under EPS-95; an early pension may be available at 50 with reduction.
(b) 56 years: Not a prescribed age under EPS-95 for pension.
(d) 60 years: This is the maximum age up to which pension commencement can be deferred under EPS-95 (not the standard age).
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · FRBM Act and fiscal policy

Q39. Which term is used to describe the government's policy of using taxation and public spending to influence the economy?

  1. (a) Monetary Policy
  2. (b) Fiscal Policy
  3. (c) Trade Policy
  4. (d) Foreign Policy
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Fiscal Policy

The correct answer is (b) Fiscal Policy.
Fiscal Policy refers to the government's use of taxation (revenue) and public expenditure (spending) to influence the macroeconomy — controlling economic growth, inflation, unemployment, and income distribution. In India, the Union Budget presented annually by the Finance Minister is the primary fiscal policy instrument.
(a) Monetary Policy: Controlled by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI); uses interest rates, money supply, and credit control to manage inflation and economic growth; not taxation/spending.
(c) Trade Policy: Relates to regulations governing international trade — tariffs, import-export restrictions, trade agreements; not the same as domestic taxation/spending to influence the economy.
(d) Foreign Policy: Relates to a nation's external relations and diplomacy with other countries; unrelated to using taxation and public spending to manage the domestic economy.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Education and research schemes

Q40. The 'NIPUN Bharat' mission is focused on which area of education?

  1. (a) Higher education reform
  2. (b) Skill development in IT
  3. (c) Foundational literacy and numeracy for young children
  4. (d) Adult education
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Foundational literacy and numeracy for young children

The correct answer is (c) Foundational literacy and numeracy for young children.
NIPUN Bharat (National Initiative for Proficiency in Reading with Understanding and Numeracy) was launched in July 2021 by the Ministry of Education. It aims to ensure that every child in India attains basic literacy and numeracy skills by the end of Grade 3 (age 8-9 years) by 2026-27. It focuses on foundational learning in Grades 1-3.
(a) Higher education reform: Addressed by the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 and the University Grants Commission; not NIPUN Bharat's mandate.
(b) Skill development in IT: Addressed by programs like PMKVY (Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana) and Digital India initiatives; not NIPUN Bharat.
(d) Adult education: Addressed by Saakshar Bharat and ULLAS (New India Literacy Programme); NIPUN Bharat specifically focuses on young school-going children (Grades 1-3).

Medieval History (2)

Mughal Empire · Akbar - conquests and policies

Q41. The 'Battle of Haldighati' (1576) was fought between the Mughal army led by Man Singh and whom?

  1. (a) Rana Sanga
  2. (b) Maharana Pratap
  3. (c) Sher Shah Suri
  4. (d) Hemu
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Maharana Pratap

The correct answer is (b) Maharana Pratap.
The Battle of Haldighati was fought on 21 June 1576 between the Mughal forces led by Raja Man Singh I (acting on behalf of Emperor Akbar) and Maharana Pratap Singh I of Mewar. The battle was inconclusive — the Mughals captured the field but Maharana Pratap escaped and continued his resistance. Haldighati Pass in Rajasthan is where the battle was fought.
(a) Rana Sanga (Rana Sangram Singh): Fought against Babur in the First Battle of Khanwa (1527); died before Akbar's time; not involved in Haldighati.
(c) Sher Shah Suri: An Afghan ruler who defeated Humayun; died in 1545; was not alive during the 1576 Battle of Haldighati.
(d) Hemu (Hemchandra Vikramaditya): Fought in the Second Battle of Panipat (1556) against Akbar; died in 1556; not a participant in the 1576 Battle of Haldighati.
Marathas · Maratha administration (Ashtapradhan, chauth, sardeshmukhi)

Q42. What was the collective name for the council of eight ministers in Shivaji's administration?

  1. (a) Navratnas
  2. (b) Diwan-i-Khas
  3. (c) Ashtapradhan
  4. (d) Bar-i-Aam
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ashtapradhan

The correct answer is (c) Ashtapradhan.
Ashtapradhan (meaning 'eight ministers' in Sanskrit) was the council of eight ministers that Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj established to assist in the administration of the Maratha Empire. The eight ministers included the Peshwa (prime minister), Amatya (finance), Sachiv (correspondence), Mantri (court affairs), Senapati (commander), Sumant (foreign affairs), Nyayadhish (chief justice), and Panditrao (religious matters).
(a) Navratnas: The 'nine gems' — a group of nine brilliant scholars and artists in Emperor Akbar's court (including Birbal, Tansen, Abul Fazl); associated with the Mughal court, not Shivaji.
(b) Diwan-i-Khas: The Hall of Private Audience in Mughal architecture and administration; where the emperor held private meetings; not Shivaji's ministerial council.
(d) Bar-i-Aam: The Hall of Public Audience (Diwan-i-Aam) in Mughal courts; not associated with Shivaji's administrative structure.

Biology (4)

Cell - Structure and Function · Cell membrane and cell wall

Q43. Which structure in plant cells forms cytoplasmic channels, allowing communication and transport between adjacent cells?

  1. (a) Plasmodesmata
  2. (b) Tight junctions
  3. (c) Gap junctions
  4. (d) Desmosomes
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Plasmodesmata

The correct answer is (a) Plasmodesmata.
Plasmodesmata are microscopic channels that traverse the cell walls of plant cells, connecting the cytoplasm of adjacent cells and allowing direct communication, water movement, and transport of small molecules between them. They form a continuous network called the symplast in plants.
(b) Tight junctions: Found in animal cells (especially epithelial cells); they seal adjacent cells together to prevent leakage of molecules; not found in plant cells.
(c) Gap junctions: Found in animal cells; allow direct electrical and chemical communication between adjacent animal cells; the plant equivalent is plasmodesmata.
(d) Desmosomes: Found in animal cells (especially skin and heart muscle); provide mechanical adhesion between adjacent cells; not the communication channels in plant cells.
Human Body - General Facts · Largest and smallest organs, glands and cells

Q44. Which organ is the largest in the human body, serving as a protective barrier, regulating temperature, and preventing water loss?

  1. (a) Liver
  2. (b) Skin
  3. (c) Brain
  4. (d) Heart
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Skin

The correct answer is (b) Skin.
The skin (integumentary system) is the largest organ in the human body by surface area (approximately 1.5-2 square meters) and weight (about 3.5-4 kg in an average adult). It serves multiple functions: protection against pathogens, physical damage, and UV radiation; thermoregulation through sweat glands and blood vessels; prevention of water loss; and sensory perception.
(a) Liver: The largest internal (solid) organ of the body; plays roles in metabolism, detoxification, and bile production; but the skin is larger overall.
(c) Brain: The control center of the nervous system; weighs about 1.3-1.4 kg; much smaller than the skin by weight and area.
(d) Heart: A fist-sized muscular organ pumping blood; much smaller than the skin.
Human Physiology - Respiration, Circulation and Excretion · Blood vessels, circulation and blood pressure

Q45. Which blood vessels in humans contain valves to prevent backflow of blood and ensure unidirectional circulation toward the heart?

  1. (a) Arteries
  2. (b) Veins
  3. (c) Capillaries
  4. (d) Aorta
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Veins

The correct answer is (b) Veins.
Veins contain semilunar valves that prevent the backflow of blood and ensure that blood flows in one direction — toward the heart. These valves are particularly important in the veins of the legs, where blood must travel upward against gravity. When muscles contract, they compress the veins, pushing blood upward, and the valves prevent it from flowing back down.
(a) Arteries: Carry oxygenated blood away from the heart under high pressure; do not need valves because the high blood pressure from the heart keeps blood moving in one direction.
(c) Capillaries: Tiny blood vessels where exchange of gases, nutrients, and waste occurs between blood and tissues; too thin for valves; no valves present.
(d) Aorta: The largest artery in the body; carries oxygenated blood from the left ventricle; no valves inside its wall (the aortic valve is at its origin from the heart).
Control and Coordination · Endocrine glands and hormones

Q46. The sleep-wake cycle in humans is controlled by a hormone secreted by the pineal gland. Which hormone regulates this circadian rhythm?

  1. (a) Cortisol
  2. (b) Melatonin
  3. (c) Adrenaline
  4. (d) Thyroxine
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Melatonin

The correct answer is (b) Melatonin.
Melatonin is a hormone secreted by the pineal gland (a small endocrine gland in the brain) that regulates the circadian rhythm (24-hour biological clock) and sleep-wake cycle. Melatonin production increases in darkness (night), making us sleepy, and decreases in light (day). It is also sold as a supplement for jet lag and sleep disorders.
(a) Cortisol: A stress hormone secreted by the adrenal cortex; involved in the stress response, metabolism, and immune function; peaks in the morning to promote wakefulness but not the primary circadian regulator.
(c) Adrenaline (Epinephrine): Secreted by the adrenal medulla; the 'fight-or-flight' hormone; increases heart rate and alertness during stress; not a circadian rhythm regulator.
(d) Thyroxine: A thyroid hormone regulating metabolism and growth; not the primary regulator of the sleep-wake cycle.

Chemistry (1)

Environmental Chemistry · Greenhouse effect and greenhouse gases

Q47. Which gas in Earth's atmosphere primarily traps infrared radiation, contributing significantly to the greenhouse effect and global warming, thereby affecting the planet's overall climate?

  1. (a) Carbon dioxide
  2. (b) Oxygen
  3. (c) Nitrogen
  4. (d) Argon
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Carbon dioxide

The correct answer is (a) Carbon dioxide.
Carbon dioxide (CO₂) is the primary greenhouse gas responsible for the enhanced greenhouse effect and global warming due to human activities (burning fossil fuels, deforestation, cement production). CO₂ molecules absorb and re-emit infrared radiation, trapping heat in the atmosphere. Its atmospheric concentration has risen from ~280 ppm (pre-industrial) to over 420 ppm today.
(b) Oxygen (O₂): Makes up about 21% of the atmosphere; does not absorb infrared radiation significantly and is not a greenhouse gas.
(c) Nitrogen (N₂): Makes up about 78% of the atmosphere; transparent to both visible and infrared radiation; not a greenhouse gas.
(d) Argon: An inert noble gas making up about 0.93% of the atmosphere; does not absorb infrared radiation; not a greenhouse gas.
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