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RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 19 June 2025 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 39 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 on 19 June 2025 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Geography, Ancient History, Polity, Current Affairs, Economics, Modern History.

📚 39 questions🗓️ 19 June 2025⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Geography (4) · Ancient History (2) · Polity (5) · Current Affairs (10) · Economics (6) · Modern History (3) · Computer (5) · Static GK (1) · Biology (1) · Physics (1) · Chemistry (1)

Geography (4)

India - Transport and Communication · Airports and aviation

Q1. According to Airports Authority of India, which Indian airport was the busiest in terms of passenger traffic in Financial Year 2023-2024?

  1. (a) Rajiv Gandhi International Airport, Hyderabad
  2. (b) Kempegowda International Airport, Bengaluru
  3. (c) Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj International Airport, Mumbai
  4. (d) Indira Gandhi International Airport, Delhi
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Indira Gandhi International Airport, Delhi

India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Soil types and distribution

Q2. What is the dominant soil type in the Great Plains of India?

  1. (a) Black cotton soil
  2. (b) Alluvial soil
  3. (c) Laterite soil
  4. (d) Red soil
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Alluvial soil

India - Drainage System · Water resources and water-body census

Q3. Which of the following states is famous for its ingenious water conservation methods, 'taanka' or 'kunds'?

  1. (a) Uttar Pradesh
  2. (b) Karnataka
  3. (c) Rajasthan
  4. (d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Rajasthan

India - Population and Census · Human settlements - rural and urban types

Q4. Kanpur, a city in the Indian state of Uttar Pradesh, is an example of which type of town?

  1. (a) Industrial Town
  2. (b) Recreational Town
  3. (c) Transfer and Distribution Town
  4. (d) Administrative Town
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Industrial Town

Ancient History (2)

Indus Valley Civilisation · Economy, trade and seals

Q5. Harappan trade relations extended to:

  1. (a) Mesopotamia
  2. (b) Rome
  3. (c) Greece
  4. (d) Persia
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Mesopotamia

Indus Valley Civilisation · Artefacts and findings

Q6. Which of the following materials was not used for making ornaments during the Harappan civilisation?

  1. (a) Ivory
  2. (b) Carnelian
  3. (c) Steatite
  4. (d) Diamond
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Diamond

Polity (5)

Judiciary · Supreme Court - composition and appointment

Q7. When appointing judges to the Supreme Court, the President must consult which of the following?

  1. (a) The Prime Minister only
  2. (b) The Law Minister exclusively
  3. (c) The Union Public Service Commission
  4. (d) The Chief Justice of India
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) The Chief Justice of India

DPSP and Fundamental Duties · Important DPSP articles (39A, 40, 44, 45, 48A, 50, 51)

Q8. Which of the following Directive Principles is mentioned in Article 44 of the Constitution of India?

  1. (a) Equal justice and free legal aid
  2. (b) Uniform civil code for the citizens
  3. (c) Promotion of co-operative societies
  4. (d) Organisation of agriculture and animal husbandry
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Uniform civil code for the citizens

Judiciary · Subordinate courts

Q9. What is the dual role of the highest judicial officer in a district?

  1. (a) Nyaya Panchayat head for civil cases and Gram Kutchery head for criminal cases
  2. (b) District Judge for civil cases and Sessions Judge for criminal cases
  3. (c) Subordinate Judge for civil cases and Metropolitan Magistrate for criminal cases
  4. (d) Chief Judicial Magistrate for civil cases and Munsiff for criminal cases
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) District Judge for civil cases and Sessions Judge for criminal cases

DPSP and Fundamental Duties · Fundamental Duties - Article 51A and list

Q10. Which Article of the Constitution of India mentions the Fundamental Duty of defending the country and rendering national service when called upon to do so?

  1. (a) Article 51A (e)
  2. (b) Article 51A (a)
  3. (c) Article 51A (d)
  4. (d) Article 51A (c)
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Article 51A (d)

Union, Territory and Citizenship · Reorganisation of states and new states

Q11. Which region was merged in 1948 to form the initial territory of Himachal Pradesh?

  1. (a) Rajputana
  2. (b) Chhattisgarh
  3. (c) Shimla Hill States
  4. (d) Patiala and East Punjab States Union
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Shimla Hill States

Current Affairs (10)

Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q12. Who among the following has been appointed as the Chairperson of National Commission for Women (NCW), in October 2024?

  1. (a) Anju Rathi Rana
  2. (b) Amit Kumar
  3. (c) Vijaya Kishore Rahatkar
  4. (d) Arti Sarin
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Vijaya Kishore Rahatkar

Awards and Honours - Current · International awards - current

Q13. What major event did The Washington Post cover to win the 2025 Pulitzer for Breaking News Reporting?

  1. (a) Sudanese civil war
  2. (b) Donald Trump assassination attempt
  3. (c) Texas school shooting
  4. (d) Russian invasion of Ukraine
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Donald Trump assassination attempt

Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q14. Till which year has the term of Chief Economic Adviser V Anantha Nageswaran been extended?

  1. (a) March 2028
  2. (b) March 2029
  3. (c) March 2027
  4. (d) March 2026
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) March 2027

International Affairs and Summits · Summits and conferences

Q15. What is the mascot of Expo 2025 in Osaka?

  1. (a) Kiko-Kiko
  2. (b) Sora-Sora
  3. (c) Myaku-Myaku
  4. (d) Mira-Mira
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Myaku-Myaku

Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q16. What is the name of the team that lost to Rajnigandha Achievers in the Aditya Birla Memorial Polo final Cup 2025?

  1. (a) Jindal Panther
  2. (b) Rajnigandha Polo Team
  3. (c) New Delhi Polo Team
  4. (d) Aditya Birla Group
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Jindal Panther

Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space sector policy, industry and start-ups - current

Q17. What is the expected investment target under the Tamil Nadu Space Industrial Policy 2025?

  1. (a) ₹15,000 crore
  2. (b) ₹5,000 crore
  3. (c) ₹20,000 crore
  4. (d) ₹10,000 crore
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) ₹10,000 crore

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · Court judgments and rulings - current

Q18. In March 2025, what important decision did the Supreme Court of India make regarding disability rights?

  1. (a) It banned all exams for persons with disabilities.
  2. (b) It allowed only private companies to hire persons with disabilities.
  3. (c) It said disability rights are a part of fundamental rights.
  4. (d) It removed reservations for persons with disabilities.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It said disability rights are a part of fundamental rights.

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · Court judgments and rulings - current

Q19. Which of the following statements is/are correct with reference to the Supreme Court judgement in 'The State Of Tamil Nadu vs The Governor Of Tamil Nadu' on 8 April 2025? The Supreme Court held that the Governor cannot withhold assent after a bill is re-passed by the legislature. The Court used its powers under Article 142 to deem 10 pending Bills as having received assent. The judgement laid down that the Governor may reserve a re-enacted Bill for Presidential consideration.

  1. (a) 1, 2 and 3
  2. (b) Only 1 and 3
  3. (c) Only 1 and 2
  4. (d) Only 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Only 1 and 2

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · New government schemes and missions

Q20. Which of the following statements regarding the Dharti Aaba Janjatiya Gram Utkarsh Abhiyan launched in 2024 is/are correct? The scheme aims for the holistic development of tribal areas through 25 interventions in health, education and livelihood. The scheme benefits only 10 states with scheduled areas, excluding other tribal areas. It was launched by Vice President Jagdeep Dhankhar in Jharkhand on 2ⁿᵈ October 2024.

  1. (a) 1, 2 and 3
  2. (b) Only 1
  3. (c) Only 2
  4. (d) Only 1 and 3
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only 1

Awards and Honours - Current · International awards - current

Q21. Which of the following organisations won the Pulitzer Prize for Public Service in 2025?

  1. (a) Reuters
  2. (b) The New York Times
  3. (c) ProPublica
  4. (d) The Washington Post
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) ProPublica

Economics (6)

Money and Banking · Currency and coins (printing, security, denominations)

Q22. In which year was the demonetisation of 500- and 1000-rupees notes announced in India?

  1. (a) 2016
  2. (b) 2014
  3. (c) 2018
  4. (d) 2020
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 2016

Money and Banking · Digital payments (UPI, NEFT, RTGS, IMPS)

Q23. Which of the following banking facilities is/are operated by National Payments Corporation of India?
1. National Electronic Funds Transfer (NEFT)
2. Aadhaar Enabled Payment System
3. UPI Lite

  1. (a) Only 1 and 2
  2. (b) Only 1 and 3
  3. (c) Only 2 and 3
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Only 2 and 3

External Sector and International Economic Organisations · FDI, FPI and FEMA

Q24. Foreign Direct Investment (FDI) is a key aspect of globalisation. What is a major benefit of FDI for developing countries like India?

  1. (a) Access to technology and employment
  2. (b) Currency depreciation
  3. (c) Increase in taxation
  4. (d) Trade deficits
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Access to technology and employment

Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Human Development Index and UNDP

Q25. Which Indian state had the highest Human Development Index (HDI) in 2017?

  1. (a) Maharashtra
  2. (b) Gujarat
  3. (c) Kerala
  4. (d) Tamil Nadu
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Kerala

National Income · Methods of measuring national income

Q26. Which of the following options is a final good in the context of Indian economy?

  1. (a) Biscuits
  2. (b) Wheat
  3. (c) Sugar
  4. (d) Flour
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Biscuits

Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Union Budget - latest highlights

Q27. As per the Union Budget 2025-26, the start-up incorporation deadline was extended for how many years to avail tax benefits?

  1. (a) 5
  2. (b) 6
  3. (c) 7
  4. (d) 4
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 5

Modern History (3)

Towards Independence and Partition · Integration of princely states

Q28. What was the purpose of the Imperial Service Scheme (1885)?

  1. (a) To abolish princely privileges
  2. (b) To educate royal families
  3. (c) To raise troops for British defence, paid by princely states
  4. (d) To facilitate trade among states
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) To raise troops for British defence, paid by princely states

Gandhian Era · Lahore Session and Purna Swaraj

Q29. At which session of the Indian National Congress was the resolution for Poorna Swaraj (complete independence) passed?

  1. (a) Lucknow Session, 1916
  2. (b) Lahore Session, 1929
  3. (c) Karachi Session, 1931
  4. (d) Calcutta Session, 1920
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Lahore Session, 1929

British Administration and Policies · Constitutional Acts under British rule

Q30. According to the Regulating Act 1773, which of the following options is INCORRECT about the powers and responsibilities of the Governor General?

  1. (a) Powered to superintendent the presidencies of Madras and Bombay in war and peace
  2. (b) Can override the decision of his council
  3. (c) Can control the presidencies of Madras and Bombay in war and peace
  4. (d) Can make rules and regulations for the civil government of Fort William
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Can override the decision of his council

Computer (5)

Abbreviations and Miscellaneous · Computer abbreviations

Q31. Which of the following statements is true regarding ASCII, LAN, and CD in computer terminology?

  1. (a) LAN refers to a wide geographical network like the internet.
  2. (b) ASCII represents characters using numeric codes in binary.
  3. (c) ASCII is used for formatting disks in a LAN network.
  4. (d) CD is a rewritable magnetic storage medium.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) ASCII represents characters using numeric codes in binary.

Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Windows features and utilities

Q32. In Windows 11, why might you receive an 'Access is denied' error when trying to rename a file?

  1. (a) The file has no extension.
  2. (b) The file ownership has changed.
  3. (c) You are renaming from the Recycle Bin.
  4. (d) You are using the wrong drive letter.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The file ownership has changed.

MS Office and Productivity Tools · MS Excel

Q33. What is the correct method to save a new workbook in MS Excel?

  1. (a) Go to the 'Home' tab and click 'Save'
  2. (b) Press 'Ctrl + P'
  3. (c) Press 'Ctrl + Enter'
  4. (d) Click the 'File' tab and choose 'Save As'
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Click the 'File' tab and choose 'Save As'

MS Office and Productivity Tools · MS Excel

Q34. What is the primary purpose of defining a 'Named Range' in MS Excel?

  1. (a) To refer to a cell or range of cells using a more descriptive and easier-to-understand name in formulas
  2. (b) To create a visual chart or graph from the selected data
  3. (c) To apply specific formatting to a group of cells
  4. (d) To encrypt the data within a selected range of cells
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) To refer to a cell or range of cells using a more descriptive and easier-to-understand name in formulas

MS Office and Productivity Tools · Keyboard shortcuts

Q35. What is the keyboard shortcut to remove paragraph indentation in MS Word 365?

  1. (a) Ctrl + Shift + M
  2. (b) Ctrl + Tab
  3. (c) Ctrl + M
  4. (d) Ctrl + Shift + I
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Ctrl + Shift + M

Static GK (1)

Dances · Tribal dances

Q36. Which of the following is the war dance of the Nagas?

  1. (a) Danda-Jatra
  2. (b) Thang Ta
  3. (c) Rangma
  4. (d) Alkap
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Rangma

Biology (1)

Nutrition and Digestion · Minerals - sources, functions and deficiency

Q37. Deficiency of which nutrient is most directly linked to reduced oxygen-carrying capacity of blood?

  1. (a) Vitamin A
  2. (b) Calcium
  3. (c) Iron
  4. (d) Iodine
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Iron

Physics (1)

Sound and Waves · Numericals on sound and waves

Q38. A sound wave with a period of 0.01 seconds has a frequency of:

  1. (a) 0.1 Hz
  2. (b) 1000 Hz
  3. (c) 100 Hz
  4. (d) 10 Hz
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 100 Hz

Chemistry (1)

Periodic Classification of Elements · Groups and periods - position of elements

Q39. Which of the following statements is NOT correct with reference to the main group elements?

  1. (a) They include both s-block and p-block elements.
  2. (b) They are also called representative elements.
  3. (c) Their reactivity does not follow any periodic trend.
  4. (d) Their valence shell configurations help predict chemical behaviour.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Their reactivity does not follow any periodic trend.

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