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RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 20 June 2025 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 39 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2024-25 on 20 June 2025 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Computer, Economics, Geography, Current Affairs, Polity, Modern History.

📚 39 questions🗓️ 20 June 2025⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Computer (5) · Economics (3) · Geography (6) · Current Affairs (9) · Polity (5) · Modern History (3) · Biology (1) · Ancient History (2) · Chemistry (1) · Static GK (4)

Computer (5)

Computer Organisation and Hardware · CPU - ALU, CU and registers

Q1. With reference to computer systems, what does CPU stand for?

  1. (a) Computer Processing Utility
  2. (b) Central Programming Unit
  3. (c) Control Processing Unit
  4. (d) Central Processing Unit
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Central Processing Unit

Computer Organisation and Hardware · Input devices

Q2. Which of the following input devices primarily translates physical, real-world movements into digital signals that can be interpreted by a computer system for tasks such as navigation and object manipulation in a graphical environment?

  1. (a) Mouse
  2. (b) Keyboard
  3. (c) Microphone
  4. (d) Scanner
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Mouse

Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Popular operating systems

Q3. Which of the following operating systems is most suitable for ethical hacking and cybersecurity tasks on laptops and desktops due to its pre-installed penetration testing tools?

  1. (a) macOS Ventura
  2. (b) Kali Linux
  3. (c) Ubuntu LTS
  4. (d) Windows 10
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Kali Linux

Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Windows features and utilities

Q4. What is the function of the keyboard shortcut Ctrl + F in Windows OS?

  1. (a) It checks and corrects spelling errors in text.
  2. (b) It forwards an email message to another recipient.
  3. (c) It opens a search or find feature to locate text or items in files, webpages or applications.
  4. (d) It formats content in a document or application.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It opens a search or find feature to locate text or items in files, webpages or applications.

MS Office and Productivity Tools · MS Word

Q5. What is the primary advantage of using 'Section Breaks' in an MS Word document compared to simply using 'Page Breaks'?

  1. (a) Section breaks automatically create a table of contents based on the headings within each section, a feature not available with standard page breaks.
  2. (b) Section breaks allow for different page numbering schemes, headers, and footers within the same document, while page breaks only force content to the next page.
  3. (c) Section breaks improve the document's file size and performance, especially in long documents with numerous formatting changes.
  4. (d) Section breaks are primarily used to optimise the document for printing on different paper sizes, which is not possible with page breaks.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Section breaks allow for different page numbering schemes, headers, and footers within the same document, while page breaks only force content to the next page.

Economics (3)

Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Budget-announced schemes and missions

Q6. In February 2025, the Indian government announced a six-year program to boost the production of which agricultural commodity to reduce import dependence?

  1. (a) Pulses
  2. (b) Wheat
  3. (c) Rice
  4. (d) Sugar
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Pulses

Agriculture and Food Security · Green Revolution and other agricultural revolutions

Q7. The Green Revolution was introduced to counter food shortages. Which region(s) was/were the initial focus of the Green Revolution?

  1. (a) Odisha and Assam
  2. (b) Bihar
  3. (c) Tamil Nadu
  4. (d) Punjab and Haryana
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Punjab and Haryana

Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Union Budget - latest highlights

Q8. As per the Union Budget 2025-26, a Maritime Development Fund with corpus of how much will be established?

  1. (a) ₹10,000 crore
  2. (b) ₹20,000 crore
  3. (c) ₹25,000 crore
  4. (d) ₹15,000 crore
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) ₹25,000 crore

Geography (6)

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Neighbouring countries and border states

Q9. The McMahon Line separates India from which country?

  1. (a) Pakistan
  2. (b) China
  3. (c) Nepal
  4. (d) Bhutan
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) China

India - Population and Census · Socio-Economic and Caste Census (SECC)

Q10. What percentage of households were classified as the poorest of the poor, as per SECC-2011?

  1. (a) 1%
  2. (b) 0.79%
  3. (c) 0.59%
  4. (d) 0.89%
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 0.89%

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Mountain passes

Q11. Which of the following mountain passes is located in the Pir Panjal range?

  1. (a) Shipki La
  2. (b) Banihal Pass
  3. (c) Zoji La
  4. (d) Nathu La
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Banihal Pass

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Location, extent and Standard Meridian

Q12. What is the total approximate latitudinal extent of India?

  1. (a) 25°
  2. (b) 40°
  3. (c) 35°
  4. (d) 30°
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 30°

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Neighbouring countries and border states

Q13. Which of the following countries DOES NOT share a land boundary with India?

  1. (a) Sri Lanka
  2. (b) Myanmar
  3. (c) Afghanistan
  4. (d) Bhutan
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Sri Lanka

Environment and Protected Areas · Ramsar sites and wetlands

Q14. Which is the largest saline wetland in India?

  1. (a) Chilika Lake
  2. (b) Sambhar Lake
  3. (c) Wular Lake
  4. (d) Pulicat Lake
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Sambhar Lake

Current Affairs (9)

Awards and Honours - Current · Sports and film awards - current

Q15. Who won the best actress award (critics) at the South Indian International Movie Awards ̲(̲SIIMA) 2024?

  1. (a) Aishwarya Rai Bachhan
  2. (b) Shraddha Kapoor
  3. (c) Deepika Padukone
  4. (d) Alia Bhatt
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Aishwarya Rai Bachhan

Sports - Current · Cricket - current

Q16. ______ was crowned the Ranji Trophy champion for the 2024-25 season.

  1. (a) Tamil Nadu
  2. (b) Mumbai
  3. (c) Kerala
  4. (d) Vidarbha
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Vidarbha

Defence and Security - Current · Defence personnel, firsts and ceremonial events

Q17. In January 2025, Wing Commander Akshay Saxena received the Vayu Sena Medal for his role in anti-piracy operations conducted in which of the following regions?

  1. (a) Arabian Sea
  2. (b) Gulf of Thailand
  3. (c) Bay of Bengal
  4. (d) Andaman Sea
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Arabian Sea

Environment and Climate - Current · Species discoveries and conservation news

Q18. Which body took suo motu cognisance of the news titled 'Experts are alarmed as 350 turtles was ashore dead till January 15', published on 16 January 2025?

  1. (a) National Green Tribunal
  2. (b) High Court of Odisha
  3. (c) High Court of Tamil Nadu
  4. (d) Supreme Court of India
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) National Green Tribunal

Economy, Banking and Business · Budget and economic data - current

Q19. According to the Economic survey 2024-25, what is the value of India’s foreign exchange reserves, as of the end of December 2024?

  1. (a) $440.8 billion
  2. (b) $520.5 billion
  3. (c) $330.3 billion
  4. (d) $640.3 billion
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) $640.3 billion

Reports, Indices and Rankings · Reports and their publishers

Q20. According to the Global Risks Perception Survey (GRPS) 2025, what percentage of respondents believe the turbulence outlook over the next 2 years?

  1. (a) 52%
  2. (b) 41%
  3. (c) 55%
  4. (d) 45%
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 52%

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q21. Where is the headquarters of the National Turmeric Board, which was established in 2025?

  1. (a) Kochi
  2. (b) Kolkata
  3. (c) Guntur
  4. (d) Nizamabad
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Nizamabad

Science, Technology and Space - Current · Health and medical research

Q22. Which country reported its first-ever presumptive human case of H5 bird flu in November 2024?

  1. (a) United Kingdom
  2. (b) Canada
  3. (c) United States
  4. (d) Australia
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Canada

Economy, Banking and Business · GDP and growth forecasts

Q23. What is the IMF's projected US GDP growth rate for 2025, as per the April 2025 forecast?

  1. (a) 2.5%
  2. (b) 1.8%
  3. (c) 3.7%
  4. (d) 3.4%
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1.8%

Polity (5)

DPSP and Fundamental Duties · Important DPSP articles (39A, 40, 44, 45, 48A, 50, 51)

Q24. In which year was the provision for the free legal aid to the poor added to the Directive Principles of the State Policy of the Constitution of India?

  1. (a) 1978
  2. (b) 2011
  3. (c) 2002
  4. (d) 1976
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 1976

Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies · Election Commission of India

Q25. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution states about the establishment of Election Commission in India?

  1. (a) Article 326
  2. (b) Article 325
  3. (c) Article 327
  4. (d) Article 324
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Article 324

Union Executive · Council of Ministers and Cabinet

Q26. The Union Council of Ministers in India, as the Chief Executive Organ, implicates which of the following?

  1. (a) Each minister is the political head of his/her ministry
  2. (b) The abolition of the role of the Secretary
  3. (c) Centralisation of power in local bodies
  4. (d) Ministers leave all work operations to be done by civil servants
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Each minister is the political head of his/her ministry

DPSP and Fundamental Duties · Fundamental Duties - Article 51A and list

Q27. Which Article of the Constitution of India mentions the Fundamental Duty of safeguarding public property and abjuring violence?

  1. (a) Article 51A (i)
  2. (b) Article 51A (k)
  3. (c) Article 51A (j)
  4. (d) Article 51A (h)
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 51A (i)

Fundamental Rights · Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32) and writs

Q28. Which of the following statements about the Supreme Court’s writ jurisdiction is correct?

  1. (a) It can only be invoked for enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
  2. (b) It allows the Court to issue writs only against the Central Government.
  3. (c) It extends to both Fundamental Rights and other legal rights.
  4. (d) It is exclusive and cannot be exercised by the High Courts.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) It can only be invoked for enforcement of Fundamental Rights.

Modern History (3)

Advent of Europeans and British Expansion · English East India Company

Q29. Which of the following was formed in 1600 through a charter that granted it the exclusive privilege of trading with the area east of the Cape of Good Hope for 15 years?

  1. (a) Danish East India Company
  2. (b) Austrian East India Company
  3. (c) English East India Company
  4. (d) Spanish East India Company
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) English East India Company

Peasant, Tribal and Civil Uprisings · Early civil and tribal revolts

Q30. Which of the following tribal uprisings did NOT take place in the 20ᵗʰ century?

  1. (a) Lushai Uprising
  2. (b) Kuki Uprising
  3. (c) Bastar Rebellion
  4. (d) Naga Revolt
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Lushai Uprising

Peasant, Tribal and Civil Uprisings · Early civil and tribal revolts

Q31. What role did the ‘Dikus’ play in igniting early tribal revolts of India?

  1. (a) They were British officials stationed in tribal areas.
  2. (b) They were outsiders like landlords, moneylenders and officials exploiting tribal community.
  3. (c) They were tribal priests encouraging the tribal rebellion.
  4. (d) They were perceived Gods of the forests.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) They were outsiders like landlords, moneylenders and officials exploiting tribal community.

Biology (1)

Heredity and Evolution · Chromosomes, genes and DNA

Q32. What makes DNA the most abundant genetic material?

  1. (a) Its stable double-helical structure
  2. (b) Its high mutation rate
  3. (c) Its interaction with proteins
  4. (d) Its enzymatic roles
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Its stable double-helical structure

Ancient History (2)

Indus Valley Civilisation · Town planning and structures

Q33. What was a unique feature of Harappan town planning?

  1. (a) Circular forts
  2. (b) Underground temples
  3. (c) Grid pattern streets
  4. (d) Irregular housing layout
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Grid pattern streets

Indus Valley Civilisation · Artefacts and findings

Q34. Dholavira is unique for which of the following?

  1. (a) Use of palm leaves
  2. (b) Rock-cut architecture
  3. (c) Scripted seals
  4. (d) Water conservation systems
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Water conservation systems

Chemistry (1)

Periodic Classification of Elements · Modern periodic law and table (Moseley)

Q35. Which of the following statements is NOT correct with reference to the modern periodic table?

  1. (a) The first period contains 8 elements.
  2. (b) Lanthanoids and actinoids are placed in separate panels at the bottom.
  3. (c) Groups are the vertical columns, and periods are horizontal rows.
  4. (d) The second and third periods each contain 8 elements.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) The first period contains 8 elements.

Static GK (4)

Music and Musical Instruments · Carnatic music

Q36. Which of the following is NOT a part of Carnatic style composition?

  1. (a) Chaturang
  2. (b) Pallavi
  3. (c) Varnam
  4. (d) Ragmalika
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Chaturang

Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q37. What is the title of Sarojini Naidu’s first collection of poems, published in 1905?

  1. (a) Songs of the Dawn
  2. (b) The Golden Threshold
  3. (c) The Captive Lady
  4. (d) Urvasie
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The Golden Threshold

Space, Defence and Technology · Evacuation and humanitarian relief operations

Q38. Consider the following statements regarding the MEDEVAC operation conducted by Indian maritime forces in March 2025.
1. The Indian Navy evacuated injured crew members from MV Heilan Star, located in west of Goa.
2. A Sea King helicopter from INS Vikrant airlifted three injured crew members, including two Chinese and one Indonesian national.
3. The Indian Navy and Indian Air Force jointly coordinated the operation.
4. The rescued crew were flown to INS Hansa, Goa, for onward transfer to a civil hospital.
Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1, 2 and 3
  2. (b) Only 1 and 3
  3. (c) Only 1, 2 and 4
  4. (d) Only 2 and 4
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Only 1, 2 and 4

Inventions and Discoveries · Medical discoveries

Q39. Who discovered the antibacterial properties of a Penicillium fungus in 1929?

  1. (a) Alexander Fleming
  2. (b) Marie Curie
  3. (c) Paul Ehrlich
  4. (d) Antonie van Leeuwenhoek
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Alexander Fleming

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