RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 16 March 2026 Shift 2 GK Questions Asked – Question Paper with Answers & Solutions

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Subjects: Geography (7) · Polity (5) · Modern History (3) · Static GK (2) · Current Affairs (8) · Medieval History (2) · Ancient History (2) · Computer (4) · Physics (1) · Economics (2) · Biology (2)

Geography (7)

India - Population and Census · Literacy rate

Q1. Between 2001 and 2011, the male-female gap in the literacy rate of India __________.

(a) decreased
(b) became zero
(c) increased
(d) remained the same

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) decreased

Male–Female Literacy Gap:
Census 2001: Male ~75.3%, Female ~53.7% → Gap ≈ 21.6%
Census 2011: Male ~82.1%, Female ~65.5% → Gap ≈ 16.6%
The gap DECREASED from ~21.6% in 2001 to ~16.6% in 2011.
Key Facts for Exam:
• Overall literacy 2001 = 64.8%; Overall literacy 2011 = 74.0%.
• Female literacy grew faster than male literacy in this decade.
• Kerala has the highest literacy rate among all states.
• Bihar has the lowest literacy rate.
• Literacy = ability to read and write with understanding in any language.
Answer: Option 1 → decreased

Universe and Solar System · Planets and their features

Q2. The acid present in the atmosphere of Venus is:

(a) H₂SO₄
(b) HCl
(c) HNO₃
(d) HCOOH

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) H₂SO₄

The atmosphere of Venus contains thick clouds of SULFURIC ACID (H ₂ SO ₄ ).
Key Facts about Venus:
• Venus is the hottest planet (avg. surface temp ≈ 465°C) — hotter than Mercury.
• Atmosphere: mainly CO ₂ (96%) + N ₂ (3.5%) + traces of SO ₂ , H ₂ SO ₄ clouds.
• Atmospheric pressure on Venus ≈ 90 times Earth's pressure.
• Greenhouse effect is extreme on Venus due to CO ₂ .
• Venus rotates east to west (retrograde rotation).
• Called Earth's twin due to similar size.
Why NOT others:
• HCl (Hydrochloric acid) → not the dominant acid in Venus clouds.
• HNO ₃ (Nitric acid) → found in Earth's stratosphere, not Venus.
• HCOOH (Formic acid) → recently detected in small amounts on Venus,
but H ₂ SO ₄ is the primary and well-established acid.
Answer: Option 1 → H ₂ SO ₄

India - Transport and Communication · Inland waterways

Q3. On which river in India is the National Waterway 57 (NW-57) developed?

(a) Kali River
(b) Gandak River
(c) Kopili River
(d) Zuari River

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Kopili River

National Waterway 57 (NW-57) is developed on the Kopili River.
Kopili River is a tributary of the Brahmaputra, flowing through Assam and Meghalaya.
Key NW Facts for SSC Exam:
• NW-1 → Ganga (Allahabad to Haldia) — longest NW in India
• NW-2 → Brahmaputra
• NW-3 → West Coast Canal (Kerala)
• NW-16 → Barak River (Assam)
• NW-57 → Kopili River
• Total declared NWs in India = 111
Answer: Option 3 → Kopili River

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Islands (Andaman & Nicobar, Lakshadweep)

Q4. Which of the following island groups in India is known to have an active volcano on Barren Island?

(a) Minicoy Islands
(b) Lakshadweep Islands
(c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands
(d) Rameswaram Islands

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Barren Island is located in the Andaman Sea, part of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands (Union Territory).
Key Facts:
• Only confirmed active volcano in South Asia.
• Located about 135 km northeast of Port Blair.
• The volcano has had eruptions in 1991, 1994–95, 2005, 2017, 2018–19.
• Narcondam Island (also in A&N) has a dormant volcano.
• The island is uninhabited and is a protected area.
Difference: Lakshadweep / Minicoy → no volcanoes (coral atolls).
Answer: Option 3 → Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Environment and Protected Areas · Environmental conventions and protocols (Montreal, Kyoto, Paris, CBD)

Q5. How often does India submit its Biennial Update Reports (BURs) to the UNFCCC?

(a) Every five years
(b) Every year
(c) Every two years
(d) Every three years

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Every two years

India submits BURs to the UNFCCC every TWO years.
Key Facts:
• UNFCCC = United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (1992).
• BURs are submitted by developing countries to update greenhouse gas inventories.
• India has submitted 4 BURs so far (BUR-1 in 2015, BUR-4 in 2024).
• Developed countries submit Biennial Reports (BRs) also every 2 years.
• NDC (Nationally Determined Contribution) updates: every 5 years.
Answer: Option 3 → Every two years

Atmosphere and Climate · Planetary, seasonal and local winds

Q6. Which of the following apparent forces, caused by Earth’s rotation, deflects winds to the right in the Northern Hemisphere and to the left in the Southern Hemisphere?

(a) Coriolis force
(b) Frictional force
(c) Pressure gradient force
(d) Gravitational force

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Coriolis force

The Coriolis force is an apparent (pseudo) force caused by Earth's rotation.
It deflects moving objects (including winds) due to Earth spinning on its axis.
Effect on winds:
• Northern Hemisphere → winds deflect to the RIGHT.
• Southern Hemisphere → winds deflect to the LEFT.
This causes:
• Cyclones rotate anticlockwise in Northern Hemisphere.
• Cyclones rotate clockwise in Southern Hemisphere.
• Trade winds, Westerlies, Jet streams are all influenced by Coriolis force.
Named after: French mathematician Gaspard-Gustave de Coriolis (1835).
Answer: Option 1 → Coriolis force

Geography Miscellaneous · Disaster management

Q7. According to the Government of India, flash floods in July 2023 in which state severely disrupted the functioning of several power stations?

(a) Sikkim
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Arunachal Pradesh
(d) Uttarakhand

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Himachal Pradesh

Himachal Pradesh suffered severe flash floods and landslides in July 2023.
These disrupted the functioning of several hydroelectric power stations.
Key details:
• Record rainfall caused rivers like Beas and Sutlej to flood.
• Multiple hydroelectric projects were damaged (many HP projects on Beas/Sutlej).
• The Government of India confirmed HP as the most affected state for power infrastructure.
Why not others:
• Sikkim floods: October 2023 (glacial lake outburst flood — GLOF of South Lhonak Lake).
• Uttarakhand also has floods but July 2023 power disruption was specifically HP.
Answer: Option 2 → Himachal Pradesh

Polity (5)

Union Executive · President - powers (executive, legislative, veto, pardon, ordinance)

Q8. Special address delivered by the President to both Houses of Parliament at the start of the first session after each general election and at the opening of the first session of every year is mentioned under which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?

(a) Article 85
(b) Article 86
(c) Article 87
(d) Article 88

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Article 87

Article 87 of the Indian Constitution provides for:
'Special Address by the President'
The President addresses both Houses assembled together:
(1) At the start of the FIRST SESSION after each general election.
(2) At the OPENING of the first session of every year.
Related Articles (for Exam):
• Article 85 → Sessions of Parliament, prorogation & dissolution.
• Article 86 → Right of President to address and send messages to Houses.
• Article 87 → Special Address by the President. ← ANSWER
• Article 88 → Rights of Ministers and Attorney-General in Parliament.
Note: Article 87 is similar to the 'Speech from the Throne' in UK Parliament.
Answer: Option 3 → Article 87

Union Executive · Council of Ministers and Cabinet

Q9. Which of the following cabinet committees is NOT headed by the Prime Minister?

(a) Cabinet committee on investment and growth
(b) Cabinet committee on employment and skill development
(c) Cabinet committee on economic affairs
(d) Cabinet committee on parliamentary affairs

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Cabinet committee on parliamentary affairs

Most Cabinet Committees are headed by the Prime Minister.
Examples headed by PM: CCEA, CCO, CCS, CC on Parliamentary Affairs... wait —
EXCEPTION: Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs (CCPA)
→ Headed by the Home Minister (currently).
→ It deals with the scheduling of legislative business, budget sessions, etc.
Key Cabinet Committees headed by PM:
• Cabinet Committee on Economic Affairs (CCEA)
• Cabinet Committee on Security (CCS)
• Cabinet Committee on Investment & Growth
• Cabinet Committee on Employment & Skill Development
NOT headed by PM:
• Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs → Home Minister
Answer: Option 4 → Cabinet Committee on Parliamentary Affairs

Special Provisions, Official Language and Miscellaneous Provisions · Official language (Part XVII) and Eighth Schedule languages

Q10. Which Constitutional Amendment Act added Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, and Santhali to the Eighth Schedule of the Indian Constitution?

(a) 92nd Amendment Act, 2003
(b) 91st Amendment Act, 2003
(c) 86th Amendment Act, 2002
(d) 93rd Amendment Act, 2005

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 92nd Amendment Act, 2003

The 8th Schedule lists the official languages of India.
Originally 14 languages; now 22 languages.
92nd Amendment Act, 2003 added four languages:
1. Bodo (Assam region, Bodoland)
2. Dogri (Jammu region)
3. Maithili (Bihar / Jharkhand)
4. Santhali (tribal language, Jharkhand)
These were added in 2004 (amendment ratified).
Total languages in 8th Schedule now = 22.
Memory Trick: BD-MS → Bodo, Dogri, Maithili, Santhali (92nd Amendment)
Answer: Option 1 → 92nd Amendment Act, 2003

Union Executive · Council of Ministers and Cabinet

Q11. Which of the following correctly represents the three-tier structure of the Council of Ministers?

(a) Chief Ministers – State Ministers – Deputy Chief Ministers
(b) Prime Minister – Ministers of State – Cabinet Ministers
(c) Cabinet Ministers – Ministers of State – Deputy Ministers
(d) Cabinet Ministers – Deputy Ministers – Governors

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Cabinet Ministers – Ministers of State – Deputy Ministers

The three-tier structure of the Council of Ministers in India:
[TABLE]
Tier | Category | Role
1st (Top) | Cabinet Ministers | Senior ministers, head key ministries, attend Cabinet meetings
2nd (Middle) | Ministers of State | Independent charge or assist Cabinet Ministers
3rd (Bottom) | Deputy Ministers | Assist Cabinet Ministers / Ministers of State
[/TABLE]
Why others are wrong:
Option 1 — Chief Minister & Deputy CM arestate level, not Council of Ministers (central)
Option 2 — "Prime Minister" isheadof CoM , not a tier within it; order is also wrong
Option 4 —Governorsare completely outside the Council of Ministers

Union, Territory and Citizenship · Citizenship provisions (Articles 5-11)

Q12. Which provision addresses citizenship for persons who migrated from Pakistan before India's Constitution commencement?

(a) Article 6
(b) Article 10
(c) Article 5
(d) Article 8

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 6

Article 6 specifically deals with:
'Rights of citizenship of certain persons who have migrated to India from Pakistan'
(before the commencement of the Constitution on 26 January 1950).
Condition: The person or either of his parents/grandparents was born in undivided India,
and he migrated to India before 19 July 1948 (or registered after that date).
Related Articles (for exam):
• Article 5 → Citizenship at commencement (born/domiciled in India).
• Article 6 → Migrants from Pakistan.
• Article 8 → Rights of Indians ordinarily residing outside India.
• Article 9 → Persons voluntarily acquiring citizenship of foreign state.
• Article 10 → Continuance of citizenship rights.
Answer: Option 1 → Article 6

Modern History (3)

British Administration and Policies · Constitutional Acts under British rule

Q13. Which of the following introduced dyarchy by dividing subjects into Reserved and Transferred lists?

(a) Government of India Act, 1935
(b) Indian Councils Act, 1892
(c) Government of India Act, 1919
(d) Government of India Act, 1909

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Government of India Act, 1919

This Act introduced DYARCHY in the provinces.
Provincial subjects were divided into two lists:
• RESERVED subjects (controlled by Governor & Executive Council):
e.g., Finance, Police, Irrigation, Justice.
• TRANSFERRED subjects (controlled by elected ministers):
e.g., Education, Public Health, Agriculture, Local Self-Government.
Other key features of GoI Act 1919:
• Bicameral legislature at Centre (Council of State + Legislative Assembly).
• Communal representation extended.
• Women got voting rights (with property qualifications).
Why NOT the other options:
• GoI Act 1935 → Introduced Provincial Autonomy, Federal structure, no dyarchy.
• Indian Councils Act 1892 → Expanded councils, no dyarchy.
• GoI Act 1909 → Morley-Minto reforms, separate electorates.
Answer: Option 3 → Government of India Act, 1919

British Administration and Policies · Constitutional Acts under British rule

Q14. Which provision of the Indian Council Act of 1909 was most criticised for weakening the unity of the Indian nationalist movement?

(a) Expansion of legislative councils
(b) Introduction of executive councils in presidencies
(c) Inclusion of Indians in the Governor-General’s Council
(d) Creation of separate electorates

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Creation of separate electorates

Most criticised provision: Introduction of Separate (Communal) Electorates.
What it meant:
• Muslims were given a separate electorate to elect their own representatives.
• This meant Muslims could only vote for Muslim candidates.
Why most criticised ?
• It officially recognised religion as a basis for political representation.
• Congress leaders saw it as 'Divide and Rule' — it weakened Hindu-Muslim unity.
• It laid the foundation for communal politics in India.
• Led eventually to the demand for Pakistan.
Key architects: Secretary of State Morley + Viceroy Lord Minto.
Answer: Option 4 → Creation of separate electorates

Socio-Religious Reform Movements · Prarthana Samaj and Satyashodhak Samaj

Q15. Who among the following is NOT directly associated with the Prarthana Samaj?

(a) Debendranath Tagore
(b) Atmaram Pandurang
(c) Mahadev Govind Ranade
(d) R.C. Bhandarkar

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Debendranath Tagore

Founded: 1867 in Bombay (Mumbai) by Atmaram Pandurang.
Inspired by: The Brahmo Samaj of Bengal.
Key leaders of Prarthana Samaj:
• Atmaram Pandurang (founder)
• Mahadev Govind Ranade (most prominent)
• R.G. Bhandarkar (Ramkrishna Gopal Bhandarkar)
Reforms: Opposed caste system, widow remarriage, women's education, idol worship.
NOT associated: Debendranath Tagore
→ He was a leader of the Brahmo Samaj (Adi Brahmo Samaj), not Prarthana Samaj.
→ He was the father of Rabindranath Tagore.
Answer: Option 1 → Debendranath Tagore

Static GK (2)

Dances · Dance institutions and awards

Q16. Who among the following established the famous Nrityagram institution in Bengaluru?

(a) Surupa Sen
(b) Bijayini Satpathy
(c) Pavithra Reddy
(d) Protima Gauri

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Protima Gauri

Topic: Nrityagram — Famous Dance Village near Bengaluru
Founded by: Protima Gauri (also known as Protima Bedi)
Year: 1990
Location: Near Hesaraghatta , about 30 km from Bengaluru, Karnataka.
Key Facts:
• Nrityagram is a residential dance school (gurukul style).
• It focuses mainly on Odissi classical dance.
• Protima Gauri was a famous Odissi dancer.
• She died in a pilgrimage (Kailash Mansarovar Yatra) in 1998.
• After her, Surupa Sen took over as the artistic director.
Why NOT others:
• Surupa Sen → Current artistic director, NOT the founder.
• Bijayini Satpathy → Lead dancer at Nrityagram , NOT founder.
• Pavithra Reddy → Not associated with Nrityagram .
Answer: Option 4 → Protima Gauri

Monuments and Heritage · Forts and palaces

Q17. Which of the following is NOT an important monument inside the Daulatabad Fort Maharashtra, India?

(a) Sikandra Fort
(b) Jami Masjid
(c) Bharatmata Mandir
(d) Chand Minar

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Sikandra Fort

Daulatabad Fort (also called Devagiri Fort) is located near Aurangabad ( Sambhajinagar ), Maharashtra.
Originally built by Yadava dynasty; later captured by Muhammad bin Tughluq.
Monuments INSIDE Daulatabad Fort:
• Jami Masjid (Mosque)
• Chand Minar (famous minaret built by Ala- ud -din Bahmani, 1435 CE)
• Bharatmata Mandir
• Elephant tank, Andheri (dark passage)
NOT inside Daulatabad Fort:
• Sikandra Fort — located near Agra, Uttar Pradesh (tomb of Akbar).
Answer: Option 1 → Sikandra Fort

Current Affairs (8)

Reports, Indices and Rankings · National indices and rankings

Q18. In 2025, which city topped the National Air Quality Index released for major Indian cities?

(a) Mumbai
(b) Kolkata
(c) Shillong
(d) Ranchi

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Shillong

In 2025, Shillong topped the National AQI rankings as the city with
the BEST (cleanest) air quality among major Indian cities.
Key Facts:
• AQI is measured by the Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB).
• AQI categories: Good (0–50), Satisfactory (51–100), Moderate (101–200),
Poor (201–300), Very Poor (301–400), Severe (401+).
• Shillong benefits from its hilly terrain, forest cover, and low industrialisation.
• Most polluted cities in India are typically in the Indo-Gangetic Plain
(Delhi, Patna, Lucknow, Kanpur).
• Delhi frequently records 'Severe' AQI levels in winter.
Answer: Option 3 → Shillong

International Affairs and Summits · Bilateral agreements and visits

Q19. During PM Narendra Modi’s State Visit to Bhutan (11–12 Nov 2025), which hydroelectric project was jointly inaugurated?

(a) 1200 MW Punatsangchhu -I HEP
(b) 720 MW Mangdechhu HEP
(c) 1020 MW Punatsangchhu -II HEP
(d) 336 MW Chukha HEP

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1020 MW Punatsangchhu -II HEP

PM Modi visited Bhutan on 11–12 November 2025 (his first bilateral visit in his third term).
During the visit, the 1020 MW Punatsangchhu -II Hydroelectric Project was jointly inaugurated.
Key Facts for Exam:
• Punatsangchhu -II is located on the Punatsangchhu River in Bhutan.
• It is a run-of-river project developed under India-Bhutan bilateral cooperation.
• India provides financial and technical support for Bhutan's hydro projects.
• Other major projects: 336 MW Chukha HEP, 720 MW Mangdechhu HEP, Punatsangchhu -I (1200 MW, still under construction).
• Mangdechhu was inaugurated in 2019.
Answer: Option 3 → 1020 MW Punatsangchhu -II HEP

Reports, Indices and Rankings · National indices and rankings

Q20. Which district in Mizoram was recognised as the best-performing district in NITI Aayog's SDG Index NE Districts 2023–24?

(a) Hnahthial
(b) Aizawl
(c) Champhai
(d) Lunglei

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Hnahthial

Topic: NITI Aayog's SDG India Index – North East Districts 2023–24
Hnahthial district of Mizoram was recognised as the best-performing district
in NITI Aayog's SDG Index for North East Districts 2023–24.
Key Facts:
• SDG = Sustainable Development Goals (17 goals adopted by UN in 2015).
• NITI Aayog releases the SDG India Index annually to track states' & districts' progress.
• Hnahthial is a relatively new district carved out of Lunglei in 2019.
• Mizoram consistently ranks among top SDG-performing north-eastern states.
Answer: Option 1 → Hnahthial

International Affairs and Summits · International organisations - current

Q21. In 2025, which country officially became the 90th State Member of the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN)?

(a) Tuvalu
(b) Nauru
(c) Kiribati
(d) Maldives

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Tuvalu

In 2025, Tuvalu officially became the 90th State Member of the IUCN.
Key Facts about IUCN:
• Founded: 1948 (oldest and largest global environmental organisation ).
• Headquarters: Gland, Switzerland.
• Publishes the IUCN Red List — global standard for threatened species.
• Categories: Extinct, Critically Endangered, Endangered, Vulnerable, Near Threatened, Least Concern.
• India joined IUCN in 1969.
• Tuvalu is a small island nation in the Pacific Ocean.
Answer: Option 1 → Tuvalu

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · New government schemes and missions

Q22. Under the ELI scheme approved in July 2025, first-time employees will benefit by getting one month’s wage under this scheme, up to what amount?

(a) ₹12,000
(b) ₹15,000
(c) ₹20,000
(d) ₹10,000

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) ₹15,000

Approved in: Union Budget July 2025.
Objective: To boost formal employment and support first-time workers.
Key Provisions:
• Part A (for employees): First-time employees in EPFO-registered establishments
receive one month's wage as direct benefit transfer, up to ₹15,000.
(Paid in 3 instalments over 2 years).
• Part B (for employers): Incentive to employers for hiring and retaining new staff.
• Part C: Special focus on manufacturing sector jobs.
Eligibility: Salary ≤ ₹1 lakh/month; must be new EPFO member.
Answer: Option 2 → ₹15,000

State News · State schemes and events

Q23. Under the Delhi Women & Child Development (WCD) Department’s Women Safety Policy, 2025, what mandatory arrangement must be made for women staff if they are required to work late hours?

(a) Transport
(b) Accommodation
(c) Bonus
(d) Dinner

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Transport

Under this policy, if women staff are required to work late hours:
→ The employer must mandatorily provide TRANSPORT arrangements.
Key provisions of the policy:
• Safe transportation (cab/vehicle) after late-night duty.
• Women-friendly workplace environment.
• CCTV cameras, well-lit paths in office premises.
• Complaint redressal mechanism for workplace harassment.
Answer: Option 1 → Transport

International Affairs and Summits · Bilateral agreements and visits

Q24. Which of the following was the primary objectives of the India-Liberia MoU signed in December 2025?

(a) Initiating joint space missions
(b) Enhancing co-operation on medicine quality standards
(c) Constructing new highways
(d) Establishing defense manufacturing units

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Enhancing co-operation on medicine quality standards

Primary objective: Enhancing cooperation on medicine quality standards.
Context:
• Liberia is a West African country.
• The MoU was signed to improve pharmaceutical quality assurance systems.
• India is a major global supplier of generic medicines (Pharmacy of the World).
• This cooperation aims to help Liberia strengthen its drug quality framework.
Answer: Option 2 → Enhancing cooperation on medicine quality standards.

Reports, Indices and Rankings · Reports and their publishers

Q25. In 2025, which United Nations body released the World Urbanization Prospects report using the Degree of Urbanization methodology?

(a) UN Human Settlements Programme (UN-Habitat)
(b) UN Statistical Commission
(c) UN Development Programme (UNDP)
(d) UN Department of Economic and Social Affairs (UN DESA)

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) UN Department of Economic and Social Affairs (UN DESA)

Released by: UN Department of Economic and Social Affairs (UN DESA).
Key Facts:
• Methodology: Degree of Urbanization (DEGURBA) — a new harmonised method
to define and measure urban and rural areas globally.
• UN DESA publishes World Population Prospects and World Urbanization Prospects.
• As per the report, more than 55% of the world's population lives in urban areas.
• India is one of the most rapidly urbanising countries.
Why NOT others:
• UN-Habitat → urban settlements, housing.
• UNDP → human development, poverty.
• UN Statistical Commission → statistics standards (does not publish this report).
Answer: Option 4 → UN Department of Economic and Social Affairs (UN DESA)

Medieval History (2)

Early Medieval North India · Feudatories (samantas) and early medieval polity

Q26. Who were the "Samantas" in the post-Gupta period?

(a) Architects
(b) Feudal lords
(c) Religious heads
(d) Farmers

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Feudal lords

In the post-Gupta period (c. 6th–8th century CE), 'Samantas' were
subordinate feudal lords who held land in exchange for military service
and loyalty to a king.
Characteristics of Samantas:
• They were landed chiefs who received land grants ( bhukti / vishaya ).
• They paid tribute to the king and provided soldiers in times of war.
• Over time, powerful Samantas became independent rulers themselves.
• The system is called the Samanta System or Indian Feudalism.
Historical Significance:
• The decline of the Gupta Empire led to political fragmentation.
• Samantas became the building blocks of medieval Indian kingdoms.
• Similar to the feudal lords in medieval Europe.
Answer: Option 2 → Feudal lords

Bhakti, Sufi and Sikh Movements · Bhakti saints of North India (Kabir, Ramananda, Surdas, Tulsidas, Mirabai)

Q27. Who among the following was a prominent disciple of Ramanuja’s Sri Vaishnava tradition who played a significant role in spreading its Bhakti teachings to North India?

(a) Ramananda
(b) Madhvacharya
(c) Ramanujacharya
(d) Namdev

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Ramananda

Ramanuja (1017–1137 CE): Founded the Sri Vaishnava tradition ( Vishishtadvaita philosophy).
He was based in Tamil Nadu ( Srirangam ).
Ramananda (14th–15th century CE):
• A prominent disciple in the Ramanuja Vaishnava tradition.
• He is credited with spreading Bhakti teachings from South to North India.
• He founded his own sub-sect open to all castes and women.
• His disciples included Kabir, Ravidas, Mirabai (indirectly).
Key Difference:
• Madhvacharya → Dvaita philosophy (different tradition).
• Namdev → Maharashtra Bhakti movement (not Ramanuja's lineage).
Answer: Option 1 → Ramananda

Ancient History (2)

Post-Gupta Period · Land grants and agrarian changes

Q28. In the Chola empire, the tax-free lands donated to Brahmins where they settled were known as ___________.

(a) Mahasabha
(b) Agraharam
(c) Valanadu
(d) Garbhagriha

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Agraharam

AGRAHARAM (also called Brahmadeya ):
Tax-free land granted to Brahmins in the Chola empire, where they settled and established their villages.
Key Facts about Chola Administrative System:
• The Cholas had a well-organised local self-government.
• Village assemblies: Sabha (for Brahmin villages/ agraharams ),
Ur (for ordinary villages), Nagaram (for merchant towns).
• Brahmadeya villages were exempt from taxation.
• Uttaramerur inscription provides detailed evidence of Chola local governance.
Other terms in the options:
• Mahasabha → Assembly of learned Brahmins in a Brahmadeya village.
• Valanadu → A territorial division (sub-district) in Chola administration.
• Garbhagriha → Innermost sanctum (womb chamber) of a temple.
Answer: Option 2 → Agraharam

Post-Mauryan Period · Sangam literature

Q29. The Tamil literary work Iraiyanar Ahapporul is dated to which century?

(a) 7th century CE
(b) 11th century CE
(c) 5th century CE
(d) 8th century CE

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 8th century CE

Iraiyanar Ahapporul is an ancient Tamil literary-grammatical work.
It is a commentary on the Akam (love poetry) tradition of Tamil Sangam literature.
Dating:
• Scholars date it to the 8th century CE.
• Attributed to the sage Iraiyanar ; has a commentary by Nakkirar .
Significance:
• One of the earliest works on Tamil poetics ( akapporul = interior/love themes).
• Important for understanding Sangam-era grammar and poetic conventions.
Answer: Option 4 → 8th century CE

Computer (4)

MS Office and Productivity Tools · Keyboard shortcuts

Q30. Which shortcut selects all content in a document?

(a) Ctrl+E
(b) Ctrl+R
(c) Ctrl+S
(d) Ctrl+A

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Ctrl+A

Important MS-Office / Windows keyboard shortcuts:
Ctrl + A → Select ALL content
Ctrl + E → Centre alignment
Ctrl + R → Right alignment
Ctrl + S → Save file
To select all content in a document, the shortcut is Ctrl + A.
Answer: Option 4 → Ctrl + A

Computer Fundamentals and History · Introduction and characteristics of computers

Q31. A major characteristic of computer systems is Diligence. Which of the following scenarios primarily highlights a limitation of the computer system that is not overcome by its diligence?

(a) A computer is used to book flights in the morning and write code in the afternoon.
(b) A computer continues processing data for 72 hours straight without any loss of attention.
(c) A computer generates incorrect output because the initial data entered was flawed.
(d) A computer performs trillions of calculations a second, much faster than any human.

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A computer generates incorrect output because the initial data entered was flawed.

Tier 1 → Cabinet Ministers:
Most senior; head important ministries; attend Cabinet meetings.
Tier 2 → Ministers of State (MoS):
Can be attached to a Cabinet Minister or given independent charge.
Do not routinely attend Cabinet meetings.
Tier 3 → Deputy Ministers:
Assist Cabinet Ministers or Ministers of State.
No independent charge.
Note: There is NO post called 'Deputy Prime Minister' in Constitution
(though it has been used historically in a non-constitutional sense).
Answer: Option 3 → Cabinet Ministers – Ministers of State – Deputy Ministers

Computer Organisation and Hardware · Input devices

Q32. Which type of touchscreen functions by pressing two flexible layers together, allowing it to detect input from a non-conductive object like a fingernail or plastic stylus?

(a) Capacitive touch
(b) Surface acoustic wave
(c) Resistive touch
(d) Infrared grid touch

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Resistive touch

Resistive Touchscreen:
• Has two thin flexible layers separated by a gap.
• When pressed, the layers touch each other and register the input.
• Works with any object — finger, fingernail, stylus (non-conductive).
• Used in ATMs, older smartphones, industrial equipment.
Capacitive Touchscreen:
• Uses electrical charge from the human body.
• Needs a conductive object (fingertip, not fingernail or regular stylus).
• Used in modern smartphones.
Surface Acoustic Wave: Uses ultrasonic waves; affected by dust/water.
Infrared Grid: Uses infrared beams; detects any object.
Answer: Option 3 → Resistive touch

Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Popular operating systems

Q33. Which statement is True or False regarding file management in Windows 11?
( i ) When a file is deleted and moved to the Recycle Bin, its contents are immediately and permanently erased from the storage disk.
(ii) The file path (C: > Users > Documents > file.txt) is a strictly hierarchical structure, meaning each file has one unique path.

(a) ( i ) True, (ii) True
(b) ( i ) True, (ii) False
(c) ( i ) False, (ii) False
(d) ( i ) False, (ii) True

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) ( i ) False, (ii) True

Statement ( i ): When a file is deleted and moved to the Recycle Bin, it is permanently erased.
→ FALSE.
Reason: Sending to Recycle Bin only marks the file for potential deletion.
It can be restored to its original location anytime.
Permanent deletion happens only when Recycle Bin is emptied
(or Shift+Delete is used).
Statement (ii): The file path (C: > Users > Documents > file.txt) is strictly hierarchical,
meaning each file has one unique path.
→ TRUE.
Reason: Windows NTFS uses a hierarchical tree structure.
Each file has exactly one absolute path in the directory tree.
Answer: Option 4 → ( i ) False, (ii) True

Physics (1)

Human Eye and the Colourful World · Prism and dispersion of light

Q34. The formation of a spectrum by a glass prism occurs due to ________.

(a) Dispersion
(b) Scattering
(c) Reflection
(d) Refraction

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Dispersion

When white light passes through a glass prism, it splits into a spectrum of seven colours (VIBGYOR).
This happens due to DISPERSION.
Why Dispersion?
• Different colours (wavelengths) of light travel at different speeds in glass.
• Each colour bends (refracts) by a different amount at the glass surface.
• Violet bends most, Red bends least (VBGYOR order of deviation).
Difference with other options:
• Scattering → why sky is blue (Rayleigh scattering of sunlight).
• Reflection → light bouncing back from a surface.
• Refraction → bending of light at one interface (not splitting into spectrum).
Answer: Option 1 → Dispersion

Economics (2)

Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Sectors of the economy (primary, secondary, tertiary)

Q35. In the context of India's pre-1991 economic structure, which of the following best characterizes the contradiction between sectoral GDP contribution and employment absorption?

(a) Agriculture contributed declining GDP share but absorbed majority employment
(b) Industry contributed the most to GDP and employment
(c) Manufacturing became the primary employment generator
(d) Services led GDP growth and employment generation equally

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Agriculture contributed declining GDP share but absorbed majority employment

Key contradiction in pre-reform India:
• Agriculture's share of GDP was declining steadily.
• But agriculture still employed 60–70% of the total workforce.
Why?
• Structural transformation was incomplete — industries did not grow fast enough
to absorb the rural labour force.
• Low productivity in agriculture meant many remained farming for subsistence.
This is called the 'Structural Imbalance' or 'Dualistic Economy'.
Answer: Option 1 → Agriculture contributed declining GDP share but absorbed majority employment.

Money and Banking · NPAs and banking reforms (Narasimham, SARFAESI, IBC)

Q36. Which of the following reflects the structural adjustment in India’s monetary policy after the 1991 economic reforms?

(a) Controlled lending rates for agriculture and MSMEs
(b) Expansion of currency supply through deficit financing
(c) Market-determined interest rates with reduced RBI intervention
(d) Elimination of open market operations as a regulatory tool

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Market-determined interest rates with reduced RBI intervention

Before 1991:
• Interest rates were administered (fixed) by RBI/Government.
• Directed lending to priority sectors at concessional rates.
• No market-determined rates.
After 1991 structural adjustment:
• Interest rates were gradually deregulated.
• Banks were allowed to fix their own lending and deposit rates.
• RBI shifted to indirect instruments (CRR, SLR, Repo Rate, OMO).
• MCLR (Marginal Cost of Funds based Lending Rate) introduced in 2016.
This reflects: Market-determined interest rates with reduced RBI intervention.
Answer: Option 3 → Market-determined interest rates with reduced RBI intervention.

Biology (2)

Plant Physiology and Morphology · Mineral nutrition in plants

Q37. Which ions help chlorophyll to absorb light?

(a) C
(b) Na
(c) Ca
(d) Mg

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Mg

Chlorophyll is the green pigment in plants responsible for absorbing light for photosynthesis.
Magnesium (Mg) is the central atom in the chlorophyll molecule.
• Mg²⁺ ion is at the core of the porphyrin ring structure.
• It enables the chlorophyll to capture light energy (especially in red & blue regions).
• Mg deficiency → yellowing of leaves (chlorosis).
Other ions and their roles:
• Ca → Cell wall formation, signal transduction.
• Na → Osmotic balance (in some plants).
• C → Backbone of all organic molecules.
Answer: Option 4 → Mg

Nutrition and Digestion · Nutrients - carbohydrates, proteins, fats

Q38. Which nutrient is primarily responsible for building and repairing tissues in the human body?

(a) Carbohydrates
(b) Fats
(c) Proteins
(d) Vitamins

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Proteins

Proteins are the primary macronutrient responsible for building and repairing body tissues.
Functions of other nutrients:
• Carbohydrates → Main source of energy for the body.
• Fats → Long-term energy storage, insulation, absorption of fat-soluble vitamins.
• Vitamins → Regulatory functions, enzyme co-factors (do not build tissue directly).
• Proteins → Muscle building, tissue repair, enzymes, antibodies, hormones.
Key: Proteins are made of amino acids — the 'building blocks' of the body.
Answer: Option 3 → Proteins

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