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RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 18 March 2026 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 40 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC GL CBT-1 2025-26 on 18 March 2026 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Economics, Polity, Static GK, Current Affairs, Computer, Chemistry.

📚 40 questions🗓️ 18 March 2026⏰ Shift 3
हिंदी में पढ़ें📥 Full paper PDF
Subjects: Economics (4) · Polity (6) · Static GK (6) · Current Affairs (6) · Computer (3) · Chemistry (1) · Geography (6) · Physics (2) · Modern History (3) · Biology (1) · Miscellaneous (1) · Ancient History (1)

Economics (4)

Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Union Budget - latest highlights

Q1. Which of the following was the capital expenditure (capex) announced for FY 2025-26 in the Union Budget of India?

  1. (a) ₹11.21 lakh crore
  2. (b) ₹8 lakh crore
  3. (c) ₹10.0 lakh crore
  4. (d) ₹13.5 lakh crore
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) ₹11.21 lakh crore

The Finance Minister announced the Union Budget 2025-26 in Parliament.
Key Announcement: Capital Expenditure (Capex) allocation for infrastructure and development projects was set at₹11.21 lakh crore.
This represents a significant investment in nation-building activities including roads, railways, and digital infrastructure.
Answer: Option 1 → ₹11.21 lakh crore
Planning and NITI Aayog · Indian economy at independence and the 1950-90 phase

Q2. What economic system was adopted by India post-1947 to balance the development of different sectors?

  1. (a) Pure capitalism
  2. (b) Mixed economy
  3. (c) Pure socialism
  4. (d) Command economy
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Mixed economy

After 1947, India adopted aMixed Economymodel.
Key Features:
• Combined elements of capitalism and socialism
• Both public and private sectors coexist
• Government controls key industries (PSUs)
• Private sector allowed in other areas
This balanced approach aimed at equitable growth
while preventing concentration of wealth.
Answer: Option 2 → Mixed economy
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q3. Which of the following is the outcome of Globalization in India's economy?

  1. (a) Privatisation
  2. (b) Nationalisation
  3. (c) Liberalisation
  4. (d) Outsourcing
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Outsourcing

Globalization = Integration of Indian economy with world economy
Key outcomes:
• Foreign companies entering India
• Indian companies going global
•Outsourcing- Foreign companies hiring Indian workers/services
• IT, BPO, KPO sectors grew due to outsourcing
Note: Liberalisation & Privatisation arecausesof globalization (LPG reforms 1991), not outcomes
Answer: Option 4 → Outsourcing
Industry and Infrastructure · Infrastructure sectors

Q4. What is one direct way in which economic infrastructure contributes to development?

  1. (a) It limits the expansion and growth of physical capital in various sectors
  2. (b) It restricts the improvements in human capital affecting labor quality
  3. (c) It decreases the overall productivity of all inputs across different sectors
  4. (d) The output or the final products of different segments of infrastructure
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) The output or the final products of different segments of infrastructure

Economic Infrastructure & Development
Infrastructure directly contributes through itsoutput/services:
• Transport → Movement of goods/people
• Energy → Power supply for production
• Communication → Information exchange
These outputs enable production in other sectors.
Options 1-3 describe negative impacts (incorrect).
Option 4 correctly identifies infrastructure's direct contribution.
Answer: Option 4 → The output or the final products of different segments of infrastructure

Polity (6)

Amendments and Important Articles · Important articles and their subjects

Q5. Which Article empowers the President to specify the Scheduled Castes in various states and union territories?

  1. (a) Article 330
  2. (b) Article 344
  3. (c) Article 342
  4. (d) Article 341
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Article 341

Article 341empowers the President to specify which castes, races, or tribes shall be deemed as Scheduled Castes in relation to any State or Union Territory.
The President may, after consultation with the Governor of the concerned State, notify the list of Scheduled Castes.
Parliament alone can modify this list through law; no executive order can alter it.
Note:Article 342 deals with Scheduled Tribes specification.
Answer: Option 4 → Article 341
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · National Emergency (Article 352)

Q6. Which constitutional amendment reduced the Parliament’s approval period for National Emergency from two months to one month?

  1. (a) 52nd Amendment Act, 1985
  2. (b) 44th Amendment Act, 1978
  3. (c) 38th Amendment Act, 1975
  4. (d) 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 44th Amendment Act, 1978

44th Amendment Act, 1978made several changes to Emergency provisions:
1. Reduced Parliament's approval period from2 months to 1 month
2. Changed grounds from 'internal disturbance' to'armed rebellion'
3. Made President's satisfactionjusticiable in courts
4. Requiredwritten advice of Cabinetfor Emergency proclamation
This amendment was enacted to prevent misuse of Emergency powers after 1975-77 Emergency.
Answer: Option 2 → 44th Amendment Act, 1978
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q7. The Indian Constitution empowers the Parliament to make laws on matters in the State List under which of the following circumstances?
1. When the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution to that effect
2. During a National Emergency
3. When states make a request
4. To implement international agreements
5. At the discretion of the Prime Minister

  1. (a) 2, 3, 4, and 5 only
  2. (b) 1, 2, 3, and 5 only
  3. (c) 1, 2, 4, and 5 only
  4. (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 only
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 1, 2, 3, and 4 only

Constitutional Provisions (Articles 249, 250, 252, 253):
1. Rajya Sabha Resolution (Art. 249):If Rajya Sabha passes resolution by 2/3 majority that it is necessary in national interest
2. National Emergency (Art. 250):During proclamation of emergency under Art. 352
3. State Request (Art. 252):When two or more states pass resolutions requesting Parliament to legislate
4. International Agreements (Art. 253):To implement treaties, agreements, and conventions with foreign countries
5. PM's Discretion:NOT a constitutional provision - Parliament cannot legislate at PM's discretion alone
Answer: Option 4 → 1, 2, 3, and 4 only
DPSP and Fundamental Duties · Fundamental Duties - Article 51A and list

Q8. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution contains the fundamental duties?

  1. (a) Article 41A
  2. (b) Article 31A
  3. (c) Article 51A
  4. (d) Article 61A
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Article 51A

Article 51Acontains the Fundamental Duties of citizens.
Added by42nd Amendment Act, 1976on recommendation of Swaran Singh Committee.
Originally 10 duties; 11th duty added by86th Amendment, 2002(education of children aged 6-14).
Other options: Article 31A (saving of land reform laws), Article 41A (doesn't exist), Article 61A (doesn't exist).
Answer: Option 3 → Article 51A
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q9. When a law passed by a State Legislature clashes with a Parliamentary law on a Concurrent List subject, what is the legal outcome?

  1. (a) The Parliament is obligated to annul the state law
  2. (b) The state legislation automatically overrides the central law
  3. (c) The central law overrides the state law unless the state law has Presidential assent
  4. (d) The matter is settled through a ruling by the Supreme Court
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The central law overrides the state law unless the state law has Presidential assent

Constitutional Provision:
When Parliament and State Legislature both make laws on Concurrent List subjects, Article 254 applies.
General Rule:
Central law prevails over state law in case of conflict (repugnancy).
Exception:
If state law receivesPresidential assent, it prevails in that state despite central law.
Parliament can still override by making another law later.
Answer: Option 3 → The central law overrides the state law unless the state law has Presidential assent
Special Provisions, Official Language and Miscellaneous Provisions · Union Territories administration

Q10. According to ____ of the Indian Constitution, the Parliament may by law, constitute a High Court for a Union territory.

  1. (a) Article 239
  2. (b) Article 241
  3. (c) Article 238
  4. (d) Article 240
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 241

Article 241empowers Parliament to establish a High Court for a Union Territory or declare any court as High Court for that UT.
Article 239: Administrator of Union Territories
Article 240: Power to make regulations for certain UTs
Article 238: Repealed (related to Part B states)
Answer: Option 2 → Article 241

Static GK (6)

Personalities and Nicknames · Nicknames and titles of persons

Q11. Who was popularly known as the ' Payyoli Express' in Indian sports history?

  1. (a) Leander Paes
  2. (b) PT Usha
  3. (c) Shoaib Akhtar
  4. (d) Sania Mirza
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) PT Usha

PT Ushais known as the 'Payyoli Express'.
She is fromPayyolivillage in Kerala.
Famous Indian sprinter and athlete.
Known for her exceptional speed in track events.
Answer: Option 2 → PT Usha
Monuments and Heritage · Forts and palaces

Q12. Which of the following rulers built Tughlaqabad Fort in 1321?

  1. (a) Muhammad bin Tughlaq
  2. (b) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
  3. (c) Alauddin Khalji
  4. (d) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq

Ghiyasuddin Tughlaqfounded the Tughlaq dynasty in 1320.
He builtTughlaqabad Fortin 1321 as his capital city.
The fort is located in Delhi and known for its massive stone walls.
Answer: Option 4 → Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Painting styles and schools

Q13. Which painting form is known for its monochromatic style using white pigment on mud walls?

  1. (a) Madhubani
  2. (b) Pahari
  3. (c) Gond
  4. (d) Warli
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Warli

Warli Painting Characteristics:
• Originated from Warli tribe of Maharashtra
• Useswhite pigment (rice paste)on mud walls
•Monochromatic style(white on brown/red)
• Simple geometric patterns depicting daily life
Other Options:
Madhubani - Colorful, Bihar origin
Pahari - Miniature paintings, Himalayan region
Gond - Colorful dots and lines, Madhya Pradesh
Answer: Option 4 → Warli
Important Days and Themes · International days

Q14. In 2025, with the theme “My Great Story: Cultures and Development”, International Migrants Day was observed on which of the following dates?

  1. (a) December 21
  2. (b) December 20
  3. (c) December 19
  4. (d) December 18
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) December 18

International Migrants Day
Observed annually onDecember 18
2025 Theme:My Great Story: Cultures and Development
Commemorates adoption of International Convention on Protection of Rights of All Migrant Workers (1990)
Answer: Option 4 → December 18
Dances · Dance institutions and awards

Q15. By which of the following names is the National Institute of Kathak Dance commonly known as?

  1. (a) Kathak Kendra
  2. (b) Lucknow Dance University
  3. (c) Natya Institute of Kathak and Choreography
  4. (d) Kathakali Kendra
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Kathak Kendra

The National Institute of Kathak Dance was established in 1964.
It is commonly known asKathak Kendra.
Located in New Delhi, it is one of the premier institutions for Kathak dance in India.
Answer: Option 1 → Kathak Kendra
Music and Musical Instruments · Indian classical music - overview and traditions

Q16. Which of the following is a similarity between Hindustani and Carnatic music systems?

  1. (a) Rejection of Shruti concept
  2. (b) Foundation on Raga and Tala
  3. (c) Exclusive focus on instrumental music
  4. (d) Use of identical compositions
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Foundation on Raga and Tala

Hindustani Music:North Indian classical tradition
Carnatic Music:South Indian classical tradition
Common Foundation:
Both systems based onRaga(melodic framework)
Both systems based onTala(rhythmic cycle)
Key Points:
• Both accept Shruti concept (22 microtones)
• Both include vocal and instrumental forms
• Compositions differ in style and structure
Answer: Option 2 → Foundation on Raga and Tala

Current Affairs (6)

Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q17. In December 2025, which organization issued a Request for Proposal ( RfP ) to establish 'Space Labs' in universities across India?

  1. (a) Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN- SPACe )
  2. (b) Department of Science and Technology (DST)
  3. (c) Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO)
  4. (d) Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO)
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN- SPACe )

IN- SPACe(Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre) issued the RfP to establish 'Space Labs' in universities.
Purpose:To promote space education, research, and innovation in academic institutions across India.
IN- SPACe Role:Autonomous nodal agency under DOS for promoting private sector participation in space activities and facilitating space education.
Answer: Option 1 → Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN- SPACe )
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Technology launches and AI

Q18. Which indigenous microprocessor, launched in 2025, marked a milestone in India’s technological self-reliance as the country’s first 1.0 GHz, 64-bit dual-core processor?

  1. (a) DHRUV64 microprocessor
  2. (b) SHAKTI-X64 microprocessor
  3. (c) BHARAT-Core 64 microprocessor
  4. (d) VEGA-64 indigenous processor
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) DHRUV64 microprocessor

DHRUV64 Microprocessor (2025)
India's first indigenous 1.0 GHz processor
Features: 64-bit dual-core architecture
Milestone in Atmanirbhar Bharat initiative
Represents India's technological self-reliance
Answer: Option 1 → DHRUV64 microprocessor
International Affairs and Summits · Summits and conferences

Q19. Which organization concluded its 46ᵗʰ summit in Manama, where leaders adopted the Sakhir Declaration, reaffirming their commitment to deeper political, security, and economic integration?

  1. (a) Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC)
  2. (b) Arab League
  3. (c) Organization of Islamic Cooperation (OIC)
  4. (d) United Nations (UN)
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC)

Key Facts:
1. The 46th GCC Summit was held in Manama, Bahrain in December 2025.
2. Leaders adopted theSakhir Declarationat this summit.
3. The declaration reaffirmed commitment to deeper political, security, and economic integration among member states.
4. GCC members: Saudi Arabia, UAE, Qatar, Kuwait, Bahrain, and Oman.
Answer: Option 1 → Gulf Cooperation Council (GCC)
International Affairs and Summits · Bilateral agreements and visits

Q20. On November 20, 2025, India signed the Terms of Reference ( ToR ) to initiate negotiations for a comprehensive Free Trade Agreement with which country?

  1. (a) Israel
  2. (b) Australia
  3. (c) United Arab Emirates
  4. (d) Canada
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Israel

India-Israel Free Trade Agreement (FTA)
OnNovember 20, 2025, India signed the Terms of Reference ( ToR ) withIsraelto begin negotiations for a comprehensive Free Trade Agreement.
This marks a significant step in strengthening bilateral trade relations between the two nations.
The FTA aims to boost trade in goods, services, and investment cooperation.
Answer: Option 1 → Israel
Environment and Climate - Current · Climate summits (COP)

Q21. In December 2025, at which international event did India deliver its National Statement highlighting clean energy progress and Mission LiFE ?

  1. (a) 7th Session of the United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA)
  2. (b) COP26 Climate Summit
  3. (c) G20 Summit
  4. (d) World Environment Day 2024
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 7th Session of the United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA)

UNEA-7 (December 2025)
India delivered its National Statement at the 7th Session of the United Nations Environment Assembly held in Nairobi, Kenya.
Key Highlights of India's Statement:
• Showcased progress in clean energy initiatives
• EmphasizedMission LiFE(Lifestyle for Environment)
• Demonstrated commitment to sustainable development
Other Options:
COP26 was held in 2021, G20 Summit is economic forum, World Environment Day 2024 occurred earlier.
Answer: Option 1 → 7th Session of the United Nations Environment Assembly (UNEA)
Environment and Climate - Current · Species discoveries and conservation news

Q22. Why did the Supreme Court consider mining activities near national parks and sanctuaries hazardous according to the November 13, 2025 order?

  1. (a) Because they create water sources
  2. (b) Because they increase tourism
  3. (c) Because they are dangerous to wildlife
  4. (d) Because they boost local economy
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Because they are dangerous to wildlife

Supreme Court Order - November 13, 2025
Context: Mining activities near protected areas
Key Concern:Wildlife Safety
Mining operations cause habitat destruction, noise pollution,
and environmental degradation that directly threaten wildlife
in national parks and sanctuaries.
Court's View: Such activities pose serious danger to
flora and fauna in protected ecological zones.
Answer: Option 3 → Because they are dangerous to wildlife

Computer (3)

MS Office and Productivity Tools · Keyboard shortcuts

Q23. A user mistakenly turns on the overwrite mode and each new letter replaces the old one in a line. Which key is responsible for toggling between the insert mode and the overwrite mode?

  1. (a) F5
  2. (b) Ins
  3. (c) Del
  4. (d) Tab
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ins

TheInsert (Ins)key toggles between two text entry modes:
Insert Mode:New text pushes existing text forward
Overwrite Mode:New text replaces existing text
Other keys:
F5 → Refresh/Slideshow in applications
Del → Deletes character to the right of cursor
Tab → Moves cursor to next tab stop
Answer: Option 2 → Ins
Computer Fundamentals and History · Applications of computers

Q24. Which of the following demonstrates the use of computers in scientific research?

  1. (a) Online shopping
  2. (b) Ticket reservation
  3. (c) Word processing
  4. (d) Simulation of experiments
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Simulation of experiments

Scientific research requires complex calculations,
modeling, and testing hypotheses without physical risks.
Simulation of experimentsallows scientists to:
- Model complex phenomena (weather, molecular structures)
- Test dangerous scenarios safely (nuclear reactions)
- Analyze large datasets and predict outcomes
Other options are commercial/office applications,
not scientific research tools.
Answer: Option 4 → Simulation of experiments
Computer Fundamentals and History · History of computers and pioneers

Q25. In which year was the world’s first commercial microprocessor, the Intel 4004, launched?

  1. (a) 1985
  2. (b) 1960
  3. (c) 1945
  4. (d) 1971
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 1971

Intel 4004 was the world's first commercial microprocessor.
It was a 4-bit CPU designed by Federico Faggin, Ted Hoff, and Stanley Mazor.
Launched in November 1971 by Intel Corporation.
Answer: Option 4 → 1971

Chemistry (1)

Structure of Atom · Rutherford's model and gold foil experiment

Q26. Which of the following scientists proposed the nuclear model of the atom based on the results of the gold foil experiment?

  1. (a) J.J. Thomson
  2. (b) John Dalton
  3. (c) Ernest Rutherford
  4. (d) Niels Bohr
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ernest Rutherford

Gold Foil Experiment (1911):
Ernest Rutherford bombarded thin gold foil with alpha particles.
Key Observations:
Most particles passed through, few deflected at large angles.
Concluded: Atom has small, dense, positive nucleus at center.
Other Scientists:
J.J. Thomson → Plum pudding model (electrons in positive sphere)
John Dalton → Solid sphere model (indivisible atom)
Niels Bohr → Planetary model with electron orbits (after Rutherford)
Answer: Option 3 → Ernest Rutherford

Geography (6)

India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Soil types and distribution

Q27. Which of the following is NOT a feature of alluvial soils in India?

  1. (a) Rich in potash
  2. (b) Very fertile
  3. (c) Mainly consists of sand, silt and clay
  4. (d) Primarily found in the Deccan Plateau
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Primarily found in the Deccan Plateau

Features of Alluvial Soils:
• Composed of sand, silt, and clay deposits
• Very fertile and suitable for agriculture
• Rich in potash but deficient in nitrogen
• Found in Indo-Gangetic plains, river valleys, and deltas
Deccan Plateau:
Primarily covered byBlack Soil (Regur), not alluvial soil
Black soil is volcanic in origin, rich in iron and lime
Answer: Option 4 → Primarily found in the Deccan Plateau
India - Minerals, Energy and Industries · Power plants (thermal, hydro, nuclear, solar, wind)

Q28. Identify the southernmost atomic/nuclear power station of India from the following options.

  1. (a) Kakrapar Atomic Power Station
  2. (b) Madras Atomic Power Station
  3. (c) Narora Atomic Power Station
  4. (d) Kudankulam Nuclear Power Station
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Kudankulam Nuclear Power Station

Location Analysis:
Kakrapar → Gujarat (West)
Madras → Kalpakkam , Tamil Nadu (South)
Narora → Uttar Pradesh (North)
Kudankulam → Tamil Nadu (Southernmost tip)
Key Fact:
Kudankulam is located in Tirunelveli district,
Tamil Nadu, near the southern tip of India.
It is India's largest nuclear power station.
Answer: Option 4 → Kudankulam Nuclear Power Station
India - Minerals, Energy and Industries · Metallic minerals and mines

Q29. Which plateau belt in India is notably rich in both iron ore and coal resources?

  1. (a) North-Eastern Plateau Region
  2. (b) West-Eastern Plateau Region
  3. (c) North-Western Plateau Region
  4. (d) South-Western Plateau Region
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) North-Eastern Plateau Region

TheNorth-Eastern Plateau Region(Chota Nagpur Plateau) is India's richest mineral belt.
Key Features:
• Contains major iron ore deposits in Jharkhand and Odisha
• Rich coal reserves in Jharkhand, West Bengal, and Chhattisgarh
• Known as the 'Ruhr of India' due to mineral wealth
Major Areas: Singhbhum (iron), Raniganj , Jharia, Bokaro (coal)
Answer: Option 1 → North-Eastern Plateau Region
India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Islands (Andaman & Nicobar, Lakshadweep)

Q30. The total area covered by the Andaman & Nicobar Islands is approximately:

  1. (a) 6,249 sq. kms
  2. (b) 8,249 sq. kms
  3. (c) 7,567sq. kms
  4. (d) 5,163 sq. kms
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 8,249 sq. kms

The Andaman & Nicobar Islands is a Union Territory of India located in the Bay of Bengal.
Total geographical area:8,249 sq. km
It comprises 572 islands, of which only 37 are inhabited.
Capital: Port Blair
Answer: Option 2 → 8,249 sq. kms
Atmosphere and Climate · Climate classification and climatic regions

Q31. In climatology, what most accurately explains how seasonal conditions are experienced at a particular location?

  1. (a) Long-term average atmospheric patterns of the region
  2. (b) Latitudinal position of the place
  3. (c) Short-term fluctuations in atmospheric elements
  4. (d) Permanent climatic classification of the area
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Long-term average atmospheric patterns of the region

Key Concept:Seasons are determined by long-term atmospheric patterns, not short-term weather changes.
Analysis:
• Seasonal conditions = recurring weather patterns over years
• Based on temperature, rainfall, wind patterns averaged over 30+ years
• Latitude affects climate but doesn't explain seasonal variations alone
• Short-term fluctuations = weather, not seasonal patterns
Conclusion:Long-term average atmospheric patterns define seasonal characteristics of any location.
Answer: Option 1 → Long-term average atmospheric patterns of the region
Atmosphere and Climate · Climate classification and climatic regions

Q32. The tropical climatic region is mainly confined to which latitudinal extent of the Earth?

  1. (a) 23.5°N and 23.5°S
  2. (b) 30.5°N and 30.5°S
  3. (c) 13.5°N and 13.5°S
  4. (d) 28.5°N and 28.5°S
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 23.5°N and 23.5°S

The tropical region lies between theTropic of Cancer(23.5°N) and theTropic of Capricorn(23.5°S).
This zone receivesdirect sunlightthroughout the year, resulting in high temperatures and tropical climate.
The Sun is directly overhead at least once a year within these latitudes.
Answer: Option 1 → 23.5°N and 23.5°S

Physics (2)

Force and Laws of Motion · Newton's first law and inertia

Q33. When a motorcar makes a sharp turn at high speed, we tend to get thrown to one side. Which of the following explains this phenomenon?

  1. (a) Change in air pressure inside the car pushes us outwards.
  2. (b) The law of inertia causes our body to resist the change in direction.
  3. (c) The friction between the road and the tires decreases.
  4. (d) The force of gravity acts in the opposite direction.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The law of inertia causes our body to resist the change in direction.

When car turns sharply, it changes direction due to centripetal force from road friction.
Our body tends to continue in straight-line motion due toinertia.
Body resists the change in direction → appears to be thrown outward.
This isnot a real outward force, but effect of inertia in non-inertial frame.
Answer: Option 2 → The law of inertia causes our body to resist the change in direction.
Sound and Waves · Speed of sound in different media

Q34. Which of the following options is closest to the speed of sound in air?

  1. (a) 340 m/s
  2. (b) 3 x 108 m/s
  3. (c) 3400 km/s
  4. (d) 12000 m/s
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 340 m/s

Speed of sound in air at 20°C ≈343 m/s
Check other options:
Option 2: 3×10⁸ m/s = Speed of light (not sound)
Option 3: 3400 km/s = 3,400,000 m/s (too high)
Option 4: 12000 m/s (too high, supersonic jets ~1000 m/s)
Answer: Option 1 → 340 m/s

Modern History (3)

Socio-Religious Reform Movements · Women reformers

Q35. Which of the following social reformers founded the Arya Mahila Samaj to serve the cause of women?

  1. (a) Mehribai Tata
  2. (b) Pandita Ramabai
  3. (c) Sarla Devi Chaudhurani
  4. (d) Tarabai Premchand
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Pandita Ramabai

Pandita Ramabai (1858-1922)was a renowned social reformer and women's rights activist.
She founded theArya Mahila Samajin Pune in 1882 to promote women's education and empowerment.
She also established Sharada Sadan (1889) and Mukti Mission (1898) for widows and destitute women.
Answer: Option 2 → Pandita Ramabai
Peasant, Tribal and Civil Uprisings · Early civil and tribal revolts

Q36. Why is the Paika Rebellion of Odisha regarded as distinct among early anti-colonial uprisings in terms of the social background and traditional functions of its participants?

  1. (a) It was driven mainly by urban craft guilds and traders
  2. (b) It was led by hereditary militia with local administrative roles
  3. (c) It was organised by large zamindars seeking revenue concessions
  4. (d) It depended on support from foreign mercenary forces
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) It was led by hereditary militia with local administrative roles

Paika Rebellion (1817), Odisha
Paikas= hereditary militia class in Odisha
Traditional role: military service + local policing/administration under Gajapati kings
British abolished their rent-free land grants (jagirs) and administrative functions
Loss of livelihood and status → rebellion under Bakshi Jagabandhu
Unique feature: warrior class with dual military-administrative heritage
Answer: Option 2 → It was led by hereditary militia with local administrative roles
Peasant, Tribal and Civil Uprisings · Early civil and tribal revolts

Q37. In which present-day state did the Jungle Mahal Uprising, also known as the Bhumij Revolt, take place?

  1. (a) Odisha
  2. (b) Jharkhand
  3. (c) West Bengal
  4. (d) Bihar
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) West Bengal

Jungle Mahal Uprising (Bhumij Revolt)
Period: 1832-1833
Leader:Ganga Narain Hangambar Singh
Location: Jungle Mahal region (present-dayWest Bengal)
The Bhumij tribal community revolted against British land revenue policies and exploitation in the forested regions of Jungle Mahal.
Answer: Option 3 → West Bengal

Biology (1)

Heredity and Evolution · Chromosomes, genes and DNA

Q38. The intermediary that DNA molecules use to communicate with the rest of the cell is the:

  1. (a) tRNA
  2. (b) miRNA
  3. (c) rRNA
  4. (d) mRNA
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) mRNA

Central Dogma of Molecular Biology:
DNA → mRNA → Protein
Key Facts:
1.mRNA (messenger RNA)carries genetic information from DNA to ribosomes
2. Acts as intermediary between DNA (nucleus) and protein synthesis machinery
3. tRNA brings amino acids, rRNA forms ribosomes, miRNA regulates genes
Function:mRNA transcribes DNA code and translates it into proteins
Answer: Option 4 → mRNA

Miscellaneous (1)

General Miscellaneous · Non-GK items (reasoning or maths) - keep out of GK mocks

Q39. Two trains, Train A and Train B, are running on parallel tracks in the same direction. Train A, which is 150 metres long, is moving at 72 km/ hr , while Train B, which is 120 metres long, is moving at 54 km/hr. How long will it take for Train A to completely overtake Train B?

  1. (a) 52 seconds
  2. (b) 58 seconds
  3. (c) 54 seconds
  4. (d) 50 seconds
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 54 seconds

Given: Train A length = 150 m, speed = 72 km/ hr
Train B length = 120 m, speed = 54 km/ hr
Relative speed = 72 - 54 = 18 km/ hr
Convert to m/s: 18 ×(5)/(18)= 5 m/s
Total distance to overtake = 150 + 120 = 270 m
Time = Distance/Speed =(270)/(5)= 54 seconds
Answer: Option 3 → 54 seconds

Ancient History (1)

Post-Gupta Period · Harshavardhana

Q40. Who among the following was the court poet of the Vardhana ruler, Harsha?

  1. (a) Harishena
  2. (b) Kalashoka
  3. (c) Banabhatta
  4. (d) Vasumitra
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Banabhatta

Banabhattawas the renowned court poet of Emperor Harsha (606-647 CE).
He wroteHarshacharita(biography of Harsha) andKadambari(Sanskrit novel).
Harishena was court poet of Samudragupta (Gupta dynasty).
Answer: Option 3 → Banabhatta
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