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RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 9 September 2025 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 37 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2024-25 on 9 September 2025 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Current Affairs, Chemistry, Economics, Modern History, Geography, Polity.

📚 37 questions🗓️ 9 September 2025⏰ Shift 3
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Subjects: Current Affairs (9) · Chemistry (2) · Economics (4) · Modern History (3) · Geography (6) · Polity (5) · Static GK (2) · Medieval History (2) · Physics (1) · Computer (2) · Ancient History (1)

Current Affairs (9)

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q1. In April 2025, which Indian opposition leader discussed concerns about democratic backsliding in a 2025 event at Brown University?

  1. (a) Arvind Kejriwal
  2. (b) Sharad Pawar
  3. (c) Rahul Gandhi
  4. (d) Mamata Banerjee
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Rahul Gandhi

Defence and Security - Current · Military exercises - current

Q2. Where was INIOCHOS-25, the multinational air exercise hosted by the Hellenic Air Force, conducted?

  1. (a) Macedonia
  2. (b) Albania
  3. (c) Greece
  4. (d) Bulgaria
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Greece

Q3. Which ministry introduced the Drugs and Cosmetics (Compounding of Offences) Rules, 2025, to streamline minor offence resolution?

  1. (a) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
  2. (b) Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers
  3. (c) Ministry of Pharmaceuticals
  4. (d) Ministry of Consumer Affairs, Food and Public Distribution
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare

Defence and Security - Current · Defence production, exports, policies and expos

Q4. In June 2025, Garden Reach Shipbuilders & Engineers Limited (GRSE) signed an MoU with Norway’s Kongsberg to build India’s first vessel in which category?

  1. (a) Polar research vessel
  2. (b) Deep-submergence rescue vessel
  3. (c) Hospital ship
  4. (d) Aircraft carrier
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Polar research vessel

Awards and Honours - Current · Sports and film awards - current

Q5. Who received the Football Writers' Association (FWA) Women's Footballer of the Year award for the 2024-25 season?

  1. (a) Khadija Shaw
  2. (b) Lauren James
  3. (c) Alessia Russo
  4. (d) Mariona Caldentey
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Alessia Russo

International Affairs and Summits · Global events and elections

Q6. John Dramani Mahama has been sworn in as the President of which country in January 2025?

  1. (a) Morocco
  2. (b) South Africa
  3. (c) Kenya
  4. (d) Ghana
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Ghana

Science, Technology and Space - Current · Technology launches and AI

Q7. Who among the following launched the AIKosha in 2025?

  1. (a) Union Minister for Health & Family Welfare
  2. (b) Union Minister for Defence
  3. (c) Union Minister for Electronics & Information Technology
  4. (d) Union Minister for Finance
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Union Minister for Electronics & Information Technology

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q8. The 18ᵗʰ Pravasi Bharatiya Divas Convention (PBD) 2025 was held in which month of 2025 in Bhubaneswar?

  1. (a) March
  2. (b) January
  3. (c) February
  4. (d) April
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) January

Q9. To align with modern industrial practices, which new order did the Central Government introduce in 2025 to replace the Sugar (Control) Order, 1966?

  1. (a) The Sugar (Production and Supply) Order, 2025
  2. (b) The Sugar (Monitoring and Pricing) Order, 2025
  3. (c) The Sugar (Trade and Export) Order, 2025
  4. (d) The Sugar (Control) Order, 2025
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) The Sugar (Control) Order, 2025

Chemistry (2)

Atoms, Molecules and Mole Concept · Dalton's atomic theory

Q10. When did John Dalton publish his atomic theory that holds that all elements are made up of tiny, indivisible particles?

  1. (a) 1803
  2. (b) 1798
  3. (c) 1800
  4. (d) 1808
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 1808

Acids, Bases and Salts · Properties of acids

Q11. Which pair acts as a conjugate acid–base pair?

  1. (a) Cl₂ and Cl⁻
  2. (b) NaOH and OH⁻
  3. (c) H₂O and HCl
  4. (d) NH₄⁺ and NH₃
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) NH₄⁺ and NH₃

Economics (4)

Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q12. What was the major aim of India’s 1991 economic reforms?

  1. (a) To stabilise India’s economy
  2. (b) To increase government control
  3. (c) To nationalise all companies
  4. (d) To reduce taxes on luxury goods
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) To stabilise India’s economy

Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Sectors of the economy (primary, secondary, tertiary)

Q13. Tertiary activities are also known as the:

  1. (a) industrial sector
  2. (b) health sector
  3. (c) service sector
  4. (d) agricultural sector
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) service sector

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Skill development and employment schemes

Q14. What is the eligibility criteria for the beneficiaries of the Prime Minister Employment Generation Programme (PMEGP) for projects costing above ₹10 lakh in the manufacturing sector and above ₹5 lakh in the business/service sector?

  1. (a) At least X standard pass
  2. (b) At least V standard pass
  3. (c) At least XII standard pass
  4. (d) At least VIII standard pass
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) At least VIII standard pass

Agriculture and Food Security · Rural development and rural credit

Q15. Which of the following factors has least contributed to rural distress in India?

  1. (a) Declining productivity of rainfed agriculture
  2. (b) Post-harvest infrastructure shortages
  3. (c) High rural literacy levels
  4. (d) Fragmentation of land holdings
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) High rural literacy levels

Modern History (3)

Peasant, Tribal and Civil Uprisings · Early civil and tribal revolts

Q16. The Sannyasi-Fakir Rebellion commenced in the second half of which of the following centuries?

  1. (a) 19ᵗʰ
  2. (b) 17ᵗʰ
  3. (c) 18ᵗʰ
  4. (d) 16ᵗʰ
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 18ᵗʰ

Post-Independence India · Wars and treaties (1947 onwards)

Q17. To resolve peace following the riots that followed the Partition, the ‘Delhi Pact’ was signed between the Indian Prime Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru, and the Pakistan Prime Minister, __________.

  1. (a) Muhammad Ali Jinnah
  2. (b) Malik Firoz Khan Noon
  3. (c) Benazir Bhutto
  4. (d) Liaquat Ali Khan
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Liaquat Ali Khan

Rise of Nationalism and Indian National Congress · Extremists - leaders and methods

Q18. What was the Extremists’ method to resist British policies apart from agitation and boycott?

  1. (a) Cultural assimilation
  2. (b) Passive resistance
  3. (c) Armed rebellion
  4. (d) Petitioning Parliament
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Passive resistance

Geography (6)

India - Population and Census · Human settlements - rural and urban types

Q19. Why are tribal settlements usually located in remote and forested areas of India?

  1. (a) Due to easy access to modern infrastructure
  2. (b) Because forests provide natural resources and livelihood
  3. (c) Because government policies force them to live there
  4. (d) Because they are not allowed to enter cities
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Because forests provide natural resources and livelihood

Atmosphere and Climate · Weather, climate and climatic controls

Q20. Which of the following options explains the variation in temperature between coastal and interior parts of India?

  1. (a) Latitude
  2. (b) Continentality
  3. (c) Pressure belts
  4. (d) Altitude
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Continentality

Lithosphere - Earth's Interior and Landforms · Geomorphic processes and mass movements

Q21. Which of the following mass movements occurs when saturated soil and debris flow down a slope during heavy rainfall?

  1. (a) Avalanche
  2. (b) Soil creep
  3. (c) Rockfall
  4. (d) Mudflow
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Mudflow

India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Peninsular plateau and hills

Q22. What type of rocks mainly compose the Peninsular Plateau of India?

  1. (a) Layers of limestone and sandstone from marine origin
  2. (b) Young sedimentary rocks formed in coastal plains
  3. (c) Old crystalline, igneous and metamorphic rocks
  4. (d) Recent volcanic lava deposits from plate margins
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Old crystalline, igneous and metamorphic rocks

India - Transport and Communication · Airports and aviation

Q23. Airports play a vital role in improving regional connectivity. Which scheme promotes affordable air travel to under-served and unserved airports?

  1. (a) UDAY
  2. (b) UDAN
  3. (c) PM Gati Shakti
  4. (d) Sagarmala
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) UDAN

Environment and Protected Areas · Environmental conventions and protocols (Montreal, Kyoto, Paris, CBD)

Q24. The Kyoto Protocol is related to (the) _____.

  1. (a) desertification control
  2. (b) protection of ozone layer
  3. (c) preservation of wildlife
  4. (d) reduction of greenhouse gas emissions
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) reduction of greenhouse gas emissions

Polity (5)

Local Government · 74th Amendment - urban local bodies

Q25. Which type of Municipality is formed for a transitional area under Article 243Q of the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) Municipal Council
  2. (b) Town Panchayat
  3. (c) Nagar Panchayat
  4. (d) Municipal Corporation
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Nagar Panchayat

Union Executive · President - powers (executive, legislative, veto, pardon, ordinance)

Q26. Which Article gives the President of India the power to grant pardons and reprieves?

  1. (a) Article 75
  2. (b) Article 74
  3. (c) Article 76
  4. (d) Article 72
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Article 72

DPSP and Fundamental Duties · Fundamental Duties - Article 51A and list

Q27. Which of the following duties was added by the Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002?

  1. (a) To protect the environment
  2. (b) To develop a scientific temper
  3. (c) To uphold and protect national unity
  4. (d) To provide education to children aged six to fourteen years
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) To provide education to children aged six to fourteen years

Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q28. What is the nature of the Concurrent List in the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) Both the Centre and the States can legislate
  2. (b) Exclusively for Union
  3. (c) Only during emergencies
  4. (d) Exclusively for States
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both the Centre and the States can legislate

Parliament · Sessions, adjournment, prorogation and dissolution

Q29. In India, how many sessions of Parliament are held in a year?

  1. (a) Two
  2. (b) One
  3. (c) Six
  4. (d) Three
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Three

Static GK (2)

Organisations and Headquarters · Heads of national bodies

Q30. As in May 2025, who was the Secretary, Department of Atomic Energy (DAE) & Chairman, Atomic Energy Commission (AEC)?

  1. (a) Ratan Kumar Sinha
  2. (b) Sekhar Basu
  3. (c) Ajit Kumar Mohanty
  4. (d) KN Vyas
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ajit Kumar Mohanty

Cinema and Media · Films and film personalities

Q31. What is the term for India’s mainstream Hindi-language film industry?

  1. (a) Mollywood
  2. (b) Kollywood
  3. (c) Tollywood
  4. (d) Bollywood
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Bollywood

Medieval History (2)

Later Mughals and Regional Powers · Bengal, Awadh and Hyderabad

Q32. On which of the following states of India did Siraj-ud- Daula, Mir Jafar and Mir Qasim rule in the 18ᵗʰ century?

  1. (a) Andhra
  2. (b) Kerala
  3. (c) Gujarat
  4. (d) Bengal
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Bengal

Delhi Sultanate · Sultanate economy and market reforms

Q33. Who among the following Delhi Sultans controlled the prices of food; horses, ponies, cattle and slaves; cloth and fruit; and articles for domestic consumption and personal use?

  1. (a) Alauddin Khalji
  2. (b) Ghiyasuddin Balban
  3. (c) Ghiyasuddin Tughluq
  4. (d) Khizr Khan
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Alauddin Khalji

Physics (1)

Units, Measurement & Dimensions · Errors, accuracy and significant figures

Q34. Which value has three significant figures?

  1. (a) 0.0056
  2. (b) 23.0
  3. (c) 1.620
  4. (d) 287.50
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 23.0

Computer (2)

Computer Memory · Secondary storage devices

Q35. Which of the following is an example of secondary memory?

  1. (a) Cache Memory
  2. (b) RAM
  3. (c) Hard Disk
  4. (d) ROM
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Hard Disk

Computer Memory · Cache and virtual memory

Q36. The primary purpose of the cache memory is to:

  1. (a) display images on screen
  2. (b) store data permanently
  3. (c) increase the speed of data retrieval
  4. (d) store data for later use
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) increase the speed of data retrieval

Ancient History (1)

Ancient Art, Culture and Science · Cave architecture (Ajanta, Ellora, Elephanta, etc.)

Q37. The artistic and architectural style evident in the Bagh Caves of Madhya Pradesh, India, is predominantly associated with which of the following faiths?

  1. (a) Buddhism
  2. (b) Hinduism
  3. (c) Jainism
  4. (d) Islam
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Buddhism

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