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RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 15 June 2026 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 38 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 on 15 June 2026 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Modern History, Polity, Current Affairs, Static GK, Geography, Ancient History.

📚 38 questions🗓️ 15 June 2026⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Modern History (3) · Polity (6) · Current Affairs (8) · Static GK (2) · Geography (6) · Ancient History (2) · Chemistry (2) · Computer (3) · Medieval History (1) · Economics (3) · Biology (2)

Modern History (3)

Revolt of 1857 · Centres and leaders

Q1. Which of the following major battles did Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah participate in during the revolt of 1857?

  1. (a) Battle of Plassey
  2. (b) Battle of Kanpur
  3. (c) Battle of Chinhat
  4. (d) Battle of Jhansi
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Battle of Chinhat

Maulvi Ahmadullah Shah - 1857 Revolt
Key Role: Religious leader and freedom fighter from Faizabad.
Major Participation: Led rebel forces inBattle of Chinhat(June 30, 1857) near Lucknow.
Significance: Defeated British forces under Henry Lawrence; major victory for rebels.
Other Facts: Also fought at Lucknow siege; killed in June 1858.
Answer: Option 3 → Battle of Chinhat
Peasant, Tribal and Civil Uprisings · Early civil and tribal revolts

Q2. The Wahabi Movement primarily originated in which region of India?

  1. (a) Bengal
  2. (b) Delhi
  3. (c) Punjab
  4. (d) Bihar
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Bihar

Wahabi Movement in India
Founded bySyed Ahmad Barelviin early 19th century.
Originated inBihar(Patna region) around 1820s.
Aimed at purifying Islam and resisting British rule.
Later spread to Bengal, Punjab, and North-West Frontier.
Answer: Option 4 → Bihar
Rise of Nationalism and Indian National Congress · Foundation of the INC (1885)

Q3. Who among the following presided over the first session of the Indian National Congress held in 1885?

  1. (a) Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee
  2. (b) Dadabhai Naoroji
  3. (c) Dinshaw Wacha
  4. (d) Allan Octavian Hume
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee

Topic:Indian National Congress - First Session (1885)
Founder:Allan Octavian Hume (British civil servant)
First Session:Held in Bombay (Mumbai), December 1885
First President:Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee (Bengali lawyer)
72 delegates attended the first session
Answer: Option 1 → Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee

Polity (6)

Elections, Parties and Representation · Delimitation and reservation of seats

Q4. Women's Reservation (The Constitution One Hundred Twenty-Eighth Amendment) Bill 2023 passed by the Parliament provides one-third reservation of all seats for women in Lok Sabha, state legislative assemblies and the Legislative Assembly of the National Capital Territory of Delhi for an initial period of how many years?

  1. (a) 10 Years
  2. (b) 15 Years
  3. (c) 20 Years
  4. (d) 5 Years
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 15 Years

Women's Reservation Bill 2023
(128th Constitutional Amendment)
Key Provisions:
• Reserves 1/3 seats for women in Lok Sabha
• Applies to State Legislative Assemblies
• Includes Delhi Legislative Assembly
Duration:Initial period of15 years
Implementation: After census + delimitation
Answer: Option 2 → 15 Years
DPSP and Fundamental Duties · Important DPSP articles (39A, 40, 44, 45, 48A, 50, 51)

Q5. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides free legal aid to the poor and weaker sections of the society?

  1. (a) Article 51 A
  2. (b) Article 39 A
  3. (c) Article 29
  4. (d) Article 78
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 39 A

Topic: Constitutional Provisions for Legal Aid
Article 39A- Added by 42nd Amendment (1976)
Part IV: Directive Principles of State Policy
Ensures free legal aid to poor and weaker sections
Promotes equal justice and opportunity for all
Other options:
Article 51A → Fundamental Duties
Article 29 → Cultural and Educational Rights
Article 78 → PM's duties to President
Answer: Option 2 → Article 39 A
Amendments and Important Articles · Major constitutional amendments

Q6. The Constitution (88ᵗʰ) Amendment Act, 2003, is related to which tax?

  1. (a) Service Tax
  2. (b) Wealth Tax
  3. (c) Property Tax
  4. (d) Goods and Services Tax
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Service Tax

Constitution (88th Amendment) Act, 2003
This amendment insertedArticle 268Ain the Constitution.
It empowered the Union to levyService Taxon services.
The tax collected is assigned to the States where services are provided.
This constitutional backing legitimized Service Tax collection.
Answer: Option 1 → Service Tax
Union Executive · President - powers (executive, legislative, veto, pardon, ordinance)

Q7. The President of India’s “pocket veto” refers to:

  1. (a) vetoing a law secretly
  2. (b) keeping a bill pending indefinitely
  3. (c) refusing to sign the budget
  4. (d) returning a bill for reconsideration
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) keeping a bill pending indefinitely

Pocket Veto of President
Article 111: President has 3 options when bill is presented:
1. Give assent
2. Withhold assent
3. Return for reconsideration (except Money Bill)
Pocket Veto:President neither gives assent nor returns the bill, keeping it pending indefinitely without any time limit.
This power is not explicitly mentioned but derived from constitutional interpretation.
Answer: Option 2 → keeping a bill pending indefinitely
Fundamental Rights · Right to Constitutional Remedies (Article 32) and writs

Q8. Which Article of the Constitution of India grants the “Right to Constitutional Remedies,” empowering individuals to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights?

  1. (a) Article 226
  2. (b) Article 32
  3. (c) Article 19
  4. (d) Article 21
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 32

Topic: Fundamental Rights - Constitutional Remedies
Article 32- Right to Constitutional Remedies
Empowers citizens to moveSupreme Courtdirectly for enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
Dr. B.R. Ambedkar called it the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution.
Article 226- High Courts can issue writs (broader scope).
Article 19- Six freedoms (speech, assembly, etc.).
Article 21- Right to Life and Personal Liberty.
Answer: Option 2 → Article 32
Judiciary · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q9. The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was established under which law?

  1. (a) Public Service Commission Act, 1986
  2. (b) Central Services Act, 1985
  3. (c) Administrative Reforms Act, 1980
  4. (d) Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985

Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)
Established under:Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985
Key Facts:
• Constitutional basis: Article 323-A
• Purpose: Adjudication of service matters of public servants
• Replaced service tribunals and reduced burden on High Courts
Answer: Option 4 → Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985

Current Affairs (8)

International Affairs and Summits · Summits and conferences

Q10. During which edition of the BIMSTEC Summit was the “Bangkok Vision 2030” approved?

  1. (a) Third
  2. (b) Eighth
  3. (c) Sixth
  4. (d) Fifth
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Sixth

BIMSTEC Summit - Bangkok Vision 2030
BIMSTEC: Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation
The6th BIMSTEC Summitwas held in Bangkok, Thailand on March 21, 2024.
Key Outcome:Bangkok Vision 2030was approved during this summit.
Vision focuses on regional cooperation, connectivity, and sustainable development.
Answer: Option 3 → Sixth

Q11. Which Constitutional Article was primarily referenced by the Supreme Court in the declaration of maternity leave being a constitutional right even for a third child, in May 2025?

  1. (a) Article 21
  2. (b) Article 19
  3. (c) Article 27
  4. (d) Article 14
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 21

Topic: Constitutional Rights - Maternity Leave
Article 21- Right to Life and Personal Liberty
Supreme Court (May 2025) held maternity leave as constitutional right even for third child.
Court interpretedArticle 21to include right to health, dignity, and reproductive rights.
Maternity benefits essential for mother's health and child's welfare, protected under life and personal liberty.
Answer: Option 1 → Article 21
Defence and Security - Current · Defence acquisitions and indigenous systems

Q12. India's Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA) successfully conducted the test launch of the Astra Beyond Visual Range Air-to-Air Missile (BVRAAM) from the LCA Tejas AF MK1 prototype in _____.

  1. (a) Kerala
  2. (b) Odisha
  3. (c) Gujarat
  4. (d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Odisha

Topic: Defence & Aerospace
Astra BVRAAM Test Launch
India's Aeronautical Development Agency (ADA) conducted
the test launch of Astra Beyond Visual Range Air-to-Air
Missile from LCA Tejas AF MK1 prototype.
The test was conducted at theIntegrated Test Range (ITR)
located inChandipur, Odisha.
Astra is an indigenous BVRAAM developed by DRDO with a
range of approximately 110-160 km.
Answer: Option 2 → Odisha
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q13. What was the theme of the 10th National Consultation conducted on 11-12 October 2025?

  1. (a) Education for All
  2. (b) Safeguarding the Girl Child
  3. (c) Digital Future for Children
  4. (d) Protecting Child Labourers
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Safeguarding the Girl Child

Topic:10th National Consultation (11-12 October 2025)
The 10th National Consultation was organized by the National Commission for Protection of Child Rights (NCPCR).
Theme:Safeguarding the Girl Child
Focus areas included girl child protection, education, health, and prevention of discrimination and violence against girls.
Answer: Option 2 → Safeguarding the Girl Child
International Affairs and Summits · Bilateral agreements and visits

Q14. In October 2025, India and Spain signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) to develop a world-class convention center in which Indian state?

  1. (a) Madhya Pradesh
  2. (b) Gujarat
  3. (c) Tamil Nadu
  4. (d) Maharashtra
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Maharashtra

India-Spain MoU for Convention Center (October 2025)
Key Facts:
• India and Spain signed MoU in October 2025
• Purpose: Develop world-class convention center
• Location:Maharashtra
• Part of bilateral cooperation in infrastructure development
Answer: Option 4 → Maharashtra
Sports - Current · Venues and hosts

Q15. Which of the following was officially named the Host City for the 2030 Centenary edition, following approval at the 2025 Commonwealth Sport General Assembly in Glasgow (UK)?

  1. (a) Ahmedabad
  2. (b) Bhopal
  3. (c) Pune
  4. (d) New Delhi
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Ahmedabad

Topic: Commonwealth Games 2030
The2030 Commonwealth Gameswill mark thecentenary edition(100 years) of the Games.
At the2025 Commonwealth Sport General Assemblyheld inGlasgow, UK,Ahmedabad (Gujarat, India)was officially approved as the host city.
This will be India's second time hosting after the 2010 Commonwealth Games in New Delhi.
Answer: Option 1 → Ahmedabad
Awards and Honours - Current · Sports and film awards - current

Q16. Which of the following cricket players was awarded the Sir Garfield Sobers Award for ICC Men’s Cricketer of the Year 2024?

  1. (a) Joe Root
  2. (b) Jasprit Bumrah
  3. (c) Travis Head
  4. (d) Mitchell Starc
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Jasprit Bumrah

Topic:ICC Awards 2024
Sir Garfield Sobers Awardis the highest individual honor in ICC Awards.
Jasprit Bumrahwon ICC Men's Cricketer of the Year 2024.
He also won ICC Men's Test Cricketer of the Year 2024.
Recognition for outstanding performance across all formats in 2024.
Answer: Option 2 → Jasprit Bumrah
Reports, Indices and Rankings · National indices and rankings

Q17. Which report, released in 2025, gives a perception-based safety score of urban women across 31 Indian cities?

  1. (a) Urban Women Index 2025
  2. (b) NARI 2025 Index
  3. (c) Women Safety Report 2025
  4. (d) Safe City Report 2025
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) NARI 2025 Index

NARI 2025 Index
Released in 2025 by Praja Foundation.
NARI = Navigating Areas for Resident Inclusion.
Perception-based safety score for urban women.
Covers 31 Indian cities.
Answer: Option 2 → NARI 2025 Index

Static GK (2)

Music and Musical Instruments · Musical instruments and exponents

Q18. Ustad Bismillah Khan was most closely associated with which musical instrument?

  1. (a) Sarod
  2. (b) Shehnai
  3. (c) Tabla
  4. (d) Sitar
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Shehnai

Ustad Bismillah Khan - Musical Instrument
Ustad Bismillah Khan was a legendary Indian musician.
He popularized theShehnaias a classical instrument.
ReceivedBharat Ratnain 2001 for his contribution.
Famous for playing Shehnai at Red Fort on Independence Day 1947.
Answer: Option 2 → Shehnai
Tribes, Languages and Religions · Classical and scheduled languages

Q19. The Munda languages of India belong to which language family?

  1. (a) Indo-Aryan
  2. (b) Sino-Tibetan
  3. (c) Dravidian
  4. (d) Austroasiatic
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Austroasiatic

Topic: Munda Languages - Language Family
Munda languages are spoken by tribal communities in eastern and central India (Jharkhand, Odisha, West Bengal, Chhattisgarh).
Major Munda languages: Santali, Mundari, Ho, Korku.
They belong to theAustroasiatic language family, which also includes Khasi (Meghalaya) and Mon-Khmer languages of Southeast Asia.
This family is distinct from Indo-Aryan, Dravidian, and Sino-Tibetan families.
Answer: Option 4 → Austroasiatic

Geography (6)

India - Population and Census · Population density

Q20. Which of the following states has high population density due to early human settlement and development?

  1. (a) Rajasthan
  2. (b) Sikkim
  3. (c) Uttar Pradesh
  4. (d) Meghalaya
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Uttar Pradesh

Topic: Population Density in India
Uttar Pradeshhas one of the highest population densities in India (828 per sq km).
Reasons for high density:
• Early human settlement in Indo-Gangetic plains
• Fertile alluvial soil supporting agriculture
• Historical centers of civilization and trade
• Well-developed infrastructure and connectivity
Other states comparison:
Rajasthan: Low density (201) - desert region
Sikkim: Low density (86) - mountainous terrain
Meghalaya: Moderate density (132) - hilly region
Answer: Option 3 → Uttar Pradesh
India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Peninsular plateau and hills

Q21. Which mountain range in India is one of the oldest fold mountains in the world?

  1. (a) Eastern Ghats
  2. (b) Karakoram Range
  3. (c) Aravalli Range
  4. (d) Himalayas
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Aravalli Range

Topic: Mountain Ranges of India
Aravalli Rangeis one of the oldest fold mountains in the world, formed during the Proterozoic era (over 1.8 billion years ago).
Located in northwestern India, spanning Rajasthan, Haryana, and Gujarat.
Himalayas are young fold mountains (50-60 million years old).
Karakoram is also a young mountain range.
Eastern Ghats are older but not as ancient as Aravallis.
Answer: Option 3 → Aravalli Range
India - Agriculture · Types of farming (shifting, terrace, etc.)

Q22. Which region in India is best known for slash-and-burn agriculture (jhum)?

  1. (a) Western Ghats
  2. (b) North-Eastern Hills
  3. (c) Deccan Plateau
  4. (d) Indo-Gangetic Plain
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) North-Eastern Hills

Slash-and-Burn Agriculture (Jhum Cultivation)
Practice: Clearing forest land by burning, cultivating for 2-3 years, then shifting to new land.
Region: Predominantly practiced inNorth-Eastern Hillsof India.
States: Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Tripura, Arunachal Pradesh.
Local Names: Jhum (Assam), Podu (Andhra Pradesh), Bewar (Madhya Pradesh).
Answer: Option 2 → North-Eastern Hills
World Geography · World population - distribution, density and growth

Q23. Which historical policy skewed China’s gender ratio at birth?

  1. (a) Gender Equity Law
  2. (b) Universal Healthcare Act
  3. (c) One-Child Policy
  4. (d) Rural Migration Ban
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) One-Child Policy

Topic: China's Population Policy
One-Child Policy (1980-2015)
Implemented to control population growth in China.
Cultural preference for male children led to:
- Sex-selective abortions
- Underreporting of female births
- Skewed gender ratio (more males than females)
Result: Significant imbalance in male-to-female ratio.
Answer: Option 3 → One-Child Policy

Q24. Which of the following statements is NOT correct regarding the Indian Desert (Thar Desert)?

  1. (a) It has an arid climate with low vegetation cover
  2. (b) This region receives low rainfall below 15 mm per year
  3. (c) To the northwest of the Aravali hills lies the Great Indian desert
  4. (d) During the Mesozoic era, this region is believed to have been under the sea.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) This region receives low rainfall below 15 mm per year

Topic: Indian Desert (Thar Desert)
Analysis of statements:
Statement 1: Arid climate with low vegetation ✓ Correct
Statement 2: Rainfall below 15 mm per year ✗ INCORRECT
Thar Desert receives100-150 mmrainfall annually, not below 15 mm
Statement 3: Northwest of Aravali hills ✓ Correct
Statement 4: Under sea during Mesozoic era ✓ Correct
Fossil evidence supports this geological history
Answer: Option 2 → This region receives low rainfall below 15 mm per year
Lithosphere - Earth's Interior and Landforms · Interior of the Earth - layers and discontinuities

Q25. The asthenosphere plays an important role in plate movements because:

  1. (a) It is partially molten and allows plates to move
  2. (b) It forms the Earth’s magnetic field
  3. (c) It is made of water bodies
  4. (d) It is perfectly solid and rigid
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) It is partially molten and allows plates to move

Topic: Asthenosphere and Plate Tectonics
Theasthenosphereis a layer in the upper mantle (80-200 km depth).
It ispartially moltenand has a plastic, ductile consistency.
This semi-fluid nature allows the rigid lithospheric plates above it to move slowly over it.
This movement is the basis ofplate tectonicsand continental drift.
Answer: Option 1 → It is partially molten and allows plates to move

Ancient History (2)

Mauryan Empire · Arthashastra and Indica

Q26. Seleucus sent his ambassador Megasthenes to the court of which Mauryan ruler at Pataliputra?

  1. (a) Chandragupta Maurya
  2. (b) Brihadratha
  3. (c) Bindusara
  4. (d) Ashoka
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Chandragupta Maurya

Topic:Mauryan Empire - Diplomatic Relations
Seleucus Nicator was a Greek general who became ruler of the Seleucid Empire after Alexander's death.
After being defeated by Chandragupta Maurya in 305 BCE, Seleucus signed a treaty and sentMegasthenesas his ambassador.
Megasthenes stayed atPataliputra(modern Patna) during Chandragupta's reign and wroteIndica, describing Mauryan administration and society.
Answer: Option 1 → Chandragupta Maurya
Indus Valley Civilisation · Artefacts and findings

Q27. The dominant sights at Lothal are the ________, which have helped make this place so important to international archaeology.

  1. (a) Citadels
  2. (b) Great Baths
  3. (c) Dockyards
  4. (d) Granaries
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Dockyards

Lothal - Harappan Civilization Site
Location: Gujarat, India (discovered 1954)
Key Feature:Ancient dockyard- world's earliest known
Significance: Proves maritime trade capabilities of Harappans
The dockyard made Lothal internationally important for
understanding ancient maritime commerce and engineering
Answer: Option 3 → Dockyards

Chemistry (2)

Chemical Reactions and Equations · Displacement reactions

Q28. In a laboratory, copper sulphate solution reacts with iron filings, causing a colour change and the deposition of a new metal. Which statement correctly explains the reason for this reaction?

  1. (a) Iron and copper sulphate have similar reactivity
  2. (b) Iron and copper belong to the same group
  3. (c) Iron is more reactive than copper
  4. (d) Copper is more reactive than iron
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Iron is more reactive than copper

Reaction: CuSO₄ + Fe → FeSO₄ + Cu
Observation: Blue CuSO₄ solution turns green (FeSO₄)
Reddish-brown copper deposits on iron filings
Reason: Displacement Reaction
More reactive metal displaces less reactive metal from its salt
Reactivity Series: Fe > Cu
Iron displaces copper from copper sulphate
Answer: Option 3 → Iron is more reactive than copper
Structure of Atom · Rutherford's model and gold foil experiment

Q29. The discovery of the atomic nucleus by bombarding a thin gold foil with alpha particles is associated with which of the following scientists?

  1. (a) Robert Boyle
  2. (b) Ernest Rutherford
  3. (c) Dmitri Mendeleev
  4. (d) John Dalton
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ernest Rutherford

Topic: Atomic Structure - Gold Foil Experiment
Ernest Rutherford (1911)conducted the famous gold foil experiment.
Alpha particles were bombarded on thin gold foil.
Most particles passed through, but some deflected at large angles.
This led to the discovery of theatomic nucleus- a small, dense, positively charged center.
Other scientists: Boyle (Gas Laws), Mendeleev (Periodic Table), Dalton (Atomic Theory).
Answer: Option 2 → Ernest Rutherford

Computer (3)

Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Popular operating systems

Q30. When you choose 'Shut down' in Windows, what happens?

  1. (a) The PC enters a low-power state but keeps apps in memory
  2. (b) The PC goes into stand-by mode
  3. (c) All apps and data are closed and the PC powers off completely
  4. (d) The PC saves the session to the disk and then powers off
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) All apps and data are closed and the PC powers off completely

Windows Shutdown Process:
When 'Shut down' is selected:
• All running applications are closed
• All user sessions are terminated
• System data is cleared from RAM
• PC powers off completely
Other modes:
Sleep → Low-power state, apps in memory
Hibernate → Session saved to disk, then powers off
Stand-by → Similar to sleep mode
Answer: Option 3 → All apps and data are closed and the PC powers off completely
Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Popular operating systems

Q31. In standard Windows Sleep mode on a laptop, where is the current session primarily stored while the machine is idle?

  1. (a) On the system drive only
  2. (b) In RAM, which remains powered with a small amount of electricity
  3. (c) In the CPU cache only
  4. (d) Permanently in the BIOS chip
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) In RAM, which remains powered with a small amount of electricity

Topic:Windows Sleep Mode
In Sleep mode, the system enters alow-power state.
Current session data (open files, programs) is stored inRAM.
RAM remains powered with minimal electricity to retain data.
This allowsquick resumewhen the laptop wakes up.
Unlike Hibernate (saves to disk), Sleep keeps data in volatile memory.
Answer: Option 2 → In RAM, which remains powered with a small amount of electricity
Computer Organisation and Hardware · CPU - ALU, CU and registers

Q32. The speed at which a Central Processing Unit (CPU) executes instructions is primarily determined by its clock rate, which is typically measured in gigahertz (GHz). If a CPU has a clock rate of 3.5 GHz, approximately how many clock cycles occur every second?

  1. (a) 3.5 billion cycles per second
  2. (b) 350 cycles per second
  3. (c) 3.5 million cycles per second
  4. (d) 3.5 thousand cycles per second
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 3.5 billion cycles per second

Topic: CPU Clock Rate
Key Concept:
1 GHz (Gigahertz) = 1 billion cycles per second
GHz = 10⁹ Hz
Given:Clock rate = 3.5 GHz
Calculation:
Clock cycles per second = 3.5 × 10⁹
= 3.5 billion cycles per second
Answer: Option 1 → 3.5 billion cycles per second

Medieval History (1)

Delhi Sultanate · Tughlaq dynasty

Q33. Which among the following measures was introduced by Muhammad bin Tughlaq to address the shortage of silver?

  1. (a) Garrison towns
  2. (b) Token currency
  3. (c) Land revenue reforms
  4. (d) Prohibition of wine
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Token currency

Muhammad bin Tughlaq's Economic Reforms
Problem: Severe shortage of silver in the treasury
Solution: Introduction ofToken Currency (1329-30)
- Issued bronze/copper coins with same value as silver tankas
- First attempt at token currency in medieval India
- Failed due to widespread counterfeiting
- Eventually withdrawn by exchanging with gold/silver
Other options were different reforms:
- Garrison towns: Military administration
- Land revenue reforms: Agricultural taxation
- Wine prohibition: Social/religious policy
Answer: Option 2 → Token currency

Economics (3)

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Education and research schemes

Q34. Rashtriya Avishkar Abhiyan, introduced in 2015, focuses on encouraging school students to develop interest in:

  1. (a) Arts and cultural activities
  2. (b) Sports and physical education
  3. (c) Science and mathematics learning
  4. (d) Environmental awareness programmes
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Science and mathematics learning

Rashtriya Avishkar Abhiyan (RAA)
Launched:July 2015by Ministry of HRD (now Ministry of Education)
Objective: Foster scientific temper and innovation among students from Class VI to XII
Focus Areas:Science, Mathematics and Technologylearning through hands-on activities, experiments, and innovation
Key Features: Establishment of innovation clubs, science exhibitions, and practical learning in schools
Answer: Option 3 → Science and mathematics learning
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · FRBM Act and fiscal policy

Q35. The Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act was enacted in which year in India?

  1. (a) 2005
  2. (b) 2003
  3. (c) 2004
  4. (d) 2001
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 2003

FRBM Act - Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management
Enacted:2003
Key Facts:
• Aimed at fiscal discipline and reducing fiscal deficit
• Targets set for revenue deficit and fiscal deficit
• Amended in 2018 (NK Singh Committee recommendations)
Answer: Option 2 → 2003
Agriculture and Food Security · Agricultural policies and missions

Q36. When was national Agriculture policy launched in India?

  1. (a) 2007
  2. (b) 2005
  3. (c) 2002
  4. (d) 2000
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 2000

Topic:National Agriculture Policy (NAP)
The National Agriculture Policy was launched by the
Government of India inJuly 2000.
Key objectives: Achieve 4% annual growth in agriculture,
ensure food security, and promote sustainable farming.
Answer: Option 4 → 2000

Biology (2)

Nutrition and Digestion · Nutrients - carbohydrates, proteins, fats

Q37. The process of growth and healing in the body is supported by which food component?

  1. (a) Fats
  2. (b) Minerals
  3. (c) Vitamins
  4. (d) Proteins
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Proteins

Topic: Nutrition - Body Building Foods
Proteinsare essential macronutrients made of amino acids.
Functions of Proteins:
• Growth and development of body tissues
• Repair and healing of damaged cells and tissues
• Building muscles, bones, skin, and organs
Sources: Meat, eggs, pulses, milk, fish, soybean.
Answer: Option 4 → Proteins
Nutrition and Digestion · Human digestive system - organs

Q38. Which part of the small intestine in the human digestive system receives bile from the gall bladder and pancreatic juice from the pancreas through a common bile duct?

  1. (a) Ileum
  2. (b) Colon
  3. (c) Duodenum
  4. (d) Jejunum
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Duodenum

Topic: Human Digestive System - Small Intestine
Small intestine has 3 parts:Duodenum, Jejunum, Ileum
Duodenumis the first and shortest part (25-30 cm)
Thecommon bile ductopens into duodenum athepatopancreatic ampulla
It receivesbilefrom gall bladder andpancreatic juicefrom pancreas
This is where major chemical digestion occurs
Answer: Option 3 → Duodenum
← 15 June 2026 Shift 1All shifts15 June 2026 Shift 3 →
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