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RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 16 June 2026 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 39 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 on 16 June 2026 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Current Affairs, Computer, Economics, Polity, Ancient History, Geography.

📚 39 questions🗓️ 16 June 2026⏰ Shift 3
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Subjects: Current Affairs (8) · Computer (4) · Economics (4) · Polity (6) · Ancient History (3) · Geography (5) · Physics (4) · Modern History (3) · Static GK (2)

Current Affairs (8)

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q1. In December 2025, which of the following courts has declared 26 December 2025 as a holiday and advanced the commencement of its Winter Vacation to the same date?

  1. (a) Madras High Court
  2. (b) Gauhati High Court
  3. (c) Delhi High Court
  4. (d) Allahabad High Court
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Delhi High Court

Topic:Recent Judicial Announcements - December 2025
Delhi High Courtdeclared 26 December 2025 as a holiday.
The court advanced the commencement of itsWinter Vacationto 26 December 2025.
This administrative decision was taken by the Delhi High Court in December 2025.
Answer: Option 3 → Delhi High Court
Economy, Banking and Business · Budget and economic data - current

Q2. What was the Worker Population Ratio (WPR) for persons aged 15+ in India in October 2025 according to the Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS)?

  1. (a) 50.1 %
  2. (b) 48.5 %
  3. (c) 52.5 %
  4. (d) 42.5 %
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 52.5 %

Topic: Periodic Labour Force Survey (PLFS) - October 2025
The PLFS is conducted by the National Statistical Office (NSO) to measure employment indicators in India.
Key Finding: Worker Population Ratio (WPR) for persons aged 15+ years reached52.5%in October 2025.
This indicates improvement in employment participation among the working-age population.
Answer: Option 3 → 52.5 %
Awards and Honours - Current · International awards - current

Q3. The Prime Minister of which of the following countries was conferred the ‘Speaker of the Knesset Medal’ by the Israeli Parliament in February 2026?

  1. (a) Belgium
  2. (b) Luxembourg
  3. (c) Spain
  4. (d) India
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) India

Topic: International Awards & Recognition
In February 2026, Indian Prime Minister was conferred the prestigious'Speaker of the Knesset Medal'by the Israeli Parliament.
The Knesset is the unicameral legislature of Israel.
This award recognizes significant contributions to strengthening India-Israel bilateral relations.
Answer: Option 4 → India
Awards and Honours - Current · International awards - current

Q4. In October 2025, which country awarded its highest decoration, the ‘Grand Order of Mugunghwa’, to U.S. President Donald Trump?

  1. (a) China
  2. (b) Bhutan
  3. (c) South Korea
  4. (d) Japan
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) South Korea

Grand Order of Mugunghwais South Korea's highest civilian decoration.
In October 2025, South Korea awarded this honor to U.S. President Donald Trump.
TheMugunghwa (Rose of Sharon)is South Korea's national flower.
This award recognizes exceptional contributions to South Korea-U.S. relations.
Answer: Option 3 → South Korea
Economy, Banking and Business · Business and corporate news

Q5. The Gaganyaan mission was expected to boost Safran India's revenue by ~70% in 2025, aligning with which initiative?

  1. (a) Make in India
  2. (b) Digital India
  3. (c) Skilling Bharat
  4. (d) Clean energy push
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Make in India

Gaganyaan Mission & Safran India
Gaganyaan is India's first crewed space mission by ISRO.
Safran India manufactures critical aerospace components domestically.
The ~70% revenue boost reflects increased local manufacturing of space technology parts.
This aligns withMake in Indiainitiative promoting domestic production and reducing import dependency.
Answer: Option 1 → Make in India
Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q6. Who was appointed as the 26th Governor of the Reserve Bank of India in December 2024?

  1. (a) Poonam Gupta
  2. (b) Sanjay Malhotra
  3. (c) Raghuram Rajan
  4. (d) Michael Patra
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Sanjay Malhotra

Topic: Current Affairs - RBI Governor Appointment
Sanjay Malhotrawas appointed as the26th Governorof the Reserve Bank of India inDecember 2024.
He succeededShaktikanta Dasand took charge onDecember 11, 2024.
Prior to this, he served asRevenue Secretaryin the Ministry of Finance.
Answer: Option 2 → Sanjay Malhotra
International Affairs and Summits · Summits and conferences

Q7. Where was the annual World Economic Forum meeting held in January 2025?

  1. (a) Oslo, Norway
  2. (b) Copenhagen, Denmark
  3. (c) Stockholm, Sweden
  4. (d) Davos-Klosters, Switzerland
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Davos-Klosters, Switzerland

World Economic Forum (WEF) Annual Meeting
The WEF Annual Meeting is traditionally held inDavos-Klosters, Switzerland.
January 2025 meeting continued this tradition at the same location.
Davos has been the regular venue since 1971.
Answer: Option 4 → Davos-Klosters, Switzerland
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q8. Which of the following scores has India secured in the SDG Index 2025?

  1. (a) 61.5
  2. (b) 67.0
  3. (c) 72.3
  4. (d) 57.0
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 67.0

SDG Index 2025 - India's Performance
India scored67.0in the SDG Index 2025.
Key Facts:
- SDG Index measures progress on UN's 17 Sustainable Development Goals
- India's score of 67.0 shows moderate progress
- Score range: 0-100 (higher is better)
Answer: Option 2 → 67.0

Computer (4)

Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Popular operating systems

Q9. In the Windows Operating System, when the dedicated Power Saver plan is activated, which of the following is the primary technical mechanism the operating system employs to significantly conserve energy, consequently leading to a noticeable reduction in system responsiveness and performance?

  1. (a) Disabling the Graphical Processing Unit (GPU) entirely and forcing all display rendering onto the CPU
  2. (b) Increasing the hard disk spin-down time to ensure the drive remains idle and consumes zero mechanical power
  3. (c) Aggressively flushing the cache memory every few seconds to minimize the power drawn by the CPU's fastest memory components
  4. (d) Reducing the maximum processor state (clock speed/frequency) to cap the peak computational capacity and thermal output
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Reducing the maximum processor state (clock speed/frequency) to cap the peak computational capacity and thermal output

Windows Power Saver Plan - Energy Conservation Mechanism
Power Saver plan primarily usesCPU throttlingto reduce energy consumption.
Key Technical Mechanism:
Reducesmaximum processor state(clock speed/frequency)
Typically caps CPU at 50-70% of maximum frequency
Lower frequency = Lower voltage = Reduced power consumption
Why other options are incorrect:
Option 1: GPU is never fully disabled, only optimized
Option 2: Spin-down time adjustment is minor, not primary mechanism
Option 3: Cache flushing would decrease performance without significant power savings
Answer: Option 4 → Reducing the maximum processor state (clock speed/frequency) to cap the peak computational capacity and thermal output
Computer Organisation and Hardware · Other hardware (SMPS, UPS, etc.)

Q10. Which device is designed to integrate processing, memory, and input/output components into one compact unit?

  1. (a) Micro Board
  2. (b) System Bus
  3. (c) Microcontroller
  4. (d) Motherboard
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Microcontroller

Topic: Computer Hardware Components
Microcontroller:A compact integrated circuit designed to govern a specific operation in an embedded system.
Key Features:
• Combines CPU, memory (RAM/ROM), and I/O ports on a single chip
• Used in embedded systems like washing machines, microwaves, automobiles
• Examples: Arduino, 8051, PIC, AVR
Other Options:
• Motherboard: Main circuit board connecting all components
• System Bus: Communication pathway between CPU, memory, and I/O
• Micro Board: Not a standard technical term
Answer: Option 3 → Microcontroller
Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Popular operating systems

Q11. Which option is used in Windows 11 to temporarily turn off the computer to save power while keeping programs open?

  1. (a) Restart
  2. (b) Wake Up
  3. (c) Hibernate
  4. (d) Shut Down
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Hibernate

Windows 11 Power Options:
Hibernate:Saves open programs/files to hard disk, then powers off completely. Uses zero power. On restart, restores previous session.
Sleep:Keeps programs in RAM, uses minimal power.
Shut Down:Closes all programs, powers off completely.
Restart:Closes programs and reboots system.
Hibernate = Power off + Save session state
Answer: Option 3 → Hibernate
MS Office and Productivity Tools · Keyboard shortcuts

Q12. Which of the following keyboard shortcuts is used to copy selected text or objects?

  1. (a) Ctrl + S
  2. (b) Ctrl + V
  3. (c) Ctrl + C
  4. (d) Ctrl + F
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ctrl + C

Topic:Keyboard Shortcuts
Ctrl + Cis the standard shortcut to copy selected text or objects.
Other shortcuts:
Ctrl + S → Save file
Ctrl + V → Paste copied content
Ctrl + F → Find/Search text
Answer: Option 3 → Ctrl + C

Economics (4)

Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q13. The economic crisis of 1991 acted as a trigger for reforms. What was the key reason for India’s 1991 economic crisis?

  1. (a) Oil price drop
  2. (b) Increase in gold reserves
  3. (c) High fiscal and current account deficits
  4. (d) Agricultural surplus
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) High fiscal and current account deficits

India's 1991 Economic Crisis - Key Reason
The crisis was triggered bytwin deficits:
1. Fiscal Deficit:Government spending far exceeded revenue
Heavy borrowing led to mounting public debt
2. Current Account Deficit:Imports exceeded exports significantly
Gulf War (1990-91) caused oil prices to rise, worsening trade deficit
Result:Foreign exchange reserves fell to just 2 weeks of imports
India had to pledge gold to IMF for emergency loans
This crisis led toLPG reforms(Liberalization, Privatization, Globalization)
Answer: Option 3 → High fiscal and current account deficits
Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Poverty alleviation and employment programmes (MGNREGA, etc.)

Q14. The 20-Point Economic Programme was initially launched in 1975 primarily to:

  1. (a) Reduce government borrowing
  2. (b) Liberalize trade policies
  3. (c) Promote foreign direct investment
  4. (d) Accelerate socio-economic reforms
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Accelerate socio-economic reforms

20-Point Economic Programme (1975)
Launched by: Prime Minister Indira Gandhi during Emergency
Primary Objectives:
• Poverty alleviation and social justice
• Land reforms and redistribution
• Minimum wages for agricultural laborers
• Abolition of bonded labor
• Housing for landless and weaker sections
Focus: Direct intervention for socio-economic upliftment of poor and marginalized sections of society.
Answer: Option 4 → Accelerate socio-economic reforms
Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Sectors of the economy (primary, secondary, tertiary)

Q15. Which sector in India includes activities such as cotton textile production and iron and steel manufacturing?

  1. (a) Tertiary sector
  2. (b) Quaternary sector
  3. (c) Secondary sector
  4. (d) Primary sector
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Secondary sector

Economic Sectors Classification:
Primary Sector:Extraction of raw materials (agriculture, mining, fishing)
Secondary Sector:Manufacturing and processing of raw materials into finished goods
Tertiary Sector:Services (banking, transport, education)
Quaternary Sector:Knowledge-based services (IT, research)
Cotton textile production and iron & steel manufacturing involveprocessing and manufacturing
These activities transform raw materials into finished products
Answer: Option 3 → Secondary sector

Q16. The concept of Gross Enrolment Ratio belongs to the __________.

  1. (a) health sector
  2. (b) education sector
  3. (c) transport sector
  4. (d) banking sector
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) education sector

Gross Enrolment Ratio (GER)
Definition: Total enrolment in a specific level of education (regardless of age) expressed as a percentage of the eligible official school-age population.
Used to measure: Access to education and participation rates in primary, secondary, and higher education.
Key indicator: UNESCO and education ministries use GER to assess educational development and coverage.
Answer: Option 2 → education sector

Polity (6)

State Government · Governor - appointment and powers

Q17. As per the Constitution of India, the ________is a state’s de jure head.

  1. (a) Chief Minister
  2. (b) Chief Justice of High Court
  3. (c) Education Minister
  4. (d) Governor
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Governor

Constitutional Position of State Head
Article 153: Governor is the constitutional head of a state.
De jure head = Head in law/theory (Governor)
De facto head = Head in practice (Chief Minister)
Governor is appointed by President under Article 155.
Chief Minister is the real executive authority.
Answer: Option 4 → Governor
Judiciary · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q18. The Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT) was established in which year?

  1. (a) 1990
  2. (b) 1985
  3. (c) 1980
  4. (d) 1995
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1985

Topic:Central Administrative Tribunal (CAT)
Established underArticle 323Aof the Constitution.
Created by theAdministrative Tribunals Act, 1985.
Purpose: Adjudication of disputes related to recruitment and service conditions of public servants.
Answer: Option 2 → 1985
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · National Emergency (Article 352)

Q19. Which of the following Articles of the Indian Constitution provides for the suspension of enforcement of the rights conferred by Part III during emergencies?

  1. (a) Article 356
  2. (b) Article 359
  3. (c) Article 358
  4. (d) Article 357
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 359

Topic: Constitutional Provisions during Emergency
Article 359- Suspension of enforcement of Fundamental Rights during Emergency.
Key Points:
• President can suspend right to move courts for enforcement of Fundamental Rights (except Articles 20 & 21).
• Applies during National Emergency (Article 352).
Other Articles:
• Article 358 - Automatic suspension of Article 19 during Emergency.
• Article 356 - President's Rule in States.
• Article 357 - Exercise of legislative powers under President's Rule.
Answer: Option 2 → Article 359
Constitutional Development and Making · Borrowed features - sources of the Constitution

Q20. “Social, Economic and Political Justice” are borrowed from which revolution?

  1. (a) French Revolution
  2. (b) Glorious Revolution
  3. (c) American Revolution
  4. (d) Russian Revolution
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Russian Revolution

Topic: Constitutional Borrowings
The phrase'Social, Economic and Political Justice'in the Preamble of the Indian Constitution is inspired by theRussian Revolution (1917).
The Russian Revolution emphasized socialist ideals including social equality, economic redistribution, and political rights for all classes.
India adopted these principles to ensure comprehensive justice beyond just legal/political aspects.
Answer: Option 4 → Russian Revolution
Local Government · 11th and 12th Schedules

Q21. The 11ᵗʰ Schedule of the Constitution of India lists:

  1. (a) Fundamental Duties
  2. (b) Concurrent List subjects
  3. (c) 29 subjects for Panchayats
  4. (d) 18 subjects for Municipalities
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 29 subjects for Panchayats

11th Schedule of Indian Constitution
Added by:73rd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1992
Contains:29 subjectsrelated to Panchayati Raj
Key subjects: Agriculture, land improvement, minor irrigation, animal husbandry, fisheries, social forestry, small scale industries, rural housing, drinking water, fuel and fodder, roads, education, health and sanitation, etc.
Note:12th Schedulecontains 18 subjects for Municipalities (added by 74th Amendment)
Answer: Option 3 → 29 subjects for Panchayats
Amendments and Important Articles · Basic structure doctrine

Q22. In which case did the Supreme Court lay down the principle that Parliament cannot alter the 'basic structure' of the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) Golaknath case
  2. (b) Shankari Prasad case
  3. (c) Minerva Mills case
  4. (d) Kesavananda Bharati case
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Kesavananda Bharati case

Topic: Constitutional Law - Basic Structure Doctrine
Kesavananda Bharati case (1973)- Landmark judgment
Supreme Court ruled Parliament cannot alter the
'basic structure'of the Constitution through amendments.
This doctrine limits Parliament's amending power under
Article 368 to protect Constitution's core features.
Other cases: Golaknath (1967) - limited amendment power,
Shankari Prasad (1951) - upheld Parliament's power,
Minerva Mills (1980) - reaffirmed basic structure.
Answer: Option 4 → Kesavananda Bharati case

Ancient History (3)

Ancient Art, Culture and Science · Temple architecture styles (Nagara, Dravida, Vesara)

Q23. The architectural style of the Jagannath Temple is primarily associated with which of the following traditions?

  1. (a) Kalinga style
  2. (b) Dravidian style
  3. (c) Hoysala Style
  4. (d) Vesara style
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Kalinga style

Jagannath Temple Architecture
Location: Puri, Odisha
Built in 12th century by King Anantavarman Chodaganga Deva
FeaturesKalinga architecture- characteristic of Odisha temples
Key elements: Deul (sanctum) and Jagamohana (assembly hall)
Famous for its towering shikhara and annual Rath Yatra
Answer: Option 1 → Kalinga style
Post-Gupta Period · Harshavardhana

Q24. Which of the following Pushyabhuti rulers strengthened his position by defeating the Hunas?

  1. (a) Rajyavardhana
  2. (b) Harshavardhana
  3. (c) Naravardhana
  4. (d) Prabhakarvardhana
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Prabhakarvardhana

Pushyabhuti Dynasty Rulers
Prabhakarvardhana was the father of Harshavardhana and
Rajyavardhana. He ruled from Thaneshwar (Haryana).
He defeated the Hunas and strengthened the Pushyabhuti
dynasty's position in North India.
He also took the title'Parama-Bhattaraka Maharajadhiraja'
after his military victories.
Answer: Option 4 → Prabhakarvardhana
Post-Mauryan Period · Kharavela of Kalinga

Q25. Who among the following was a ruler of the Chedi (Mahameghavahana) dynasty of Kalinga?

  1. (a) Kharavela
  2. (b) Gautamiputra Satakarni
  3. (c) Kanishka
  4. (d) Pushyamitra Shunga
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Kharavela

Topic: Ancient Indian Dynasties - Kalinga
Chedi (Mahameghavahana) Dynasty:
Ruled Kalinga (modern Odisha) in 1st century BCE.
Kharavela:Most famous ruler of this dynasty.
Known from Hathigumpha inscription at Udayagiri.
Contemporary of Satakarni I of Satavahana dynasty.
Other Options:
Gautamiputra Satakarni → Satavahana dynasty
Kanishka → Kushan dynasty
Pushyamitra Shunga → Shunga dynasty
Answer: Option 1 → Kharavela

Geography (5)

World Geography · Continents - facts

Q26. Which continent has the highest average elevation due to its thick ice sheets?

  1. (a) Antarctica
  2. (b) South America
  3. (c) Europe
  4. (d) Africa
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Antarctica

Topic: Geography - Continental Elevations
Antarcticahas the highest average elevation among all continents.
Average elevation: approximately2,300 meters (7,545 feet).
This is due to the massiveice sheetcovering the continent, which is up to4 km thickin places.
The ice sheet adds significant height to the underlying landmass.
Answer: Option 1 → Antarctica

Q27. Which of the following provides evidence that the Great Indian Desert was once under the sea during the Mesozoic era?

  1. (a) Marine deposits and wood fossils
  2. (b) Glacial deposits
  3. (c) Presence of black soil
  4. (d) Volcanic ash layers
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Marine deposits and wood fossils

Topic: Great Indian Desert (Thar Desert) - Geological History
The Thar Desert was submerged under theTethys Seaduring theMesozoic Era(252-66 million years ago).
Evidence found:
•Marine deposits- sedimentary rocks with marine fossils
•Wood fossils- petrified wood from ancient forests
• Limestone and sandstone formations with sea creature remains
These geological findings confirm the region's marine past before tectonic uplift transformed it into a desert.
Answer: Option 1 → Marine deposits and wood fossils
Lithosphere - Earth's Interior and Landforms · Aeolian and karst landforms

Q28. Which of the following is a depositional landform formed by wind action?

  1. (a) Barchan
  2. (b) Inselberg
  3. (c) Moraine
  4. (d) Yardang
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Barchan

Topic: Depositional Landforms by Wind
Barchan:Crescent-shaped sand dune formed by wind deposition in deserts.
Inselberg:Erosional landform (isolated hill in desert).
Moraine:Depositional landform formed by glaciers, not wind.
Yardang:Erosional landform formed by wind abrasion.
Answer: Option 1 → Barchan
India - Minerals, Energy and Industries · Metallic minerals and mines

Q29. Kudremukh in Karnataka is famous for which mineral?

  1. (a) Manganese
  2. (b) Iron Ore
  3. (c) Copper
  4. (d) Bauxite
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Iron Ore

Kudremukh - Karnataka Mineral Resources
Kudremukh is located in Chikmagalur district of Karnataka.
It is one of India's largestiron oremining regions.
Kudremukh Iron Ore Company Ltd. (KIOCL) operated here until 2005.
The region contains high-grade magnetite iron ore deposits.
Answer: Option 2 → Iron Ore
India - Transport and Communication · Metro rail and urban transport

Q30. In which year was the Pune Metro Rail Project inaugurated by the Prime Minister of India?

  1. (a) 2015
  2. (b) 2018
  3. (c) 2020
  4. (d) 2022
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 2022

Topic: Pune Metro Rail Project
The Pune Metro Rail Project was inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on6 March 2022.
The first phase connected Vanaz to Garware College (Purple Line) and PCMC to Civil Court (Aqua Line).
It is operated byMaha Metro(Maharashtra Metro Rail Corporation).
Answer: Option 4 → 2022

Physics (4)

Heat and Thermodynamics · Conduction, convection and radiation

Q31. Which heat transfer method enables the Sun to warm Earth, despite the vast empty space between them?

  1. (a) Insulation
  2. (b) Radiation
  3. (c) Conduction
  4. (d) Convection
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Radiation

Heat Transfer from Sun to Earth
Space between Sun and Earth is vacuum (no medium).
Conduction:Requires direct contact of particles.
Convection:Requires fluid medium (liquid/gas).
Radiation:Electromagnetic waves, no medium needed.
Sun's heat travels as electromagnetic radiation (light waves).
This is the only method that works through vacuum.
Answer: Option 2 → Radiation
Electricity · Electric power and electrical energy

Q32. Electrical energy can be calculated using which of the following formulas?

  1. (a) Energy = Power × Time
  2. (b) Energy = Voltage × Current
  3. (c) Energy = Current × Resistance
  4. (d) Energy = Power ÷ Time
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Energy = Power × Time

Electrical Energy Formula
Energy (E) =Power (P) × Time (t)
Unit: Watt-hour (Wh) or Joule (J)
Where Power = Voltage × Current
Other formulas:
Power = V × I (not energy)
Power = I² × R (not energy)
Answer: Option 1 → Energy = Power × Time
Electricity · Electric charge and Coulomb's law

Q33. If you measure the amount of electric charge flowing in a circuit, which SI unit would you use to record the result?

  1. (a) Ampere
  2. (b) Coulomb
  3. (c) Ohm
  4. (d) Volt
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Coulomb

Topic: Electric Charge and SI Units
Electric Chargeis measured inCoulomb (C).
Key SI Units in Electricity:
•Coulomb (C)→ Amount of charge
•Ampere (A)→ Rate of flow of charge (current)
•Volt (V)→ Electric potential difference
•Ohm (Ω)→ Electrical resistance
1 Ampere = 1 Coulomb per second (1 A = 1 C/s)
Answer: Option 2 → Coulomb
Sound and Waves · Loudness, pitch, quality and decibel

Q34. Which term describes sound energy received per second per unit area?

  1. (a) Pitch
  2. (b) Frequency
  3. (c) Echo
  4. (d) Intensity
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Intensity

Topic: Sound Energy and Intensity
Intensityis defined as sound energy received per second per unit area.
Formula:I = P/A(Power per unit area)
Unit: W/m² (Watt per square meter)
Other terms:
• Pitch - Related to frequency of sound
• Frequency - Number of vibrations per second
• Echo - Reflection of sound waves
Answer: Option 4 → Intensity

Modern History (3)

British Administration and Policies · Constitutional Acts under British rule

Q35. Which of the following provisions was brought about by the Indian Councils Act of 1909?

  1. (a) Introduction of separate electorates for Muslims
  2. (b) Elimination of Viceroy’s position
  3. (c) Universal voting rights for all Indians
  4. (d) Establishment of the Supreme Court in India
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Introduction of separate electorates for Muslims

Indian Councils Act of 1909 (Morley-Minto Reforms)
Key Provisions:
• Introducedseparate electorates for Muslims
• Increased Indian representation in councils
• Allowed Indians in Viceroy's Executive Council
Note: This act is known for communal representation,
which later became a divisive factor in Indian politics.
Answer: Option 1 → Introduction of separate electorates for Muslims
Gandhian Era · Khilafat and Non-Cooperation Movement

Q36. Which measure formed a central part of Gandhi’s non-cooperation strategy adopted at the Calcutta Session of 1920?

  1. (a) Acceptance of legislative seats to negotiate reforms within councils.
  2. (b) Boycott of schools, courts, and councils alongside the adoption of khadi.
  3. (c) Participation in trade negotiations to influence imperial economic policies.
  4. (d) Establishment of armed village guards to resist colonial recruitment.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Boycott of schools, courts, and councils alongside the adoption of khadi.

Topic: Non-Cooperation Movement (1920-22)
Calcutta Session (September 1920):
Congress adopted Gandhi's Non-Cooperation programme.
Key Measures:
Boycott of government schools, courts, and legislative councils.
Promotion of khadi and swadeshi goods.
Surrender of titles and honors.
Rejection of foreign cloth and institutions.
Objective:Peaceful resistance through non-participation in British institutions.
Answer: Option 2 → Boycott of schools, courts, and councils alongside the adoption of khadi.
Advent of Europeans and British Expansion · Battles of Plassey and Buxar

Q37. The British gained control over Bengal after which major battle?

  1. (a) Battle of Buxar
  2. (b) Battle of Panipat
  3. (c) Battle of Plassey
  4. (d) Battle of Wandiwash
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Battle of Plassey

Topic: British Control over Bengal
Battle of Plassey (1757)
Fought between British East India Company and Siraj-ud-Daulah (Nawab of Bengal).
Robert Clive led British forces; Mir Jafar betrayed the Nawab.
British victory established their political dominance in Bengal.
Battle of Buxar (1764) further consolidated British power.
Answer: Option 3 → Battle of Plassey

Static GK (2)

Music and Musical Instruments · Musical instruments and exponents

Q38. Ravi Shankar is famous for his expertise in playing which classical music instrument?

  1. (a) Flute
  2. (b) Tabla
  3. (c) Sarod
  4. (d) Sitar
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Sitar

Ravi Shankar - Classical Music Legend
Pandit Ravi Shankar (1920-2012) was a world-renowned
Indian classical musician and composer.
He was a virtuosoSitarplayer who popularized
Indian classical music globally.
He collaborated with The Beatles and other Western artists,
bringing the sitar to international prominence.
Answer: Option 4 → Sitar

Q39. In which of the following states is the Bateshwar fair held usually few days prior to DEEPAWALI for a period of almost three weeks?

  1. (a) Uttar Pradesh
  2. (b) Bihar
  3. (c) Chhattisgarh
  4. (d) Madhya Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Uttar Pradesh

Bateshwar Fair (Bateshwar Mela)
Location: Bateshwar, Agra district,Uttar Pradesh
Timing: Held few days before Diwali for nearly 3 weeks
Significance: Famous cattle fair on banks of Yamuna River
Answer: Option 1 → Uttar Pradesh
← 16 June 2026 Shift 2All shifts17 June 2026 Shift 1 →
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