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RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 19 June 2026 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 40 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 on 19 June 2026 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Physics, Economics, Current Affairs, Polity, Computer, Geography.

📚 40 questions🗓️ 19 June 2026⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Physics (2) · Economics (5) · Current Affairs (6) · Polity (5) · Computer (4) · Geography (7) · Static GK (4) · Chemistry (2) · Modern History (3) · Ancient History (2)

Physics (2)

Light - Reflection and Mirrors · Nature and properties of light

Q1. The transverse nature of light can be demonstrated using ______.

  1. (a) Prism
  2. (b) Polaroid
  3. (c) Lens
  4. (d) Mirror
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Polaroid

Transverse Nature of Light
Light is an electromagnetic wave with electric and magnetic fields oscillating perpendicular to direction of propagation.
Polaroidallows only light waves vibrating in one plane to pass through, blocking others.
This selective transmission proves light waves are transverse (not longitudinal).
Prism shows dispersion, lens/mirror show reflection/refraction - none prove transverse nature.
Answer: Option 2 → Polaroid
Units, Measurement & Dimensions · Derived units and units named after scientists

Q2. Which combination of SI base units correctly represents the unit of density based on its dimensional formula?

  1. (a) Kilogram per litre
  2. (b) Kilogram per metre cubed
  3. (c) Gram per litre
  4. (d) Milligram per cubic centimetre
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Kilogram per metre cubed

Density = Mass/Volume
Dimensional Formula: [M L⁻³]
SI base unit of Mass = kilogram (kg)
SI base unit of Length = metre (m)
SI base unit of Volume = m³
Density in SI base units = kg/m³
Note: Litre, gram, milligram are NOT SI base units
Answer: Option 2 → Kilogram per metre cubed

Economics (5)

Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Union Budget - latest highlights

Q3. According to the Union Budget 2025-26, how many districts will be initially covered under the 'Prime Minister Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana-Developing Agri Districts Programme'?

  1. (a) 51
  2. (b) 75
  3. (c) 100
  4. (d) 111
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 100

Prime Minister Dhan-Dhaanya Krishi Yojana
Announced in Union Budget 2025-26.
Objective: Transform agricultural districts through focused development.
Initial Coverage:100 districtsacross India.
Focus: Boost productivity and farmer income in selected agri-districts.
Answer: Option 3 → 100
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Financial inclusion schemes (PMJDY, PMJJBY, PMSBY, APY)

Q4. The Atal Pension Yojana, introduced as a social security measure in the post-1991 reform period, is available for individuals in which age group?

  1. (a) 18-60 years
  2. (b) 21-60 years
  3. (c) 21-50 years
  4. (d) 18-40 years
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 18-40 years

Atal Pension Yojana (APY)
Launched: May 2015 under PFRDA
Key Features:
• Government co-contribution scheme for unorganized sector workers
• Guaranteed pension of ₹1,000 to ₹5,000 per month after 60 years
•Eligibility: Age 18-40 yearsat time of joining
• Subscriber must have a savings bank account
Lower joining age → Lower monthly contribution
Answer: Option 4 → 18-40 years
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · WTO

Q5. The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) was signed in which of the following years?

  1. (a) 1947
  2. (b) 1946
  3. (c) 1944
  4. (d) 1995
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1947

GATT (General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade)
Signed:30 October 1947in Geneva, Switzerland
Purpose: Reduce tariffs and trade barriers globally
Note: GATT was replaced byWTO in 1995
Answer: Option 1 → 1947
Agriculture and Food Security · Rural development and rural credit

Q6. Government of India created the Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) in NABARD in 1995-96, with an initial corpus of:

  1. (a) ₹2,000 crore
  2. (b) ₹4,500 crore
  3. (c) ₹5,000 crore
  4. (d) ₹3,000 crore
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) ₹2,000 crore

Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF)
Established: 1995-96 in NABARD
Purpose: Finance rural infrastructure projects
Initial Corpus: ₹2,000 crore
Funded by commercial banks' shortfall in priority sector lending
Answer: Option 1 → ₹2,000 crore
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q7. In which of the following ways has the private sector contributed to India's industrial growth and global expansion since the economic reforms of 1991?

  1. (a) Limiting its activities to non-core industries
  2. (b) Relying solely on government subsidies for expansion
  3. (c) Restricting industrial growth to maintain a stable economy
  4. (d) Aggressively pursuing global acquisitions and enhancing industrial growth
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Aggressively pursuing global acquisitions and enhancing industrial growth

Topic:Economic Reforms 1991 - Private Sector Role
Post-1991 Liberalization Impact:
• License Raj abolished, private sector freed from restrictions
• FDI allowed, global market access opened
• Indian companies expanded internationally through acquisitions
Key Examples:
Tata acquired Jaguar-Land Rover, Corus Steel
Reliance, Infosys, Wipro became global players
Private sector entered core industries (telecom, steel, aviation)
Options 1,2,3 contradict actual post-reform trends
Answer: Option 4 → Aggressively pursuing global acquisitions and enhancing industrial growth

Current Affairs (6)

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · Policies, laws and bills

Q8. Which of the following courts upheld the government’s “Sahyog portal” takedown powers in September 2025?

  1. (a) Delhi High Court
  2. (b) Calcutta High Court
  3. (c) Bombay High Court
  4. (d) Karnataka High Court
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Karnataka High Court

Topic:Sahyog Portal & IT Rules 2021
TheKarnataka High Courtupheld the government's takedown powers under the Sahyog portal inSeptember 2025.
The portal allows authorities to block online content under IT Rules 2021.
The court validated the constitutional validity of these emergency blocking provisions.
Answer: Option 4 → Karnataka High Court
State News · State schemes and events

Q9. In collaboration with UNICEF, the Government of Telangana developed the city-level action plan “CLAP for Children” for which city?

  1. (a) Karimnagar
  2. (b) Nalgonda
  3. (c) Ranga Reddy
  4. (d) Hyderabad
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Hyderabad

CLAP for Children - City Level Action Plan
Initiative: Telangana Government + UNICEF collaboration
Focus: Child-friendly city development with comprehensive action plan
City:Hyderabad- First city in India to implement CLAP
Objective: Child rights, education, health, protection, and participation
Answer: Option 4 → Hyderabad
Economy, Banking and Business · Budget and economic data - current

Q10. The female labour force participation rate (LFPR) for persons aged 15+ in October 2025 reached approximately:

  1. (a) 30.0 %
  2. (b) 32.0 %
  3. (c) 34.2 %
  4. (d) 38.0 %
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 34.2 %

Topic: Female Labour Force Participation Rate (LFPR) in India
Key Facts:
LFPR measures percentage of working-age population
actively working or seeking employment.
As per recent PLFS data (Oct 2025), female LFPR
for age 15+ years showed significant improvement
reaching approximately34.2%.
This reflects increased women's participation in
workforce compared to previous years.
Answer: Option 3 → 34.2 %
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Reports and their publishers

Q11. Which country’s human rights practices report was criticised by Human Rights Watch for omitting categories like LGBT people, persons with disabilities, and freedom of assembly in August 2025?

  1. (a) China
  2. (b) United States
  3. (c) Russia
  4. (d) India
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) United States

Topic: Human Rights Watch Criticism (August 2025)
Human Rights Watch criticized theUnited StatesState Department's human rights report for significant omissions.
Key omissions included:
• LGBT people
• Persons with disabilities
• Freedom of assembly
This represented a departure from previous comprehensive reporting standards.
Answer: Option 2 → United States
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q12. Which country topped the Henley Passport Index 2025?

  1. (a) Japan
  2. (b) Singapore
  3. (c) Germany
  4. (d) China
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Singapore

Henley Passport Index 2025
Singapore topped the index with visa-free access to 195 destinations.
Japan ranked second with access to 193 destinations.
The index ranks passports based on number of destinations holders can access without prior visa.
Answer: Option 2 → Singapore
Awards and Honours - Current · International awards - current

Q13. One of the winners of the Goldman Environmental Prize 2025, Semia Gharbi, belongs to which place?

  1. (a) Tunisia
  2. (b) Albania
  3. (c) Peru
  4. (d) Mongolia
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Tunisia

Goldman Environmental Prize 2025 Winners
Semia Gharbi is an environmental activist fromTunisia.
She won the Goldman Environmental Prize 2025 for her work in environmental conservation and activism in North Africa.
The Goldman Environmental Prize is awarded annually to grassroots environmental heroes from six continental regions.
Answer: Option 1 → Tunisia

Polity (5)

DPSP and Fundamental Duties · Socialistic principles

Q14. Which of the following is NOT a directive mentioned in Article 39 of the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) Prevention of exploitation of childhood and youth
  2. (b) Equal pay for equal work for both men and women
  3. (c) Promotion of international trade relations
  4. (d) Protection of the strength and health of workers
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Promotion of international trade relations

Topic: Article 39 - Directive Principles of State Policy
Article 39 mentions:
• Equal pay for equal work (men & women) - Clause (d)
• Protection of workers' health & strength - Clause (e)
• Prevention of exploitation of childhood & youth - Clause (f)
• Adequate means of livelihood for all citizens - Clause (a)
• Distribution of material resources for common good - Clause (b)
Promotion of international trade relationsis NOT mentioned in Article 39.
It relates to foreign policy, not DPSP under Article 39.
Answer: Option 3 → Promotion of international trade relations
Union Executive · Council of Ministers and Cabinet

Q15. Which Amendment limited the Council of Ministers size to fifteen percent of total Lok Sabha strength?

  1. (a) 42nd Amendment
  2. (b) 86th Amendment
  3. (c) 99th Amendment
  4. (d) 91st Amendment
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 91st Amendment

91st Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003
Key Provision:
Limited the size of Council of Ministers to15% of total strengthof Lok Sabha.
Additional Feature:
Also applied to State Legislative Assemblies.
Minimum size:12 ministers(even if 15% is less).
Answer: Option 4 → 91st Amendment
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Financial Emergency (Article 360)

Q16. After proclamation, Financial Emergency must be approved within how many months by Parliament?

  1. (a) Approved by both Houses of Parliament within Six months
  2. (b) AApproved by both Houses of Parliament within One months
  3. (c) Approved by both Houses of Parliament within Three months
  4. (d) Approved by both Houses of Parliament within Two months
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Approved by both Houses of Parliament within Two months

Financial Emergency (Article 360)
Proclamation issued by President on grounds of financial instability.
Must be approved byboth Houses of Parliamentwithin2 months.
If not approved within 2 months, proclamation ceases to operate.
Answer: Option 4 → Approved by both Houses of Parliament within Two months
Preamble, Features, Parts and Schedules · Preamble - text and keywords

Q17. Which four objectives of the Constitution are explicitly mentioned in the Preamble of India?

  1. (a) Sovereign, Republic, Secular, Monarchy
  2. (b) Parliament, President, Judiciary, Election
  3. (c) Rights, Duties, Laws, Governance
  4. (d) Justice, Liberty, Equality, Fraternity
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Justice, Liberty, Equality, Fraternity

Topic: Preamble of Indian Constitution
The Preamble declares India as SOVEREIGN, SOCIALIST, SECULAR, DEMOCRATIC, REPUBLIC.
It explicitly mentionsfour objectivesto secure for all citizens:
1. JUSTICE— Social, Economic, Political
2. LIBERTY— Of thought, expression, belief, faith, worship
3. EQUALITY— Of status and opportunity
4. FRATERNITY— Assuring dignity of individual and unity of nation
Answer: Option 4 → Justice, Liberty, Equality, Fraternity
Local Government · 74th Amendment - urban local bodies

Q18. Which Part and Schedule of the Constitution of India deals with Municipalities?

  1. (a) Part IX and 11ᵗʰ Schedule
  2. (b) Part IX and 12ᵗʰ Schedule
  3. (c) Part IXA and 11ᵗʰ Schedule
  4. (d) Part IXA and 12ᵗʰ Schedule
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Part IXA and 12ᵗʰ Schedule

Topic: Constitutional Provisions for Municipalities
Part IXA→ Deals with Municipalities (Articles 243P to 243ZG)
12th Schedule→ Lists 18 functional items of Municipalities
Note: Part IX deals with Panchayats (11th Schedule)
74th Amendment Act, 1992 added Part IXA and 12th Schedule
Answer: Option 4 → Part IXA and 12ᵗʰ Schedule

Computer (4)

Abbreviations and Miscellaneous · Computer abbreviations

Q19. The term ROM is an abbreviation for:

  1. (a) Rapid Optical Media
  2. (b) Random Output Module
  3. (c) Read Only Memory
  4. (d) Reusable Operating Machine
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Read Only Memory

Topic: Computer Memory
ROMstands forRead Only Memory.
Key Facts:
• Non-volatile memory (retains data without power)
• Data is permanently stored during manufacturing
• Used to store firmware and BIOS
Answer: Option 3 → Read Only Memory
Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Types of software (system, application, utility)

Q20. Which aspect most clearly contrasts user interaction with system software versus application software?

  1. (a) System software typically has minimal direct interaction; applications are highly interactive.
  2. (b) Application software never has a graphical interface.
  3. (c) Users always configure system software for every action.
  4. (d) Both have identical interaction patterns.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) System software typically has minimal direct interaction; applications are highly interactive.

System Software vs Application Software Interaction
System Software:
Operates in background (OS, drivers, utilities)
Minimal direct user interaction
Manages hardware and system resources
Application Software:
Direct user-facing programs (MS Word, browsers)
Highly interactive with GUI
Designed for specific user tasks
Answer: Option 1 → System software typically has minimal direct interaction; applications are highly interactive.
Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Windows features and utilities

Q21. The bar at the bottom of the Windows screen that shows open applications is:

  1. (a) Title bar
  2. (b) Taskbar
  3. (c) Menu bar
  4. (d) Scroll bar
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Taskbar

Windows Screen Components
Taskbar:Located at the bottom of Windows screen
Shows open/running applications and programs
Contains Start button, system tray, and clock
Other bars:
Title bar → Top of window (shows program name)
Menu bar → Contains File, Edit, View options
Scroll bar → Side/bottom for scrolling content
Answer: Option 2 → Taskbar
Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Types of software (system, application, utility)

Q22. A certain software component is critical for memory management and process scheduling, allowing multiple programs to run concurrently, and it is the first program loaded by the boot process. It generally operates in a privileged mode (kernel mode). Based on this description, which category of software does this component belong to?

  1. (a) System Software
  2. (b) Utility Software
  3. (c) Driver Software
  4. (d) Application Software
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) System Software

Component Analysis:
Key characteristics mentioned:
• Memory management & process scheduling
• Allows concurrent program execution
• First program loaded by boot process
• Operates in kernel mode (privileged)
This describes theOperating System (OS)
Software Categories:
•System Software- OS, compilers, loaders
• Utility Software - Antivirus, disk cleanup
• Driver Software - Hardware interface programs
Answer: Option 1 → System Software

Geography (7)

India - Population and Census · State and district rankings (census)

Q23. Which among the following states had the largest population of children (0–6 years) as per the Census 2011 provisional figures?

  1. (a) Rajasthan
  2. (b) Maharashtra
  3. (c) Bihar
  4. (d) Uttar Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Uttar Pradesh

Topic: Census 2011 - Child Population (0-6 years)
State-wise Child Population (0-6 years):
1. Uttar Pradesh: ~2.97 crore (highest)
2. Bihar: ~1.86 crore
3. Maharashtra: ~1.31 crore
4. Rajasthan: ~1.06 crore
UP had the largest overall population in 2011,
hence largest child population too.
Answer: Option 4 → Uttar Pradesh
India - Population and Census · SC and ST population

Q24. According to the Census of India 2011, what was the sex ratio (number of females per 1,000 males) among the Scheduled Tribe (ST) population in India?

  1. (a) 990
  2. (b) 970
  3. (c) 1,010
  4. (d) 950
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 990

Topic: Census of India 2011 - Scheduled Tribe Demographics
Sex Ratio Definition:Number of females per 1,000 males
Key Census 2011 Data:
Overall India sex ratio: 943
SC population sex ratio: 945
ST population sex ratio: 990
ST population had better sex ratio than national average
Answer: Option 1 → 990
Environment and Protected Areas · Wildlife sanctuaries

Q25. The Pitti Island in Lakshadweep is notable for which feature?

  1. (a) It hosts India’s largest military base
  2. (b) It contains active volcanoes
  3. (c) It is uninhabited and has a bird sanctuary
  4. (d) It is the gateway to the Andaman Sea
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It is uninhabited and has a bird sanctuary

Pitti Island - Lakshadweep
Location: Small coral island in Lakshadweep archipelago
Key Features:
• Uninhabited island (no human settlement)
• Declared as abird sanctuary
• Important nesting site for seabirds and terns
• Protected area for marine biodiversity
Answer: Option 3 → It is uninhabited and has a bird sanctuary
India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Indian monsoon - mechanism

Q26. Which physical process creates the seasonal pressure difference between the Indian subcontinent and surrounding oceans that initiates the summer monsoon winds?

  1. (a) Weak coriolis force
  2. (b) Presence of the Himalayas
  3. (c) Variation in rainfall pattern
  4. (d) Differential heating of land and sea
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Differential heating of land and sea

Topic:Indian Summer Monsoon Mechanism
Physical Process:Differential Heating
Summer: Land heats faster than ocean → Low pressure over subcontinent
Ocean remains cooler → High pressure over Indian Ocean
Pressure gradient drives moisture-laden winds from sea to land
This creates the Southwest Monsoon (June-September)
Note: Himalayas block cold winds but don't create pressure difference
Coriolis force affects wind direction, not pressure formation
Answer: Option 4 → Differential heating of land and sea
India - Population and Census · Demographic concepts and transition

Q27. A country with a high birth rate and a high death rate typically reflects:

  1. (a) Post-industrial society
  2. (b) Low dependency ratio
  3. (c) Early stage of demographic transition
  4. (d) Advanced economy
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Early stage of demographic transition

Demographic Transition Model
Stage 1 (Pre-transition): High birth rate + High death rate
Characteristics: Poor healthcare, high infant mortality, low life expectancy
Population growth: Slow or stagnant
Stage 2-3: Birth rate remains high, death rate falls → Rapid growth
Stage 4-5: Both rates low → Stable/declining population
High BR + High DR = Early/First stage of demographic transition
Answer: Option 3 → Early stage of demographic transition
India - Minerals, Energy and Industries · Energy policies and missions

Q28. As announced in December 2025, Union Coal Minister G. Kishan Reddy stated that the target of 100 million tonnes under the Coal Gasification Mission is to be achieved by which year?

  1. (a) 2030
  2. (b) 2034
  3. (c) 2028
  4. (d) 2032
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 2030

Coal Gasification Mission - Target Year
Announced: December 2025
Union Coal Minister: G. Kishan Reddy
Key Facts:
• Coal Gasification Mission aims to convert coal into syngas
• Target:100 million tonnescoal gasification
• Deadline:2030
• Part of India's energy transition strategy
Answer: Option 1 → 2030
Lithosphere - Earth's Interior and Landforms · Types of mountains, plateaus and plains

Q29. A plateau that is surrounded by mountains on all sides is generally referred to as a:

  1. (a) Piedmont plateau
  2. (b) Dissected plateau
  3. (c) Lava plateau
  4. (d) Intermontane plateau
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Intermontane plateau

Topic: Types of Plateaus
Intermontane Plateau:A plateau surrounded by mountains on all sides.
Examples: Tibetan Plateau, Bolivian Plateau, Colorado Plateau.
Other Types:
Piedmont Plateau: Located at the foot of mountains.
Dissected Plateau: Eroded by rivers and streams.
Lava Plateau: Formed by volcanic eruptions.
Answer: Option 4 → Intermontane plateau

Static GK (4)

Organisations and Headquarters · Indian organisations and headquarters

Q30. What is the primary function of the Sahitya Akademi?

  1. (a) To promote literature in Indian languages
  2. (b) To promote classical languages
  3. (c) To conduct language proficiency tests
  4. (d) To provide translation services
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) To promote literature in Indian languages

Sahitya Akademi
Established: 1954 (India's National Academy of Letters)
Primary Function: Promotes literature in22 scheduled Indian languages
Key Activities: Literary awards, seminars, publications, translations
Answer: Option 1 → To promote literature in Indian languages
Monuments and Heritage · Monuments - builders and locations

Q31. The Gateway of India was built to commemorate the visit of:

  1. (a) Queen Victoria
  2. (b) Prince Charles
  3. (c) Queen Elizabeth II
  4. (d) George V and Queen Mary
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) George V and Queen Mary

Gateway of India - Historical Monument
Built in Mumbai (Bombay) during British rule.
Commemorates the visit ofKing George V and Queen Maryto India in December 1911.
Construction began in 1913 and completed in 1924.
Designed by architect George Wittet in Indo-Saracenic style.
Answer: Option 4 → George V and Queen Mary
Dances · Classical dance exponents

Q32. Padmashri Elam Endira Devi is associated with which classical dance form?

  1. (a) Kathak
  2. (b) Manipuri
  3. (c) Odissi
  4. (d) Bharatanatyam
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Manipuri

Padmashri Elam Endira Devi
She is a renowned exponent ofManipuri dance.
Manipuri is a classical dance form from Manipur.
Known for graceful movements and devotional themes.
Answer: Option 2 → Manipuri
Music and Musical Instruments · Folk music and songs by state

Q33. Which of the following folk music styles belongs to Sikkim?

  1. (a) Baul
  2. (b) Bihu songs
  3. (c) Lavani
  4. (d) Lepcha
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Lepcha

Topic: Folk Music of Indian States
Baul→ Folk music of West Bengal and Bangladesh
Bihu songs→ Folk music of Assam
Lavani→ Folk music of Maharashtra
Lepcha→ Folk music of Sikkim (indigenous tribe)
Lepcha people are native to Sikkim and their traditional music is a major folk style of the state.
Answer: Option 4 → Lepcha

Chemistry (2)

Mixtures, Solutions and Separation · Separation techniques (distillation, chromatography, centrifugation, crystallisation)

Q34. In the production of crystal sugar from sugarcane juice, the sugar is separated from the liquid through the growth of solid particles (sugar crystals) from a concentrated solution (syrup). This separation technique is called _____.

  1. (a) Chromatography
  2. (b) Crystallization
  3. (c) Distillation
  4. (d) Filtration
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Crystallization

Separation Technique in Sugar Production
Process described: Growth of solid sugar crystals from concentrated syrup solution
Crystallization:Separation method where pure solid crystals form from a saturated solution by cooling or evaporation
In sugar production: Sugarcane juice → Concentrated syrup → Crystal formation → Pure sugar crystals separate
Other options incorrect:
• Chromatography: Separates mixtures using mobile/stationary phases
• Distillation: Separates by boiling point differences
• Filtration: Separates solid particles from liquid using filter
Answer: Option 2 → Crystallization
Acids, Bases and Salts · Common salts - preparation and uses (baking soda, washing soda, bleaching powder, plaster of Paris)

Q35. When electricity is passed through an aqueous solution of sodium chloride (called brine), it decomposes to form sodium hydroxide. This process is called:

  1. (a) Polymerisation process
  2. (b) Sublimation process
  3. (c) Chlor-alkali process
  4. (d) Filtration process
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Chlor-alkali process

Electrolysis of Brine (NaCl solution)
When electric current passes through aqueous NaCl:
At cathode: 2H₂O + 2e⁻ → H₂ + 2OH⁻
At anode: 2Cl⁻ → Cl₂ + 2e⁻
Products formed:
• Chlorine gas (Cl₂) at anode
• Hydrogen gas (H₂) at cathode
• Sodium hydroxide (NaOH) in solution
This process is called Chlor-alkali process
(Chlor = Chlorine, Alkali = NaOH)
Answer: Option 3 → Chlor-alkali process

Modern History (3)

British Administration and Policies · Constitutional Acts under British rule

Q36. What was one main demand of the Muslim League that was accepted by the British government in 1909?

  1. (a) Complete independence
  2. (b) Separate electorates for Muslims
  3. (c) Universal adult franchise
  4. (d) Partition of India
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Separate electorates for Muslims

Topic: Indian National Movement - Morley-Minto Reforms 1909
The Muslim League was founded in 1906 at Dhaka.
Main demand:Separate electorates for Muslims
British accepted this demand in theIndian Councils Act 1909(Morley-Minto Reforms).
This introduced communal representation in Indian politics.
Answer: Option 2 → Separate electorates for Muslims
Socio-Religious Reform Movements · Social reform laws (sati, widow remarriage, child marriage)

Q37. Who among the following worked for widow remarriage in India?

  1. (a) Jyotiba Phule
  2. (b) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
  3. (c) Swami Vivekananda
  4. (d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar

Topic: Social Reformers of India
Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagarwas a prominent social reformer who championed widow remarriage in 19th century India.
He played a key role in passing theHindu Widows' Remarriage Act, 1856.
He personally arranged and funded several widow remarriages to set an example.
Answer: Option 2 → Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
Rise of Nationalism and Indian National Congress · Surat Split

Q38. The split between Moderates and Extremists in the Indian National Congress took place at the 1907 session held at:

  1. (a) Calcutta
  2. (b) Lahore
  3. (c) Bombay
  4. (d) Surat
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Surat

Topic: Indian National Congress Split (1907)
The historic split betweenModeratesandExtremistsoccurred at theSurat Session (1907).
Key Facts:
• Moderates led by Gopal Krishna Gokhale
• Extremists led by Bal Gangadhar Tilak
• Dispute over election of Congress President and methods
• Session ended in chaos with physical confrontation
Answer: Option 4 → Surat

Ancient History (2)

Vedic Period · Later Vedic period

Q39. Which among the following best represents the change in society from the Early to the Later Vedic period?

  1. (a) End of religious practices and rituals
  2. (b) Decline of agriculture and rise in hunting
  3. (c) Shift from settled villages to nomadic life
  4. (d) Emergence of a complex varna hierarchy
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Emergence of a complex varna hierarchy

Topic: Transition from Early to Later Vedic Period
Early Vedic Period (1500-1000 BCE):
Simple social structure, flexible varna system
Primarily pastoral economy, tribal society
Later Vedic Period (1000-600 BCE):
Complexvarna hierarchybecame rigid
Four varnas (Brahmana, Kshatriya, Vaishya, Shudra) clearly defined
Birth-based social stratification emerged
Agriculture expanded, settled life increased
Other options incorrect:
Religious practices actually intensified (not ended)
Answer: Option 4 → Emergence of a complex varna hierarchy
Gupta Empire · Science and mathematics in the Gupta age

Q40. The work ‘Panchasiddhantika’, which deals with astronomy, was written in the sixth century by:

  1. (a) Kalidasa
  2. (b) Brahmagupta
  3. (c) Varahamihira
  4. (d) Aryabhata
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Varahamihira

Topic: Ancient Indian Astronomy
Panchasiddhantikais a 6th-century astronomical treatise.
Written byVarahamihira(505-587 CE).
It summarizes five earlier astronomical systems (Pancha = Five, Siddhanta = Treatises).
Other works: Brihat Samhita, Brihat Jataka.
Answer: Option 3 → Varahamihira
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