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RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 19 June 2026 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 40 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 on 19 June 2026 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Computer, Geography, Modern History, Current Affairs, Chemistry, Ancient History.

📚 40 questions🗓️ 19 June 2026⏰ Shift 2
हिंदी में पढ़ें📥 Full paper PDF
Subjects: Computer (4) · Geography (5) · Modern History (3) · Current Affairs (7) · Chemistry (4) · Ancient History (1) · Medieval History (2) · Polity (6) · Static GK (3) · Economics (4) · Physics (1)

Computer (4)

Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Windows features and utilities

Q1. In Windows 11 File Explorer, which feature is used to quickly locate a file by typing its name?

  1. (a) Search box
  2. (b) Properties
  3. (c) View
  4. (d) Sort
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Search box

Windows 11 File Explorer Features
Search Box:Located at top-right of File Explorer
Allows quick file/folder search by typing name
Provides instant results as you type
Other Options:
Properties → Shows file details (size, date, etc.)
View → Changes display layout (icons, list, details)
Sort → Arranges files by name, date, size, type
Answer: Option 1 → Search box
Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Types of software (system, application, utility)

Q2. Which statement is True or False about System Software?(i) The Operating System runs in privileged mode, giving it unrestricted access to hardware.(ii) Core System Software like device drivers is essential for the computer to start and function.

  1. (a) (i) False, (ii) True
  2. (b) (i) False, (ii) False
  3. (c) (i) True, (ii) True
  4. (d) (i) True, (ii) False
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) (i) True, (ii) True

System Software Analysis:
Statement (i):Operating System runs in privileged mode
• OS kernel operates inkernel mode/privileged mode
• Has direct hardware access for resource management
• User applications run in user mode (restricted access)
Statement (i) is TRUE
Statement (ii):Core system software essential for startup
•Device driversenable hardware communication
•BIOS/UEFI firmwareinitiates boot process
• Without core drivers, system cannot initialize hardware
Statement (ii) is TRUE
Answer: Option 3 → (i) True, (ii) True
Networking and Data Communication · Networking devices (router, switch, hub, modem)

Q3. A Local Area Network (LAN) enables resource sharing by connecting devices to the network medium through a specialized adapter called the __________.

  1. (a) Read-Only Memory
  2. (b) Graphics Processing Unit
  3. (c) Network Interface Card
  4. (d) Central Processing Unit
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Network Interface Card

Topic: Computer Networks - LAN Components
ALAN (Local Area Network)connects multiple devices within a limited area for resource sharing.
Devices connect to the network medium through a specialized hardware adapter.
Network Interface Card (NIC)is the adapter that:
• Provides physical connection to network
• Converts data into network signals
• Has unique MAC address for identification
Answer: Option 3 → Network Interface Card
Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Windows features and utilities

Q4. Which of the following statements is/are true or false regarding Sleep and Hibernate modes in Windows 11?(i) Hibernate saves the session to the hard disk before shutting down, allowing full recovery upon restart.(ii) Sleep consumes more power than Hibernate because it keeps the RAM powered.

  1. (a) (i) True, (ii) False
  2. (b) (i) False, (ii) True
  3. (c) (i) False, (ii) False
  4. (d) (i) True, (ii) True
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) (i) True, (ii) True

Topic:Windows 11 Power Modes
Statement (i): Hibernate saves session to hard disk
True → Hibernate writes RAM contents to hiberfil.sys on disk, then shuts down completely. On restart, session is fully restored from disk.
Statement (ii): Sleep consumes more power than Hibernate
True → Sleep keeps RAM powered to maintain session (low power state). Hibernate powers off completely, consuming zero power.
Both statements are correct.
Answer: Option 4 → (i) True, (ii) True

Geography (5)

Environment and Protected Areas · Elephant reserves and other conservation projects

Q5. Consider the following statements:1. Project Elephant was launched in 1992 to protect elephants in India.2. Project Tiger was launched in 1973 to conserve tigers in India3. Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve is located in West Bengal, India.4. Keoladeo National Park is located in Madhya Pradesh.Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. (a) 1, 2, 3
  2. (b) 1, 3, 4
  3. (c) 2, 3, 4
  4. (d) 2, 3
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1, 2, 3

Wildlife Conservation Projects & Protected Areas
Statement 1:Project Elephant launched in 1992 ✓
Correct. Launched by MoEF to protect elephants, their habitat and corridors.
Statement 2:Project Tiger launched in 1973 ✓
Correct. Launched on April 1, 1973 with 9 tiger reserves initially.
Statement 3:Sundarbans Biosphere Reserve in West Bengal ✓
Correct. Located in Ganges delta, West Bengal. UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Statement 4:Keoladeo National Park in Madhya Pradesh ✗
Incorrect. Keoladeo (Bharatpur Bird Sanctuary) is inRajasthan, not MP.
Answer: Option 1 → 1, 2, 3
India - Transport and Communication · Ports and shipping

Q6. Which of the following is a landlocked inland river port in India?

  1. (a) Chennai port
  2. (b) Mumbai port
  3. (c) Pandu port
  4. (d) Kandla port
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Pandu port

Topic: Indian Ports - Landlocked Inland River Port
Pandu Portis located inGuwahati, Assamon the banks ofBrahmaputra River.
It is India's firstlandlocked inland river portunder National Waterway-2 (NW-2).
Other options areseaports:
Chennai - Bay of Bengal (Tamil Nadu)
Mumbai - Arabian Sea (Maharashtra)
Kandla - Gulf of Kutch (Gujarat)
Answer: Option 3 → Pandu port
India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Forest types and distribution

Q7. Which tree species is most commonly associated with India’s tropical deciduous forests?

  1. (a) Oak
  2. (b) Fir
  3. (c) Teak
  4. (d) Pine
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Teak

Topic: Indian Forest Types
Tropical Deciduous Forests(Monsoon Forests):
Cover largest area in India (most widespread)
Shed leaves in dry season to conserve water
Teakis the most dominant tree species
Other species: Sal, Sandalwood, Shisham, Bamboo
Oak, Fir, Pine → Found in temperate/alpine forests
Answer: Option 3 → Teak
India - Transport and Communication · Ports and shipping

Q8. Which of the following is an inland riverine port?

  1. (a) Kochi
  2. (b) Kandla
  3. (c) Visakhapatnam
  4. (d) Kolkata
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Kolkata

Inland Riverine Ports
Ports located on rivers, not directly on sea coast.
Kolkata Port:Located on Hooghly River (tributary of Ganga), about 128 km from Bay of Bengal.
Other Options:
Kochi, Kandla, Visakhapatnam - All are seaports on Indian coastline.
Answer: Option 4 → Kolkata
World Geography · World resources, industries and cities

Q9. Which of the following best explains the emergence of “megaregions” with extremely high population densities (e.g., Bos Wash, Tokyo-Osaka, Pearl River Delta)?

  1. (a) Governments intentionally relocate populations to form megaregions
  2. (b) Megaregions form primarily because of uniform physical geography
  3. (c) They exist because of high natural population growth in these regions
  4. (d) They develop due to integrated economic corridors and high connectivity
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) They develop due to integrated economic corridors and high connectivity

Megaregionsare large networked urban areas with high population density.
Key Characteristics:
• Multiple cities connected by transport/economic networks
• Examples: BosWash (Boston-Washington), Tokyo-Osaka, Pearl River Delta
• Form through economic integration, not government relocation
Formation Factors:
• Integrated economic corridors linking cities
• High-speed transport connectivity (rail, highways)
• Shared labor markets and supply chains
• Not due to uniform geography or natural growth alone
Answer: Option 4 → They develop due to integrated economic corridors and high connectivity

Modern History (3)

Advent of Europeans and British Expansion · Dutch, Danish and French

Q10. The French East India Company’s main settlement in India was located at which place?

  1. (a) Karaikal
  2. (b) Pondicherry
  3. (c) Mahe
  4. (d) Chandernagore
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Pondicherry

Topic: French East India Company in India
French Settlements in India:
Main settlement:Pondicherry(established 1674)
Other settlements: Chandernagore, Karaikal, Mahe, Yanam
Pondicherry served as theheadquartersand capital
of French India until 1954.
Answer: Option 2 → Pondicherry
Socio-Religious Reform Movements · Women reformers

Q11. What was the primary objective of Pandita Ramabai’s work?

  1. (a) Women’s education and empowerment
  2. (b) Establishing a national army
  3. (c) Promoting traditional religious practices
  4. (d) Political independence for India
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Women’s education and empowerment

Pandita Ramabai (1858-1922)
A pioneering social reformer and women's rights activist.
Key Contributions:
Founded Sharada Sadan (1889) - shelter for widows and destitute women.
Established Mukti Mission (1898) - education and rehabilitation center.
Advocated for women's education, widow remarriage, and against child marriage.
Answer: Option 1 → Women's education and empowerment
Socio-Religious Reform Movements · Raja Ram Mohan Roy and Brahmo Samaj

Q12. What was Raja Ram Mohan Roy's greatest social achievement?

  1. (a) Founding the Indian National Congress
  2. (b) Abolition of child marriage
  3. (c) Promoting English education
  4. (d) Abolition of Sati in 1829
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Abolition of Sati in 1829

Raja Ram Mohan Roy - Social Reformer
Key Achievement: Led campaign againstSatipractice
FoundedBrahmo Samaj(1828) for social reform
Convinced Lord William Bentinck to ban Sati
Regulation XVII of 1829- Sati declared illegal
This became his most significant social contribution
Answer: Option 4 → Abolition of Sati in 1829

Current Affairs (7)

Books, Obituaries and Days - Current · Days and themes - current year

Q13. What was the theme for International Mother Language Day 2025?

  1. (a) Multilingual education – a pillar of learning and intergenerational learning
  2. (b) Using technology for multilingual learning: Challenges and opportunities
  3. (c) Multilingual Education: A necessity to transform education
  4. (d) Silver Jubilee Celebration of International Mother Language Day
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Silver Jubilee Celebration of International Mother Language Day

International Mother Language Day 2025
Date: 21 February (observed annually since 2000)
2025 marks the25th anniversary(Silver Jubilee) of International Mother Language Day.
Theme 2025:Silver Jubilee Celebration of International Mother Language Day
This special theme commemorates a quarter-century of promoting linguistic and cultural diversity worldwide.
Answer: Option 4 → Silver Jubilee Celebration of International Mother Language Day
Books, Obituaries and Days - Current · Days and themes - current year

Q14. What was the campaign theme of World Mental Health Day 2025 observed on 10 October?

  1. (a) Mental Health is a Universal Human Right
  2. (b) Mental Health in Humanitarian Emergencies
  3. (c) Make Mental Health & Well-being for All a Global Priority
  4. (d) Mental Health at Work
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Mental Health in Humanitarian Emergencies

World Mental Health Day 2025
Date: 10 October (observed annually)
Theme 2025:Mental Health in Humanitarian Emergencies
Focus: Addressing mental health challenges during crises, conflicts, and disasters.
Previous themes:
2023 - Mental Health is a Universal Human Right
2022 - Make Mental Health & Well-being for All a Global Priority
Answer: Option 2 → Mental Health in Humanitarian Emergencies
Sports - Current · Records and achievements

Q15. At the 2025 World Aquatics Championships, which male swimmer set a new world record in the 200 m individual medley (IM) during semifinals?

  1. (a) Leon Marchand
  2. (b) Michael Phelps
  3. (c) Shaine Casas
  4. (d) Luca Urlando
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Leon Marchand

2025 World Aquatics Championships
Event: 200m Individual Medley (IM)
Stage: Semifinals
Leon Marchand(France) set a new world record in the 200m IM during the semifinals.
He is a dominant force in individual medley events and has broken multiple world records.
Answer: Option 1 → Leon Marchand
International Affairs and Summits · Bilateral agreements and visits

Q16. During PM Modi's visit to the USA in February 2025, what was the target set under 'Mission 500'?

  1. (a) 500 Indian startups launched in the USA
  2. (b) 500 defence agreements signed
  3. (c) 500 joint military exercises
  4. (d) $500 billion in bilateral trade by 2030
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) $500 billion in bilateral trade by 2030

Topic: PM Modi's USA Visit - February 2025
Mission 500:Ambitious bilateral trade target
Key Points:
• Target:$500 billion bilateral trade by 2030
• Announced during PM Modi's USA visit in Feb 2025
• Aims to strengthen India-USA economic partnership
• Focus on trade expansion and investment growth
Answer: Option 4 → $500 billion in bilateral trade by 2030
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · Policies, laws and bills

Q17. Which policy, approved in August 2024, aims to accelerate innovation-driven research and entrepreneurship in high-performance biomanufacturing in India?

  1. (a) GenTech Initiative
  2. (b) Bio-India 2025
  3. (c) BioGrowth Scheme
  4. (d) BioE3
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) BioE3

Topic: Government Policy - Biomanufacturing
BioE3 Policy (Biotechnology for Economy, Environment and Employment)
Approved by Union Cabinet inAugust 2024.
Aims to accelerateinnovation-driven research and entrepreneurshipin high-performance biomanufacturing.
Focuses on bio-based economy, environmental sustainability, and job creation in biotechnology sector.
Answer: Option 4 → BioE3
International Affairs and Summits · Summits and conferences

Q18. Which Indian city hosted the 23rd Asian Oceanian Congress of Radiology (AOCR) 2025?

  1. (a) Hyderabad
  2. (b) Chandigarh
  3. (c) Jaipur
  4. (d) Chennai
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Chennai

23rd Asian Oceanian Congress of Radiology (AOCR) 2025
Host City:Chennai, India
The AOCR is a prestigious regional radiology conference
bringing together radiologists from Asian and Oceanian countries.
Chennai was selected as the host city for the 2025 edition.
Answer: Option 4 → Chennai
Economy, Banking and Business · GDP and growth forecasts

Q19. As per the RBI’s announcement on December 5, 2025, what is the revised GDP growth projection for India for FY 2025–26?

  1. (a) 7.2%
  2. (b) 7%
  3. (c) 7.3%
  4. (d) 7.1%
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 7.3%

Topic: RBI GDP Growth Projection (December 2025)
RBI announced revised GDP growth forecast on December 5, 2025.
The projection for FY 2025-26 was revised to7.3%.
This reflects India's economic outlook as per RBI's monetary policy review.
Answer: Option 3 → 7.3%

Chemistry (4)

Periodic Classification of Elements · Groups and periods - position of elements

Q20. In the context of periodicity, elements in the same group tend to display similar chemical properties. Which primary factor is responsible for this similarity among group members?

  1. (a) Similar valence electronic configuration
  2. (b) Similar atomic masses
  3. (c) Constant atomic radius
  4. (d) Identical atomic numbers
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Similar valence electronic configuration

Topic: Periodic Table - Group Properties
Elements in the same group havesame number of valence electrons.
Key Facts:
• Valence electrons determine chemical reactivity and bonding behavior
• Group 1: All have 1 valence electron (Li, Na, K)
• Group 17: All have 7 valence electrons (F, Cl, Br)
Atomic mass, radius, and atomic number vary within a group.
Onlyvalence electronic configuration remains similar.
Answer: Option 1 → Similar valence electronic configuration
Environmental Chemistry · Air pollutants and their sources

Q21. Which of the following is a method specifically used to control particulate air pollution?

  1. (a) Catalytic combustion in open furnaces
  2. (b) Absorption of gases using liquid scrubbers
  3. (c) Increasing chimney height without any treatment
  4. (d) Use of fabric filters to trap dust and fly ash
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Use of fabric filters to trap dust and fly ash

Topic:Particulate Air Pollution Control Methods
Particulate matter = solid/liquid particles suspended in air (dust, smoke, fly ash)
Analysis of options:
Option 1: Catalytic combustion → controls gaseous pollutants, not particulates
Option 2: Liquid scrubbers → primarily for gas absorption, not particulate removal
Option 3: Increasing chimney height → disperses pollutants, doesn't remove them
Option 4: Fabric filters (baghouses) → specifically trap particulate matter
Fabric filtersuse woven/felted cloth to capture dust and fly ash particles
Widely used in industries like cement, power plants, steel manufacturing
Answer: Option 4 → Use of fabric filters to trap dust and fly ash
Metals and Non-metals · Physical properties of metals and non-metals

Q22. Which of the following elements is malleable and a good conductor of heat and electricity?

  1. (a) Sulfur (S)
  2. (b) Barium (Ba)
  3. (c) Iodine (I)
  4. (d) Neon (Ne)
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Barium (Ba)

Topic:Properties of Elements
Metallic Properties:
• Malleability (can be hammered into sheets)
• Good conductor of heat and electricity
• These are characteristic properties of metals
Analysis of Options:
Sulfur (S) → Non-metal, brittle, poor conductor
Barium (Ba) →Metal, malleable, good conductor ✓
Iodine (I) → Non-metal, brittle, poor conductor
Neon (Ne) → Noble gas, no metallic properties
Answer: Option 2 → Barium (Ba)
Chemical Reactions and Equations · Double displacement and precipitation reactions

Q23. When Barium Chloride (BaCl₂) solution is mixed with Sodium Sulfate (Na₂SO₄) solution, a white product Barium Sulfate (BaSO₄) is formed. This product is known as a ______.

  1. (a) Isotope
  2. (b) Emulsion
  3. (c) Isomer
  4. (d) Precipitate
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Precipitate

Reaction: BaCl₂ + Na₂SO₄ → BaSO₄ + 2NaCl
Precipitate:Insoluble solid formed in solution
BaSO₄ isinsoluble in waterand settles as white solid
Other options:
Isotope → Same element, different mass
Emulsion → Liquid-liquid mixture
Isomer → Same formula, different structure
Answer: Option 4 → Precipitate

Ancient History (1)

Buddhism, Jainism and Other Sects · Jain teachings, councils and sects

Q24. Which highly revered Śvetāmbara Jain text describes the lives of the 24 Tīrthaṅkaras, the lineage of pontiffs, and the monastic rules observed during the Paryuṣaṇa festival?

  1. (a) Kalpa-samant
  2. (b) Kalpa-yoga
  3. (c) Kalpa-sutradham
  4. (d) Kalpa-sutra
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Kalpa-sutra

Topic: Jain Literature - Śvetāmbara Texts
TheKalpa-sutrais one of the most important canonical texts of Śvetāmbara Jainism.
Key Features:
• Contains biographies of all 24 Tīrthaṅkaras
• Records the lineage of Jain pontiffs (Sthavirāvalī)
• Prescribes monastic rules for Paryuṣaṇa festival
• Traditionally recited during Paryuṣaṇa celebrations
Composed by Ācārya Bhadrabāhu in the 4th century BCE.
Answer: Option 4 → Kalpa-sutra

Medieval History (2)

Delhi Sultanate · Khalji dynasty

Q25. In 1309 CE, Malik Kafur invaded which of the following kingdoms in South India?

  1. (a) Yadava Kingdom
  2. (b) Kakatiya Kingdom
  3. (c) Pandya Kingdom
  4. (d) Hoysala Kingdom
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Kakatiya Kingdom

Malik Kafur's South Indian Campaigns (1308-1311 CE)
Malik Kafur was a military general of Alauddin Khilji.
Campaign Timeline:
1308 CE → InvadedYadava Kingdom(Devagiri)
1309 CE → InvadedKakatiya Kingdom(Warangal)
1310 CE → InvadedHoysala Kingdom(Dwarasamudra)
1311 CE → InvadedPandya Kingdom(Madurai)
In 1309 CE, he attacked Warangal, capital of Kakatiyas.
Ruler: Prataparudra II surrendered and paid tribute.
Answer: Option 2 → Kakatiya Kingdom
Mughal Empire · Mughal administration (mansabdari, zabt)

Q26. Consider the following statements regarding the provincial administration in the Mughal period and select the correct option. Statement I: The subedar was head of the province and responsible for the maintenance of general law and order. Statement II: The head of the revenue department in the suba was Diwan.

  1. (a) Both statements I and II are correct.
  2. (b) Statement I is correct, while statement II is incorrect.
  3. (c) Both statements I and II are incorrect.
  4. (d) Statement I is incorrect, while statement II is correct.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Both statements I and II are correct.

Mughal Provincial Administration
Statement I Analysis:
Subedar (also called Sipah Salar or Nazim) was the head of the province (suba).
Responsible for maintaining law and order, military affairs, and general administration.
Statement I iscorrect.
Statement II Analysis:
Diwan was the head of the revenue department in the suba.
Responsible for revenue collection, assessment, and financial matters.
Statement II iscorrect.
Answer: Option 1 → Both statements I and II are correct.

Polity (6)

Judiciary · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q27. Tribunals under Article 323A (Administrative tribunals) of the Constitution of India can be established by:

  1. (a) Supreme Courts only
  2. (b) Parliament only
  3. (c) High Courts only
  4. (d) State legislatures only
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Parliament only

Article 323A - Administrative Tribunals
Constitutional Provision:
Article 323A empowersParliamentto establish tribunals for adjudication of disputes related to recruitment and service conditions of public servants.
Key Points:
• Parliament can create tribunals by law for Centre and States
• Covers disputes of persons in public service
• Administrative Tribunals Act, 1985 enacted under this provision
Answer: Option 2 → Parliament only
Local Government · 73rd Amendment - Panchayati Raj

Q28. Which of the following Constitutional Amendments introduced Part IX related to Panchayats in India?

  1. (a) 44th Amendment
  2. (b) 73rd Amendment
  3. (c) 42nd Amendment
  4. (d) 86th Amendment
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 73rd Amendment

Topic: Constitutional Amendments - Panchayati Raj
73rd Amendment Act, 1992introducedPart IXto the Constitution.
Key Features:
• Added Articles 243 to 243-O
• Gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions
• Three-tier system: Village, Intermediate, District level
• Reservation for SC/ST and women (1/3rd seats)
Note:74th Amendmentadded Part IX-A for Municipalities.
Answer: Option 2 → 73rd Amendment
Special Provisions, Official Language and Miscellaneous Provisions · Official language (Part XVII) and Eighth Schedule languages

Q29. Which Constitutional Article established the office of Special Officer for Linguistic Minorities?

  1. (a) Article 348-A
  2. (b) Article 350-B
  3. (c) Article 315-B
  4. (d) Article 338-A
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 350-B

Constitutional Provision for Linguistic Minorities
Article 350-Bestablishes the office ofSpecial Officer for Linguistic Minorities.
Key Facts:
• Appointed by the President of India
• Investigates matters relating to safeguards for linguistic minorities
• Reports directly to the President
Part XVII of Constitution deals with Official Language (Articles 343-351).
Article 350-B specifically provides for this Special Officer.
Answer: Option 2 → Article 350-B
DPSP and Fundamental Duties · Socialistic principles

Q30. Which Article of the Indian Constitution places the most emphasis on reducing income and status disparities?

  1. (a) Article 38(1)
  2. (b) Article 36
  3. (c) Article 38(2)
  4. (d) Article 39
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Article 38(2)

Topic: Directive Principles of State Policy
Article 38(1):State shall strive to promote welfare of people by securing social order.
Article 38(2):State shall minimize inequalities inincome, status, facilities and opportunitiesamong individuals and groups.
Article 36:Defines 'State' for DPSP purposes.
Article 39:Directs adequate means of livelihood, equal pay, etc.
Article 38(2) specifically targetsreducing disparitiesin income and status.
Answer: Option 3 → Article 38(2)
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · National Emergency (Article 352)

Q31. Which of the following statements about the Emergency provisions is true?

  1. (a) Make India a monarchy
  2. (b) Formalise a constitutional amendment
  3. (c) Convert the federal system into a unitary one
  4. (d) Allow federalism to continue
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Convert the federal system into a unitary one

Emergency Provisions in Indian Constitution
During Emergency (Article 352, 356, 360):
• Centre gainssupreme powerover states
• Parliament can make laws onState List subjects
• President can issue directives to states
• Federal structure temporarily becomesunitary
The federal system isnot abolished, but powers shift
from states to Centre, making it function like a unitary system.
Answer: Option 3 → Convert the federal system into a unitary one
Special Provisions, Official Language and Miscellaneous Provisions · Oaths, emoluments and other provisions

Q32. What is the President's primary constitutional duty as per the oath under Article 60?

  1. (a) Manage finances for the governance of India
  2. (b) Preserve, protect and defend the Constitution
  3. (c) Formulate policies for the governance of India
  4. (d) Control Council of Ministers headed by Prime Minister
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Preserve, protect and defend the Constitution

Article 60: President's Oath of Office
The President takes oath before entering office.
Key oath phrase:'preserve, protect and defend the Constitution and the law'
This is the primary constitutional duty mentioned in the oath.
Other options are functions but not part of the oath.
Answer: Option 2 → Preserve, protect and defend the Constitution

Static GK (3)

Music and Musical Instruments · Musical instruments and exponents

Q33. Which of the following is the primary association of the Ektara, a folk musical instrument?

  1. (a) Court dances of Tamil Nadu
  2. (b) Folk and devotional string music
  3. (c) Martial arts performances in Chhau dance
  4. (d) Temple rituals in Odisha
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Folk and devotional string music

Ektara - Folk Musical Instrument
TheEktarais a one-stringed folk instrument widely used across India.
Primary Association:
• Used by wandering minstrels (Bauls of Bengal)
• Accompanies folk songs and devotional music
• Popular in Bhakti and Sufi traditions
Not associated with court dances, martial arts, or specific temple rituals.
Answer: Option 2 → Folk and devotional string music
Dances · Classical dance exponents

Q34. Which Padma Shri awardee was given the title of Nritya Samragini by Rabindranath Tagore?

  1. (a) Balasaraswati
  2. (b) Sobha Naidu
  3. (c) Kanak Rele
  4. (d) Sitara Devi
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Sitara Devi

Topic: Indian Classical Dance & Awards
Sitara Devi(1920-2014) was a legendary Kathak dancer.
She was honored withPadma Shri (1973)andPadma Bhushan (2002).
Rabindranath Tagoregave her the title'Nritya Samragini'(Empress of Dance) when she performed at a young age.
She was known as the 'Kathak Queen' of India.
Answer: Option 4 → Sitara Devi
Awards and Honours · Padma awards

Q35. Uday Shankar, the pioneer of modern dance form, was conferred with which of the following National Awards in 1971?

  1. (a) Padma Shri
  2. (b) Padma Vibhushan
  3. (c) Padma Bhushan
  4. (d) Jnanpith Award
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Padma Vibhushan

Uday Shankar - Pioneer of Modern Indian Dance
Key Facts:
• Introduced creative dance form blending Indian classical with Western techniques
• Founded Uday Shankar India Culture Centre in Almora (1938)
• ReceivedPadma Vibhushan in 1971(2nd highest civilian award)
• Also received Sangeet Natak Akademi Fellowship (1962)
Answer: Option 2 → Padma Vibhushan

Economics (4)

Agriculture and Food Security · Crop insurance and farmer schemes

Q36. In which year was the Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY) launched?

  1. (a) 2013-14
  2. (b) 2015-16
  3. (c) 2012-13
  4. (d) 2014-15
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 2015-16

Pradhan Mantri Krishi Sinchayee Yojana (PMKSY)
Launched:1st July 2015(Financial Year 2015-16)
Objective: Expand cultivated area with assured irrigation
Motto:'Har Khet Ko Pani'(Water to Every Field)
Merged schemes: AIBP, IWMP, Accelerated Irrigation Benefit Programme
Answer: Option 2 → 2015-16
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · Foreign trade policy and EXIM

Q37. India followed which strategy to reduce dependence on foreign goods after independence?

  1. (a) Free trade
  2. (b) Dollarisation
  3. (c) Import substitution
  4. (d) Export-led growth
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Import substitution

Post-Independence Economic Strategy
After 1947, India adoptedImport Substitution Industrialization (ISI)
Key Features:
• Domestic production of goods previously imported
• High tariffs and import restrictions to protect local industries
• Focus on self-reliance (Swadeshi approach)
• Development of heavy industries and public sector
This reduced dependence on foreign goods and promoted indigenous manufacturing.
Answer: Option 3 → Import substitution
Industry and Infrastructure · Infrastructure sectors

Q38. In which year was the PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan (NMP) launched in India to ensure integrated planning and coordinated execution of infrastructure projects?

  1. (a) 2023
  2. (b) 2021
  3. (c) 2024
  4. (d) 2022
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 2021

PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan (NMP)
Launched by: Prime Minister Narendra Modi
Launch Date:October 13, 2021
Purpose: Integrated planning and coordinated execution of infrastructure projects across India
Key Feature: Multi-modal connectivity through 6 pillars - Roads, Railways, Airports, Ports, Mass Transport, Waterways
Answer: Option 2 → 2021
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Union Budget - latest highlights

Q39. According to the Union Budget 2025-26, what is the total estimated expenditure for the year?

  1. (a) ₹40 lakh crore
  2. (b) ₹45 lakh crore
  3. (c) ₹50.65 lakh crore
  4. (d) ₹55 lakh crore
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) ₹50.65 lakh crore

Topic: Union Budget 2025-26
The Finance Minister presented the Union Budget 2025-26 in Parliament.
Total estimated expenditure announced:₹50.65 lakh crore
This represents the government's total spending plan for FY 2025-26.
Answer: Option 3 → ₹50.65 lakh crore

Physics (1)

Gravitation · Free fall

Q40. If a ball is thrown vertically upward, which of the following describes its velocity at the highest point?

  1. (a) Positive
  2. (b) Negative
  3. (c) Zero
  4. (d) Equal to acceleration due to gravity
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Zero

Vertical Motion of Ball
When ball is thrown upward:
• Velocity decreases continuously due to gravity
• At highest point, ball momentarily stops
• Then starts falling downward
At Highest Point:
Velocity = 0 m/s (instantaneous rest)
Acceleration = -g (downward, constant throughout)
Note: Velocity is zero, but acceleration is NOT zero
Answer: Option 3 → Zero
← 19 June 2026 Shift 1All shifts19 June 2026 Shift 3 →
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