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RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 7 May 2026 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 40 GK / GS questions asked in RRB NTPC UG CBT-1 2025-26 on 7 May 2026 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Economics, Polity, Geography, Ancient History, Biology, Chemistry.

📚 40 questions🗓️ 7 May 2026⏰ Shift 3
हिंदी में पढ़ें📥 Full paper PDF
Subjects: Economics (3) · Polity (6) · Geography (6) · Ancient History (3) · Biology (2) · Chemistry (2) · Static GK (3) · Current Affairs (7) · Computer (4) · Modern History (3) · Medieval History (1)

Economics (3)

Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Sectors of the economy (primary, secondary, tertiary)

Q1. Which of the following is a tertiary sector activity?

  1. (a) Farming
  2. (b) Mining
  3. (c) Teaching
  4. (d) Manufacturing
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Teaching

Economic sectors are classified into three categories:
Primary Sector:Extraction of natural resources (Farming, Mining, Fishing)
Secondary Sector:Manufacturing and processing (Manufacturing, Construction)
Tertiary Sector:Services (Teaching, Banking, Transport, Healthcare)
Teaching is a service activity, not production or extraction.
Answer: Option 3 → Teaching
Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Human Development Index and UNDP

Q2. How can developing countries like India reduce inter-regional disparities in human development within the education and healthcare sectors in the 21ˢᵗ century?

  1. (a) By centralising economic activities in urban areas
  2. (b) By focusing all development efforts on capital cities
  3. (c) By reducing investments in rural education and health
  4. (d) By implementing region-specific policies and resource allocation
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) By implementing region-specific policies and resource allocation

Topic: Regional Disparities in Human Development
Inter-regional disparitiesrefer to unequal development across different regions within a country.
Key Strategy for Reduction:
Region-specific policies address unique local needs in education and healthcare.
Targeted resource allocation ensures equitable distribution to backward regions.
Why other options fail:
Options 1-3 would increase disparities by neglecting rural and backward areas.
Answer: Option 4 → By implementing region-specific policies and resource allocation
Industry and Infrastructure · Industrial Policy Resolutions (1948, 1956, 1991)

Q3. The Industrial Policy of 1991 led to:

  1. (a) Decrease in private sector participation
  2. (b) Abolishing industrial licensing for most industries
  3. (c) Nationalization of key industries
  4. (d) Establishment of public sector monopolies
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Abolishing industrial licensing for most industries

Industrial Policy 1991 - Liberalization Era
Key Reform:Delicensing of Industries
Industrial licensing abolished for all industries except:
• Alcohol, Cigarettes, Hazardous chemicals
• Industrial explosives, Electronics, Aerospace, Drugs
Other Major Changes:
• Private sector allowed in most areas
• Public sector reserved areas reduced from 17 to 8
• Foreign investment liberalized
This marked shift fromLicense Raj to Economic Liberalization
Answer: Option 2 → Abolishing industrial licensing for most industries

Polity (6)

Elections, Parties and Representation · Delimitation and reservation of seats

Q4. The 106ᵗʰ Constitutional Amendment inserted which of the following new Articles in the Constitution?

  1. (a) 325A, 327A
  2. (b) 371A, 371B
  3. (c) 339A, 341B
  4. (d) 330A, 332A
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 330A, 332A

106th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2023
Topic: Reservation for Women in Legislatures
Key Facts:
• InsertedArticle 330A- Reservation of seats for women in Lok Sabha
• InsertedArticle 332A- Reservation of seats for women in State Legislative Assemblies
• Provides 33% reservation for women in Parliament and State Assemblies
• Also known as Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam
Answer: Option 4 → 330A, 332A
Judiciary · Subordinate courts

Q5. Provisions for the 'Control over subordinate courts' are provided in which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India?

  1. (a) Article 245
  2. (b) Article 235
  3. (c) Article 255
  4. (d) Article 225
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 235

Topic: Constitutional Provisions - Judiciary
Article 235deals with control of High Courts over subordinate courts.
It states that the control over district courts and courts subordinate
thereto including posting and promotion of judicial officers shall vest
in the High Court.
Other Articles:
Article 245 → Legislative powers of Parliament and State Legislatures
Article 225 → Jurisdiction of existing High Courts
Article 255 → Requirements as to recommendations and previous sanctions
Answer: Option 2 → Article 235
State Government · State Legislature - Legislative Assembly

Q6. Which type(s) of Legislatures can a state have under the Indian Constitution?

  1. (a) Either a single-house or two-house systems
  2. (b) Only two-house systems
  3. (c) Only the Parliament can decide
  4. (d) Only single-house systems
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Either a single-house or two-house systems

Topic: State Legislature under Indian Constitution
Article 168provides for the constitution of state legislatures.
Two types allowed:
1.Unicameral(Single House) - Legislative Assembly only
2.Bicameral(Two Houses) - Legislative Assembly + Legislative Council
State can choose either system. Parliament can create/abolish Legislative Council underArticle 169on state's request.
Currently, 6 states have bicameral legislatures (UP, Bihar, Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana, AP).
Answer: Option 1 → Either a single-house or two-house systems
Judiciary · Subordinate courts

Q7. Control over district and subordinate courts’ posting, promotion and leaves of judges vests primarily in which authority?

  1. (a) Parliament
  2. (b) President of India
  3. (c) High Court
  4. (d) Law Ministry of India
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) High Court

Topic: Judicial Administration - Article 235
Constitutional Provision:
Article 235 of the Indian Constitution vests control over district courts and subordinate courts in theHigh Court.
Powers of High Court include:
• Posting and promotion of district judges
• Grant of leave to judges
• Disciplinary control over subordinate judiciary
Note:Appointment is done by Governor in consultation with High Court, but administrative control rests with High Court.
Answer: Option 3 → High Court
Amendments and Important Articles · Amendment procedure (Article 368)

Q8. Which Article of the Indian Constitution mentions the Power of Parliament to amend the Constitution?

  1. (a) Article 361
  2. (b) Article 368
  3. (c) Article 359
  4. (d) Article 360
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 368

Topic: Constitutional Amendment Power
Article 368of the Indian Constitution deals with the power of Parliament to amend the Constitution and the procedure for such amendments.
Other Articles mentioned:
Article 359 → Suspension of Fundamental Rights during Emergency
Article 360 → Financial Emergency provisions
Article 361 → Protection of President and Governors from court proceedings
Answer: Option 2 → Article 368

Q9. According to the Constitution of India, which constitutional body advises the President on the principles governing grants-in-aid to States from the Consolidated Fund of India?

  1. (a) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
  2. (b) Planning Commission
  3. (c) Finance Commission
  4. (d) NITI Aayog
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Finance Commission

Constitutional Body for Grants-in-Aid
Article 280:Finance Commission is constituted every 5 years.
Key Functions of Finance Commission:
1. Distribution of tax revenues between Centre and States
2.Principles for grants-in-aid to States from Consolidated Fund
3. Measures to augment State Consolidated Funds
CAG audits accounts, Planning Commission (now NITI Aayog) is policy body.
Answer: Option 3 → Finance Commission

Geography (6)

India - Population and Census · Population density

Q10. Which one of the following economic factors attracts population to an area?

  1. (a) Industrial development
  2. (b) High cost of living
  3. (c) Lack of job opportunities
  4. (d) Limited transportation facilities
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Industrial development

Topic: Population Migration - Economic Factors
Pull Factors(attract population):
• Industrial development creates employment
• Better wages and income opportunities
• Improved standard of living
Push Factors(repel population):
• High cost of living (Option 2)
• Lack of job opportunities (Option 3)
• Limited transportation (Option 4)
Industrial development is the primary economic pull factor.
Answer: Option 1 → Industrial development
India - Minerals, Energy and Industries · Coal, petroleum and natural gas fields

Q11. What was the all-India coal production in the year 2023-24?

  1. (a) 1435.32 Million Tonne (MT)
  2. (b) 697.82 Million Tonne (MT)
  3. (c) 997.826 Million Tonne (MT)
  4. (d) 1200.17 Million Tonne (MT)
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 997.826 Million Tonne (MT)

Topic:Coal Production in India (2023-24)
India's coal production has been steadily increasing.
All-India coal production in 2023-24:997.826 MT
This includes production from Coal India Limited (CIL),
Singareni Collieries, and captive/private mines.
Answer: Option 3 → 997.826 Million Tonne (MT)
World Geography · Grasslands and natural regions

Q12. The Tibetan Plateau, often referred to as the Roof of the World, represents which type of natural vegetation region?

  1. (a) Polar Desert
  2. (b) Temperate Grassland
  3. (c) Alpine Tundra
  4. (d) Arctic Tundra
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Alpine Tundra

Tibetan Plateau - Natural Vegetation
Location: High-altitude plateau in Central Asia
Average elevation: Over 4,500 meters above sea level
Alpine Tundra characteristics:
Found at high altitudes above tree line
Low-growing vegetation, mosses, lichens, grasses
Extreme cold, low oxygen, strong winds
Tibetan Plateau exhibits typical alpine tundra vegetation
due to its extreme elevation and harsh climate
Answer: Option 3 → Alpine Tundra

Q13. Which of the following wind systems is primarily responsible for the rainfall over the Coromandel coast during the winter season?

  1. (a) Southwest monsoon winds
  2. (b) Westerlies
  3. (c) Western disturbances
  4. (d) Northeast monsoon winds
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Northeast monsoon winds

Topic: Indian Monsoon System
Coromandel Coast:Eastern coastal region of Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh.
Winter Rainfall (Oct-Dec):Northeast monsoon winds blow from land to sea over most of India, but pick up moisture from Bay of Bengal.
Key Facts:
• Southwest monsoon (Jun-Sep) gives rain to western coast, not Coromandel.
• Northeast monsoon brings winter rainfall to Tamil Nadu and Andhra Pradesh coast.
• These winds cross Bay of Bengal and bring moisture to eastern coast.
Answer: Option 4 → Northeast monsoon winds
India - Population and Census · Demographic concepts and transition

Q14. Which of the following features characterises Stage III of demographic transition?

  1. (a) Low fertility and low mortality
  2. (b) High mortality and high fertility
  3. (c) High migration and low death rate
  4. (d) Rapid death rate increase
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Low fertility and low mortality

Demographic Transition Model - Stage III
Stage I: High birth rate, high death rate (pre-industrial)
Stage II: High birth rate, declining death rate (developing)
Stage III: Declining birth rate, low death rate (industrial)
Stage IV: Low birth rate, low death rate (post-industrial)
Stage III characteristics:
• Birth rate falls due to urbanization, education, family planning
• Death rate remains low due to better healthcare
• Population growth slows down
Answer: Option 1 → Low fertility and low mortality

Q15. Which type of climate characterises the Great Indian Desert?

  1. (a) Humid subtropical climate
  2. (b) Arid and semi arid climate
  3. (c) Equatorial climate
  4. (d) Tropical monsoon climate
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Arid and semi arid climate

Great Indian Desert (Thar Desert)
Location: Northwestern India (Rajasthan)
Climate Characteristics:
• Very low rainfall (<250 mm annually)
• High temperature variations
• Sparse vegetation
Classification:Arid and semi-arid climate
Answer: Option 2 → Arid and semi arid climate

Ancient History (3)

Indus Valley Civilisation · Town planning and structures

Q16. Which of the following is NOT a true element of Harappan architecture?

  1. (a) Buildings in Harappan cities were made of standardized baked bricks
  2. (b) Cities included public buildings and well-planned houses
  3. (c) Cities had magnificent palaces, monuments and royal tombs
  4. (d) Architecture focused on functional design rather than decoration
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Cities had magnificent palaces, monuments and royal tombs

Harappan Architecture Features:
True Elements:
• Standardized baked bricks (ratio 4:2:1)
• Well-planned grid layout with public buildings
• Great Bath, granaries, drainage systems
• Functional design, minimal decoration
NOT Found:
• No grand palaces or royal tombs discovered
• No temples or monumental structures
• Unlike Egyptian/Mesopotamian civilizations
Answer: Option 3 → Cities had magnificent palaces, monuments and royal tombs
Indus Valley Civilisation · Artefacts and findings

Q17. Which of the following Harappan sites yielded excellent examples of metal-cast sculptures?

  1. (a) Nageshwar
  2. (b) Daimabad
  3. (c) Kalibangan
  4. (d) Rangpur
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Daimabad

Harappan Metal-Cast Sculptures
Daimabad (Maharashtra)is famous for bronze sculptures.
Key findings: Bronze chariot, elephant, rhinoceros, and buffalo.
These are excellent examples oflost-wax casting technique.
Other sites: Nageshwar (beads), Kalibangan (fire altars), Rangpur (rice husk).
Answer: Option 2 → Daimabad
Mauryan Empire · Mauryan administration and economy

Q18. Which of the following statements most accurately describes the social structure of Mauryan society in ancient India?

  1. (a) An organised society with distinct social classes and a wide range of occupational groups
  2. (b) Society controlled only by mercantile guilds with no other social groups
  3. (c) Exclusively tribal society with absence of settled agriculture
  4. (d) A completely egalitarian society without any form of social or occupational differentiation
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) An organised society with distinct social classes and a wide range of occupational groups

Mauryan Society (322-185 BCE)
Social Structure:
Well-organized hierarchical society with varna system (Brahmins, Kshatriyas, Vaishyas, Shudras).
Occupational Diversity:
Arthashastra mentions numerous occupations - farmers, artisans, traders, soldiers, administrators, craftsmen.
Guilds (shrenis) regulated trade and crafts.
Economic Base:
Advanced agriculture with settled communities, not tribal.
Urban centers like Pataliputra showed complex social organization.
Society was NOT egalitarian - clear class distinctions existed.
Answer: Option 1 → An organised society with distinct social classes and a wide range of occupational groups

Biology (2)

Control and Coordination · Brain - parts and functions

Q19. Which part of the musculoskeletal system is primarily responsible for protecting the brain?

  1. (a) Spine
  2. (b) Pelvic girdle
  3. (c) Rib cage
  4. (d) Skull
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Skull

Topic:Musculoskeletal System - Protective Functions
Skull (Cranium)- Bony structure encasing the brain.
Protects brain from external injuries and impacts.
Other protective bones:
Spine - protects spinal cord
Rib cage - protects heart and lungs
Pelvic girdle - protects reproductive organs
Answer: Option 4 → Skull
Heredity and Evolution · Chromosomes, genes and DNA

Q20. In genetics, a gene refers to which of the following?

  1. (a) A unit of blood group
  2. (b) A sex chromosome
  3. (c) A type of chromosome
  4. (d) A section of DNA that codes for a protein
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) A section of DNA that codes for a protein

Topic: Genetics - Gene Definition
Gene:A specific segment of DNA that contains instructions for making proteins.
Key Facts:
• Genes are functional units of heredity located on chromosomes
• Each gene codes for a specific protein or functional RNA
• DNA → Gene → Protein (Central Dogma)
Other options incorrect:
• Blood group is determined by genes, not a gene itself
• Sex chromosomes (X, Y) contain many genes
• Chromosome is made up of many genes
Answer: Option 4 → A section of DNA that codes for a protein

Chemistry (2)

Metals and Non-metals · Chemical properties of metals

Q21. Which metal reacts violently with cold water, producing a metal hydroxide, hydrogen gas, and enough heat for the hydrogen to catch fire?

  1. (a) Potassium
  2. (b) Aluminium
  3. (c) Calcium
  4. (d) Magnesium
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Potassium

Reactivity of Metals with Water
Potassium (K) is highly reactive alkali metal.
Reaction: 2K + 2H₂O → 2KOH + H₂ + Heat
Reactsviolentlywith cold water, releases enough heat to ignite H₂ gas.
Aluminium: Reacts with steam only.
Calcium: Reacts with cold water but less violently.
Magnesium: Reacts with hot water/steam.
Answer: Option 1 → Potassium
Acids, Bases and Salts · Properties of acids

Q22. When dilute Hydrochloric acid (HCl) reacts with Sodium Hydrogen Carbonte (NaHCO₃), which is the product formed along with Sodium chloride(NaCl) and Water(H₂O)?

  1. (a) Chloroform (CHCl3)
  2. (b) Carbon Dioxide(CO₂)
  3. (c) Ammonium Chloride (NH4Cl)
  4. (d) Hydrogen gas(H₂)
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Carbon Dioxide(CO₂)

Topic:Acid-Base Reaction
Reaction: HCl + NaHCO₃ → NaCl + H₂O + ?
NaHCO₃ (sodium bicarbonate) is a weak base.
When acid reacts with carbonate/bicarbonate, CO₂ gas is released.
Complete equation:
HCl + NaHCO₃ → NaCl + H₂O + CO₂↑
Observation: Effervescence (bubbles) due to CO₂ gas.
Answer: Option 2 → Carbon Dioxide(CO₂)

Static GK (3)

Tribes, Languages and Religions · Classical and scheduled languages

Q23. How many Indian languages hold Classical Language status as of October 2025?

  1. (a) 6
  2. (b) 8
  3. (c) 11
  4. (d) 10
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 11

Classical Languages of India (as of October 2025)
Total:11 languageshave been granted Classical Language status
First 6 (before 2024): Tamil (2004), Sanskrit (2005), Kannada (2008), Telugu (2008), Malayalam (2013), Odia (2014)
Recently added 5 (October 2024): Marathi, Pali, Prakrit, Assamese, Bengali
These 5 languages were declared Classical in October 2024 by the Union Cabinet
Answer: Option 3 → 11
Organisations and Headquarters · Indian organisations and headquarters

Q24. Which institution handles the promotion of Classical Languages under the Ministry of Education?

  1. (a) Archaeological Survey of India
  2. (b) Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts
  3. (c) Sahitya Akademi of India
  4. (d) Central Institute of Indian Languages
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Central Institute of Indian Languages

Classical Languages Promotion
Under Ministry of Education,Central Institute of Indian Languages (CIIL)handles promotion of Classical Languages.
CIIL is located in Mysore, Karnataka.
Classical Languages in India:Tamil, Sanskrit, Telugu, Kannada, Malayalam, Odia.
CIIL conducts research, training, and development programs for these languages.
Answer: Option 4 → Central Institute of Indian Languages
Indian Railways · Railway organisations and PSUs (IRCTC, RVNL, RailTel, CRIS, RDSO)

Q25. Which central initiative by Indian Railways has rescued over 260 missing or trafficked children between January 2024 and April 2025?

  1. (a) Mission Vatsalya Rail Drive
  2. (b) Operation Nanhe Farishte
  3. (c) Childline Express
  4. (d) Operation Shakti
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Operation Nanhe Farishte

Topic: Indian Railways Child Rescue Initiative
Operation Nanhe Farishteis a central initiative by Indian Railways
specifically designed to rescue missing and trafficked children.
Key Facts:
• Launched to protect vulnerable children at railway stations
• Successfully rescued over 260 children (Jan 2024 - Apr 2025)
• Focuses on identifying and rescuing trafficked/missing children
Answer: Option 2 → Operation Nanhe Farishte

Current Affairs (7)

International Affairs and Summits · Bilateral agreements and visits

Q26. India signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) on 25 February 2026 to strengthen cooperation in forests, wildlife, environment, biodiversity conservation, and climate change with which country?

  1. (a) Bangladesh
  2. (b) Sri Lanka
  3. (c) Nepal
  4. (d) Bhutan
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Nepal

India-Nepal Environmental Cooperation MoU
Date:25 February 2026
Key Areas of Cooperation:
• Forests and Wildlife Conservation
• Environment and Biodiversity
• Climate Change Mitigation
India and Nepal share strong bilateral ties with focus on environmental protection and sustainable development in the Himalayan region.
Answer: Option 3 → Nepal
International Affairs and Summits · Summits and conferences

Q27. What was the venue of the first BIMSTEC Youth Summit held in February 2025?

  1. (a) Bhopal, Madhya Pradesh
  2. (b) Gandhinagar, Gujarat
  3. (c) New Delhi
  4. (d) Hyderabad, Telangana
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Gandhinagar, Gujarat

BIMSTEC Youth Summit 2025
The first BIMSTEC Youth Summit was held inGandhinagar, Gujaratin February 2025.
BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation) includes 7 member countries.
The summit focused on youth engagement and cooperation among member nations.
Answer: Option 2 → Gandhinagar, Gujarat
International Affairs and Summits · Summits and conferences

Q28. In early July 2025, the 17th BRICS Leaders’ Summit convened in which city?

  1. (a) Rio de Janeiro
  2. (b) Shanghai
  3. (c) Johannesburg
  4. (d) New Delhi
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Rio de Janeiro

BRICS Summit 2025
The 17th BRICS Leaders' Summit was held inRio de Janeiro, Brazilin early July 2025.
Brazil held the BRICS Presidency in 2025.
BRICS members: Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa (+ new members from 2024).
Answer: Option 1 → Rio de Janeiro
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Health and medical research

Q29. In April 2025, BRIC-InStem in Bengaluru collaborated with which medical institution to successfully conduct India’s first gene therapy trial for Haemophilia?

  1. (a) Christian Medical College, Vellore
  2. (b) Gandhi Medical College, Hyderabad
  3. (c) All India Institute of Medical Sciences, New Delhi
  4. (d) Indian Council of Medical Research
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Christian Medical College, Vellore

Topic: Current Affairs - Medical Breakthrough 2025
BRIC-InStem Bengaluru- Institute for Stem Cell Science and Regenerative Medicine.
InApril 2025, collaborated withChristian Medical College (CMC), Vellore.
ConductedIndia's first gene therapy trial for Haemophilia.
This marks a significant milestone in genetic medicine in India.
Answer: Option 1 → Christian Medical College, Vellore
International Affairs and Summits · Global events and elections

Q30. Who among the following has been sworn in as the President of Uruguay on 1 March 2025?

  1. (a) Masoud Pezeshkian
  2. (b) Jair Bolsonaro
  3. (c) Claudia Sheinbaum
  4. (d) Yamandu Orsi
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Yamandu Orsi

Topic: Current Affairs - International
Yamandu Orsiwas sworn in as the President of Uruguay on 1 March 2025.
He is a former history teacher and mayor who won the presidential election in November 2024.
He represents the left-wing Broad Front coalition.
Other options: Masoud Pezeshkian (Iran President), Jair Bolsonaro (former Brazil President), Claudia Sheinbaum (Mexico President).
Answer: Option 4 → Yamandu Orsi
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q31. Who topped the 2025 Times Higher Education Asia University Rankings?

  1. (a) Tsinghua University
  2. (b) Seoul National University
  3. (c) Kyoto University
  4. (d) University of Hong Kong
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Tsinghua University

2025 Times Higher Education Asia University Rankings
Top Position:Tsinghua University(China)
Tsinghua University secured the first rank in the 2025 THE Asia University Rankings.
This prestigious ranking evaluates universities across Asia based on teaching, research, citations, international outlook, and industry income.
Answer: Option 1 → Tsinghua University
Environment and Climate - Current · Species discoveries and conservation news

Q32. In August 2025, India’s first-ever grassland bird census using passive acoustic monitoring and AI tools was highlighted by the Prime Minister in his Mann ki Baat address. In which national park was this census conducted?

  1. (a) Kaziranga National Park, Assam
  2. (b) Sultanpur National Park, Haryana
  3. (c) Keoladeo National Park, Rajasthan
  4. (d) Jim Corbett National Park, Uttarakhand
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Kaziranga National Park, Assam

Topic: India's First Grassland Bird Census (August 2025)
Key Facts:
1. First-ever grassland bird census usingpassive acoustic monitoring and AI tools
2. Conducted atKaziranga National Park, Assam
3. Highlighted by PM Modi inMann ki Baat address
4. Kaziranga is a UNESCO World Heritage Site known for one-horned rhinoceros and diverse bird species
Answer: Option 1 → Kaziranga National Park, Assam

Computer (4)

Computer Memory · Primary memory (RAM, ROM and their types)

Q33. Which of the following memory types is non-volatile?

  1. (a) PCB
  2. (b) RAM
  3. (c) CPU
  4. (d) ROM
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) ROM

Topic: Computer Memory Types
Volatile Memory:Loses data when power is off (RAM)
Non-Volatile Memory:Retains data without power (ROM)
ROM (Read-Only Memory) stores permanent data like BIOS
RAM loses all data when system shuts down
PCB is circuit board, CPU is processor - not memory types
Answer: Option 4 → ROM
Software, Operating Systems and Programming · File extensions and formats

Q34. Which digital file format is widely used to save three-dimensional models for 3D printing? It is the standard format supported by most 3D printers.

  1. (a) PDF
  2. (b) STL
  3. (c) XLSX
  4. (d) DOCX
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) STL

Topic: 3D Printing File Formats
STL (Stereolithography)is the standard file format for 3D printing.
It represents 3D surface geometry as triangular mesh.
Supported by virtually all 3D printers and CAD software.
Other options: PDF (documents), XLSX (spreadsheets), DOCX (word files).
Answer: Option 2 → STL
Software, Operating Systems and Programming · Types of software (system, application, utility)

Q35. A computer cannot open a printer without a driver. This driver is an example of a/an:

  1. (a) Game
  2. (b) Document file
  3. (c) System software
  4. (d) Input device
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) System software

Topic: Computer Software - Device Drivers
Adriveris a program that allows the operating system to communicate with hardware devices like printers, scanners, etc.
Drivers are classified assystem softwarebecause they manage and control hardware components.
They act as translators between the OS and hardware, enabling proper device functionality.
Answer: Option 3 → System software
Computer Memory · Primary memory (RAM, ROM and their types)

Q36. Which feature distinguishes ROM from RAM?

  1. (a) ROM is used for storage; RAM is used for graphics.
  2. (b) ROM is faster than RAM.
  3. (c) ROM is volatile; RAM is non-volatile.
  4. (d) ROM stores permanent instructions; RAM stores temporary data.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) ROM stores permanent instructions; RAM stores temporary data.

ROM vs RAM - Key Distinction
ROM (Read-Only Memory):
• Non-volatile memory
• Stores permanent instructions (BIOS, firmware)
• Data retained even after power off
RAM (Random Access Memory):
• Volatile memory
• Stores temporary data during processing
• Data lost when power is turned off
Answer: Option 4 → ROM stores permanent instructions; RAM stores temporary data.

Modern History (3)

Rise of Nationalism and Indian National Congress · Pre-Congress political associations

Q37. Which prominent Indian reformer founded the Poona Sarvajanik Sabha during the Indian National movement?

  1. (a) Gopal Hari Deshmukh (Lokhitwadi)
  2. (b) Mahadev Govind Ranade
  3. (c) Dadabhai Naoroji
  4. (d) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Mahadev Govind Ranade

Topic: Indian National Movement - Social Reform Organizations
Poona Sarvajanik Sabha (1870)
Founded byMahadev Govind Ranadein Pune, Maharashtra.
Key Facts:
• One of the earliest political organizations in India
• Focused on social reforms and political representation
• Ranade was a prominent judge, scholar, and social reformer
Answer: Option 2 → Mahadev Govind Ranade

Q38. Where was the capital of the Estado da India located?

  1. (a) Cochin
  2. (b) Goa
  3. (c) Lisbon
  4. (d) Malacca
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Goa

Estado da India(State of India)
Portuguese colonial administration in Asia (1505-1961).
Capital:Goa(Old Goa/Velha Goa).
Established as capital in 1530 by Nuno da Cunha.
Served as headquarters for Portuguese territories in Asia.
Answer: Option 2 → Goa
Gandhian Era · Rowlatt Act and Jallianwala Bagh

Q39. Which circumstance directly triggered Gandhi’s decision to launch the Rowlatt Satyagraha in 1919?

  1. (a) The rejection of Indian demands for complete dominion status by Britain.
  2. (b) The enactment of laws enabling detention without trial despite resistance.
  3. (c) The cancellation of wartime recruitment policies in northern India.
  4. (d) The British announcement of new taxation on agricultural harvests.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The enactment of laws enabling detention without trial despite resistance.

Rowlatt Satyagraha (1919)
Context:Post-WWI, British passed Rowlatt Act (March 1919)
Key Provisions:
• Detention without trial
• Arrest without warrant
• Trials without jury
• Suppression of civil liberties
Gandhi's Response:Launched nationwide Satyagraha on April 6, 1919
Despite Indian opposition, British enacted these repressive laws
Answer: Option 2 → The enactment of laws enabling detention without trial despite resistance.

Medieval History (1)

Delhi Sultanate · Tughlaq dynasty

Q40. A Sultan of Delhi attempted to strengthen control over the Deccan by shifting his capital from Delhi to Deogir (Daulatabad), a decision that later proved controversial due to administrative difficulties. Who took this measure?

  1. (a) Muhammad bin Tughlaq
  2. (b) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
  3. (c) Alauddin Khalji
  4. (d) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Muhammad bin Tughlaq

Topic: Delhi Sultanate - Muhammad bin Tughlaq's Policies
Capital Transfer (1327 CE):
Muhammad bin Tughlaq shifted capital from Delhi to Daulatabad (Deogir) in Deccan.
Reason:
To control Deccan region and make it central location for administration.
Outcome:
Failed due to long distance, administrative chaos, and public hardship.
Forced entire Delhi population to migrate, causing severe difficulties.
Later abandoned and capital returned to Delhi.
Answer: Option 1 → Muhammad bin Tughlaq
← 7 May 2026 Shift 2All shifts8 May 2026 Shift 1 →
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