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SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 19 September 2025 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 24 GK / GS questions asked in SSC CGL Tier-1 2025 on 19 September 2025 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Static GK, Medieval History, Ancient History, Modern History, Current Affairs, Polity.

📚 24 questions🗓️ 19 September 2025⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Static GK (7) · Medieval History (2) · Ancient History (1) · Modern History (1) · Current Affairs (4) · Polity (3) · Biology (1) · Economics (3) · Geography (2)

Static GK (7)

Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q1. The Kambala Festival of coastal Karnataka is primarily associated with which of the following traditions?

  1. (a) Temple fairs
  2. (b) Classical music
  3. (c) Buffalo racing
  4. (d) Tribal rituals
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Buffalo racing

Kambala is the traditional buffalo race held in the slushy paddy fields of coastal Karnataka.
It is part of the agrarian Tulu Nadu culture, not a temple fair or classical music event.
Hence the answer isBuffalo racing.
Music and Musical Instruments · Hindustani music (ragas, gharanas)

Q2. Fill in the blanks:
The composition "Guru Bin Kaise Gun Gaaye" is set to the rhythmic cycle known as _____.

  1. (a) Jhaptaal
  2. (b) Keharwa
  3. (c) Teentaal
  4. (d) Roopak
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Teentaal

"Guru Bin Kaise Gun Gaaye" is a well-known bandish set in 16-beat Teentaal.
Jhaptaal is of 10 beats, Keharwa of 8 beats, and Roopak of 7 beats.
Hence the answer is Teentaal.
Sports · Number of players and field dimensions

Q3. Fill in the blanks:
According to official rules, a standard table tennis ball has a diameter of:

  1. (a) 38 millimeters
  2. (b) 40 millimeters
  3. (c) 42 millimeters
  4. (d) 44 millimeters
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 40 millimeters

ITTF regulations specify a standard table tennis ball diameter of 40 mm.
Older 38 mm balls were replaced by 40 mm balls in 2000.
Hence the answer is 40 millimeters.
Sports · Athletics - events, rules and specifications

Q4. How is the lane width for athletes in races up to 400 meters determined on a synthetic track?

  1. (a) Each lane is 2 meters wide, marked by 10 cm lines.
  2. (b) Each lane is 1.22 to 1.25 meters wide, marked by 5 cm lines.
  3. (c) Lanes vary in width depending on the number of athletes.
  4. (d) There are no separate lanes for races up to 400 meters.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Each lane is 1.22 to 1.25 meters wide, marked by 5 cm lines.

As per World Athletics rules, lanes on a synthetic track are 1.22 m wide (with a permissible range of 1.22–1.25 m).
Lanes are separated by white 5 cm lines.
Henceoption 2is correct.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q5. 'Half the Night is Gone' is written by which Sahitya Akademi winner?

  1. (a) Amitav Ghosh
  2. (b) Amit Chaudhuri
  3. (c) Anuradha Roy
  4. (d) Amitabha Bagchi
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Amitabha Bagchi

"Half the Night is Gone" (2018) is written by Amitabha Bagchi.
It won the Sahitya Akademi Award for English in 2019.
Hence the answer is Amitabha Bagchi.
Dances · Tribal dances

Q6. Hojagiri dance, performed by women balancing bottles and lamps, is associated with which tribe and state?

  1. (a) Bodo – Assam
  2. (b) Reang – Tripura
  3. (c) Angami – Nagaland
  4. (d) Mishing – Arunachal Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Reang – Tripura

Hojagiri is a traditional folk dance of the Reang (Bru) tribe of Tripura.
Women dancers balance pitchers, bottles and lamps on their heads while moving the lower body rhythmically.
Hence the correct match isReang – Tripura.
Dances · Folk dances by state

Q7. What is the most notable feature of the Rouf dance of Kashmir?

  1. (a) Colorful costumes
  2. (b) Hand gestures
  3. (c) Footwork of dancers
  4. (d) Musical instruments
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Footwork of dancers

Rouf is performed by Kashmiri women in two facing rows.
Its most distinctive feature is the intricate footwork (chakkar) performed in rhythmic synchronisation.
Hence the answer isFootwork of dancers.

Medieval History (2)

Mughal Empire · Mughal architecture

Q8. Arrange the following historical structures in chronological order of their completion (earliest to latest):
(a) Red Fort, Delhi
(b) Jahangir Mahal, Orchha
(c) Agra Fort (Akbar)

  1. (a) (a) → (b) → (c)
  2. (b) (c) → (b) → (a)
  3. (c) (b) → (c) → (a)
  4. (d) (c) → (a) → (b)
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) (c) → (b) → (a)

Agra Fort (Akbar) — completed around 1573.
Jahangir Mahal, Orchha — built early in Jahangir's reign (circa 1605).
Red Fort, Delhi — completed in 1648 under Shah Jahan.
Hence the order is (c) → (b) → (a).
South Indian Kingdoms · Rashtrakutas (Deccan)

Q9. Which Rashtrakuta king defeated Parantaka I of the Chola dynasty?

  1. (a) Krishna I
  2. (b) Dantidurga
  3. (c) Krishna III
  4. (d) Govinda III
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Krishna III

Krishna III of the Rashtrakuta dynasty defeated Parantaka I in the Battle of Takkolam (949 CE).
Dantidurga founded the dynasty; Krishna I and Govinda III ruled earlier.
Hence the answer is Krishna III.

Ancient History (1)

Gupta Empire · Gupta administration and economy

Q10. Determine the correctly matched pair forGupta-era obligations.

  1. (a) Dasaparadha – fines from ten offences
  2. (b) Bhoga – free-labour levy
  3. (c) Adeya – registry-keeping duty
  4. (d) Dhanya – forced labour
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Dasaparadha – fines from ten offences

Dasaparadha referred to fines imposed for ten offences — correct.
Bhoga was the king's share of agricultural produce, not a free-labour levy.
Adeya was a payment made to the king, not a registry-keeping duty.
Dhanya was a grain levy, not forced labour (Vishti is forced labour).
Hence option 1 is correctly matched.

Modern History (1)

British Administration and Policies · Governors-General and Viceroys - events

Q11. Which of the following pairs (Governor-General – Policy followed) is correctly matched?

  1. (a) Lord Hastings – Anti-expansionist policy
  2. (b) Marquis of Hastings – Followed fiscal conservatism
  3. (c) Lord Wellesley – Pursued imperialist conquests
  4. (d) Henry Dundas – Opposed Charter renewal
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Lord Wellesley – Pursued imperialist conquests

Lord Wellesley introduced the Subsidiary Alliance system and aggressively expanded British territories in India.
Lord Hastings followed an expansionist (not anti-expansionist) policy.
Marquis of Hastings is not specially associated with fiscal conservatism.
Hence the correctly matched pair is Lord Wellesley – Pursued imperialist conquests.

Current Affairs (4)

International Affairs and Summits · Bilateral agreements and visits

Q12. Examine the statements below and select the most appropriate option.
Assertion(A): India's Dornier aircraft aid and OCC role show a shift in its development partnership with Sri Lanka towards defence focus.
Reason(R): President Disanayaka declined India's maritime security assistance and requested only cultural and financial cooperation.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
  3. (c) A is false, but R is true
  4. (d) A is true, but R is false
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) A is true, but R is false

India's Dornier aircraft transfer and Operational Coordination Centre (OCC) role reflect a defence-oriented partnership — A is true.
Sri Lanka has, in fact, welcomed maritime security cooperation rather than declining it — R is false.
Hence A is true, but R is false.
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q13. Who won the men's and women's recurve titles at the 2024 National Archery Championships held in Jamshedpur?

  1. (a) Atanu Das and Deepika Kumari
  2. (b) Dhiraj Bommadevara and Ankita Bhakat
  3. (c) Dhiraj Bommadevara and Deepika Kumari
  4. (d) Pravin Jadhav and Komalika Bari
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Dhiraj Bommadevara and Deepika Kumari

At the 2024 National Archery Championships in Jamshedpur, Dhiraj Bommadevara won the men's recurve title.
Deepika Kumari claimed the women's recurve title.
Hence the correct pair isDhiraj Bommadevara and Deepika Kumari.
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q14. Which of the following about the 73rd Inter Services Water Polo Championship 2024-25 is/are correct?
1.) Hosted by Eastern Naval Command at Dolphin Hill Pool, Visakhapatnam.
2.) Navy defeated Army to win the title.

  1. (a) Only 1 is correct
  2. (b) Only 2 is correct
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2 is Correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2 are correct

The 73rd Inter Services Water Polo Championship was hosted by the Eastern Naval Command at the Dolphin Hill Pool, Visakhapatnam — Statement 1 correct.
The Indian Navy defeated the Army in the final to clinch the title — Statement 2 correct.
Henceboth statements are correct.
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q15. According to the 2025 Energy Transition Index, which factor is crucial for attracting long-term investment in energy transition?

  1. (a) High electricity tariffs
  2. (b) Adaptive and stable policy frameworks
  3. (c) Rapid fossil fuel subsidies
  4. (d) Deregulated industrial zones
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Adaptive and stable policy frameworks

The WEF Energy Transition Index 2025 highlights stable, adaptive and predictable policy frameworks as essential for long-term investor confidence in clean energy.
High tariffs, fossil fuel subsidies and deregulated zones do not promote transition investments.
Hence the answer isoption 2.

Polity (3)

Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Financial relations

Q16. Fill in the blanks:
Taxes on interstate trade are restricted by Article _____ unless Parliament otherwise provides.

  1. (a) 286
  2. (b) 269
  3. (c) 276
  4. (d) 294
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 286

Article 286 restricts the power of a state to impose tax on the sale or purchase of goods in the course of inter-state trade or commerce.
Articles 269, 276 and 294 deal with other tax/finance matters.
Hence the answer is Article 286.
Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies · Finance Commission

Q17. Which of the following statements about the Finance Commission of India iscorrect?

  1. (a) Its recommendations are binding on the Union and State governments.
  2. (b) Its members enjoy a fixed tenure protected from executive removal.
  3. (c) Its recommendations are advisory in nature and not legally binding.
  4. (d) It submits its report directly to the Parliament for enactment.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Its recommendations are advisory in nature and not legally binding.

The Finance Commission is a constitutional body under Article 280 that recommends devolution of taxes between Centre and States.
Its recommendations are advisory in nature; though usually accepted, they are not legally binding.
Henceoption 3is correct.
Judiciary · Supreme Court - jurisdiction (original, appellate, advisory)

Q18. Consider the following statements:
1. Article 131 provides exclusive original jurisdiction to High Courts in federal disputes.
2. The Supreme Court can adjudicate disputes between States under Article 131.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only 2

Article 131 grants exclusive ORIGINAL jurisdiction to the Supreme Court (not High Courts) in disputes between Centre and States or between States — Statement 1 is wrong.
Under Article 131, the Supreme Court adjudicates disputes between States — Statement 2 is correct.
Henceonly Statement 2is correct.

Biology (1)

Cell - Structure and Function · Biomolecules and enzymes

Q19. Read the below statements about enzymes and choose the correct option:
1. Enzymes increase the activation energy of a reaction.
2. Enzymes are specific to substrates due to active site configuration.
3. Enzyme activity is affected by pH and temperature.
Which of the above statements arecorrect?

  1. (a) Only 1 and 2 are correct
  2. (b) Only 2 and 3 are correct
  3. (c) Only 1 and 3 are correct
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3 all are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only 2 and 3 are correct

Statement 1 is wrong — enzymes lower (not increase) activation energy.
Statement 2 is correct — active site shape gives substrate specificity.
Statement 3 is correct — pH and temperature strongly influence enzyme activity.
Hence only 2 and 3 are correct.

Economics (3)

Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Economic systems (capitalist, socialist, mixed)

Q20. What is meant by 'mixed economy'?

  1. (a) Only private sector
  2. (b) Only public sector
  3. (c) Both private and public sectors
  4. (d) Only foreign companies
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both private and public sectors

A mixed economy combines features of capitalism and socialism, allowing both private and public sectors to operate together.
India is a classic example of a mixed economy.
Hence the answer isoption 3.
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q21. Which reform enabled MNCs to enter India?

  1. (a) Land Reform
  2. (b) Globalisation
  3. (c) Labour Law
  4. (d) Swadeshi
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Globalisation

Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation (LPG) reforms of 1991 opened the Indian economy to multinational companies.
Globalisation specifically reduced trade barriers and welcomed foreign investment.
Hence the answer isGlobalisation.
Industry and Infrastructure · Disinvestment

Q22. Read the following statements carefully and choose thecorrectoption regarding Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Assertion(A): The disinvestment policy has been widely criticized in India.
Reason(R): It resulted in increased market monopoly by public sector undertakings.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) A is true but R is false.
  4. (d) A is false but R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A is true but R is false.

Disinvestment policy has indeed faced criticism on equity, valuation and strategic-asset grounds — A is true.
Disinvestment reduces (rather than increases) PSU monopoly by selling stakes — R is false.
Hence A is true but R is false.

Geography (2)

Environment and Protected Areas · Environmental organisations and laws

Q23. What is the key objective of India'sGreen Credit Programme, recently operationalised under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986?

  1. (a) Generate green bonds for renewable industries
  2. (b) Reward voluntary environmental actions by individuals or entities
  3. (c) Penalize high carbon footprint industries
  4. (d) Enforce green finance for real estate sector
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Reward voluntary environmental actions by individuals or entities

The Green Credit Programme (GCP) is a market-based initiative to incentivise voluntary environmental actions like afforestation, water conservation and waste management.
Individuals, communities and entities earn tradable "green credits" for such actions.
Hence the answer is option 2.
Atmosphere and Climate · Composition and layers of the atmosphere

Q24. Which matched pair is incorrect?

  1. (a) Mesosphere - meteors burn
  2. (b) Stratosphere - ozone layer
  3. (c) Exosphere - tropospheric clouds
  4. (d) Thermosphere - ISS orbit
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Exosphere - tropospheric clouds

Meteors burn up in the mesosphere — correct.
The ozone layer lies in the stratosphere — correct.
Tropospheric clouds belong to the troposphere, not the exosphere — option 3 is the incorrect pair.
The International Space Station orbits within the thermosphere — correct.
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