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SSC CPO Paper-1 2025 11 December 2025 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 46 GK / GS questions asked in SSC CPO Paper-1 2025 on 11 December 2025 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Economics, Medieval History, Static GK, Ancient History, Geography, Modern History.

📚 46 questions🗓️ 11 December 2025⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Economics (12) · Medieval History (3) · Static GK (13) · Ancient History (2) · Geography (5) · Modern History (5) · Current Affairs (4) · Biology (2)

Economics (12)

Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Human Development Index and UNDP

Q1. The "capability approach" as applied to the Human Development Index (HDI) has been criticized for:

  1. (a) Being too focused on economic factors.
  2. (b) Being difficult to operationalize and measure.
  3. (c) Ignoring life expectancy.
  4. (d) Overemphasizing educational data.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Being difficult to operationalize and measure.

Correct Answer: Baeing difficult to operationalize and measure (Option 2)
The 'capability approach', developed by Amartya Sen and applied to the HDI, focuses on expanding people's capabilities and freedoms. While theoretically rich, it has been criticized for being difficult to operationalize and measure in practice. Capabilities like freedom, dignity, and quality of life are hard to quantify, making it challenging to construct a reliable index.
The capability approach is actually LESS focused on economic factors (like GDP) and more on human well-being — so Option 1 is incorrect.
It does NOT ignore life expectancy — the HDI includes life expectancy as a key component.
The capability approach does not overemphasize educational data — it treats education as just one of several dimensions.
Agriculture and Food Security · Crop insurance and farmer schemes

Q2. Which scheme provides insurance to farmers against crop failure?

  1. (a) RKVY (Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana)
  2. (b) PMFBY (Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana)
  3. (c) SMAM (Sub-Mission on Agricultural Mechanization)
  4. (d) AIF (Agriculture Infrastructure Fund)
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) PMFBY (Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana)

Correct Answer: PMFBY – Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (Option 2)
Pradhan Mantri Fasal Bima Yojana (PMFBY), launched in 2016, is India's flagship crop insurance scheme. It provides financial support to farmers suffering crop losses due to natural calamities (floods, drought, pest attacks). Farmers pay a low premium (2% for Kharif, 1.5% for Rabi), and the government subsidizes the balance.
RKVY (Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana) is a scheme for agricultural development and investment — not crop insurance.
SMAM focuses on farm mechanization (tractors, implements) — not insurance.
AIF (Agriculture Infrastructure Fund) provides financing for post-harvest infrastructure like cold storage and warehouses — not crop insurance.
Industry and Infrastructure · Infrastructure sectors

Q3. Under PM Gati Shakti, who is responsible for nodal planning?

  1. (a) MoF
  2. (b) DPIIT
  3. (c) MHA
  4. (d) TRAI
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) DPIIT

Correct Answer: DPIIT (Option 2)
Under the PM Gati Shakti National Master Plan, the Department for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) under the Ministry of Commerce and Industry is the nodal department responsible for overall planning, coordination, and implementation. DPIIT maintains the integrated digital platform (GIS-based master plan) that maps all infrastructure projects across ministries.
MoF (Ministry of Finance) handles fiscal matters but is not the nodal department for PM Gati Shakti.
MHA (Ministry of Home Affairs) handles internal security and state relations — not infrastructure planning.
TRAI (Telecom Regulatory Authority of India) regulates telecom services — unrelated to PM Gati Shakti planning.
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Revenue and capital receipts and expenditure

Q4. The capital account in the government budget deals with:

  1. (a) Only interest payments
  2. (b) Current subsidies and salaries
  3. (c) Assets and liabilities of the government
  4. (d) Tax collections and customs duties
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Assets and liabilities of the government

Correct Answer: Assets and liabilities of the government (Option 3)
The Capital Account in the government budget deals with changes in assets and liabilities of the government. It includes capital receipts (borrowings, recovery of loans, disinvestment proceeds) and capital expenditure (creation of assets like infrastructure, repayment of loans, lending to states). The capital budget captures transactions that affect the government's net worth.
Interest payments are part of the Revenue Account (Revenue Expenditure) — not the Capital Account.
Current subsidies and salaries are Revenue Expenditure items — not Capital Account.
Tax collections and customs duties are Revenue Receipts — part of the Revenue Account.
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Deficits (fiscal, revenue, primary)

Q5. Read the following statements and select the appropriate option:
Statement 1: A budget deficit is encountered when the total expenditure of the government is greater than its total revenue, excluding borrowings.
Statement 2: A budget deficit is faced when the total revenue of the government is greater than its expenditure in a fiscal year.

  1. (a) Only Statement 1 is correct
  2. (b) Only Statement 2 is correct
  3. (c) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct
  4. (d) Neither Statement 1 nor Statement 2 is correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only Statement 1 is correct

Correct Answer: Only Statement 1 is correct (Option 1)
Statement 1 is CORRECT: A budget deficit occurs when the government's total expenditure exceeds its total revenue (excluding borrowings). This is the standard definition of a fiscal/budget deficit. The government must borrow to cover this gap.
Statement 2 is INCORRECT: Statement 2 describes the opposite — when revenue is greater than expenditure, that would be a BUDGET SURPLUS, not a deficit. A deficit means spending more than earning, not the reverse.
Therefore, only Statement 1 correctly defines a budget deficit.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Global indices - publishers and methodology

Q6. Which organization publishes the World Competitiveness Ranking?

  1. (a) World Bank
  2. (b) IMF
  3. (c) IMD
  4. (d) World Economic Forum
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) IMD

Correct Answer: IMD (Option 3)
The World Competitiveness Ranking is published annually by the International Institute for Management Development (IMD), a business school based in Lausanne, Switzerland. It ranks countries based on their ability to create and sustain an environment where enterprises can compete effectively. It evaluates countries on four factors: Economic Performance, Government Efficiency, Business Efficiency, and Infrastructure.
The World Bank publishes the Ease of Doing Business Index and the Human Capital Index.
The IMF publishes the World Economic Outlook and Global Financial Stability Report.
The World Economic Forum (WEF) publishes the Global Competitiveness Report (different from World Competitiveness Ranking) and the Global Gender Gap Report.
Industry and Infrastructure · Classification of industries (size, ownership, raw material)

Q7. Which of the following is correctly classified as a basic industry?

  1. (a) Sugar
  2. (b) Fans
  3. (c) Sewing machines
  4. (d) Aluminium smelting
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Aluminium smelting

Correct Answer: Aluminium smelting (Option 4)
Basic industries (also called heavy or key industries) produce raw materials or semi-finished goods used by other industries. Aluminium smelting is a basic industry as it produces aluminium metal used in aerospace, construction, electrical, and manufacturing sectors.
Sugar is a consumer/agro-based industry — it produces a final consumer product, not raw material for other industries.
Fans are a consumer durable goods industry — these are final products.
Sewing machines are consumer goods/light engineering products — not basic industry inputs.
Basic industries include iron & steel, aluminium smelting, heavy chemicals, cement — industries that form the backbone of industrial production.
Industry and Infrastructure · MSME sector

Q8. Read the following Assertion and Reason (R) carefully and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): The Karve Committee (1955) supported rural industrialisation.
Reason (R): It focused on large-scale capital-intensive manufacturing in urban centres.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) A is true but R is false.
  4. (d) A is false but R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A is true but R is false.

Correct Answer: A is true but R is false (Option 3)
Assertion is TRUE: The Karve Committee (Village and Small-Scale Industries Committee, 1955), chaired by D.G. Karve, supported rural and cottage industrialization. It recommended development of small-scale and village industries to generate rural employment and prevent excessive urban migration.
Reason (R) is FALSE: The Karve Committee did NOT focus on large-scale capital-intensive manufacturing in urban centres. It actually recommended the opposite — small-scale, labour-intensive industries suited to rural and semi-urban areas. Large-scale capital-intensive urban manufacturing was more aligned with Nehru's Industrial Policy and heavy industry planning, not the Karve Committee's recommendations.
Therefore, A is true but R is false — Option 3.
Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Sectors of the economy (primary, secondary, tertiary)

Q9. Read the following Assertion and Reason (R) carefully and choose the correct option.
Assertion (A): The planning approach between 1951-1990 led to a successful transformation of India's employment structure.
Reason (R): Over 65% of India's workforce remained dependent on agriculture during this period.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) A is true but R is false.
  4. (d) A is false but R is true.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) A is false but R is true.

Correct Answer: A is false but R is true (Option 4)
Assertion is FALSE: The planning period 1951–1990 did NOT lead to a successful transformation of India's employment structure. Despite industrialization and Five-Year Plans, the employment structure remained overwhelmingly agrarian. The shift from agriculture to industry/services was slow and limited.
Reason (R) is TRUE: Over 65% of India's workforce remained dependent on agriculture throughout most of the 1951–1990 planning period. This stagnation in employment diversification was a major criticism of India's planning approach during this era.
Since A is false and R is true, Option 4 is correct.
Industry and Infrastructure · Infrastructure sectors

Q10. Consider the following statements regarding the National Electricity Plan 2023:
1. It projects over 50% installed power capacity from non-fossil sources by 2030.
2. It proposes nationwide shutdown of thermal plants older than 25 years.
Which of the following is/are Correct?

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 1

Correct Answer: Only 1 (Option 1)
Statement 1 is CORRECT: The National Electricity Plan (NEP) 2023 projects that over 50% of India's total installed power capacity will come from non-fossil fuel sources (renewable energy like solar, wind, hydro, nuclear) by 2030, aligning with India's commitments under the Paris Agreement and NDCs.
Statement 2 is INCORRECT: The NEP 2023 does NOT propose a nationwide shutdown of thermal plants older than 25 years. While it acknowledges the need to retire old, inefficient plants, there is no blanket proposal to shut down all thermal plants above 25 years. India still depends heavily on thermal power (coal) for base load, and an immediate/sweeping shutdown would be impractical.
Therefore, only Statement 1 is correct.
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · IMF and World Bank Group

Q11. Which global body promotes liberal economic reforms?

  1. (a) UNDP
  2. (b) IMF
  3. (c) WHO
  4. (d) UNESCO
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) IMF

Correct Answer: IMF (Option 2)
The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is known for promoting liberal economic reforms, including trade liberalization, privatization, deregulation, and fiscal discipline — often as conditions for its lending programs (structural adjustment programs). It promotes free-market economic policies among its member nations to ensure global economic stability.
UNDP (United Nations Development Programme) focuses on human development, poverty reduction, and sustainable development — not liberal economic reforms specifically.
WHO (World Health Organization) deals with global public health — not economic policy.
UNESCO focuses on education, science, and culture — not economic reforms.
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Direct taxes

Q12. Which of the following is an indirect tax?

  1. (a) Income Tax
  2. (b) Corporation Tax
  3. (c) Excise Duty
  4. (d) Wealth Tax
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Excise Duty

Correct Answer: Excise Duty (Option 3)
Excise Duty is an indirect tax levied on the manufacture of goods within the country. It is called 'indirect' because it is first paid by the manufacturer but is ultimately passed on to the consumer through higher prices. The manufacturer acts as a tax collector, not the final bearer of the tax.
Income Tax is a direct tax — it is levied directly on a person's income and paid directly to the government by the taxpayer.
Corporation Tax is a direct tax — levied directly on the profits of companies.
Wealth Tax (now abolished in India) was a direct tax — levied on the net wealth of individuals above a threshold.

Medieval History (3)

Vijayanagara and Bahmani Kingdoms · Vijayanagara administration and architecture

Q13. The term "Amaram" in Vijayanagara administration was associated with:

  1. (a) Tax exemption
  2. (b) Military fief
  3. (c) Land redistribution
  4. (d) Merchant guilds
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Military fief

Correct Answer: Military fief (Option 2)
In the Vijayanagara Empire, 'Amaram' referred to a military fief — a grant of land given to military commanders (called Nayakas or Amaranayakas) in exchange for military service. These commanders were obligated to maintain troops and supply them to the king during wars. This system was similar to the feudal system of medieval Europe.
Tax exemption refers to 'Brahmadeya' or similar grants, not Amaram.
Land redistribution and merchant guilds were not associated with this specific administrative term.
Delhi Sultanate · Sultanate architecture

Q14. The architectural feature of the true arch and dome in India was first introduced by the:

  1. (a) Ghaznavids
  2. (b) Delhi Sultanate
  3. (c) Rashtrakutas
  4. (d) Chalukyas
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Delhi Sultanate

Correct Answer: Delhi Sultanate (Option 2)
The true arch (pointed arch) and dome — key features of Islamic architecture — were first introduced in India by the Delhi Sultanate (1206–1526 CE). These techniques were brought from Central Asia and Persia. The Quwwat-ul-Islam Mosque and Qutub Minar complex in Delhi are early examples. The true arch uses the keystone principle and differs from the corbelled arch used in earlier Indian architecture.
The Ghaznavids made raids into India but did not establish lasting architectural traditions there.
The Rashtrakutas and Chalukyas preceded the Delhi Sultanate and used traditional Dravidian/rock-cut styles, not the true arch-dome technique.
Mughal Empire · Mughal architecture

Q15. By which concept are the Mughal style of gardens in India inspired?

  1. (a) Sacred groves of Vedic times
  2. (b) The Persian idea of paradise gardens
  3. (c) Stepwell architecture
  4. (d) British botanical gardens
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The Persian idea of paradise gardens

Correct Answer: The Persian idea of paradise gardens (Option 2)
Mughal gardens (Char Bagh style) in India were inspired by the Persian concept of 'Pardis' (paradise gardens) — formally laid out gardens divided into four quadrants by water channels, representing the four rivers of paradise. Famous examples include the Shalimar Bagh (Kashmir), Humayun's Tomb garden , and the Taj Mahal garden . This Persian tradition was brought to India by the Mughals, who originated from Central Asia.
Sacred groves of Vedic times were unplanned natural forests, not formal geometric gardens.
Stepwell architecture is a distinctly Indian form for water storage, not garden design.
British botanical gardens came centuries after Mughal garden design was established in India.

Static GK (13)

Sports · Sports and famous players

Q16. The Indian athlete, Avinash Sable, specializes in which track and field event?

  1. (a) 400m hurdles
  2. (b) Long jump
  3. (c) Steeplechase
  4. (d) Shot put
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Steeplechase

Correct Answer: Steeplechase (Option 3)
Avinash Sable is India's premier steeplechase runner, specializing in the 3000m steeplechase event. He has broken the Indian national record multiple times and represented India at the Tokyo 2020 Olympics and Paris 2024 Olympics. He is also a former Indian Army soldier.
400m hurdles, Long jump, and Shot put are different track and field events not associated with Avinash Sable.
Sports · Other sports and tournaments (tennis, chess, badminton, etc.)

Q17. The "Vallamkali" boat races of Kerala feature which unique type of boat, known for its length and speed?

  1. (a) Houseboat
  2. (b) Kettuvallam
  3. (c) Chundan Vallam
  4. (d) Odi Vallam
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Chundan Vallam

Correct Answer: Chundan Vallam (Option 3)
The Vallamkali (boat race) of Kerala, including the famous Nehru Trophy Boat Race, features the Chundan Vallam (snake boat). These are large, long (up to 100 feet), oar-propelled canoes with a raised stern resembling a cobra's hood. They are manned by over 100 rowers and are known for their speed and spectacular appearance.
Houseboat (Kettuvallam) is a flat-bottomed boat used for leisure cruises on Kerala's backwaters — not for racing.
Kettuvallam is the houseboat, not the racing snake boat.
Odi Vallam is a smaller, single-person fishing canoe used in Kerala — not the boat used in Vallamkali races.
Sports · Asian Games and Commonwealth Games

Q18. The 2010 Commonwealth Games were a significant event in India. Which metropolitan city hosted the games?

  1. (a) Mumbai
  2. (b) New Delhi
  3. (c) Chennai
  4. (d) Kolkata
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) New Delhi

Correct Answer: New Delhi (Option 2)
The 2010 Commonwealth Games (XIX Commonwealth Games) were hosted by New Delhi, India, from 3 to 14 October 2010. It was the first time India hosted the Commonwealth Games. Major venues included the Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium, Indira Gandhi Indoor Stadium, and the newly constructed Shyama Prasad Mukherjee Swimming Complex.
Mumbai, Chennai, and Kolkata are major Indian cities but did not host the 2010 Commonwealth Games.
Monuments and Heritage · Vernacular and tribal architecture

Q19. The Bhimakali Temple in Sarahan is a fine example of which architectural style?

  1. (a) Chalukyan
  2. (b) Kath-Kuni
  3. (c) Dravidian
  4. (d) Indo-Gothic
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Kath-Kuni

Correct Answer: Kath-Kuni (Option 2)
The Bhimakali Temple in Sarahan (Himachal Pradesh) is a celebrated example of the Kath-Kuni architectural style — a traditional Himalayan architecture using alternating layers of stone and wooden beams (deodar wood) in construction. This style is unique to the Kinnaur and Shimla hill districts of Himachal Pradesh. The temple complex blends Tibetan and Pahari architectural elements.
Chalukyan architecture is from the Deccan (Karnataka region) and features rock-cut and structural temples with distinct Vesara style.
Dravidian architecture is from South India and features gopurams (towered gateways) and vimanas.
Indo-Gothic is a colonial blend of Indian and European Gothic styles found in buildings like the Bombay High Court.
Books and Authors · International books and authors

Q20. Which Chinese-American author's novel "The Joy Luck Club" became internationally acclaimed and adapted into a film in 1993?

  1. (a) Amy Tan
  2. (b) Celeste Ng
  3. (c) Maxine Hong Kingston
  4. (d) Lisa See
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Amy Tan

Correct Answer: Amy Tan (Option 1)
Amy Tan, a Chinese-American author, wrote 'The Joy Luck Club' (1989), which explores the relationships between Chinese immigrant mothers and their American-born daughters. The novel became a bestseller and was adapted into a film in 1993 directed by Wayne Wang.
Celeste Ng is a Chinese-American author known for 'Everything I Never Told You ' and 'Little Fires Everywhere' — not 'The Joy Luck Club'.
Maxine Hong Kingston is a Chinese-American author known for 'The Woman Warrior' — not 'The Joy Luck Club'.
Lisa See is known for historical novels about Chinese women but did not write 'The Joy Luck Club'.
Sports · Olympic Games

Q21. Which Indian weightlifter won silver in the Tokyo Olympics 2020?

  1. (a) Sanjita Chanu
  2. (b) Mirabai Chanu
  3. (c) Gurdeep Singh
  4. (d) Bindyarani Devi
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Mirabai Chanu

Correct Answer: Mirabai Chanu (Option 2)
Saikhom Mirabai Chanu won the Silver Medal in the 49 kg category at the Tokyo Olympics 2020, becoming the first Indian weightlifter to win an Olympic silver medal. She lifted a total of 202 kg (87 kg Snatch + 115 kg Clean & Jerk). She was awarded the Padma Vibhushan in 2022.
Sanjita Chanu is another Indian weightlifter but did not win at the Tokyo Olympics.
Gurdeep Singh competed in the superheavyweight category and finished 4th at Tokyo.
Bindyarani Devi won a silver medal at the 2022 Commonwealth Games in the 55 kg category — not at the Tokyo Olympics.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q22. To which goddess is the festival of Navratri dedicated to?

  1. (a) Parvati
  2. (b) Lakshmi
  3. (c) Durga
  4. (d) Saraswati
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Durga

Correct Answer: Durga (Option 3)
Navratri (meaning 'nine nights') is a Hindu festival dedicated to Goddess Durga and her nine manifestations (Navadurga). It is celebrated across India with great devotion. The festival culminates on the tenth day, Vijayadashami (Dussehra), which marks the victory of Durga over the demon Mahishasura.
Parvati is the gentle consort of Shiva; Navratri celebrates the warrior form of the goddess (Durga).
Lakshmi is worshipped during Diwali, not Navratri.
Saraswati is worshipped during Vasant Panchami and on the ninth day of Navratri (Saraswati Puja) but the festival as a whole is dedicated to Durga.
Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q23. What is unique about Kuchipudi performances?

  1. (a) They are performed as solos only
  2. (b) They combine dance, mime, and acting
  3. (c) They have no vocal music
  4. (d) They focus on martial arts
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) They combine dance, mime, and acting

Correct Answer: They combine dance, mime, and acting (Option 2)
Kuchipudi is a classical dance-drama form from Andhra Pradesh that uniquely combines Nritta (pure dance), Nritya (expressive dance with gestures), and Natya (dramatic acting/mime). Unlike many other classical forms that are predominantly solo recitals, Kuchipudi traditionally includes dramatic narrative elements with characters, dialogues, and mime acting.
Kuchipudi can be performed as solos as well as group or dance-drama presentations — it is NOT exclusively solo.
Kuchipudi performances do include vocal music (sahitya/lyrics are integral).
Kuchipudi is not associated with martial arts — that is characteristic of forms like Kalaripayattu or Thang-Ta.
Music and Musical Instruments · Musical instruments and exponents

Q24. Which instrument in Kathakali is primarily used to create the rhythmic base for the performance?

  1. (a) Pakhawaj
  2. (b) Chenda
  3. (c) Veena
  4. (d) Tabla
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Chenda

Correct Answer: Chenda (Option 2)
The Chenda is the primary percussion instrument used in Kathakali, the classical dance-drama of Kerala. It is a cylindrical drum played with two sticks and provides the dominant rhythmic structure. The Chenda's powerful, energetic beats match the dramatic and intense nature of Kathakali performances.
Pakhawaj is a barrel-shaped drum used in Dhrupad (Hindustani classical music) and Odissi dance — not Kathakali.
Veena is a plucked string instrument used in Carnatic classical music and Bharatanatyam contexts — not Kathakali.
Tabla is the primary percussion instrument of Hindustani classical music and North Indian dance forms — not Kathakali.
Music and Musical Instruments · Folk music and songs by state

Q25. Which folk music form from Rajasthan is sophisticated and similar to Thumri or Ghazal?

  1. (a) Maand
  2. (b) Panihari
  3. (c) Garba
  4. (d) Baul
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Maand

Correct Answer: Maand (Option 1)
Maand is a classical and sophisticated folk music form originating from Rajasthan, particularly associated with the royal courts of Jaipur and Bikaner. It is semi-classical in character, similar to Thumri or Ghazal in its sophistication, lyrical depth, and emotional content. It is often performed by professional women singers and deals with themes of love, longing, and devotion.
Panihari is a Rajasthani folk song associated with women fetching water — it is not as sophisticated or similar to Thumri/Ghazal.
Garba is a folk dance form of Gujarat, not Rajasthan, and is not classified as a music form similar to Thumri.
Baul is a mystical folk music tradition of Bengal, not Rajasthan.
Music and Musical Instruments · Musical instruments and exponents

Q26. Which instrument is commonly associated with ceremonial music in Northern India, especially in marriages and temple festivals?

  1. (a) Bansuri
  2. (b) Shehnai
  3. (c) Santoor
  4. (d) Sarod
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Shehnai

Correct Answer: Shehnai (Option 2)
The Shehnai is a double-reed wind instrument widely used in ceremonial music in Northern India, especially during weddings, temple festivals, and auspicious occasions. It is considered a mangal vadya (auspicious instrument). The legendary Ustad Bismillah Khan elevated the Shehnai to the level of classical concert music. It is also regularly played at the Golden Temple in Amritsar.
Bansuri (bamboo flute) is associated with Lord Krishna and used in classical and folk music — not specifically ceremonial/wedding music.
Santoor is a Kashmiri string instrument used in classical and semi-classical music — not primarily ceremonial.
Sarod is a plucked string instrument of Hindustani classical music — not associated with weddings or ceremonial contexts.
Books and Authors · Autobiographies and biographies

Q27. Who is the author of 'Madam President: The Biography of Droupadi Murmu'?

  1. (a) Kasturi Ray
  2. (b) Sandeep Sahu
  3. (c) Dr Kabita Barik
  4. (d) Gopal Sharma
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Sandeep Sahu

Correct Answer: Sandeep Sahu (Option 2)
Sandeep Sahu, an Odisha-based journalist and author, wrote 'Madam President: The Biography of Droupadi Murmu'. The book traces the life journey of Droupadi Murmu from her humble tribal background in Odisha to becoming the 15th President of India (2022), and the first tribal woman to hold that office.
Kasturi Ray, Dr Kabita Barik, and Gopal Sharma are not the authors of this biography.
Space, Defence and Technology · Launch vehicles and satellites

Q28. What was the key purpose of the DS-SAR satellite launched aboard PSLV-C56 on July 30, 2023?

  1. (a) For TV broadcasting in Southeast Asia
  2. (b) For SAR imaging for Singapore's govt and clients
  3. (c) For asteroid exploration beyond Mars
  4. (d) For measuring upper stratosphere gases
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) For SAR imaging for Singapore's govt and clients

Correct Answer: For SAR imaging for Singapore's govt and clients (Option 2)
The DS-SAR satellite was launched by ISRO on PSLV-C56 on July 30, 2023. It is a commercial satellite belonging to ST Engineering (Singapore), developed under a partnership with Israel Aerospace Industries (IAI). Its primary purpose is to provide Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) imaging services for the Singapore government and commercial clients. SAR imaging can capture high-resolution images regardless of cloud cover or lighting conditions.
DS-SAR was not for TV broadcasting, asteroid exploration, or atmospheric gas measurement.

Ancient History (2)

Post-Gupta Period · Land grants and agrarian changes

Q29. During the Pallava period, what do the terms Brahmadeya and Devadana refer to?

  1. (a) Educational Institutions
  2. (b) Administrative Titles
  3. (c) Land grants
  4. (d) Religious festivals
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Land grants

Correct Answer: Land grants (Option 3)
During the Pallava period (and more broadly in South Indian history), 'Brahmadeya' referred to land grants given to Brahmin individuals or Brahmin communities, while 'Devadana' referred to land grants made to temples (for the maintenance of temple rituals and priests). Both were tax-free land donations and are extensively documented in Pallava copper plates and inscriptions.
Educational Institutions (like agrahara settlements) were different from these specific land grant categories.
Administrative titles were separate designations used for officers.
Religious festivals were not referred to by these terms.
Post-Mauryan Period · Indo-Greeks

Q30. The Garuda pillar at Besnagar was erected by:

  1. (a) Menander
  2. (b) Pushyamitra Sunga
  3. (c) Heliodorus
  4. (d) Kanishka
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Heliodorus

Correct Answer: Heliodorus (Option 3)
The Heliodorus Pillar (Garuda Pillar) at Besnagar (near Vidisha, Madhya Pradesh) was erected by Heliodorus, a Greek ambassador from the Indo-Greek king Antialcidas, sent to the court of the Shunga king Bhagabhadra around 110 BCE. The inscription on the pillar reveals that Heliodorus had converted to Vaishnavism, making it a significant piece of evidence for the spread of Bhagavatism. The pillar is topped with a Garuda (Vishnu's vehicle), hence the name.
Menander (Milinda) was an Indo-Greek king known for his Buddhist dialogues (Milindapanha) — not associated with this pillar.
Pushyamitra Sunga was the founder of the Shunga dynasty — not the builder of this pillar.
Kanishka was a Kushan king who lived centuries later and was associated with Buddhism, not this pillar.

Geography (5)

India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Indian monsoon - mechanism

Q31. The classical theory of monsoon development was propounded by Sir Edmond Halley. With this reference, which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. During the summer monsoon, the air flows from the sea to land and brings heavy rainfall to the Indian subcontinent.
2. During the winter monsoon, the air flows from land to sea and carries very little moisture.

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 2 only
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Correct Answer: Both 1 and 2 (Option 3)
Sir Edmond Halley (1686) proposed the classical thermal theory of monsoon, based on differential heating of land and sea.
Statement 1 is CORRECT: During summer, the land heats up faster than the sea, creating low pressure over land. Moist air flows from the sea (high pressure) to the land, bringing the Southwest monsoon rainfall to the Indian subcontinent.
Statement 2 is CORRECT: During winter, the land cools faster and creates high pressure over land. Dry air flows from land (high pressure) to the sea (low pressure), forming the Northeast/Winter monsoon, which carries very little moisture (except when it picks up moisture over the Bay of Bengal before hitting Tamil Nadu's coast).
Both statements accurately describe Halley's classical monsoon theory.
India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Thar Desert

Q32. Which of the following statements about the Indian Desert is/are correct?
1. It lies to the west of the Aravali Hills.
2. It receives an average annual rainfall of over 250 mm.

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) 1 and 2 both are correct
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2 are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 1

Correct Answer: Only 1 (Option 1)
Statement 1 is CORRECT: The Thar Desert (Indian Desert) lies to the west and northwest of the Aravali Hills. The Aravali range acts as a barrier, preventing moisture-laden winds from reaching the desert region, contributing to its arid nature.
Statement 2 is INCORRECT: The Thar Desert receives very little rainfall — typically less than 150 mm per year in most parts, and in some areas (like Jaisalmer) as little as 100 mm. Receiving over 250 mm annually would not make it a desert by definition. The low rainfall is precisely what makes it the Great Indian Desert.
India - Population and Census · Urbanisation and migration

Q33. Which of the following states had the highest level of urbanization in India as per the 2011 Census?

  1. (a) Kerala
  2. (b) Goa
  3. (c) Tamil Nadu
  4. (d) West Bengal
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Goa

Correct Answer: Goa (Option 2)
As per Census 2011, Goa had the highest level of urbanization among Indian states with approximately 62.17% of its population living in urban areas. Goa's small size, tourism-driven economy, and high per capita income contribute to its high urbanization level.
Kerala had an urbanization rate of about 47.7% in 2011.
Tamil Nadu had an urbanization rate of about 48.4% in 2011.
West Bengal had an urbanization rate of about 31.9% in 2011.
Note: Among Union Territories, Delhi and Chandigarh have even higher urbanization rates, but among full states, Goa ranks highest.
India - Population and Census · Census 2011 - population and growth

Q34. Consider the following statements about India's population growth since 1981 and choose the correct option:
1. The rate of population growth began to decline gradually after 1981.
2. Birth rates continued to rise sharply in the 1990s.
3. Despite declining growth rate, 182 million people were added in the 1990s.

  1. (a) Only 1 and 2 are correct
  2. (b) Only 2 and 3 are correct
  3. (c) Only 1 and 3 are correct
  4. (d) All 1, 2 and 3 all are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Only 1 and 3 are correct

Correct Answer: Only 1 and 3 are correct (Option 3)
Statement 1 is CORRECT: After reaching its peak in the 1970s–1980s, India's population growth rate began to decline gradually post-1981. This decline continued steadily into the 21st century.
Statement 2 is INCORRECT: Birth rates did NOT continue to rise sharply in the 1990s. On the contrary, birth rates also declined during the 1990s due to improved family planning, literacy (especially of women), and access to healthcare.
Statement 3 is CORRECT: Despite the declining growth rate, such a large population base meant that in absolute numbers, approximately 182 million people were still added to India's population during the 1990s (momentum of population growth).
Therefore, only Statements 1 and 3 are correct.
India - Minerals, Energy and Industries · Coal, petroleum and natural gas fields

Q35. Which of the following oil fields is located in Assam?

  1. (a) Kharsang
  2. (b) Cambay
  3. (c) Digboi
  4. (d) Ravva
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Digboi

Correct Answer: Digboi (Option 3)
Digboi, located in Tinsukia district of Assam, is famous for having India's oldest oil refinery (established in 1901) and one of the earliest oil fields discovered in Asia. Oil was discovered here in 1889. The Digboi refinery continues to operate and is a significant historical landmark in India's petroleum history.
Kharsang is also in Arunachal Pradesh, not Assam. (Note: some sources list it as Assam-Arunachal border area, but Digboi is more definitively in Assam.)
Cambay (Khambhat) is an oil field located in Gujarat, not Assam.
Ravva is an offshore oil field located in the Krishna-Godavari basin off Andhra Pradesh, not Assam.

Modern History (5)

British Administration and Policies · Constitutional Acts under British rule

Q36. Fill in the blank:
The Indian Councils Act 1892 for the first time permitted legislative councils to ____.

  1. (a) discuss the annual budget
  2. (b) pass criminal laws
  3. (c) levy provincial taxes
  4. (d) overrule the Viceroy
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) discuss the annual budget

Correct Answer: discuss the annual budget (Option 1)
The Indian Councils Act of 1892 was a significant reform in British India. For the first time, it permitted the legislative councils to discuss the annual budget (though not vote on it). It also allowed members to ask questions on matters of public interest. This was a modest step toward representative governance, though actual legislative power remained with the Viceroy and the British.
The power to pass criminal laws was never independently granted to legislative councils under this Act.
Levying provincial taxes was an executive function not granted to councils by this Act.
Overruling the Viceroy was never permitted under British colonial rule — the Viceroy retained supreme authority.
Socio-Religious Reform Movements · Social reform laws (sati, widow remarriage, child marriage)

Q37. How did the Bombay and Madras governments respond to the proposal of the 1839 Draft Act on slavery?

  1. (a) Both supported the Act without changes
  2. (b) Bombay supported it, Madras rejected it
  3. (c) Bombay saw no need for a law; Madras questioned its expediency
  4. (d) Both governments demanded full enforcement of the Act
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Bombay saw no need for a law; Madras questioned its expediency

Correct Answer: Bombay saw no need for a law; Madras questioned its expediency (Option 3)
When the 1839 Draft Act to abolish slavery was proposed in British India, the two Presidencies responded differently. The Bombay government felt there was no real need for such a law as slavery was not a major issue in their jurisdiction. The Madras government, however, questioned whether passing such a law was expedient (practical/advisable) given the scale and nature of slavery in their territory. This hesitation delayed the formal passage of the Indian Slavery Act until 1843.
Neither presidency supported the Act without changes — both raised objections.
Bombay did not 'support' the Act; it questioned its necessity.
Neither government demanded full enforcement — they both sought to avoid or delay it.
Socio-Religious Reform Movements · Anti-caste and depressed-class movements

Q38. On 8th March 2025, the nation observed the Jayanti of which social reformer and founder of the Matua Sect, known for leading the Chandal movement against untouchability?

  1. (a) Shree Harichand Thakur
  2. (b) Shree Narayan Guru
  3. (c) Shree Jyotirao Phule
  4. (d) Shree Guru Ravidas
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Shree Harichand Thakur

Correct Answer: Shree Harichand Thakur (Option 1)
Shree Harichand Thakur (1812–1878) was a Bengali social reformer and the founder of the Matua sect. He led the Chandal movement in Bengal, fighting against caste-based discrimination and untouchability. The Matua sect, which has a large following among the Namasudra community of Bengal and Bangladesh, emphasizes devotion to God and equality among all humans. His Jayanti is observed on 8th March.
Shree Narayan Guru was a social reformer from Kerala who worked against caste discrimination among the Ezhava community.
Shree Jyotirao Phule was a social reformer from Maharashtra who worked for lower caste and women's rights.
Shree Guru Ravidas was a 15th-century saint-poet who spoke against caste discrimination — not associated with the Matua sect or the Chandal movement.
Towards Independence and Partition · Subhas Chandra Bose and INA

Q39. Rash Behari Bose was a key figure in forming the Indian Independence League and played a crucial role in the initial organization of which army?

  1. (a) Azad Hind Fauj
  2. (b) Royal Indian Army
  3. (c) Gorkha Regiment
  4. (d) Sikh Light Infantry
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Azad Hind Fauj

Correct Answer: Azad Hind Fauj (Option 1)
Rash Behari Bose was a revolutionary freedom fighter who escaped to Japan and founded the Indian Independence League in 1942. He played a pivotal role in the initial formation of the Azad Hind Fauj (Indian National Army/INA) by recruiting Indian POWs (prisoners of war captured by Japan in Southeast Asia). He later handed over the leadership of the INA to Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose in 1943.
The Royal Indian Army was the British Indian Army — not a freedom-fighting force.
The Gorkha Regiment and Sikh Light Infantry are units of the Indian Army — not related to the INA.
Personalities, Newspapers, Books and Slogans · Women in the freedom struggle

Q40. Read the following statements and mark the correct option:
Assertion (A): Matangini Hazra died while participating in a Salt March in Odisha.
Reason (R): She was shot by police while holding the national flag during the Quit India Movement.

  1. (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
  2. (b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
  3. (c) A is false, but R is true.
  4. (d) Both A and R are false.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A is false, but R is true.

Correct Answer: A is false, but R is true (Option 3)
Assertion is FALSE: Matangini Hazra did NOT die during a Salt March in Odisha. She was martyred on 29 September 1942 during the Quit India Movement in Tamluk (now in West Bengal), not during the Salt March (1930). She was leading a procession to capture the Tamluk police station.
Reason (R) is TRUE: She was indeed shot by British police while holding the national flag and shouting 'Vande Mataram' during the Quit India Movement (1942). She continued to hold the flag even after being shot twice before finally falling.
Since A is false and R is true, Option 3 is correct.

Current Affairs (4)

Awards and Honours - Current · Sports and film awards - current

Q41. Who became the third Indian to win the Billie Jean King Cup Heart Award for the Asia/Oceania region in 2024?

  1. (a) Ankita Raina
  2. (b) Sania Mirza
  3. (c) Karman Kaur Thandi
  4. (d) Shrivalli Bhamidipaty
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Shrivalli Bhamidipaty

Correct Answer: Shrivalli Bhamidipaty (Option 4)
Shrivalli Bhamidipaty became the third Indian to win the Billie Jean King Cup Heart Award for the Asia/Oceania region in 2024. The Billie Jean King Cup Heart Award recognizes players who show exceptional spirit, commitment, and contribution during the competition. She follows in the footsteps of Sania Mirza and Ankita Raina who had won this award earlier.
Ankita Raina and Sania Mirza had previously won this award — so they were the first and second Indians, not the third.
Karman Kaur Thandi is an Indian tennis player but has not won this specific award.
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q42. Which launch vehicle has been approved by the Union Cabinet to support India's Bharatiya Antariksh Station and a crewed Moon landing mission by 2040?

  1. (a) GSLV Mk II
  2. (b) PSLV-C50
  3. (c) Next Generation Launch Vehicle (NGLV)
  4. (d) Human Rated Launch System (HRLS)
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Next Generation Launch Vehicle (NGLV)

Correct Answer: Next Generation Launch Vehicle (NGLV) (Option 3)
The Union Cabinet of India approved the Next Generation Launch Vehicle (NGLV) project to support India's ambitious space missions, including the Bharatiya Antariksh Station (Indian Space Station) and a crewed Moon landing mission by 2040. The NGLV is designed to be a heavy-lift, semi-reusable launch vehicle with significantly higher payload capacity than existing ISRO vehicles.
GSLV Mk II is an existing operational vehicle with limited payload capacity — not approved for these future missions.
PSLV-C50 is a variant of the PSLV, a workhorse for smaller satellites — not designed for crewed or heavy Moon missions.
Human Rated Launch System (HRLS) is a specific designation for the Gaganyaan rocket — different from NGLV.
Awards and Honours - Current · International awards - current

Q43. President Droupadi Murmu was recently conferred with the highest civilian award of which of the following countries during her 2024 state visit?

  1. (a) Suriname – Grand Order of the Yellow Star
  2. (b) Timor-Leste – Grand Collar of the Order
  3. (c) Mauritius – Order of the Star and Key
  4. (d) Australia's – Companion of the Order (AC)
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Timor-Leste – Grand Collar of the Order

Correct Answer: Timor-Leste – Grand Collar of the Order (Option 2)
During President Droupadi Murmu's 2024 state visit to Timor-Leste (East Timor), she was conferred with the Grand Collar of the Order — the highest civilian award of Timor-Leste — in recognition of India's support for Timor-Leste's development and the strong bilateral ties between the two nations.
Suriname's Grand Order of the Yellow Star, Mauritius' Order of the Star and Key, and Australia's Companion of the Order (AC) are honors from different countries — not conferred during this specific 2024 visit.
State News · State schemes and events

Q44. The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) of Uttarakhand officially came into effect on which date?

  1. (a) March 13, 2024
  2. (b) January 1, 2024
  3. (c) January 1, 2025
  4. (d) January 27, 2025
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) January 27, 2025

Correct Answer: January 27, 2025 (Option 4)
Uttarakhand became the first Indian state to implement the Uniform Civil Code (UCC). The UCC of Uttarakhand officially came into effect on January 27, 2025. The UCC governs personal matters like marriage, divorce, inheritance, and adoption under a uniform set of laws for all citizens, irrespective of religion.
March 13, 2024 was when the Uttarakhand UCC Bill received the President's assent.
January 1, 2024 was not the date of implementation.
January 1, 2025 was the date the rules were notified, but the actual effective date of implementation was January 27, 2025.

Biology (2)

Nutrition and Digestion · Vitamins - sources, functions and deficiency

Q45. Which vitamin is synthesized by intestinal microbiota?

  1. (a) Vitamin C
  2. (b) Vitamin K
  3. (c) Vitamin E
  4. (d) Vitamin D
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Vitamin K

Correct Answer: Vitamin K (Option 2)
Vitamin K (specifically Vitamin K2/Menaquinone) is synthesized by intestinal microbiota (gut bacteria) in the human colon. These bacteria produce Vitamin K2 which is absorbed by the large intestine. Vitamin K is essential for blood clotting and bone metabolism.
Vitamin C (Ascorbic acid) cannot be synthesized by the human body at all — it must be obtained entirely from diet.
Vitamin E is a fat-soluble antioxidant obtained from diet — not synthesized by gut bacteria.
Vitamin D is synthesized in the skin upon exposure to sunlight (UV radiation) — not by intestinal microbiota.
Plant Physiology and Morphology · Special plants (insectivorous, parasitic)

Q46. Which of the following pairs of (Plants-type) is correctly matched?

  1. (a) Nepenthes – Parasitic plant
  2. (b) Cuscuta – Insectivorous plant
  3. (c) Opuntia – Xerophytic plant
  4. (d) Utricularia – Epiphytic plant
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Opuntia – Xerophytic plant

Correct Answer: Opuntia – Xerophytic plant (Option 3)
Opuntia (cactus/prickly pear) is a Xerophyte — a plant adapted to survive in extremely dry conditions (deserts). It stores water in its thick, succulent stem, has reduced leaves (spines), and a thick waxy cuticle to minimize water loss. This pair is correctly matched.
Nepenthes is an Insectivorous (carnivorous) plant, NOT a parasitic plant. It traps insects in pitcher-shaped leaves.
Cuscuta (Amarbel/dodder) is a Parasitic plant — it wraps around host plants and draws nutrients from them. It is NOT insectivorous.
Utricularia (bladderwort) is an Insectivorous (carnivorous) aquatic plant — NOT an epiphyte. Epiphytes grow on other plants for support (like orchids) but do not absorb nutrients from them.
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