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SSC CPO Paper-1 2025 11 December 2025 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 47 GK / GS questions asked in SSC CPO Paper-1 2025 on 11 December 2025 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Economics, Polity, Medieval History, Static GK, Ancient History, Modern History.

📚 47 questions🗓️ 11 December 2025⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Economics (7) · Polity (2) · Medieval History (2) · Static GK (18) · Ancient History (3) · Modern History (5) · Current Affairs (5) · Geography (4) · Biology (1)

Economics (7)

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Global indices - publishers and methodology

Q1. Which of these is NOT a parameter in the Ease of Doing Business ( EoDB ) index?

  1. (a) Starting a business
  2. (b) Getting electricity
  3. (c) Military spending
  4. (d) Paying taxes
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Military spending

Correct Answer: Military spending (Option 3)
The Ease of Doing Business ( EoDB ) index, published by the World Bank, measures the regulatory environment for businesses. Its parameters include: Starting a business, Dealing with construction permits, Getting electricity, Registering property, Getting credit, Protecting minority investors, Paying taxes, Trading across borders, Enforcing contracts, and Resolving insolvency.
Military spending is a national security/defence expenditure metric and is NOT part of the EoDB index.
Starting a business, Getting electricity, and Paying taxes are all standard EoDB parameters.
Money and Banking · Monetary policy tools (repo, reverse repo, CRR, SLR, MSF, bank rate)

Q2. Which of the following is the mandatory requirement of setting aside in liquid assets, such as gold or Government securities, by commercial banks?

  1. (a) Cash reserve ratio
  2. (b) Statutory liquidity ratio
  3. (c) Current ratio
  4. (d) Margin ratio
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Statutory liquidity ratio

Correct Answer: Statutory Liquidity Ratio (Option 2)
The Statutory Liquidity Ratio (SLR) is the mandatory percentage of a bank's Net Demand and Time Liabilities (NDTL) that must be maintained in the form of liquid assets — including cash, gold, or approved Government securities — before providing credit to customers. It is set by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI).
Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR) refers to the cash that banks must keep with the RBI as a reserve — not in liquid assets like gold or government securities.
Current Ratio is a financial ratio measuring a company's ability to pay short-term liabilities.
Margin Ratio is not a standard banking reserve requirement.
Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Poverty alleviation and employment programmes (MGNREGA, etc.)

Q3. The Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme (RLEGP) was initiated in the ________ Five-Year Plan.

  1. (a) Fourth
  2. (b) Fifth
  3. (c) Sixth
  4. (d) Seventh
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Sixth

Correct Answer: Sixth (Option 3)
The Rural Landless Employment Guarantee Programme (RLEGP) was launched in 1983 during the Sixth Five-Year Plan (1980–1985). It aimed to guarantee at least 100 days of employment per year to at least one member of every rural landless household.
The Fourth Plan (1969–74) and Fifth Plan (1974–79) predated RLEGP.
The Seventh Plan (1985–90) came after RLEGP was already initiated.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q4. The 7th Five-Year Plan is credited with laying the foundation for which of the following major economic reform eras in India?

  1. (a) Nationalization of banks
  2. (b) Green revolution
  3. (c) Economic liberalization and modernization in the 1990s
  4. (d) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Economic liberalization and modernization in the 1990s

Correct Answer: Economic liberalization and modernization in the 1990s (Option 3)
The 7th Five-Year Plan (1985–1990), under Prime Minister Rajiv Gandhi, emphasized economic modernization, technology adoption, and reducing government control over industry. It introduced several market-oriented reforms that laid the groundwork for the major economic liberalization of 1991 (New Economic Policy under P.V. Narasimha Rao and Manmohan Singh).
Nationalization of banks happened in 1969 (under Indira Gandhi), during the 4th Plan period.
The Green Revolution primarily took place during the 3rd and 4th Five-Year Plans (1960s–70s).
The National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (MNREGA) was enacted in 2005, during the 10th Plan.
Agriculture and Food Security · Crop insurance and farmer schemes

Q5. Consider the following statements regarding the Urea Subsidy Scheme:
Statement 1: Urea is sold to farmers at a fixed Maximum Retail Price (MRP).
Statement 2: The subsidy is directly transferred to the bank accounts of farmers.
Which of the above is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only Statement 1 is correct
  2. (b) Only Statement 2 is correct
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only Statement 1 is correct

Correct Answer: Only Statement 1 is correct (Option 1)
Statement 1 is CORRECT: Urea is the only fertilizer in India sold at a government-controlled fixed Maximum Retail Price (MRP). Currently, the MRP for urea is ₹242 per 45 kg bag (plus applicable taxes), regardless of actual production costs.
Statement 2 is INCORRECT: The urea subsidy is NOT directly transferred to farmers' bank accounts. Instead, the subsidy is given to the urea manufacturers (fertilizer companies) by the government, who then sell urea to farmers at the fixed MRP. This is unlike Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) schemes where money goes directly to beneficiaries.
Agriculture and Food Security · Crop insurance and farmer schemes

Q6. What is the primary focus of the National Mission on Edible Oils–Oil Palm (NMEO–OP)?

  1. (a) Enhancing oilseed storage capacity
  2. (b) Promoting cultivation of a tropical oil-rich crop
  3. (c) Diversifying inland fisheries production
  4. (d) Supporting aromatic plant-based biofuels
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Promoting cultivation of a tropical oil-rich crop

Correct Answer: Promoting cultivation of a tropical oil-rich crop (Option 2)
The National Mission on Edible Oils–Oil Palm (NMEO-OP) was launched in 2021 to significantly increase domestic production of palm oil in India. Oil palm is a tropical oil-rich crop. India imports about 55–60% of its edible oil needs, with palm oil being the largest component. NMEO-OP aims to expand oil palm cultivation in Andaman & Nicobar Islands, the northeastern states, and other suitable areas to reduce import dependency.
Enhancing storage capacity is not the mission's primary objective.
Fisheries production is unrelated to edible oil.
Aromatic plant biofuels are not related to the edible oil mission.
Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Demand, supply and elasticity

Q7. When is total revenue maximized in relation to elasticity?

  1. (a) When elasticity is greater than one
  2. (b) When elasticity equals one
  3. (c) When elasticity is less than one
  4. (d) When marginal cost equals marginal revenue
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) When elasticity equals one

Correct Answer: When elasticity equals one (Option 2)
In economics, Total Revenue (TR) is maximized when price elasticity of demand equals 1 (unit elastic). At this point, the percentage change in quantity demanded exactly equals the percentage change in price, and marginal revenue (MR) = 0, meaning TR is at its maximum.
When elasticity > 1 (elastic): A price decrease increases TR, and a price increase decreases TR — TR is not maximized.
When elasticity < 1 (inelastic): A price increase increases TR — TR is not at maximum.
MR = MC is the condition for profit maximization, not revenue maximization.

Polity (2)

Judiciary · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q8. What is a quicker method for resolving disagreements between businesses?

  1. (a) Long court trials
  2. (b) Starting fights
  3. (c) Ignoring the problem
  4. (d) Alternative dispute resolution
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Alternative dispute resolution

Correct Answer: Alternative dispute resolution (Option 4)
Alternative Dispute Resolution (ADR) refers to methods such as arbitration, mediation, and conciliation used to resolve disputes outside formal court proceedings. ADR is faster, less expensive, and confidential compared to traditional litigation.
Long court trials are slow and expensive — the opposite of a quick solution.
Starting fights and Ignoring the problem are not legitimate legal mechanisms.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q9. Which of the following is now explicitly considered a 'document' under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam?

  1. (a) A verbal agreement
  2. (b) A gesture or sign language
  3. (c) A server log file
  4. (d) A spontaneous thought
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) A server log file

Correct Answer: A server log file (Option 3)
The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023 — which replaced the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 — explicitly expands the definition of 'document' to include electronic and digital records. A server log file is a type of electronic record that is now explicitly considered a document under the BSA and is admissible as evidence.
A verbal agreement is oral communication — not a document.
Gestures or sign language are forms of communication but not documents.
A spontaneous thought exists in the mind and has no physical/electronic form — not a document.

Medieval History (2)

Mughal Empire · Babur and his battles

Q10. The first Mughal Emperor to be buried outside India:

  1. (a) Babur
  2. (b) Humayun
  3. (c) Akbar
  4. (d) Shah Jahan
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Babur

Correct Answer: Babur (Option 1)
Babur, the founder of the Mughal Empire, died in 1530 and was initially buried in Agra. However, his remains were later transferred to Kabul (present-day Afghanistan) as per his wish, making him the first — and only — Mughal emperor buried outside India.
Humayun is buried in Delhi (Humayun's Tomb, a UNESCO World Heritage Site).
Akbar is buried in Sikandra, Agra.
Shah Jahan is buried in the Taj Mahal, Agra.
Mughal Empire · Akbar - conquests and policies

Q11. The Mughal Emperor who abolished the Jizya tax in 1564 was:

  1. (a) Akbar
  2. (b) Humayun
  3. (c) Shah Jahan
  4. (d) Jahangir
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Akbar

Correct Answer: Akbar (Option 1)
Akbar abolished the Jizya (a tax on non-Muslims) in 1564 as part of his policy of religious tolerance and secularism. He also introduced the concept of Din- i -Ilahi and abolished the pilgrim tax on Hindus.
Humayun did not abolish Jizya — it was reintroduced and existed under his reign.
Shah Jahan was not known for abolishing Jizya.
Jahangir also did not abolish Jizya; Aurangzeb actually reimposed it in 1679.

Static GK (18)

Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Martial arts

Q12. Which Indian state is known for its traditional martial art, Gatka?

  1. (a) Punjab
  2. (b) Haryana
  3. (c) Rajasthan
  4. (d) Gujarat
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Punjab

Correct Answer: Punjab (Option 1)
Gatka is a traditional Sikh martial art that originated in Punjab. It involves the use of wooden sticks (gatka sticks), swords, and shields, and is performed during festivals like Hola Mohalla (celebrated at Anandpur Sahib, Punjab).
Haryana is known for wrestling ( kushti ) and folk dances like Ghoomar.
Rajasthan is known for its martial tradition but not specifically Gatka.
Gujarat is not associated with Gatka.
Sports · Other sports and tournaments (tennis, chess, badminton, etc.)

Q13. Which Indian state is known for its traditional buffalo racing, "Kambala"?

  1. (a) Kerala
  2. (b) Karnataka
  3. (c) Andhra Pradesh
  4. (d) Tamil Nadu
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Karnataka

Correct Answer: Karnataka (Option 2)
Kambala is a traditional buffalo race conducted in the coastal districts of Karnataka, particularly in the Tulu Nadu region (Dakshina Kannada and Udupi districts). Pairs of buffaloes are made to run through muddy paddy fields.
Kerala is known for Vallam Kali (snake boat race) and Theyyam .
Andhra Pradesh has its own traditional sports but Kambala is specific to Karnataka.
Tamil Nadu is known for Jallikattu (bull-taming), not Kambala.
Sports · Other sports and tournaments (tennis, chess, badminton, etc.)

Q14. In table tennis, how many consecutive serves does each player get before switching?

  1. (a) 1
  2. (b) 2
  3. (c) 3
  4. (d) 4
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 2

Correct Answer: 2 (Option 2)
As per the current rules of Table Tennis (revised in 2001 by the International Table Tennis Federation), each player gets 2 consecutive serves before the serve switches to the opponent. Prior to 2001, players had 5 consecutive serves.
1 serve per turn is not the standard rule in regular play (though used in deuce situations at 10-10).
3 and 4 serves were never standard serving rules in table tennis.
Sports · Cricket

Q15. The first-ever night test match in India was played in Kolkata. What colour was the cricket ball used in the game?

  1. (a) Red
  2. (b) White
  3. (c) Pink
  4. (d) Yellow
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Pink

Correct Answer: Pink (Option 3)
India's first-ever Day-Night Test match was played at Eden Gardens, Kolkata, in November 2019 between India and Bangladesh. A pink ball was used in this match. The pink ball was introduced for Day-Night Tests to improve visibility under floodlights.
Red balls are used in traditional Test cricket played during the day.
White balls are used in ODI and T20 cricket.
Yellow balls have never been used in Test cricket.
Sports · Football and hockey

Q16. In which city was the final match of the 2015 Indian Super League season held?

  1. (a) Kochi
  2. (b) Mumbai
  3. (c) Kolkata
  4. (d) Goa
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Goa

Correct Answer: Goa (Option 4)
The final match of the 2015 Indian Super League (ISL) season was held at the Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium in Fatorda , Goa. Chennaiyin FC defeated FC Goa 3-2 to win the title.
Kochi, Mumbai, and Kolkata are ISL host cities but did not host the 2015 final.
Monuments and Heritage · World monuments and wonders

Q17. Which of the following features are associated with the Gothic architectural style?

  1. (a) Sloping tiled roofs
  2. (b) Pointed arches and stained glass windows
  3. (c) Flat roofs with courtyards
  4. (d) Domes with minarets
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Pointed arches and stained glass windows

Correct Answer: Pointed arches and stained glass windows (Option 2)
Gothic architecture (12th–16th century Europe) is characterized by: pointed arches, ribbed vaults, flying buttresses, tall spires, and large stained glass windows. Famous examples include Notre-Dame Cathedral (Paris) and Westminster Abbey (London).
Sloping tiled roofs are associated with vernacular or traditional Asian architecture.
Flat roofs with courtyards are features of Islamic/Mughal or Indus Valley architecture.
Domes with minarets are features of Islamic/Mughal architecture (e.g., Taj Mahal).
Books and Authors · International books and authors

Q18. Which author's "Small Things Like These" was shortlisted for the 2022 Booker Prize but is NOT of Indian origin?

  1. (a) Arundhati Roy
  2. (b) Elizabeth Strout
  3. (c) Claire Keegan
  4. (d) Shehan Karunatilaka
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Claire Keegan

Correct Answer: Claire Keegan (Option 3)
Claire Keegan is an Irish author. Her novella "Small Things Like These" was shortlisted for the 2022 Booker Prize. The book is set in 1980s Ireland and deals with the Magdalene laundries. She is Irish, not of Indian origin.
Arundhati Roy is an Indian author (The God of Small Things).
Elizabeth Strout is an American author — not of Indian origin either, but her book "Oh William!" was shortlisted, not "Small Things Like These."
Shehan Karunatilaka is Sri Lankan (his novel "The Seven Moons of Maali Almeida" won the 2022 Booker Prize).
Awards and Honours · Nobel Prize and international awards

Q19. Who received the International Booker Prize in 2020 for the novel "The Discomfort of Evening"?

  1. (a) Marieke Lucas Rijneveld
  2. (b) Olga Tokarczuk
  3. (c) Jokha Alharthi
  4. (d) Fernanda Melchor
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Marieke Lucas Rijneveld

Correct Answer: Marieke Lucas Rijneveld (Option 1)
Marieke Lucas Rijneveld, a Dutch author, won the International Booker Prize in 2020 for "The Discomfort of Evening" (translated from Dutch by Michele Hutchison). This novel deals with grief and loss in a Dutch farming family.
Olga Tokarczuk (Polish author) won the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2018 and the Man Booker International Prize in 2018 for "Flights."
Jokha Alharthi (Omani author) won the Man Booker International Prize in 2019 for "Celestial Bodies."
Fernanda Melchor (Mexican author) was shortlisted for the 2020 International Booker Prize but did not win.
Sports · Trophies and cups

Q20. What is the trophy awarded to the overall champions of the National Games of India called?

  1. (a) Nehru Trophy
  2. (b) Raja Bhalindra Singh Trophy
  3. (c) Indira Gandhi Gold Cup
  4. (d) Dhyan Chand Trophy
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Raja Bhalindra Singh Trophy

Correct Answer: Raja Bhalindra Singh Trophy (Option 2)
The Raja Bhalindra Singh Trophy is awarded to the state that wins the overall championship (medals tally) at the National Games of India. It is named after Raja Bhalindra Singh, a prominent sports administrator.
Nehru Trophy is associated with the Nehru Trophy Boat Race (Kerala) and also with football.
Indira Gandhi Gold Cup is associated with international hockey tournaments.
Dhyan Chand Trophy is a lifetime achievement award in sports given by the Government of India.
Sports · Other sports and tournaments (tennis, chess, badminton, etc.)

Q21. Who was the first Indian female athlete to win a medal at the World Athletics Championships?

  1. (a) Hima Das
  2. (b) Anju Bobby George
  3. (c) Dutee Chand
  4. (d) PT Usha
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Anju Bobby George

Correct Answer: Anju Bobby George (Option 2)
Anju Bobby George won a bronze medal in the Long Jump event at the 2003 World Athletics Championships held in Paris. She became the first Indian woman — and the first Indian athlete overall — to win a medal at the World Athletics Championships.
Hima Das is famous for winning gold at the 2018 World U20 Athletics Championships (400m) — a youth event, not the main World Championships.
Dutee Chand has represented India at major events but has not won a World Athletics Championships medal.
PT Usha came very close to an Olympic medal (4th place, 1984 Los Angeles Olympics) but did not win at the World Athletics Championships.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Tribal festivals

Q22. Which harvest festival in Tripura involves traditional tribal dances and rituals after jhum cultivation?

  1. (a) Moatsu
  2. (b) Losar
  3. (c) Garia Puja
  4. (d) Chapchar Kut
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Garia Puja

Correct Answer: Garia Puja (Option 3)
Garia Puja is a major harvest festival celebrated by the Tripuri tribal community in Tripura. It is held after the jhum (slash-and-burn) cultivation cycle and involves worship of the deity Garia, along with traditional tribal dances and rituals.
Moatsu is a festival of the Ao Naga tribe of Nagaland, not Tripura.
Losar is the Tibetan/Buddhist New Year festival celebrated in Sikkim, Ladakh, and Arunachal Pradesh.
Chapchar Kut is the spring festival of the Mizo people of Mizoram, also related to jhum cultivation — but it is specific to Mizoram, not Tripura.
Dances · Folk dances by state

Q23. Which of the following is a folk dance of Haryana?

  1. (a) Garba
  2. (b) Ghoomar
  3. (c) Kuchipudi
  4. (d) Gidda
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ghoomar

Correct Answer: Ghoomar (Option 2)
Ghoomar is a traditional folk dance performed by women in Haryana (and also in Rajasthan). In Haryana, it is performed at festivals and auspicious occasions by women in a circular motion.
Garba is the folk dance of Gujarat, performed especially during Navratri.
Kuchipudi is a classical dance form from Andhra Pradesh.
Gidda is the traditional folk dance of Punjab, performed by women.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Martial arts

Q24. Which dance form in Manipur involves the use of swords, spears, and shields?

  1. (a) Ras
  2. (b) Thang-Ta
  3. (c) Sankirtana
  4. (d) Choloms
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Thang-Ta

Correct Answer: Thang-Ta (Option 2)
Thang-Ta (also called Huyen Lallong) is the traditional martial art and dance form of Manipur. It involves the use of swords (thang) and spears (ta), along with shields, and is performed as both a combat technique and a dance during festivals.
Ras Leela is a devotional dance of Manipur depicting the life of Lord Krishna — it does not involve weapons.
Sankirtana is a devotional singing and dance tradition of Manipur (UNESCO Intangible Cultural Heritage) — no weapons.
Choloms are drum dances performed at festivals — not associated with swords and spears.
Music and Musical Instruments · Folk music and songs by state

Q25. Which instrument is commonly used as a prop during the performance of Pandavani in Chhattisgarh?

  1. (a) Tambura
  2. (b) Tabla
  3. (c) Harmonium
  4. (d) Manjira
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Tambura

Correct Answer: Tambura (Option 1)
Pandavani is a folk singing tradition of Chhattisgarh in which the singer narrates stories from the Mahabharata (especially the Pandavas). The Tambura (ektara-like string instrument) is the characteristic instrument held and played as a prop by the lead singer during Pandavani performances. The legendary artist Teejan Bai is the most famous exponent of Pandavani .
Tabla is a percussion instrument used in Hindustani classical music and not specifically associated with Pandavani .
Harmonium is used in light classical and devotional music but not as a Pandavani prop.
Manjira are small cymbals used in devotional singing, not in Pandavani .
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Tribal festivals

Q26. Which of the following pairs is correctly matched with respect to the Lyuva Khutla festival of the Mara tribe?

  1. (a) Modern Games – Ludo
  2. (b) Dances – Bihu & Dalkhai
  3. (c) Festival Host – Chaypi
  4. (d) Attire – Mekhela Chador
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Festival Host – Chaypi

Correct Answer: Festival Host – Chaypi (Option 3)
The Lyuva Khutla is a harvest festival of the Mara tribe of Mizoram. In this festival, the traditional host/organizer is known as the ' Chaypi ' — a wealthy community leader who sponsors the festival celebrations. This is the correctly matched pair.
The games associated with Lyuva Khutla are traditional tribal games, not modern games like Ludo.
Bihu and Dalkhai are dances of Assam and Odisha respectively — not associated with the Mara tribe festival.
Mekhela Chador is the traditional attire of Assamese women, not the Mara tribe.
Music and Musical Instruments · Hindustani music (ragas, gharanas)

Q27. Fill in the blanks:
In Indian classical music notation, a swara with a dot above the letter (e.g., Ṡ) represents the ____ saptak .

  1. (a) Madhya Saptak
  2. (b) Mandra Saptak
  3. (c) Taar Saptak
  4. (d) Shuddha Saptak
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Taar Saptak

Correct Answer: Taar Saptak (Option 3)
In Indian classical music, the saptaks (octaves) are denoted as:
- Mandra Saptak (lower octave): dot below the letter (e.g., Ṣ with dot below)
- Madhya Saptak (middle octave): no dot
- Taar Saptak (upper octave): dot above the letter (e.g., Ṡ with dot above)
A dot above the swara symbol indicates the Taar Saptak (higher octave), confirming Option 3.
Shuddha Saptak is not a standard saptak classification in Indian music notation.
Organisations and Headquarters · India's foreign relations and connectivity projects

Q28. Consider the following statements regarding the strategic objectives and features of IMEC:
1) IMEC is both an economic and political project linking Asia, the Gulf, and Europe.
2) IMEC cuts transport time and cost to Europe by 20% and 15% via maritime routes.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1 is correct
  2. (b) Only 2 is correct
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 1 is correct

Correct Answer: Only 1 is correct (Option 1)
Statement 1 is CORRECT: IMEC (India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor) announced at the G20 New Delhi Summit (2023) is both an economic and geopolitical project aimed at strengthening trade and connectivity between India, the Gulf region (UAE, Saudi Arabia), and Europe.
Statement 2 is INCORRECT: The figures quoted ( 20% time reduction and 15% cost reduction) are inaccurate. IMEC is projected to cut transport time by approximately 40% and cost by approximately 30% compared to the Suez Canal route, not 20% and 15%. The exaggerated benefit percentage in Statement 2 makes it factually incorrect.
Space, Defence and Technology · Launch vehicles and satellites

Q29. Evaluate the following statements related to reusable launch vehicles (RLVs):
Statement 1: RLVs are being explored primarily to enhance launch efficiency and reduce the recurring cost of satellite deployment.
Statement 2: The development of RLVs increases operational complexity, making them less viable compared to traditional expendable systems.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only Statement 1 is correct
  2. (b) Only Statement 2 is correct
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2 are correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only Statement 1 is correct

Correct Answer: Only Statement 1 is correct (Option 1)
Statement 1 is CORRECT: Reusable Launch Vehicles (RLVs) such as SpaceX's Falcon 9 and ISRO's RLV-TD are developed to significantly reduce the per-launch cost by reusing rocket components (especially first stages), thereby enhancing launch efficiency and reducing recurring satellite deployment costs.
Statement 2 is INCORRECT: While RLVs do involve higher upfront development costs and require refurbishment between launches, they are NOT considered less viable compared to expendable systems. In fact, reusability has proven to dramatically reduce per-launch costs (SpaceX has demonstrated this). The operational complexity is manageable and does not make RLVs less viable.

Ancient History (3)

Ancient Art, Culture and Science · Cave architecture (Ajanta, Ellora, Elephanta, etc.)

Q30. Which of the following ancient Indian sites is famous for its chaityas and viharas carved into rock?

  1. (a) Ajanta
  2. (b) Thanjavur
  3. (c) Mahabalipuram
  4. (d) Hampi
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Ajanta

Correct Answer: Ajanta (Option 1)
The Ajanta Caves (Maharashtra) are rock-cut Buddhist cave monuments dating from the 2nd century BCE to about 480 CE. They contain chaityas (prayer halls) and viharas (monasteries) carved into volcanic rock, along with famous Buddhist murals and sculptures. The site is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Thanjavur (Tanjore) is famous for the Brihadeeswarar Temple, a Chola-era structural temple.
Mahabalipuram is known for shore temples and rathas (structural rock-cut monuments) built by the Pallavas.
Hampi is the capital of the Vijayanagara Empire, known for structural temples and monuments.
Post-Gupta Period · Pallavas

Q31. Dakshinchitra was compiled during the reign of which Pallava ruler?

  1. (a) Sivaskandavarman
  2. (b) Vijayaskandavarman
  3. (c) Mahendravarman I
  4. (d) Narasimhavarman I
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Mahendravarman I

Correct Answer: Mahendravarman I (Option 3)
Dakshinachitra (also known as Dakshinachitram ) is a text/compilation associated with the Pallava period. Mahendravarman I (600–630 CE) was a great Pallava ruler known for his contributions to literature, music, and rock-cut architecture. He authored the Sanskrit satirical play ' Mattavilasa Prahasana ' and initiated the Pallava rock-cut temple tradition.
Sivaskandavarman was an early Pallava ruler not associated with this compilation.
Vijayaskandavarman is another early Pallava king with limited cultural legacy.
Narasimhavarman I ( Mamalla ) is famous for the Mahabalipuram monuments but not specifically for Dakshinachitra .
Post-Mauryan Period · Sangam Age - Cheras, Cholas, Pandyas

Q32. Which of the following rulers is NOT the part of the Kadai Yelu Vallalgal (The Seven Great Patrons)?

  1. (a) Pari
  2. (b) Nediyon
  3. (c) Adiyaman
  4. (d) Pegan
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Nediyon

Correct Answer: Nediyon (Option 2)
The Kadai Yelu Vallalgal (Seven Great Patrons/Philanthropists) of the Sangam Age are: Pari, Kari, Ori, Pegan, Ay, Nalli, and Adiyaman. These were chieftains celebrated in Sangam literature for their generosity.
Nediyon is a name associated with the Pandya king (also an epithet of Lord Vishnu/Thirumal in Sangam literature), NOT one of the Seven Great Patrons.
Pari, Adiyaman, and Pegan are all part of the Kadai Yelu Vallalgal.

Modern History (5)

Swadeshi, Revolutionaries and Home Rule · Partition of Bengal and Swadeshi Movement

Q33. The primary reason for the British government's decision to partition Bengal in 1905 was:

  1. (a) To promote the educational development of the region.
  2. (b) To improve the administrative efficiency of the large province.
  3. (c) To foster greater unity between the Hindu and Muslim populations of Bengal.
  4. (d) To encourage the growth of industrialization in East Bengal.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To improve the administrative efficiency of the large province.

Correct Answer: To improve the administrative efficiency of the large province (Option 2)
The official reason given by Lord Curzon (Viceroy) for the Partition of Bengal in 1905 was to improve administrative efficiency of the large and unwieldy province. However, the underlying motive was widely seen as a divide-and-rule strategy to weaken the growing nationalist movement by splitting Hindu- and Muslim-majority areas.
The partition did not aim to promote educational development.
Rather than fostering unity between Hindus and Muslims, the partition deepened communal divisions.
Industrialization in East Bengal was not a stated objective.
Towards Independence and Partition · Mountbatten Plan and Partition

Q34. The "Indian Independence Act of 1947" outlined the terms for the transfer of power and the creation of independent India and Pakistan.
Which of the following was a key provision of this Act regarding the princely states?

  1. (a) It mandated the immediate integration of all princely states into either India or Pakistan based on geographical contiguity.
  2. (b) It granted the princely states the freedom to choose whether to join India, Pakistan, or remain independent.
  3. (c) It stipulated that the British government would continue to exercise paramountcy over the princely states.
  4. (d) It ensured that the revenue sharing agreements between the princely states and the new dominions would remain unchanged.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) It granted the princely states the freedom to choose whether to join India, Pakistan, or remain independent.

Correct Answer: It granted the princely states the freedom to choose whether to join India, Pakistan, or remain independent (Option 2)
The Indian Independence Act of 1947 gave the princely states three options: accede to India, accede to Pakistan, or remain independent. The Act also stated that British paramountcy over the princely states would lapse, effectively leaving them to make their own choice. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel and V.P. Menon then undertook the historic task of integrating the princely states into India.
The Act did NOT mandate immediate integration — states were given a choice.
British paramountcy was specifically declared to lapse with the Act, not continue.
Revenue sharing was not a key provision of this Act.
British Administration and Policies · Education policies and commissions

Q35. The "Wood's Despatch" of 1854 recommended several significant changes in the Indian education system.
Which of the following was a key recommendation of this despatch?

  1. (a) The immediate vernacularization of all levels of education.
  2. (b) The establishment of a comprehensive system of education from the primary to the university level, with English as the medium of instruction at higher levels.
  3. (c) The complete privatization of the education sector in India.
  4. (d) The exclusive focus on the training of religious leaders and scholars.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The establishment of a comprehensive system of education from the primary to the university level, with English as the medium of instruction at higher levels.

Correct Answer: The establishment of a comprehensive system of education from the primary to the university level, with English as the medium of instruction at higher levels (Option 2)
Wood's Despatch (1854), issued by Sir Charles Wood (President of the Board of Control), is known as the 'Magna Carta of English Education in India.' Its key recommendations included: establishing universities in Bombay, Calcutta, and Madras; a hierarchy of schools from primary to university; English as the medium of instruction at higher levels; grants-in-aid for private schools; and promoting vernacular education at lower levels.
It recommended promoting vernacular education at lower levels, not full vernacularization at all levels.
Privatization of education was not recommended — it actually promoted government involvement.
Focus on religious training was not part of this secular educational framework.
Post-Independence India · Wars and treaties (1947 onwards)

Q36. Consider the following statements about the 2015 India–Bangladesh Land Boundary Agreement (LBA):
1) As per the 2015 agreement, 51 Bangladeshi enclaves in India and 111 Indian enclaves in Bangladesh were exchanged.
2) A majority of enclave residents from Bangladesh opted to retain Bangladeshi citizenship after the transfer.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1 is Correct
  2. (b) Only 2 is Correct
  3. (c) 1 and 2 are Correct
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2 are Correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 1 is Correct

Correct Answer: Only 1 is Correct (Option 1)
Statement 1 is CORRECT: The 2015 India-Bangladesh Land Boundary Agreement (effective from 31 July 2015) resulted in the exchange of 51 Bangladeshi enclaves inside India (transferred to Bangladesh) and 111 Indian enclaves inside Bangladesh (transferred to India).
Statement 2 is INCORRECT: Contrary to what Statement 2 claims, the majority of enclave residents from Bangladesh (in the former Indian enclaves) chose to retain Indian citizenship and relocate to India, rather than opting for Bangladeshi citizenship. The implementation was handled by both governments jointly.
Personalities, Newspapers, Books and Slogans · Women in the freedom struggle

Q37. Usha Mehta is famously known for which of the following contributions during the Quit India Movement?

  1. (a) Leading armed struggle against British forces
  2. (b) Organizing the underground radio to broadcast nationalist messages
  3. (c) Being the first woman to be executed by the British for revolutionary activities
  4. (d) Leading mass protests in Bombay
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Organizing the underground radio to broadcast nationalist messages

Correct Answer: Organizing the underground radio to broadcast nationalist messages (Option 2)
Usha Mehta (1920–2000) was a freedom fighter who secretly operated a Congress Radio (also called the Secret Congress Radio) during the Quit India Movement of 1942. She broadcast messages of national importance and rallied people against British rule. She was arrested in November 1942 and sentenced to imprisonment. She was awarded the Padma Vibhushan in 1998.
Usha Mehta was not known for leading armed struggle.
She was not executed — she was imprisoned.
While she was involved in the movement in Bombay, her most iconic contribution was the underground radio, not mass protests.

Current Affairs (5)

Books, Obituaries and Days - Current · Days and themes - current year

Q38. What was the theme of India's Republic Day Parade 2025?

  1. (a) Bharat - Loktantra ki Matruka
  2. (b) Swarnim Bharat – Virasat aur Vikas
  3. (c) Jan Bagidari
  4. (d) Unity in Diversity
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Swarnim Bharat – Virasat aur Vikas

Correct Answer: Swarnim Bharat – Virasat aur Vikas (Option 2)
The theme of India's 76th Republic Day Parade on 26 January 2025 was "Swarnim Bharat – Virasat aur Vikas" (Golden India – Heritage and Development). Indonesian President Prabowo Subianto was the Chief Guest.
"Bharat – Loktantra ki Matruka " (India – Mother of Democracy) was the theme of the 2024 Republic Day Parade.
Jan Bagidari and Unity in Diversity were not the themes for 2025.
Awards and Honours - Current · National awards - current

Q39. Who received the prestigious Aryabhatta Award from the Astronautical Society of India (ASI) in 2024?

  1. (a) Subba Rao Pavuluri
  2. (b) Satheesh Reddy
  3. (c) R.P. Shenoy
  4. (d) V.K. Saraswat
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Subba Rao Pavuluri

Correct Answer: Subba Rao Pavuluri (Option 1)
Subba Rao Pavuluri received the prestigious Aryabhatta Award from the Astronautical Society of India (ASI) in 2024. The Aryabhatta Award is given for outstanding contributions in the field of astronautics and space sciences.
Satheesh Reddy is a defence scientist (former DRDO Chief) and has received other awards but not this particular one in 2024.
R.P. Shenoy and V.K. Saraswat are notable scientists but did not receive the 2024 ASI Aryabhatta Award.
International Affairs and Summits · Summits and conferences

Q40. Where was the Quad Foreign Ministers' Meeting held on 1 July 2025?

  1. (a) Canberra, Australia
  2. (b) New Delhi, India
  3. (c) Tokyo, Japan
  4. (d) Washington, USA
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Washington, USA

Correct Answer: Washington, USA (Option 4)
The Quad Foreign Ministers' Meeting on 1 July 2025 was held in Washington, D.C., USA. The Quad (Quadrilateral Security Dialogue) comprises India, USA, Australia, and Japan. The meeting was hosted by the United States Secretary of State.
Canberra, New Delhi, and Tokyo are capitals of other Quad member nations but did not host this particular meeting.
Awards and Honours - Current · National awards - current

Q41. Who presented the Digital Payments Award 2024–25 to India Post Payments Bank for its efforts in digital inclusion?

  1. (a) Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman and Shri Pankaj Chaudhary
  2. (b) Shri Ashwini Vaishnaw and Dr. Bhagwat Karad
  3. (c) Smt. Anupriya Patel and Shri Rajeev Chandrasekhar
  4. (d) Shri Dharmendra Pradhan and Shri Hardeep Singh Puri
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman and Shri Pankaj Chaudhary

Correct Answer: Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman and Shri Pankaj Chaudhary (Option 1)
The Digital Payments Award 2024–25 was presented to India Post Payments Bank (IPPB) by Finance Minister Smt. Nirmala Sitharaman and Minister of State for Finance Shri Pankaj Chaudhary for IPPB's outstanding contributions to digital financial inclusion across rural India.
Ashwini Vaishnaw is the IT and Telecom Minister; Bhagwat Karad is a former MoS Finance.
Anupriya Patel and Rajeev Chandrasekhar hold different portfolios unrelated to this award.
Dharmendra Pradhan and Hardeep Singh Puri oversee education/petroleum and housing portfolios respectively.
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q42. The NISAR satellite mission is primarily related to which type of imaging?

  1. (a) Sample return
  2. (b) Optical imaging
  3. (c) Radar imaging
  4. (d) Spectroscopy
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Radar imaging

Correct Answer: Radar imaging (Option 3)
NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar) is a joint Earth observation satellite mission between NASA (USA) and ISRO (India). It uses Synthetic Aperture Radar (SAR) — a form of active radar imaging — to map the Earth's surface every 12 days. It will be used for monitoring ecosystem disturbances, ice sheet collapse, natural hazards like earthquakes and landslides, and ground deformation.
Sample return missions bring physical material from space (e.g., Chandrayan-3 moon soil) — not applicable here.
Optical imaging uses cameras in the visible spectrum — NISAR uses radar, not optical.
Spectroscopy analyzes the chemical composition of materials using light — not NISAR's function.

Geography (4)

India - Minerals, Energy and Industries · Metallic minerals and mines

Q43. With reference to Copper production in India, consider the following statements:
1. India has turned into a net importer of refined copper in recent times.
2. Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, and Jharkhand are the only states involved in the production of copper in the country.
3. During the copper smelting process, the sulfur dioxide and particulate matter are predominantly released into the atmosphere.
Which of the statements given above is/are CORRECT?

  1. (a) 1 only
  2. (b) 1 and 2 only
  3. (c) 2 and 3 only
  4. (d) 1 and 3 only
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 1 and 3 only

Correct Answer: 1 and 3 only (Option 4)
Statement 1 is CORRECT: India has indeed become a net importer of refined copper in recent years due to increasing demand from sectors like electrical, construction, and electronics exceeding domestic production.
Statement 2 is INCORRECT: While Rajasthan ( Khetri ), Madhya Pradesh ( Malanjkhand ), and Jharkhand ( Singhbhum ) are major copper-producing states, they are not the ONLY states involved in copper production. Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh also have copper deposits.
Statement 3 is CORRECT: During copper smelting, sulfur dioxide (SO₂) and particulate matter are the primary pollutants released into the atmosphere, causing environmental and health concerns.
India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Western and Eastern Ghats

Q44. Anai Mudi and Doda Betta, two of the highest peaks in the Western Ghats, are located in:

  1. (a) Himachal Pradesh
  2. (b) Tamil Nadu and Kerala
  3. (c) Sikkim and Assam
  4. (d) Odisha and Chhattisgarh
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Tamil Nadu and Kerala

Correct Answer: Tamil Nadu and Kerala (Option 2)
Anai Mudi (2,695 m) — the highest peak in the Western Ghats and South India — is located in Kerala ( Eravikulam National Park, Munnar).
Doda Betta (2,637 m) — the second highest peak in the Nilgiri Hills — is located in Tamil Nadu (near Ooty/Udhagamandalam).
The Western Ghats run through Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu — not Himachal Pradesh, Sikkim, Assam, Odisha, or Chhattisgarh.
India - Population and Census · Population density

Q45. As per Census 2011, what was the population density of India?

  1. (a) 421 persons per sq km
  2. (b) 394 persons per sq km
  3. (c) 382 persons per sq km
  4. (d) 365 persons per sq km
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 382 persons per sq km

Correct Answer: 382 persons per sq km (Option 3)
As per the Census of India 2011, the population density of India was 382 persons per square kilometre. This was an increase from 325 persons per sq km recorded in the 2001 Census. Bihar had the highest population density (1,106 per sq km) among states, and Arunachal Pradesh the lowest.
421, 394, and 365 persons per sq km are incorrect figures not corresponding to Census 2011.
India - Minerals, Energy and Industries · Coal, petroleum and natural gas fields

Q46. The oldest and most continuously productive coalfield in India, located in West Bengal, is:

  1. (a) Jharia Coalfield
  2. (b) Raniganj Coalfield
  3. (c) Bokaro Coalfield
  4. (d) Talcher Coalfield
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Raniganj Coalfield

Correct Answer: Raniganj Coalfield (Option 2)
The Raniganj Coalfield, located in West Bengal (Paschim Bardhaman district), is the oldest and most continuously productive coalfield in India. Coal mining here began in 1774 and has continued uninterrupted. It produces high-quality coking and non-coking coal.
Jharia Coalfield (Jharkhand) is the largest coalfield in India and holds the richest coking coal reserves, but it is located in Jharkhand — not West Bengal.
Bokaro Coalfield is in Jharkhand.
Talcher Coalfield is in Odisha.

Biology (1)

Heredity and Evolution · Chromosomes, genes and DNA

Q47. Which of the following is NOT a nitrogenous base in DNA?

  1. (a) Adenine
  2. (b) Uracil
  3. (c) Cytosine
  4. (d) Guanine
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Uracil

Correct Answer: Uracil (Option 2)
DNA contains four nitrogenous bases: Adenine (A), Thymine (T), Guanine (G), and Cytosine (C). Uracil (U) is found in RNA, where it replaces Thymine. Therefore, Uracil is NOT a nitrogenous base found in DNA.
Adenine, Cytosine, and Guanine are all nitrogenous bases present in both DNA and RNA.
Thymine is exclusive to DNA (replaced by Uracil in RNA).
Uracil is exclusive to RNA (not DNA).
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