Home › GK Questions Asked › SSC CPO Paper-1 2025 › 12 December 2025 Shift 1

SSC CPO Paper-1 2025 12 December 2025 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 49 GK / GS questions asked in SSC CPO Paper-1 2025 on 12 December 2025 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Economics, Static GK, Medieval History, Modern History, Current Affairs, Ancient History.

📚 49 questions🗓️ 12 December 2025⏰ Shift 1
हिंदी में पढ़ें📥 Full paper PDF
Subjects: Economics (9) · Static GK (22) · Medieval History (2) · Modern History (3) · Current Affairs (3) · Ancient History (2) · Geography (5) · Biology (2) · Polity (1)

Economics (9)

Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Human Development Index and UNDP

Q1. What does "expected years of schooling" measure?

  1. (a) The total number of years of schooling in a country.
  2. (b) The average number of years of schooling received by people ages 25 and older.
  3. (c) The number of years a child of school-entering age is expected to spend in school.
  4. (d) The projected past years of schooling.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) The number of years a child of school-entering age is expected to spend in school.

Correct Answer: The number of years a child of school-entering age is expected to spend in school (Option 3)
'Expected Years of Schooling' is one of the three key components of the Human Development Index (HDI), published by UNDP. It measures the number of years of schooling that a child of school-entering age (typically 5-6 years) can expect to receive throughout their lifetime, based on current age-specific enrollment rates.
Option 1 (total years in a country) is a national aggregate — not what this indicator measures.
Option 2 (average years for people 25+) describes 'Mean Years of Schooling', the other education component of the HDI.
Option 4 (projected past years) is not a recognized HDI measure.
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q2. To assist businesses in complying with legal requirements, governments are:

  1. (a) Developing rules that are unique compared to other countries.
  2. (b) Harmonizing their laws with international standards.
  3. (c) Completely doing away with regulations.
  4. (d) Disregarding the implementation of legal rules.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Harmonizing their laws with international standards.

Correct Answer: Harmonizing their laws with international standards (Option 2)
To assist businesses — especially those operating across borders — governments are increasingly harmonizing their domestic laws with international standards (such as those set by WTO, ISO, Basel norms, etc.). This reduces compliance burden, improves ease of doing business, and facilitates international trade and investment.
Developing unique rules (Option 1) would increase compliance burden, not reduce it.
Completely removing regulations (Option 3) would create legal chaos and risk consumer harm.
Disregarding legal implementation (Option 4) undermines the rule of law.
Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Microeconomics and macroeconomics

Q3. Which of the following is NOT within the scope of macroeconomics?

  1. (a) National income
  2. (b) Total investment
  3. (c) Wages of an establishment
  4. (d) Total consumption
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Wages of an establishment

Correct Answer: Wages of an establishment (Option 3)
Macroeconomics studies the economy as a whole, dealing with economy-wide aggregates. Its key variables include: national income, total investment, total consumption, aggregate demand, price level, unemployment rate, and economic growth.
Wages of an establishment (Option 3) refers to the wage level of a single firm — this is a microeconomic concept, dealing with individual units of the economy (firms, households).
National income, Total investment, and Total consumption are all macroeconomic aggregates.
Therefore, wages of an establishment falls outside the scope of macroeconomics.
Economics Miscellaneous · Economic terms and abbreviations

Q4. What does E in the PESTAL macroeconomic analysis stand for?

  1. (a) Economic
  2. (b) Electronic
  3. (c) Exchange
  4. (d) Equal
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Economic

Correct Answer: Economic (Option 1)
PESTAL (also written as PESTEL or PESTLE) is a macroeconomic/strategic framework used to analyze the external environment of a business or economy. Each letter stands for:
P – Political
E – Economic
S – Sociocultural
T – Technological
A – Environmental (also written as E in PESTLE)
L – Legal
Therefore, E in PESTAL stands for Economic — factors like GDP growth, inflation, interest rates, exchange rates, and employment levels.
Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Poverty alleviation and employment programmes (MGNREGA, etc.)

Q5. What does the MGNREGA stand for?

  1. (a) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Generation Act
  2. (b) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
  3. (c) Mahatma Gandhi National Regulated Employment Generation Act
  4. (d) Mahatma Gandhi National Regulated Employment Guarantee Act
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act

Correct Answer: Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act (Option 2)
MGNREGA stands for Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act. It was enacted in 2005 (came into force in 2006) and provides a legal guarantee of at least 100 days of unskilled wage employment per year to every rural household whose adult members volunteer to do unskilled manual work. The scheme was renamed from NREGA to MGNREGA in 2009.
The key word is 'Guarantee' — the Act legally guarantees employment, not merely 'generates' it.
'Regulated' is not part of the actual name.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q6. Which of the following Five-Year Plans marked a strategic transition in India's economic policy, shifting the primary focus from agriculture to the development of heavy industries and industrialization?

  1. (a) First Five-Year Plan
  2. (b) Second Five-Year Plan
  3. (c) Fourth Five-Year Plan
  4. (d) Fifth Five-Year Plan
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Second Five-Year Plan

Correct Answer: Second Five-Year Plan (Option 2)
The Second Five-Year Plan (1956–1961), based on the Mahalanobis Model, marked India's strategic shift from agriculture to heavy industry and rapid industrialization. It prioritized the development of basic and capital goods industries (iron and steel, heavy engineering, capital equipment). The Bhilai, Durgapur, and Rourkela steel plants were established during this plan.
The First Five-Year Plan (1951–56) focused primarily on agriculture, land reforms, and rehabilitation of refugees from partition.
The Fourth and Fifth Plans also had industrial components but were not the primary turning point toward heavy industrialization.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q7. Which of the following Five-Year Plans in India was notably criticized for its substantial dependence on foreign loans to finance the import of machinery and capital goods?

  1. (a) Second Five-Year Plan
  2. (b) Fourth Five-Year Plan
  3. (c) Sixth Five-Year Plan
  4. (d) Eighth Five-Year Plan
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Second Five-Year Plan

Correct Answer: Second Five-Year Plan (Option 1)
The Second Five-Year Plan (1956–1961) was strongly criticized for its heavy dependence on foreign loans and aid to finance the massive import of machinery and capital goods required for building the heavy industries it envisioned. India's foreign exchange reserves were severely depleted during this period, and the plan had to be scaled down. The reliance on Soviet and Western aid during this plan became a notable criticism.
While other plans also had foreign borrowings, the Second Plan's excessive foreign dependence relative to its ambitious industrialization targets made it particularly notable in this regard.
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · Economic groupings (BRICS, G20, ASEAN)

Q8. What was the core theme of India's BRICS Chairship in 2021?

  1. (a) Economic protectionism
  2. (b) BRICS continuity and consensus
  3. (c) Cultural heritage digitization
  4. (d) Military coordination
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) BRICS continuity and consensus

Correct Answer: BRICS continuity and consensus (Option 2)
India held the BRICS Chairship in 2021. The theme of India's BRICS Chairship was 'BRICS@15: Intra-BRICS Cooperation for Continuity, Consolidation and Consensus.' The theme emphasized continuity in BRICS cooperation, consolidation of existing programs, and building consensus among member nations (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa) on global issues.
Economic protectionism, cultural heritage digitization, and military coordination were not the core themes of India's 2021 BRICS Chairship.
Agriculture and Food Security · Crop insurance and farmer schemes

Q9. Under the Direct Benefit Transfer (DBT) system in fertilizers, which of the following statements accurately reflects the actual implementation mechanism?

  1. (a) States get direct benefit
  2. (b) Farmers pay post-usage
  3. (c) Real-time subsidy to farmer
  4. (d) Subsidy is paid to companies post-sale
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Subsidy is paid to companies post-sale

Correct Answer: Subsidy is paid to companies post-sale (Option 4)
Under the DBT system for fertilizers (launched in 2018), the subsidy is NOT transferred directly to farmers' bank accounts. Instead, the mechanism works as follows: Fertilizer companies sell fertilizers to farmers at subsidized (MRP-capped) prices. The point-of-sale machine at the retailer captures the farmer's Aadhaar/ePoS details. After the sale, the government directly reimburses the fertilizer company the subsidy amount.
So the subsidy goes to companies after the sale (post-sale) — farmers still buy at the subsidized MRP without receiving cash directly.
States do not get direct benefit (Option 1) — the system bypasses states.
Farmers do not pay post-usage (Option 2) — they pay at the point of purchase.
Real-time subsidy to farmers (Option 3) is incorrect — no cash is transferred to farmers.

Static GK (22)

Space, Defence and Technology · Launch vehicles and satellites

Q10. What is the benefit of the NavIC system?

  1. (a) Provides global internet services
  2. (b) Detects earthquakes before they occur
  3. (c) Offers regional navigation and positioning services
  4. (d) Enables high-resolution space photography
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Offers regional navigation and positioning services

Correct Answer: Offers regional navigation and positioning services (Option 3)
NavIC (Navigation with Indian Constellation), formerly known as IRNSS (Indian Regional Navigation Satellite System), is ISRO's own navigation system. It provides accurate position, navigation, and timing (PNT) services to users across India and up to 1,500 km beyond its borders. NavIC is used for land/sea/air navigation, precision agriculture, disaster management, and vehicle tracking.
It does NOT provide global internet services — that is the domain of satellite internet providers like Starlink.
It cannot detect earthquakes before they occur — that would require seismic sensors.
High-resolution space photography is the function of earth observation/remote sensing satellites, not navigation systems.
Sports · Asian Games and Commonwealth Games

Q11. Who won India's first-ever gold medal in the Commonwealth Games?

  1. (a) Milkha Singh
  2. (b) Rashid Anwar
  3. (c) Karnam Malleswari
  4. (d) Mirabai Chanu
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Milkha Singh

Correct Answer: Milkha Singh (Option 1)
Milkha Singh, the legendary Indian sprinter known as 'The Flying Sikh', won India's first-ever gold medal at the Commonwealth Games. He won gold in the 440 yards (approximately 400m) event at the 1958 British Empire and Commonwealth Games held in Cardiff, Wales. He set a new Commonwealth record in that race.
Rashid Anwar, Karnam Malleswari, and Mirabai Chanu are distinguished Indian athletes but did not win India's first Commonwealth Games gold medal.
Sports · Olympic Games

Q12. In which Olympic Games did Leander Paes win a bronze medal in tennis?

  1. (a) 1992 Barcelona
  2. (b) 1996 Atlanta
  3. (c) 2000 Sydney
  4. (d) 2004 Athens
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1996 Atlanta

Correct Answer: 1996 Atlanta (Option 2)
Leander Paes won India's first individual Olympic medal in 44 years when he won a bronze medal in Men's Singles tennis at the 1996 Atlanta Olympics. This was a historic achievement as India had not won an individual Olympic medal since 1952. He defeated Fernando Meligeni of Brazil in the bronze medal match.
1992 Barcelona — Paes participated but did not win a medal.
2000 Sydney and 2004 Athens — Paes competed in doubles but did not win an individual medal at these games.
Important Days and Themes · National days

Q13. The National Sports Day in India is celebrated on which date?

  1. (a) July 29
  2. (b) August 29
  3. (c) September 29
  4. (d) October 29
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) August 29

Correct Answer: August 29 (Option 2)
National Sports Day in India is celebrated on August 29 every year. This date marks the birth anniversary of Major Dhyan Chand (1905–1979), the legendary Indian hockey player known as the 'Wizard of Hockey'. He is considered one of the greatest hockey players of all time and led India to three Olympic gold medals (1928, 1932, 1936).
The Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award (now Dhyan Chand Khel Ratna Award), Arjuna Award, and Dronacharya Award are presented on this day.
July 29, September 29, and October 29 are not associated with National Sports Day.
Sports · Football and hockey

Q14. Where did the final of the 2016 Hockey Junior World Cup take place?

  1. (a) Lucknow
  2. (b) New Delhi
  3. (c) Mumbai
  4. (d) Chennai
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Lucknow

Correct Answer: Lucknow (Option 1)
The 2016 Hockey Junior World Cup was held at the Bharat Ratna Shri Atal Bihari Vajpayee International Hockey Stadium in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh, in December 2016. India defeated Belgium 2-1 in the final to win the Junior World Cup, with Harmanpreet Singh scoring both goals.
New Delhi, Mumbai, and Chennai did not host the 2016 Hockey Junior World Cup.
Sports · Other sports and tournaments (tennis, chess, badminton, etc.)

Q15. In which Indian city was the inaugural Pro Wrestling League season's final match contested?

  1. (a) New Delhi
  2. (b) Mumbai
  3. (c) Bengaluru
  4. (d) Jaipur
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) New Delhi

Correct Answer: New Delhi (Option 1)
The inaugural season of the Pro Wrestling League (PWL) was held in January 2016. The final match of the first season was contested in New Delhi. The PWL was launched to promote wrestling in India and featured top international wrestlers alongside Indian grapplers in team-based competition.
Mumbai, Bengaluru, and Jaipur were not the venues for the inaugural PWL final.
Monuments and Heritage · Forts and palaces

Q16. Who built the famous Red Fort in Delhi?

  1. (a) Babur
  2. (b) Akbar
  3. (c) Shah Jahan
  4. (d) Jahangir
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Shah Jahan

Correct Answer: Shah Jahan (Option 3)
The Red Fort (Lal Qila) in Delhi was built by Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan between 1638 and 1648, when he shifted his capital from Agra to Delhi (Shahjahanabad). The fort is named for its distinctive red sandstone walls and served as the main residence of the Mughal Emperors for nearly 200 years. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Babur was the founder of the Mughal Empire but is not associated with building the Red Fort.
Akbar built the Agra Fort (in red sandstone) and the Fatehpur Sikri complex.
Jahangir was Shah Jahan's father — the Red Fort was built during Shah Jahan's reign.
Monuments and Heritage · Temples and religious places

Q17. In which district of Uttarakhand is the Jageshwar temple complex located?

  1. (a) Tehri Garhwal
  2. (b) Almora
  3. (c) Chamoli
  4. (d) Rudraprayag
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Almora

Correct Answer: Almora (Option 2)
The Jageshwar temple complex is located in the Almora district of Uttarakhand, about 36 km from Almora town in the Jataganga Valley. It is a group of over 100 ancient Hindu temples (primarily dedicated to Lord Shiva) built between the 7th and 14th centuries in the Nagara style of architecture. It is also known as the 'Abode of Lord Shiva' and is an important pilgrimage site.
Tehri Garhwal, Chamoli, and Rudraprayag are other districts of Uttarakhand but do not contain the Jageshwar temple complex.
Awards and Honours · Nobel Prize and international awards

Q18. In which year did Anita Desai's novel, Clear Light of Day, make the Booker Prize shortlist?

  1. (a) 1979
  2. (b) 1980
  3. (c) 1981
  4. (d) 1984
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1980

Correct Answer: 1980 (Option 2)
Anita Desai's novel 'Clear Light of Day' was shortlisted for the Booker Prize in 1980. The novel is set in Old Delhi and explores the relationship between two sisters — Tara and Bimla — against the backdrop of the partition of India. It was one of Desai's most celebrated works.
Anita Desai was also shortlisted for the Booker Prize for 'Fire on the Mountain' (1978) and 'In Custody' (1984).
1979, 1981, and 1984 are not the year 'Clear Light of Day' was shortlisted.
Books and Authors · International books and authors

Q19. Which novel by Kazuo Ishiguro won the Booker Prize in 1989 and was later adapted into an Oscar-nominated film?

  1. (a) An Artist of the Floating World
  2. (b) The Remains of the Day
  3. (c) Never Let Me Go
  4. (d) A Pale View of Hills
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The Remains of the Day

Correct Answer: The Remains of the Day (Option 2)
Kazuo Ishiguro's 'The Remains of the Day' won the Booker Prize in 1989. The novel is about an English butler, Stevens, who reflects on his life and career during a road trip. It was adapted into a critically acclaimed film in 1993, starring Anthony Hopkins and Emma Thompson, which received eight Academy Award nominations (Oscar-nominated).
An Artist of the Floating World (1986) was shortlisted for the Booker but did not win.
Never Let Me Go (2005) was also shortlisted for the Booker but did not win — it was adapted into a film in 2010.
A Pale View of Hills (1982) was Ishiguro's debut novel.
Sports · Olympic Games

Q20. How many medals did India win at Tokyo 2020 Olympics?

  1. (a) 3
  2. (b) 7
  3. (c) 5
  4. (d) 9
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 7

Correct Answer: 7 (Option 2)
India won 7 medals at the Tokyo 2020 Olympics (held in 2021), which was the country's best-ever Olympic performance:
Gold: Neeraj Chopra (Javelin Throw)
Silver: Mirabai Chanu (Weightlifting, 49 kg)
Bronze: PV Sindhu (Badminton), Lovlina Borgohain (Boxing), Indian Men's Hockey Team, Ravi Dahiya (Wrestling), Bajrang Punia (Wrestling)
3, 5, and 9 medals are incorrect counts for India's Tokyo 2020 tally.
Sports · Number of players and field dimensions

Q21. What is the standard chessboard size in tournament play (in terms of rows and columns)?

  1. (a) 6x6
  2. (b) 8x8
  3. (c) 10x10
  4. (d) 12x12
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 8x8

Correct Answer: 8x8 (Option 2)
The standard chessboard used in all FIDE (International Chess Federation) tournament play consists of 8 rows (ranks) and 8 columns (files), giving 64 squares total (32 light and 32 dark squares). This 8x8 format has been the standard for chess since the game was formalized.
6x6 boards are sometimes used for educational variants like 'Chess Kids'.
10x10 is the standard for Draughts/Checkers — not chess.
12x12 boards are not standard for any major recognized chess format.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q22. Which harvest festival in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana is celebrated for four days with the Bhogi bonfire?

  1. (a) Vinayaka Chaturthi
  2. (b) Sankranti
  3. (c) Ugadi
  4. (d) Bathukamma
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Sankranti

Correct Answer: Sankranti (Option 2)
Makar Sankranti is a major four-day harvest festival in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. The four days are:
Day 1: Bhogi — celebrated with the Bhogi bonfire (old household items are burned to welcome new beginnings)
Day 2: Sankranti (Makar Sankranti) — main festival day with kite flying and prayers
Day 3: Kanuma — cattle worship
Day 4: Mukkanuma — continuation of cattle worship
Vinayaka Chaturthi is the festival of Lord Ganesha — not a harvest festival.
Ugadi is the Telugu/Kannada New Year — celebrated in March/April, not associated with the Bhogi bonfire.
Bathukamma is a floral festival of Telangana celebrated during Navratri — not the Bhogi bonfire festival.
Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q23. Where did Bharatanatyam originate?

  1. (a) Maharashtra
  2. (b) Tamil Nadu
  3. (c) Uttar Pradesh
  4. (d) Kerala
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Tamil Nadu

Correct Answer: Tamil Nadu (Option 2)
Bharatanatyam is one of India's oldest and most celebrated classical dance forms, originating in Tamil Nadu. It evolved from the Sadir (or Dasi Attam) performed by Devadasis (temple dancers) in the temples of Tamil Nadu, particularly in the Chola and later Nayaka periods. Rukmini Devi Arundale played a pivotal role in reviving and popularizing the form in the 20th century.
Maharashtra is associated with Lavani folk dance.
Uttar Pradesh is associated with Kathak classical dance.
Kerala is associated with Mohiniyattam and Kathakali classical dance forms.
Awards and Honours · Literary awards (Jnanpith, Sahitya Akademi)

Q24. Who is the first English language writer to become a Jnanpith laureate?

  1. (a) Amitav Ghosh
  2. (b) Raghuveer Chaudhari
  3. (c) Kedarnath Singh
  4. (d) Shankha Ghosh
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Amitav Ghosh

Correct Answer: Amitav Ghosh (Option 1)
Amitav Ghosh, one of India's most celebrated English language authors, became the first English language writer to receive the Jnanpith Award — India's highest literary honour — in 2018 (announced in 2018, presented in 2019). He is known for works like 'The Shadow Lines', 'The Sea of Poppies', 'The Hungry Tide', and 'The Calcutta Chromosome'.
Raghuveer Chaudhari (Gujarati), Kedarnath Singh (Hindi), and Shankha Ghosh (Bengali) are all Jnanpith laureates but wrote in Indian languages, not English.
Dances · Folk dances by state

Q25. Which dance is performed with bamboo staves in Mizoram?

  1. (a) Chang Lo
  2. (b) Maruni
  3. (c) Cheraw
  4. (d) Ghoomar
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Cheraw

Correct Answer: Cheraw (Option 3)
Cheraw, also known as the Bamboo Dance, is the most iconic folk dance of Mizoram. In this dance, performers hop, skip, and leap between horizontal and vertical bamboo staves held by other performers. The staves are rhythmically opened and closed, and the dancers must time their steps precisely to avoid being caught. Cheraw is performed during festivals and cultural events and is recognized as Mizoram's signature dance.
Chang Lo is a folk dance of the Chang Naga tribe of Nagaland — not Mizoram.
Maruni is a folk dance of Nepal and the Nepali-speaking communities of Sikkim.
Ghoomar is the folk dance of Rajasthan (and Haryana) — not Mizoram.
Music and Musical Instruments · Hindustani music (ragas, gharanas)

Q26. Which of these ragas is traditionally associated with the early morning and evokes a peaceful, meditative mood?

  1. (a) Raga Bageshree
  2. (b) Raga Hamsadhwani
  3. (c) Raga Bhairav
  4. (d) Raga Marwa
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Raga Bhairav

Correct Answer: Raga Bhairav (Option 3)
Raga Bhairav is a Hindustani classical raga traditionally associated with the early morning hours (Pratah Kaal — dawn/sunrise). It evokes a peaceful, meditative, devotional, and serene mood. It is one of the most ancient and fundamental ragas in Hindustani music and is often played at the start of concerts to set a contemplative atmosphere.
Raga Bageshree is associated with late night and evokes a romantic/longing mood.
Raga Hamsadhwani is a pleasant-sounding Carnatic raga often associated with evening.
Raga Marwa is associated with late afternoon/pre-sunset hours and creates a tense, restless mood.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q27. Read the statements about Bihu festivals in Assam and choose the correct option:
1.) Goru Bihu of Kati Bihu involves sky lamps to attract pests.
2.) Uruka before Magh Bihu features bonfires and feasting.
3.) Manuh Bihu includes gifting Gamucha and traditional dishes.

  1. (a) Only 2 and 3 are correct
  2. (b) Only 1 and 3 are correct
  3. (c) Only 2 is correct
  4. (d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 2 and 3 are correct

Correct Answer: Only 2 and 3 are correct (Option 1)
Statement 1 is INCORRECT: 'Goru Bihu of Kati Bihu' is a confused statement. Goru Bihu is the first day of Rongali/Bohag Bihu (spring), not Kati Bihu. In Kati Bihu (autumn), sky lamps (akashbanti) are lit in fields to attract and ward off pests — this is associated with Kati Bihu itself, not Goru Bihu.
Statement 2 is CORRECT: Uruka is the eve of Magh Bihu (Bhogali Bihu). It features community bonfires (meji) and communal feasting. Villages build temporary huts (Bhelaghar) and feast together through the night.
Statement 3 is CORRECT: Manuh Bihu (the second day of Rongali Bihu) involves people washing, dressing in new clothes, and gifting Gamucha (a traditional Assamese towel/cloth) and traditional sweets and dishes to elders and loved ones.
Therefore, only Statements 2 and 3 are correct.
Music and Musical Instruments · Hindustani music (ragas, gharanas)

Q28. Which term refers to a melodic framework in Indian classical music that consists of ascending (arohana) and descending (avarohana) notes?

  1. (a) Talam
  2. (b) Alap
  3. (c) Raga
  4. (d) Swara
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Raga

Correct Answer: Raga (Option 3)
A Raga (or Raag) is the melodic framework in Indian classical music. Each raga is defined by a specific set of notes and their ascending (arohana) and descending (avarohana) patterns, along with characteristic phrases (gamaka), ornaments, and emotional moods (rasa). There are hundreds of ragas in both Hindustani and Carnatic classical music systems.
Talam (or Taal) refers to the rhythmic framework or time cycle in Indian classical music — not melodic.
Alap is the slow, unmetered improvisation at the beginning of a classical performance that introduces the raga.
Swara refers to individual musical notes (Sa, Re, Ga, Ma, Pa, Dha, Ni) — the building blocks of a raga.
Organisations and Headquarters · Regional groupings (SAARC, ASEAN, BIMSTEC, SCO, G20)

Q29. Which of the following statements about South Asian Regional Standards Organization (SARSO) is/are correct?
1) SARSO began functioning in 1985 to regulate tariffs and pricing in SAARC.
2) SARSO aims to harmonize standards and conformity assessments to boost intra-SAARC trade and global access.

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) 1 and 2 Both are correct
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only 2

Correct Answer: Only 2 (Option 2)
Statement 1 is INCORRECT: SARSO was NOT established in 1985. SARSO (South Asian Regional Standards Organization) was established in 2008 under SAARC and became fully operational in 2010. Its mandate is NOT to regulate tariffs and pricing — that is the function of trade agreements. SARSO deals with technical standards.
Statement 2 is CORRECT: SARSO's primary objective is to harmonize technical standards and conformity assessment procedures among SAARC member nations to facilitate intra-SAARC trade, reduce technical barriers to trade, and improve access to global markets.
Therefore, only Statement 2 is correct.
Space, Defence and Technology · Indian space missions

Q30. Fill in the blank:
RAMBHA-LP onboard Chandrayaan-3 is designed to probe lunar _____.

  1. (a) Plasma
  2. (b) Gravity
  3. (c) Photons
  4. (d) Neutrons
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Plasma

Correct Answer: Plasma (Option 1)
RAMBHA-LP stands for Radio Anatomy of Moon Bound Hypersensitive ionosphere and Atmosphere – Langmuir Probe. It is one of the scientific instruments onboard the Vikram lander of Chandrayaan-3 (India's third lunar mission). RAMBHA-LP is designed to measure the density and temporal changes of near-surface lunar plasma environment.
Gravity measurement on the Moon would require gravimeters, not RAMBHA-LP.
Photons and Neutrons are measured by different scientific instruments — not RAMBHA-LP.
The Langmuir probe specifically is designed for plasma environment characterization.
Music and Musical Instruments · Musicians and singers

Q31. Who is a renowned Santoor player from India, often credited with popularizing the instrument worldwide?

  1. (a) Shivkumar Sharma
  2. (b) Zakir Hussain
  3. (c) Bhajan Sopori
  4. (d) Hariprasad Chaurasia
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Shivkumar Sharma

Correct Answer: Shivkumar Sharma (Option 1)
Pandit Shivkumar Sharma (1938–2022) is credited with transforming the Santoor — a traditional folk instrument of Kashmir — into a concert instrument for Hindustani classical music. He is widely regarded as the person who single-handedly elevated the Santoor to classical status and popularized it globally. He was awarded the Padma Vibhushan in 2001.
Zakir Hussain is a world-renowned tabla maestro — not a Santoor player.
Bhajan Sopori was another notable Santoor player (Sufiana style) but is not as globally credited with popularizing the instrument as Shivkumar Sharma.
Hariprasad Chaurasia is a celebrated flute (bansuri) maestro — not a Santoor player.

Medieval History (2)

Mughal Empire · Akbar - conquests and policies

Q32. In 1576, the Battle of Haldighati was fought between:

  1. (a) Akbar and Rana Kumbha
  2. (b) Babur and Rana Sanga
  3. (c) Akbar and Maharana Pratap
  4. (d) Humayun and Sher Shah
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Akbar and Maharana Pratap

Correct Answer: Akbar and Maharana Pratap (Option 3)
The Battle of Haldighati was fought in June 1576 between the Mughal forces of Emperor Akbar (commanded by Man Singh I of Amber) and the Rajput forces of Maharana Pratap Singh of Mewar. The battle was fought at the Haldighati pass in present-day Rajasthan. Though the Mughals won the battle, Maharana Pratap escaped and continued his resistance.
Rana Kumbha was a 15th-century Mewar ruler — he preceded Maharana Pratap by over a century.
Babur and Rana Sanga fought the First Battle of Khanwa in 1527 — not Haldighati.
Humayun and Sher Shah fought battles like Chausa (1539) and Kannauj (1540) — not Haldighati.
Delhi Sultanate · Sultanate administration and iqta system

Q33. Neither the Iqta system nor the Mansabdari system was prevalent under the:

  1. (a) Delhi Sultanate
  2. (b) Mughals
  3. (c) Vijayanagara Empire
  4. (d) Lodi Dynasty
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Vijayanagara Empire

Correct Answer: Vijayanagara Empire (Option 3)
The Iqta system was a land revenue and administrative system used by the Delhi Sultanate, where provinces were granted to military commanders in exchange for revenue collection and maintenance of troops.
The Mansabdari system was used by the Mughals — officials (mansabdars) were given ranks and paid either in cash or through jagirs.
Neither of these systems was used in the Vijayanagara Empire (1336–1646 CE). The Vijayanagara Empire had its own distinct administrative systems, including the Amara-Nayaka system (military fiefs given to Nayakas).
The Lodi Dynasty was part of the Delhi Sultanate and did use the Iqta system.
Therefore, Vijayanagara Empire is the correct answer.

Modern History (3)

British Administration and Policies · Constitutional Acts under British rule

Q34. The "Charter Act of 1833" made the Governor-General of Bengal the Governor-General of:

  1. (a) Madras
  2. (b) Bombay
  3. (c) India
  4. (d) Bengal Presidency
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) India

Correct Answer: India (Option 3)
The Charter Act of 1833 (also known as the Government of India Act 1833) was a landmark legislation that transformed the Governor-General of Bengal into the Governor-General of India, giving him supremacy over the Governors of Bombay and Madras Presidencies. Lord William Bentinck became the first Governor-General of India under this Act. This Act also ended the East India Company's trade monopoly and introduced the principle of open competition for civil services.
Madras and Bombay were Presidencies with their own Governors — they were not the entity the Governor-General was elevated to oversee as a title.
Bengal Presidency was the original title — the Act upgraded it to 'India'.
Advent of Europeans and British Expansion · Subsidiary Alliance and Doctrine of Lapse

Q35. The "Subsidiary Alliance" system, pioneered by Lord Wellesley, had a significant impact on the political map of India.
What was a primary consequence for the Indian states that entered into this alliance?

  1. (a) They gained greater military strength and autonomy in their external relations.
  2. (b) They were effectively brought under British political influence and control, losing their independent foreign policy and often their military capacity.
  3. (c) They experienced rapid economic growth due to British investment and administrative reforms.
  4. (d) They formed a strong unified front against the expansion of British power in India.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) They were effectively brought under British political influence and control, losing their independent foreign policy and often their military capacity.

Correct Answer: They were effectively brought under British political influence and control, losing their independent foreign policy and often their military capacity (Option 2)
Under the Subsidiary Alliance system (introduced by Lord Wellesley, 1798), Indian states that entered the alliance had to: (1) accept a British Resident at their court, (2) maintain a British subsidiary force paid by them, (3) not negotiate with other powers without British consent, and (4) cede territory if unable to pay for the British troops.
This effectively stripped Indian states of their external sovereignty and brought them under British control. Their foreign policy, defense, and finances were subordinated to British interests.
They did NOT gain military strength — their own armies were reduced.
They did NOT experience economic growth — tributary payments drained their resources.
They did NOT form a united front — the system was designed to prevent any such coalitions.
Gandhian Era · Simon Commission and Nehru Report

Q36. The "Simon Commission" of 1927 was intended to review the working of the Government of India Act of 1919.
Why was it met with widespread protests and boycotts by Indian nationalist leaders?

  1. (a) It recommended the immediate granting of complete independence to India, which was deemed insufficient by some.
  2. (b) It proposed the complete dismantling of the existing legislative councils.
  3. (c) It did not include any Indian members in its composition, leading to accusations of being an imposition on India's future without Indian representation.
  4. (d) It advocated for the strengthening of the system of separate electorates.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It did not include any Indian members in its composition, leading to accusations of being an imposition on India's future without Indian representation.

Correct Answer: It did not include any Indian members in its composition, leading to accusations of being an imposition on India's future without Indian representation (Option 3)
The Simon Commission (1927), headed by Sir John Simon, was an all-white, all-British commission appointed to review the Government of India Act of 1919. The Indian National Congress and other nationalist parties boycotted it because it did not include a single Indian member, which was seen as a grave insult — a foreign body deciding India's constitutional future without Indian participation.
Lala Lajpat Rai led protests against the Commission in Lahore, during which he was lathi-charged by police — an injury that contributed to his death.
Options 1, 2, and 4 are factually incorrect descriptions of what the Simon Commission proposed.

Current Affairs (3)

Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q37. In August 2024, who assumed office as India's Union Home Secretary?

  1. (a) Ajay Kumar Bhalla
  2. (b) Govind Mohan
  3. (c) Rajiv Gauba
  4. (d) Anil Baijal
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Govind Mohan

Correct Answer: Govind Mohan (Option 2)
Govind Mohan, a 1989-batch IAS officer from the Sikkim cadre, assumed office as India's Union Home Secretary in August 2024, succeeding Ajay Kumar Bhalla. Prior to this, he served as Secretary in the Ministry of Culture.
Ajay Kumar Bhalla was the outgoing Home Secretary — he was appointed as NSA Advisor after his tenure.
Rajiv Gauba served as Cabinet Secretary.
Anil Baijal served as Lieutenant Governor of Delhi.
Sports - Current · Olympics, Asian Games and Commonwealth Games - current

Q38. Who among the following secured India's first Paris 2024 Olympic quota in rowing?

  1. (a) Arjun Lal Jat
  2. (b) Arvind Singh
  3. (c) Balraj Panwar
  4. (d) Satish Joshi
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Balraj Panwar

Correct Answer: Balraj Panwar (Option 3)
Balraj Panwar, an Indian rower, secured India's first quota for the Paris 2024 Olympics in rowing by qualifying through the 2023 Asian Rowing Championships. He competed in the Men's Single Sculls event at the Paris 2024 Olympics. He is a former Indian Army officer and national rowing champion.
Arjun Lal Jat is also an Indian rower who competed in double sculls — but Balraj Panwar secured the first individual quota.
Arvind Singh and Satish Joshi are not associated with securing this specific Olympic rowing quota.
International Affairs and Summits · Bilateral agreements and visits

Q39. Which of the following statements about the India-Nepal WASH MoU is/are correct?
1) It includes real-time glacial runoff tracking and privatized sanitation benchmarks.
2) It covers groundwater management, capacity building, and technology sharing.

  1. (a) Only 1 is correct
  2. (b) Only 2 is correct
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2 are correct
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2 is correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Only 2 is correct

Correct Answer: Only 2 is correct (Option 2)
The India-Nepal WASH (Water, Sanitation and Hygiene) MoU focuses on cooperation in water and sanitation sectors.
Statement 1 is INCORRECT: Real-time glacial runoff tracking and privatized sanitation benchmarks are not components of the India-Nepal WASH MoU. The MoU does not include privatized sanitation benchmarks.
Statement 2 is CORRECT: The India-Nepal WASH MoU covers groundwater management, capacity building for water and sanitation infrastructure, and technology sharing between the two countries. These are the core pillars of the WASH cooperation framework.
Therefore, only Statement 2 is correct.

Ancient History (2)

Buddhism, Jainism and Other Sects · Jain teachings, councils and sects

Q40. The First Jain Council was convened at Pataliputra by whom?

  1. (a) Bhadrabahu
  2. (b) Sthulabahu
  3. (c) Moggallanna
  4. (d) Rahula
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Sthulabahu

Correct Answer: Sthulabahu (Option 2)
The First Jain Council (Sangayana) was held at Pataliputra (modern Patna) around 300 BCE, during the reign of Chandragupta Maurya. It was presided over by Sthulabahu (also written as Sthulibhadra). At this council, the 12 Angas (canonical texts) of Jainism were compiled. The council resulted in a split between Digambara and Shvetambara sects of Jainism.
Bhadrabahu was the Jain acharya who led a group of monks to South India (Karnataka) — he was a contemporary but did not preside over the first council at Pataliputra.
Moggallanna and Rahula are associated with Buddhism — not Jainism.
Post-Gupta Period · Pallavas

Q41. Vichitrachitta, Chitrakarapuli, and Chaityakari are the titles given to which of the following rulers?

  1. (a) Kirtivarman I
  2. (b) Narasimhavarman II
  3. (c) Mahendravarman I
  4. (d) Parantaka I
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Mahendravarman I

Correct Answer: Mahendravarman I (Option 3)
Mahendravarman I (600–630 CE) was a great Pallava king who was known for his multiple achievements in art, literature, music, and architecture. He assumed several distinctive titles reflecting his talents:
Vichitrachitta – 'One with a Curious/Wonderful Mind'
Chitrakarapuli – 'Tiger among Artists'
Chaityakari – 'Builder of Temples/Shrines'
He also authored the Sanskrit satirical play 'Mattavilasa Prahasana' and initiated the rock-cut cave temple tradition in South India.
Kirtivarman I and Narasimhavarman II are other Pallava rulers not associated with these specific epithets.
Parantaka I was a Chola ruler — not a Pallava.

Geography (5)

Atmosphere and Climate · El Nino, La Nina and IOD

Q42. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY defines Southern Oscillations?

  1. (a) Periodic changes in the pressure conditions in the Pacific Ocean and Indian Ocean.
  2. (b) The reversal of jet streams during the monsoon season in India.
  3. (c) The periodic reversal of winds in the Indian peninsula.
  4. (d) The periodic changes in the pressure conditions of various parts of India due to shift in ITCZ.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Periodic changes in the pressure conditions in the Pacific Ocean and Indian Ocean.

Correct Answer: Periodic changes in the pressure conditions in the Pacific Ocean and Indian Ocean (Option 1)
The Southern Oscillation refers to the periodic see-saw fluctuation in surface air pressure between the eastern tropical Pacific Ocean (near Tahiti) and the western Pacific/Indian Ocean (near Darwin, Australia). When pressure is high over the Pacific, it is low over the Indian Ocean, and vice versa. This was discovered by Sir Gilbert Walker.
Combined with the El Niño phenomenon (change in sea surface temperatures), the Southern Oscillation forms the ENSO (El Niño-Southern Oscillation) system, which significantly influences India's monsoon rainfall.
Jet stream reversals (Option 2) are a separate phenomenon related to monsoon onset in India.
Periodic wind reversal in the Indian peninsula (Option 3) describes the general monsoon wind reversal, not the Southern Oscillation.
ITCZ shift effects (Option 4) are a different meteorological concept.
Environment and Protected Areas · Environmental organisations and laws

Q43. Who launched the climate action campaign Mission LiFE in October 2022, emphasizing that everyone can contribute to fighting climate change?

  1. (a) Jairam Ramesh
  2. (b) Narendra Modi
  3. (c) Bhupender Yadav
  4. (d) Prakash Javadekar
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Narendra Modi

Correct Answer: Narendra Modi (Option 2)
Mission LiFE (Lifestyle For Environment) was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in October 2022 at Statue of Unity, Kevadia, Gujarat. The campaign was launched alongside UN Secretary-General Antonio Guterres. Mission LiFE promotes environment-friendly lifestyle choices and encourages individuals to adopt sustainable habits (like saving water, reducing waste, using renewable energy) to combat climate change.
Jairam Ramesh is a senior Congress politician and former Environment Minister — not in power in 2022.
Bhupender Yadav is India's Environment Minister but Mission LiFE was launched by PM Modi.
Prakash Javadekar is a former Environment Minister.
India - Drainage System · River origins and lengths

Q44. The Tapi River originates from which of the following ranges?

  1. (a) Aravalli
  2. (b) Vindhya
  3. (c) Satpura
  4. (d) Western Ghats
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Satpura

Correct Answer: Satpura (Option 3)
The Tapi (or Tapti) River originates from the Satpura Range in Betul district of Madhya Pradesh (near Multai). It is one of India's major westward-flowing rivers, flowing through Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, and Gujarat before draining into the Gulf of Khambhat (Arabian Sea). Along with the Narmada, the Tapi is one of only two major rivers in India that flow from east to west.
Aravalli Range is in Rajasthan — rivers originating here flow into the Arabian Sea or inland basins.
Vindhya Range is associated with north-central India — rivers like Chambal originate here.
Western Ghats is associated with rivers like Godavari, Krishna, and Kaveri that flow eastward (except for those that flow directly west into the Arabian Sea).
India - Population and Census · Census 2011 - population and growth

Q45. Which of the following states or UTs had the smallest population in 2011?

  1. (a) Sikkim
  2. (b) Lakshadweep
  3. (c) Mizoram
  4. (d) Arunachal Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Lakshadweep

Correct Answer: Lakshadweep (Option 2)
As per Census 2011, Lakshadweep had the smallest population among all states and Union Territories of India, with only 64,473 people. It is a group of small coral islands in the Arabian Sea.
Population comparison (Census 2011):
Lakshadweep: 64,473 (smallest)
Sikkim: 6,10,577
Mizoram: 10,97,206
Arunachal Pradesh: 13,83,727
All other options have significantly larger populations than Lakshadweep.
India - Agriculture · Cropping seasons (kharif, rabi, zaid)

Q46. Which of the following crops is characteristically associated with the post-monsoon Rabi agricultural cycle in India?

  1. (a) Jowar
  2. (b) Rice
  3. (c) Gram
  4. (d) Maize
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Gram

Correct Answer: Gram (Option 3)
Gram (chickpea/chana) is a Rabi crop, sown after the monsoon (October-November) and harvested in spring (March-April). It is one of the most important Rabi pulse crops of India, grown in Madhya Pradesh, Rajasthan, Maharashtra, and Uttar Pradesh.
Jowar (sorghum) is primarily a Kharif crop — sown in monsoon season (June-July) and harvested in October.
Rice is primarily a Kharif crop, requiring heavy rainfall during the monsoon.
Maize is also mainly a Kharif crop in India, though some varieties are grown as Rabi in limited areas.
Therefore, Gram is the most characteristic Rabi crop among the given options.

Biology (2)

Nutrition and Digestion · Nutrients - carbohydrates, proteins, fats

Q47. Which amino acid is considered essential in human diet?

  1. (a) Alanine
  2. (b) Glycine
  3. (c) Lysine
  4. (d) Serine
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Lysine

Correct Answer: Lysine (Option 3)
Essential amino acids are those that the human body cannot synthesize on its own and must be obtained from food. There are 9 essential amino acids: Histidine, Isoleucine, Leucine, Lysine, Methionine, Phenylalanine, Threonine, Tryptophan, and Valine.
Lysine is one of the 9 essential amino acids. It is important for protein synthesis, calcium absorption, and production of hormones and enzymes.
Alanine is a non-essential amino acid — the body can synthesize it.
Glycine is a non-essential amino acid — the body can synthesize it.
Serine is a conditionally essential amino acid — generally classified as non-essential.
Diseases, Immunity and Health · Health organisations and programmes

Q48. The Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram (RBSK) aims to screen and manage children up to what age?

  1. (a) 5 years
  2. (b) 10 years
  3. (c) 18 years
  4. (d) 21 years
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 18 years

Correct Answer: 18 years (Option 3)
The Rashtriya Bal Swasthya Karyakram (RBSK), launched in 2013 under the National Health Mission (NHM), aims to provide comprehensive health screening and early intervention for children from birth to 18 years of age. The programme screens children for 4 D's: Defects at birth, Deficiencies, Diseases, and Developmental delays including disabilities.
5 years — This is the age group covered by some other child health programmes but not the upper limit for RBSK.
10 years — Incorrect upper age limit.
21 years — Incorrect; RBSK covers up to 18 years.
RBSK covers children from 0–6 years (through ASHA/AWW home visits) and 6–18 years (through school-age screening teams).

Polity (1)

DPSP and Fundamental Duties · Important DPSP articles (39A, 40, 44, 45, 48A, 50, 51)

Q49. Which part of the Indian Constitution includes the Directive Principle regarding a Uniform Civil Code?

  1. (a) Part III (Fundamental Rights)
  2. (b) Part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy)
  3. (c) Part V (The Union)
  4. (d) Part VI (The States)
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy)

Correct Answer: Part IV (Directive Principles of State Policy) (Option 2)
Article 44 of the Indian Constitution, which deals with the Uniform Civil Code (UCC), is contained in Part IV — the Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP). Article 44 states: 'The State shall endeavour to secure for the citizens a uniform civil code throughout the territory of India.'
Directive Principles are non-justiciable (cannot be enforced by courts) but are fundamental in governance.
Part III contains Fundamental Rights (Articles 12-35) — enforceable rights.
Part V deals with the Union (Parliament, Executive, Judiciary).
Part VI deals with the States.
← 11 December 2025 Shift 2All shifts12 December 2025 Shift 2 →
📥 PDF of this paper (all subjects, English & Hindi): SSC CPO Paper-1 previous year papers PDF · ▶ Attempt previous year papers as free online tests · 🏆 Free live mock tests · 📰 Daily current affairs quiz