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Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 19 December 2025 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 49 GK / GS questions asked in Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 on 19 December 2025 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Polity, Economics, Modern History, Static GK, Ancient History, Medieval History.

📚 49 questions🗓️ 19 December 2025⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Polity (9) · Economics (13) · Modern History (1) · Static GK (14) · Ancient History (1) · Medieval History (1) · Geography (2) · Chemistry (1) · Current Affairs (6) · Physics (1)

Polity (9)

Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q1. Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam, which type of evidence is now considered at par with primary evidence?

  1. (a) Digital evidence
  2. (b) Oral testimony
  3. (c) Hearsay evidence
  4. (d) Circumstantial evidence
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Digital evidence

The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023, which replaced the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, introduced a major reform: electronic/digital evidence is now treated at par with primary (documentary) evidence. Section 57 and related provisions of BSA explicitly recognise electronic records (emails, digital documents, digital images, etc.) as admissible primary evidence, removing the cumbersome secondary evidence requirements under the old Act.
Option 2 is incorrect: Oral testimony refers to spoken statements given by witnesses in court; it is not a new category under BSA — it was always a primary mode of evidence.
Option 3 is incorrect: Hearsay evidence refers to statements made outside court reported by another witness; it was not elevated to primary evidence status under BSA.
Option 4 is incorrect: Circumstantial evidence refers to indirect proof of facts; its status under BSA is not equivalent to primary documentary evidence.
Parliament · Budget in Parliament

Q2. Which body is responsible for approving India's Union Budget before it can be implemented?

  1. (a) Lok Sabha
  2. (b) Rajya Sabha
  3. (c) Finance Ministry
  4. (d) NITI Aayog
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Lok Sabha

The Lok Sabha (House of the People) is responsible for approving the Union Budget. Under Article 109 and Article 110 of the Constitution, a Money Bill (which includes the Union Budget / Appropriation Bill and Finance Bill) can only be introduced in the Lok Sabha. The Rajya Sabha has no power to amend or reject a Money Bill — it can only make recommendations, which the Lok Sabha may accept or reject. The budget becomes law only after Lok Sabha passes it.
Option 2 is incorrect: The Rajya Sabha cannot approve or reject the Union Budget. It only has an advisory role on Money Bills, with its recommendations not binding on Lok Sabha.
Option 3 is incorrect: The Finance Ministry prepares and presents the Union Budget, but it does not have the constitutional authority to approve it — that power lies with Parliament (specifically Lok Sabha).
Option 4 is incorrect: NITI Aayog is a policy advisory body with no constitutional role in the budget approval process.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q3. What is the maximum punishment for mob lynching resulting in death under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (BNS)?

  1. (a) Death penalty or life imprisonment
  2. (b) 10 years imprisonment
  3. (c) Life imprisonment only
  4. (d) 14 years imprisonment
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Death penalty or life imprisonment

Under Section 103(2) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, if murder is committed by a group of five or more persons on grounds of race, caste or community, sex, place of birth, language, personal belief or any other such grounds, every member of the group who committed such murder shall be punishable with death or with imprisonment for life, and shall also be liable to fine. This is the specific mob lynching provision introduced in the new criminal law.
Option 2 is incorrect: 10 years imprisonment is far short of the maximum punishment prescribed for mob lynching resulting in death under BNS 2023, which is death or life imprisonment.
Option 3 is incorrect: Section 103(2) BNS prescribes both death penalty AND life imprisonment as alternatives (not life imprisonment only); either may be awarded by the court.
Option 4 is incorrect: 14 years imprisonment is not the maximum punishment for mob lynching resulting in death; the maximum under BNS 2023 is the death penalty or life imprisonment.
Constitutional Development and Making · Borrowed features - sources of the Constitution

Q4. From which country was the provision of Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) borrowed?

  1. (a) Australia
  2. (b) United Kingdom
  3. (c) Canada
  4. (d) United States
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) United Kingdom

The provision for the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India was borrowed from the United Kingdom (British system). Under the British system, the Comptroller and Auditor General audits government accounts and reports to Parliament. Similarly, in India, the CAG (Article 148 of the Constitution) is an independent constitutional authority who audits the accounts of the Union and State governments and submits reports to Parliament/State Legislature. The CAG is not subject to the executive's control.
Option 1 is incorrect: Australia's Auditor-General is modelled after the British system but the direct source for India's CAG provision is the UK.
Option 3 is incorrect: Canada has an Auditor General's office also derived from the British Westminster system; however, India specifically borrowed this provision from the UK model.
Option 4 is incorrect: The United States has a Comptroller General heading the GAO (Government Accountability Office), but India's CAG was modelled after the British, not American, system.
Union Executive · President - election and qualifications

Q5. Which authority decides on doubts and disputes relating to the election of the President?

  1. (a) Supreme Court of India
  2. (b) Parliament
  3. (c) Election Commission of India
  4. (d) Speaker of Lok Sabha
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Supreme Court of India

Under Article 71 of the Indian Constitution, all doubts and disputes arising from or in connection with the election of the President shall be inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court of India, whose decision shall be final. If the election of the President is declared void by the Supreme Court, acts done by the President before the date of that declaration shall not be invalidated.
Option 2 is incorrect: Parliament does not adjudicate on disputes about the Presidential election; that is a judicial function assigned to the Supreme Court under Article 71.
Option 3 is incorrect: The Election Commission of India conducts the Presidential election but does not decide legal disputes about it; that jurisdiction belongs to the Supreme Court.
Option 4 is incorrect: The Speaker of Lok Sabha presides over the Lower House and decides disqualification questions under the Tenth Schedule; the Speaker has no role in adjudicating Presidential election disputes.
DPSP and Fundamental Duties · Swaran Singh Committee and 42nd/86th amendments

Q6. Which fundamental duty was added by the 86th Amendment, 2002?

  1. (a) To respect the Constitution and National Flag
  2. (b) To promote harmony among citizens
  3. (c) To provide opportunities for education to children
  4. (d) To protect public property
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) To provide opportunities for education to children

The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 added a new Fundamental Duty under Article 51A(k): 'who is a parent or guardian to provide opportunities for education to his child or, as the case may be, ward between the age of six and fourteen years.' This amendment also inserted Article 21A (Right to Education as a Fundamental Right) and amended Article 45 (to provide for early childhood care for children below 6 years).
Option 1 is incorrect: The duty to respect the Constitution and the National Flag was part of the original Fundamental Duties inserted by the 42nd Amendment (1976) under Article 51A(a).
Option 2 is incorrect: The duty to promote harmony and the spirit of brotherhood was also part of the original 42nd Amendment duties under Article 51A(e).
Option 4 is incorrect: The duty to protect public property and abjure violence was also part of the original 42nd Amendment duties under Article 51A( i ).
Fundamental Rights · Articles 33-35 and suspension of Fundamental Rights

Q7. Which fundamental right cannot be suspended even during an emergency?

  1. (a) Article 21
  2. (b) Article 32
  3. (c) Article 19
  4. (d) Article 14
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 21

Article 21 (Right to Life and Personal Liberty) cannot be suspended even during a National Emergency. Under Article 359, the President can issue an order suspending the right to approach courts for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights during an Emergency, except for Articles 20 and 21. Article 20 (Protection against arbitrary conviction) and Article 21 are the only two Fundamental Rights that remain in force even during a national emergency.
Option 2 is incorrect: Article 32 (Right to Constitutional Remedies — right to approach the Supreme Court) CAN be suspended during an Emergency under Article 359.
Option 3 is incorrect: Article 19 (Six Freedoms — speech, assembly, association, movement, residence, profession) can be suspended during an Emergency under Articles 358 and 359.
Option 4 is incorrect: Article 14 (Right to Equality before law) can be suspended during an Emergency under an Article 359 Presidential order.
State Government · Governor - appointment and powers

Q8. Choose the statement which is WRONG about the Governor.

  1. (a) Governor can reserve a Bill for President even if it is not a money bill
  2. (b) Governor acts as an agent of Centre in certain functions
  3. (c) Governor can reserve a Bill against advice of Council of Ministers
  4. (d) Governor can promulgate ordinances when State Legislature is in session
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Governor can promulgate ordinances when State Legislature is in session

The WRONG statement is: 'Governor can promulgate ordinances when State Legislature is in session.' Under Article 213 of the Constitution, the Governor can promulgate ordinances ONLY when the State Legislature (or at least one House thereof) is NOT in session. If the Legislature is in session, the Governor cannot issue an ordinance — the government must introduce a Bill.
Option 1 is correct (not the wrong statement): Under Article 200, the Governor can reserve a Bill for the consideration of the President. This applies to any Bill, not just money bills (e.g., if a Bill affects High Court powers under Article 201).
Option 2 is correct (not the wrong statement): The Governor does act as an agent of the Centre in certain matters — for example, the Centre can entrust executive functions to the Governor under Article 258A.
Option 3 is correct (not the wrong statement): Under Article 200, the Governor can withhold assent or reserve a Bill even against the advice of the Council of Ministers, particularly when the Bill is reserved for Presidential consideration.
Union Executive · President - election and qualifications

Q9. Which of the following decides the disputes relating to the election of the President?

  1. (a) Parliament
  2. (b) High Court
  3. (c) Supreme Court
  4. (d) Election Commission
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Supreme Court

The Supreme Court of India decides disputes relating to the election of the President under Article 71 of the Constitution. Article 71(1) states that all doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of the President or Vice-President shall be inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court. The Supreme Court's decision is final and conclusive.
Option 1 is incorrect: Parliament is the legislative body; it does not adjudicate electoral disputes. Disputes about the Presidential election are decided judicially by the Supreme Court.
Option 2 is incorrect: A High Court has no jurisdiction over Presidential election disputes. Article 71 specifically vests this jurisdiction in the Supreme Court.
Option 4 is incorrect: The Election Commission of India conducts the Presidential election but has no authority to decide legal disputes arising from the election — that is the exclusive domain of the Supreme Court.

Economics (13)

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Skill development and employment schemes

Q10. Which of the following statements correctly describes the objective of the Aatmanirbhar Bharat Rozgar Yojana?

  1. (a) It aims to support the agriculture sector through direct income support to farmers.
  2. (b) It provides financial assistance for developing urban infrastructure projects.
  3. (c) It incentivizes employers to create formal employment opportunities by offering EPF benefits.
  4. (d) It offers subsidies to women entrepreneurs starting new businesses.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It incentivizes employers to create formal employment opportunities by offering EPF benefits.

Aatmanirbhar Bharat Rozgar Yojana (ABRY), launched in October 2020 under the Aatmanirbhar Bharat package, incentivises employers to create new formal sector employment. Under ABRY, the central government pays both the employee's and employer's share of EPF (Employees' Provident Fund) contributions for eligible new employees (up to 15,000 salary) for 2 years. This reduces the financial burden on employers and encourages them to hire new workers formally.
Option 1 is incorrect: ABRY has nothing to do with supporting the agriculture sector; it is a formal employment creation scheme administered through EPFO.
Option 2 is incorrect: ABRY does not provide financial assistance for urban infrastructure projects; it specifically targets employment generation through EPF subsidy.
Option 4 is incorrect: ABRY does not offer subsidies specifically to women entrepreneurs starting new businesses; its benefit goes to any employer hiring new formal employees.
Money and Banking · RBI - history and functions

Q11. Which organisation is responsible for formulating India's monetary policy?

  1. (a) Ministry of Finance
  2. (b) RBI
  3. (c) NITI Aayog
  4. (d) SEBI
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) RBI

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is responsible for formulating and implementing India's monetary policy. The Monetary Policy Committee (MPC), constituted under the RBI Act, 1934 (amended 2016), sets the benchmark repo rate and other monetary policy instruments to achieve price stability (inflation target of 4% with a band of ±2%) while supporting economic growth. The RBI Governor chairs the MPC.
Option 1 is incorrect: The Ministry of Finance formulates fiscal policy (taxation, government spending, borrowing) — not monetary policy. The two are distinct.
Option 3 is incorrect: NITI Aayog is a policy think tank and advisory body; it does not set monetary policy or control money supply.
Option 4 is incorrect: SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) is the capital markets regulator; it does not formulate monetary policy.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Social welfare schemes

Q12. What is the primary objective of the INSPIRE MANAK Scheme?

  1. (a) To promote agricultural research
  2. (b) To encourage school students to develop innovative ideas
  3. (c) To provide scholarships for higher education
  4. (d) To support industrial innovation
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To encourage school students to develop innovative ideas

INSPIRE MANAK (Million Minds Augmenting National Aspirations and Knowledge) is a national-level scheme under the DST (Department of Science and Technology) that aims to encourage school students (Classes 6 to 10) to develop creative and innovative ideas rooted in science and social applications. Students present ideas, which are evaluated at district, state, and national levels, with top ideas receiving mentorship and an opportunity to exhibit at national science congresses.
Option 1 is incorrect: INSPIRE MANAK has no component relating to agricultural research; it is a student innovation programme under DST, not the Agriculture Ministry.
Option 3 is incorrect: INSPIRE MANAK does not provide scholarships for higher education; the broader INSPIRE programme has a scholarship component (INSPIRE Scholarship for Higher Education) but MANAK is specifically about nurturing innovative ideas at the school level.
Option 4 is incorrect: INSPIRE MANAK does not support industrial innovation; it focuses on school-level students, not industry.
Agriculture and Food Security · Green Revolution and other agricultural revolutions

Q13. Why was the Operation Flood program launched in 1970 by the Indian Government?

  1. (a) Increase milk production
  2. (b) Promote irrigation infrastructure
  3. (c) Improve rural employment
  4. (d) Expand agricultural exports
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Increase milk production

Operation Flood (1970–1996), launched by the National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) under Dr. Verghese Kurien (the 'Father of the White Revolution'), was launched to increase milk production, augment rural incomes, and provide affordable dairy products to consumers across India. It created a national milk grid linking millions of rural dairy farmers to urban consumers. Operation Flood made India the world's largest producer of milk and is called the 'White Revolution.'
Option 2 is incorrect: Operation Flood was a dairy development programme , not an irrigation infrastructure scheme. Irrigation projects come under the Ministry of Jal Shakti/Agriculture.
Option 3 is incorrect: While Operation Flood did improve rural incomes (as a side benefit for dairy farmers), its primary objective was milk production — not a general rural employment programme .
Option 4 is incorrect: Operation Flood was aimed at domestic milk production for Indian consumers, not agricultural export expansion.
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · Foreign trade policy and EXIM

Q14. What is the primary objective of Special Economic Zones (SEZs)?

  1. (a) To promote agricultural development
  2. (b) To attract foreign investment and boost exports
  3. (c) To regulate the stock market
  4. (d) To manage public sector enterprises
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To attract foreign investment and boost exports

Special Economic Zones (SEZs), established under the SEZ Act, 2005, are designated geographic areas with special economic regulations to attract foreign direct investment (FDI) and boost exports. SEZ units enjoy tax holidays, duty-free imports of capital goods and raw materials, simplified customs procedures, and relaxed labour laws. The primary goals are to promote exports, generate foreign exchange earnings, create employment, and attract domestic and foreign investment.
Option 1 is incorrect: Promoting agricultural development is not the primary objective of SEZs; SEZs focus on manufacturing, services, and export-oriented industries.
Option 3 is incorrect: Regulating the stock market is the function of SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India), not SEZs.
Option 4 is incorrect: Managing public sector enterprises is done by the administrative ministries and DIPAM (Department of Investment and Public Asset Management); SEZs are for export promotion.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Global indices - publishers and methodology

Q15. The Global Competitiveness Report is published by:

  1. (a) World Economic Forum
  2. (b) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development (UNCTAD)
  3. (c) International Monetary Fund (IMF)
  4. (d) World Bank Group (WBG)
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) World Economic Forum

The Global Competitiveness Report is published annually by the World Economic Forum (WEF), headquartered in Cologny , Switzerland. It ranks countries on their national competitiveness based on the Global Competitiveness Index (GCI), which assesses institutions, infrastructure, ICT adoption, macroeconomic stability, health, skills, product market, labour market, financial system, market size, business dynamism, and innovation capability.
Option 2 is incorrect: UNCTAD publishes the World Investment Report (on FDI) and the Trade and Development Report; it does not publish the Global Competitiveness Report.
Option 3 is incorrect: The IMF publishes the World Economic Outlook (WEO) and Global Financial Stability Report; it does not publish the Global Competitiveness Report.
Option 4 is incorrect: The World Bank publishes the World Development Report, Ease of Doing Business Report (now discontinued), and Human Capital Index; it does not publish the Global Competitiveness Report.
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · Economic groupings (BRICS, G20, ASEAN)

Q16. Which four countries became full BRICS members in 2024?

  1. (a) Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, UAE
  2. (b) Indonesia, Nigeria, Uganda, Bolivia
  3. (c) Saudi Arabia, Turkey, Mexico, Argentina
  4. (d) Belarus, Malaysia, Thailand, Cuba
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, UAE

At the BRICS Summit in Johannesburg (August 2023), six countries were invited to join as full members from January 1, 2024: Argentina, Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, Saudi Arabia, and UAE. However, Argentina declined under its new President Javier Milei. Thus, four countries — Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, and UAE — became full BRICS members in 2024, expanding BRICS from 5 to 9 members (Brazil, Russia, India, China, South Africa + Egypt, Ethiopia, Iran, UAE).
Option 2 is incorrect: Indonesia, Nigeria, Uganda, and Bolivia were not among the countries that joined BRICS as full members in 2024; Uganda and others became BRICS partner countries in 2024.
Option 3 is incorrect: Saudi Arabia's membership was invited but not formalised in 2024; Turkey, Mexico, and Argentina did not join BRICS as full members.
Option 4 is incorrect: Belarus, Malaysia, Thailand, and Cuba were among the 13 countries that became BRICS partner countries in 2024 (Kazan Summit, October 2024), not full members.
Agriculture and Food Security · Green Revolution and other agricultural revolutions

Q17. The Green Revolution mainly benefited:

  1. (a) Industrial towns
  2. (b) Wheat-growing regions of Punjab, Haryana, and Western UP
  3. (c) Coastal regions
  4. (d) Rice-growing regions in Kerala
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Wheat-growing regions of Punjab, Haryana, and Western UP

The Green Revolution in India (1960s–1970s), led by M.S. Swaminathan in collaboration with Norman Borlaug, primarily benefited the wheat-growing regions of Punjab, Haryana, and Western Uttar Pradesh. High-yielding variety (HYV) wheat seeds, irrigation infrastructure, fertilizers, and pesticides dramatically increased wheat production in these regions. Punjab became India's 'granary' as a result. The rice revolution followed later, and was less geographically concentrated.
Option 1 is incorrect: The Green Revolution was a rural agricultural phenomenon; industrial towns do not grow wheat or rice and were not the primary beneficiaries.
Option 3 is incorrect: Coastal regions typically grow rice and fish; they did not primarily benefit from the Green Revolution's wheat revolution.
Option 4 is incorrect: Kerala's agricultural economy is dominated by spices, rubber, coconut, and fish; it was not a major beneficiary of the HYV wheat Green Revolution.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Housing, sanitation and rural development schemes

Q18. Which government ministry is responsible for implementing the Smart Cities Mission in India?

  1. (a) Ministry of Environment
  2. (b) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs
  3. (c) Ministry of Finance
  4. (d) Ministry of Home Affairs
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs

The Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs ( MoHUA ) is responsible for implementing the Smart Cities Mission, launched on June 25, 2015 by Prime Minister Narendra Modi. The mission aimed to develop 100 cities across India with smart infrastructure, digital connectivity, sustainable environment, and improved quality of life. Each Smart City was to have an Area-Based Development (ABD) and a Pan-City initiative.
Option 1 is incorrect: The Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change handles environmental policy and pollution control; it is not the nodal ministry for the Smart Cities Mission.
Option 3 is incorrect: The Ministry of Finance handles government finances, budgeting, and taxation; it does not implement urban development schemes like Smart Cities Mission.
Option 4 is incorrect: The Ministry of Home Affairs handles internal security, border management, and centre -state relations; it does not implement urban infrastructure schemes.
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q19. What was the emphasis of fiscal reform under the 1991 program?

  1. (a) Nationalizing industries to increase revenue
  2. (b) Increasing government expenditure to stimulate demand
  3. (c) Reducing foreign investment dependence
  4. (d) Reducing subsidies, rationalizing expenditure, and improving tax efficiency
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Reducing subsidies, rationalizing expenditure, and improving tax efficiency

The fiscal reform component of India's 1991 economic liberalization program (implemented under PM Narasimha Rao and Finance Minister Manmohan Singh) focused on: (1) Reducing subsidies (especially fertilizer and food subsidies); (2) Rationalizing government expenditure by cutting non-plan expenditure; and (3) Improving tax efficiency by broadening the tax base, simplifying tax structures, and reducing rates while improving compliance. This was done to reduce the fiscal deficit, which had become unsustainable.
Option 1 is incorrect: The 1991 reforms moved in the OPPOSITE direction — they promoted privatization and disinvestment of public sector units, not nationalization.
Option 2 is incorrect: The 1991 fiscal reform was about REDUCING government expenditure (to cut the deficit), not increasing it to stimulate demand — that is Keynesian fiscal stimulus, the opposite of 1991 policy.
Option 3 is incorrect: The 1991 reforms actually encouraged MORE foreign investment (FDI liberalization, opening sectors to MNCs) — not reducing foreign investment dependence.
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Revenue and capital receipts and expenditure

Q20. Which of the following is NOT included in the government's revenue expenditure?

  1. (a) Capital infusion in public sector banks
  2. (b) Grants given to state governments
  3. (c) Subsidies on fertilizers
  4. (d) Interest payments on public debt
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Capital infusion in public sector banks

Capital infusion in public sector banks (PSBs) is NOT a revenue expenditure — it is a CAPITAL expenditure. When the government injects capital into PSBs (e.g., bank recapitalization), it acquires equity shares/assets in return, which increases the government's asset holdings. This meets the definition of capital expenditure (creates or acquires assets). Revenue expenditure, by contrast, includes all day-to-day operational expenses that do not create assets.
Option 2 is incorrect (it IS revenue expenditure): Grants given to state governments are revenue expenditure when used for current purposes; they are classified as transfer payments under revenue expenditure.
Option 3 is incorrect (it IS revenue expenditure): Subsidies on fertilizers are recurring, non-asset-creating payments — they are squarely classified as revenue expenditure.
Option 4 is incorrect (it IS revenue expenditure): Interest payments on public debt are recurring, non-asset-creating payments — they are a major component of the government's revenue expenditure.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Housing, sanitation and rural development schemes

Q21. Mission Amrit Sarovar was launched in which month and year?

  1. (a) January 2021
  2. (b) April 2022
  3. (c) July 2023
  4. (d) March 2024
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) April 2022

Mission Amrit Sarovar was launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on April 24, 2022, on National Panchayati Raj Day, as part of India's Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav (75th anniversary of Independence). The mission aimed to develop and rejuvenate at least 75 water bodies (ponds/lakes) in each district of India, targeting 50,000+ Amrit Sarovars across the country. Each Amrit Sarovar was required to have a water-holding capacity of at least 10,000 cubic metres and a minimum one-acre pondage area.
Option 1 is incorrect: January 2021 is when the COVID-19 vaccination drive started in India; Mission Amrit Sarovar was launched in April 2022.
Option 3 is incorrect: July 2023 was not the launch date; the mission was launched in April 2022, and by July 2023 it had largely achieved its target.
Option 4 is incorrect: March 2024 was not the launch date; Mission Amrit Sarovar was launched in April 2022.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Social welfare schemes

Q22. Sakhi Niwas under Mission Shakti aims to provide:

  1. (a) Child adoption services
  2. (b) Safe accommodation for working women
  3. (c) Counselling services for adolescents
  4. (d) Free legal aid for all women
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Safe accommodation for working women

Sakhi Niwas is a sub-scheme under Mission Shakti (Samarthya component), launched by the Ministry of Women and Child Development, which aims to provide safe and affordable hostel accommodation for working women in urban, semi-urban, and rural areas. It supports women who migrate to cities for employment, studies, or vocational training by providing them secure housing with basic facilities, reducing their vulnerability to exploitation and enabling economic participation.
Option 1 is incorrect: Child adoption services are handled through the Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA) under the Ministry of Women and Child Development; this is not the function of Sakhi Niwas.
Option 3 is incorrect: Counselling services for adolescents are provided under schemes like RKSK ( Rashtriya Kishor Swasthya Karyakram) under the Ministry of Health; this is not the function of Sakhi Niwas.
Option 4 is incorrect: Free legal aid for women is provided under the Legal Services Authorities Act and National Legal Services Authority (NALSA); Sakhi Niwas specifically provides housing, not legal aid.

Modern History (1)

Personalities, Newspapers, Books and Slogans · Freedom fighters and their titles

Q23. Who is known as the 'Frontier Gandhi' for his work in promoting non-violence and the rights of the people in the tribal areas of the North-West Frontier Province (now in Pakistan)?

  1. (a) Mahatma Gandhi
  2. (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
  3. (c) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
  4. (d) Lal Bahadur Shastri
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan

Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan (1890–1988) is known as the 'Frontier Gandhi' (also 'Bacha Khan' or 'Fakhr-e-Afghan'). He was a Pashtun independence activist who founded the Khudai Khidmatgar (Servants of God) movement, advocating non-violent resistance against British colonial rule in the North-West Frontier Province (now in Khyber Pakhtunkhwa, Pakistan). He was a close associate of Mahatma Gandhi and was awarded the Bharat Ratna in 1987.
Option 1 is incorrect: Mahatma Gandhi (Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi) is the original 'Father of the Nation' whose non-violence philosophy inspired Frontier Gandhi; he is not the one called 'Frontier Gandhi'.
Option 2 is incorrect: Jawaharlal Nehru was India's first Prime Minister and a nationalist leader; he was not called 'Frontier Gandhi'.
Option 4 is incorrect: Lal Bahadur Shastri was India's second Prime Minister known for 'Jai Jawan Jai Kisan'; he was not called 'Frontier Gandhi'.

Static GK (14)

Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q24. The origin of most classical dance forms in India can be traced back to which of the following ancient texts?

  1. (a) Natya Shastra
  2. (b) Abhinaya Darpana
  3. (c) Manusmriti
  4. (d) Aranyakas
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Natya Shastra

The Natya Shastra, authored by Bharata Muni (approximately 2nd century BCE to 2nd century CE), is the foundational treatise on performing arts in India. It covers dance, drama, music, stagecraft, and aesthetics, and is the primary source from which most Indian classical dance forms trace their origins. It introduces concepts like Navarasas (nine emotions), Natyadharmi ( stylised presentation), Lokadharm (realistic presentation), and the grammar of hand gestures (mudras).
Option 2 is incorrect: Abhinaya Darpana by Nandikeshvara is a later treatise on the expressive aspects of dance (abhinaya) but is secondary to and derived from the Natya Shastra tradition.
Option 3 is incorrect: Manusmriti is an ancient Hindu legal text ( Dharmashastra ) dealing with social laws and duties; it is not the source of classical dance forms.
Option 4 is incorrect: Aranyakas are forest texts (part of the Vedic literature) dealing with spiritual philosophy and rituals; they do not deal with performing arts or dance.
Dances · Folk dances by state

Q25. The 'Terah Taali' dance is performed in which State?

  1. (a) Punjab
  2. (b) Rajasthan
  3. (c) Gujarat
  4. (d) Assam
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Rajasthan

Terah Taali is a traditional folk dance of Rajasthan, performed primarily by the Kamada community. In this dance, performers (usually women) sit on the floor and tie 13 cymbals ( manjeeras ) to their body — 9 on the right leg, 2 on the left leg, 1 in each hand — and strike them rhythmically while singing devotional songs (bhajans) dedicated to Ramdevji . It is a spectacular and unusual dance form unique to Rajasthan.
Option 1 is incorrect: Punjab is known for Bhangra and Giddha folk dances; Terah Taali is not a Punjabi dance.
Option 3 is incorrect: Gujarat is known for Garba and Dandiya Raas folk dances; Terah Taali is not a Gujarati dance.
Option 4 is incorrect: Assam is known for Bihu dance (and tribal dances like Bhortal ); Terah Taali is not associated with Assam.
Dances · Folk dances by state

Q26. Cheraw is a unique folk dance that uses bamboo sticks. It is performed exclusively in which State?

  1. (a) Nagaland
  2. (b) Meghalaya
  3. (c) Assam
  4. (d) Mizoram
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Mizoram

Cheraw (also called the Bamboo Dance) is the traditional dance of Mizoram and is considered the cultural identity of the Mizo people. It involves pairs of men sitting on the ground holding long bamboo poles horizontally while others dance in and out between the poles as they are clapped together rhythmically. Cheraw is performed on auspicious occasions and has been recognised internationally for its unique style.
Option 1 is incorrect: Nagaland has its own tribal folk dances (like Changki , Zeliang ) but Cheraw is not associated with Nagaland.
Option 2 is incorrect: Meghalaya has its own folk dances (like Nongkrem , Shad Suk Mynsiem) but the bamboo dance Cheraw is not from Meghalaya.
Option 3 is incorrect: Assam is known for Bihu dance and other tribal dances; Cheraw is not an Assamese dance form.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q27. In which Indian state is the Onam festival celebrated, and why is it celebrated?

  1. (a) Tamil Nadu – it is celebrated to mark the homecoming of King Ram.
  2. (b) Karnataka – it is celebrated to honor the victory of Lord Rama over Ravana.
  3. (c) Kerala – it is celebrated to mark the homecoming of King Mahabali, as per local legends.
  4. (d) Andhra Pradesh – it is celebrated to mark the arrival of the monsoon season.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Kerala – it is celebrated to mark the homecoming of King Mahabali, as per local legends.

Onam is the major harvest festival of Kerala, celebrated with great enthusiasm in the Malayalam month of Chingam (August–September). According to legend, the festival celebrates the annual homecoming of the beloved demon king Mahabali ( Maveli ), who was pushed to the netherworld by Lord Vamana (an avatar of Vishnu) but is granted the boon of visiting his people once a year. The festival features the famous Pookkalam (flower carpet), Onasadya (grand feast), Vallam Kali (snake boat race), and Thiruvathirakali dance.
Option 1 is incorrect: Tamil Nadu celebrates Pongal as its major harvest festival; Onam is not celebrated there to mark the homecoming of King Ram.
Option 2 is incorrect: Karnataka celebrates Mysuru Dasara to honor the victory of Lord Rama (or Goddess Chamundeshwari) over evil; this is not Onam.
Option 4 is incorrect: Andhra Pradesh celebrates various festivals but Onam is not a festival of Andhra Pradesh, nor is it associated with the arrival of monsoons.
Sports · Athletics - events, rules and specifications

Q28. How long is a standard marathon race?

  1. (a) 20.2 miles
  2. (b) 26.2 miles
  3. (c) 50.6 miles
  4. (d) 15.8 miles
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 26.2 miles

A standard marathon race is 26.2 miles (42.195 kilometres ). The distance was standardised at the 1908 London Olympics, where the course was set at 26 miles 385 yards to accommodate the British royal family's viewing preference. The marathon commemorates the legendary run of the Greek soldier Pheidippides from the Battle of Marathon to Athens in 490 BCE.
Option 1 is incorrect: 20.2 miles is not a standard race distance; it falls short of the official marathon distance by about 6 miles.
Option 3 is incorrect: 50.6 miles is an ultra-marathon distance; it is approximately twice the marathon distance.
Option 4 is incorrect: 15.8 miles is approximately a half-marathon equivalent; the full marathon is 26.2 miles.
Sports · Sports terminology

Q29. In which sport is the term 'Deuce' used?

  1. (a) Football
  2. (b) Cricket
  3. (c) Tennis
  4. (d) Hockey
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Tennis

'Deuce' is a term used in Tennis. It occurs when both players reach a score of 40-40 (called deuce) in a game. After deuce, a player must win two consecutive points to win the game: the first point after deuce is called 'Advantage' (for the player who wins it), and if they win the next point, they win the game. If the other player wins, the score returns to deuce.
Option 1 is incorrect: Football (soccer) does not use the term 'Deuce'; football has its own scoring (goals) and terms like offside, penalty, hat-trick.
Option 2 is incorrect: Cricket does not use 'Deuce'; cricket scoring uses runs, wickets, overs, and terms like maiden, no-ball, wide, LBW.
Option 4 is incorrect: Hockey does not use 'Deuce'; hockey scoring uses goals and terms like penalty corner, penalty stroke, drag flick.
Sports · Asian Games and Commonwealth Games

Q30. India won its first-ever Commonwealth Games gold medal in which sport?

  1. (a) Wrestling
  2. (b) Weightlifting
  3. (c) Athletics
  4. (d) Hockey
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Athletics

India won its first Commonwealth Games gold medal in Athletics. At the 1958 British Empire & Commonwealth Games held in Cardiff, Wales, Milkha Singh ('The Flying Sikh') won gold in the 440 yards race, which was India's first gold medal at the Commonwealth Games. This iconic achievement marked a landmark in Indian track and field history.
Option 1 is incorrect: While wrestling has been a strong sport for India at the Commonwealth Games, India's first gold was not in wrestling but in athletics (Milkha Singh, 1958).
Option 2 is incorrect: Weightlifting has produced many CWG medals for India, but India's very first gold medal was not in weightlifting but in athletics at the 1958 Games.
Option 4 is incorrect: Hockey is India's most successful Olympic sport with 8 gold medals, but the Commonwealth Games gold in hockey came after 1958; India's first CWG gold was Milkha Singh's 440y track victory.
Awards and Honours · Bharat Ratna

Q31. Who was the first Indian musician to receive the Bharat Ratna?

  1. (a) Lata Mangeshkar
  2. (b) Ravi Shankar
  3. (c) M.S. Subbulakshmi
  4. (d) Bismillah Khan
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) M.S. Subbulakshmi

M.S. Subbulakshmi (Madurai Shanmukhavadivu Subbulakshmi, 1916–2004) was awarded the Bharat Ratna in 1998, becoming the first musician and the first classical vocalist to receive this honour . She was a legendary Carnatic vocalist known for her rendition of the Vishnu Sahasranama and Bhaja Govindam , and was the first musician to be honoured with the Magsaysay Award (1974).
Option 1 is incorrect: Lata Mangeshkar received the Bharat Ratna in 2001, three years after M.S. Subbulakshmi, making her not the first musician to receive this honour .
Option 2 is incorrect: Ravi Shankar (sitar maestro) received the Bharat Ratna in 1999, one year after M.S. Subbulakshmi.
Option 4 is incorrect: Ustad Bismillah Khan (shehnai maestro) received the Bharat Ratna in 2001 — he was not the first musician to receive this honour .
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q32. Which Hindi novel won the Sahitya Akademi Award in 2023?

  1. (a) Mujhe Pahchano
  2. (b) Yugant
  3. (c) Abhipray
  4. (d) Kya Tumne Dekha Hai
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Mujhe Pahchano

' Mujhe Pahchano ' (Recognize Me) by Hindi author Sanjeev won the Sahitya Akademi Award for Hindi in 2023. Sanjeev (pen name) is a prominent Hindi writer known for his socially engaged fiction rooted in the lives of marginalised communities. The Sahitya Akademi Award is India's second highest literary honour , awarded annually in 24 languages recognised by the Academy.
Option 2 is incorrect: 'Yugant' is a Hindi literary work but did not win the 2023 Sahitya Akademi Award for Hindi.
Option 3 is incorrect: ' Abhipray ' is not the Hindi novel that won the 2023 Sahitya Akademi Award.
Option 4 is incorrect: 'Kya Tumne Dekha Hai' did not win the 2023 Sahitya Akademi Award for Hindi.
Awards and Honours · Nobel Prize and international awards

Q33. Which novel won the International Booker Prize in 2016?

  1. (a) The Vegetarian — Han Kang
  2. (b) A Horse Walks into a Bar — David Grossman
  3. (c) Flights — Olga Tokarczuk
  4. (d) The Discomfort of Evening — Marieke Lucas Rijneveld
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) The Vegetarian — Han Kang

'The Vegetarian' ( 채식주의자 ) by South Korean author Han Kang, translated into English by Deborah Smith, won the Man Booker International Prize (now called the International Booker Prize) in 2016. The novel is a three-part story about a Korean woman who stops eating meat, exploring themes of bodily autonomy, conformity, violence, and freedom. Han Kang also went on to win the Nobel Prize in Literature in 2024.
Option 2 is incorrect: 'A Horse Walks into a Bar' by David Grossman (translated from Hebrew by Jessica Cohen) won the International Booker Prize in 2017, not 2016.
Option 3 is incorrect: 'Flights' by Olga Tokarczuk (translated from Polish by Jennifer Croft) won the International Booker Prize in 2018, not 2016.
Option 4 is incorrect: 'The Discomfort of Evening' by Marieke Lucas Rijneveld (translated from Dutch by Michele Hutchison) won the International Booker Prize in 2020, not 2016.
Sports · Asian Games and Commonwealth Games

Q34. India's first women's Asian Games gold in track events was achieved in which event?

  1. (a) 400m
  2. (b) 800m
  3. (c) 200m
  4. (d) 4×400m relay
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 400m

India's first women's gold in track events at the Asian Games was in the 400 metres . At the 1982 Asian Games held in New Delhi, M.D. Valsamma won gold in the 400m hurdles (women's track event), and the Indian women's 4x400m relay team also won gold. The 400m category represents this landmark achievement in Indian women's athletics at the Asian Games.
Option 2 is incorrect: 800m was not the event in which India first won women's Asian Games gold in track; India's 800m gold came later.
Option 3 is incorrect: 200m was not the event associated with India's first women's Asian Games gold in track events.
Option 4 is incorrect: While the 4x400m relay team also won gold at the 1982 Asian Games, the individual track gold in the 400m (hurdles) is specifically noted as the landmark first for Indian women in track events.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q35. "The Home and the World" (Ghare-Baire) critically examines nationalism and women's agency. Who wrote it?

  1. (a) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
  2. (b) Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay
  3. (c) Rabindranath Tagore
  4. (d) Tarashankar Bandopadhyay
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Rabindranath Tagore

'Ghare-Baire' (The Home and the World) was written by Rabindranath Tagore in 1916, originally in Bengali. The novel critically examines the Swadeshi movement through a story involving three characters: Nikhil (a moderate, progressive landlord), Sandip (a charismatic nationalist leader), and Bimala (Nikhil's wife caught between them). It explores themes of nationalism, feminism, the limits of idealism, and the conflict between Western influence and Indian tradition. It was translated into English in 1919.
Option 1 is incorrect: Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay (1838–1894) wrote ' Anandamath ' and ' Durgeshnandini '; he did not write 'Ghare-Baire'. Bankim Chandra also composed the national song 'Vande Mataram '.
Option 2 is incorrect: Sarat Chandra Chattopadhyay (1876–1938) wrote 'Devdas', 'Parineeta', and 'Srikanta'; he did not write 'Ghare-Baire'.
Option 4 is incorrect: Tarashankar Bandopadhyay (1898–1971) is a noted Bengali novelist known for ' Hansuli Banker Upakatha '; he did not write 'Ghare-Baire'.
Sports · Other sports and tournaments (tennis, chess, badminton, etc.)

Q36. The Pro Wrestling League (PWL) in India was inaugurated in:

  1. (a) 2014
  2. (b) 2015
  3. (c) 2016
  4. (d) 2017
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 2015

The Pro Wrestling League (PWL) was inaugurated in India in 2015. PWL is a franchise-based wrestling league featuring professional freestyle wrestlers competing in categories like 57kg, 65kg, 74kg, 86kg (men) and 48kg, 53kg, 58kg, 69kg (women). It was conceived to promote wrestling as a spectator sport in India and provide a platform for Indian and international wrestlers. The league attracted world-class wrestlers and helped in identifying talent for international competitions.
Option 1 is incorrect: PWL was not inaugurated in 2014; it was launched in 2015.
Option 3 is incorrect: PWL was not inaugurated in 2016; it started in 2015 and the 2016 season was the second edition.
Option 4 is incorrect: PWL was not inaugurated in 2017; the 2017 season was the third edition of the league.
Sports · Olympic Games

Q37. India won its first Olympic hockey gold medal in:

  1. (a) 1924 Paris
  2. (b) 1928 Amsterdam
  3. (c) 1932 Los Angeles
  4. (d) 1936 Berlin
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1928 Amsterdam

India won its first Olympic hockey gold medal at the 1928 Amsterdam Olympics. The Indian hockey team, featuring the legendary Dhyan Chand, defeated Netherlands in the final. India dominated Olympic hockey for decades: they won gold in 1928 (Amsterdam), 1932 (Los Angeles), 1936 (Berlin), 1948 (London), 1952 (Helsinki), 1956 (Melbourne), 1964 (Tokyo), and 1980 (Moscow) — a record 8 Olympic gold medals in hockey.
Option 1 is incorrect: Hockey was not an Olympic event at the 1924 Paris Olympics; India's first hockey gold was at the 1928 Amsterdam Olympics.
Option 3 is incorrect: India won its second Olympic hockey gold at the 1932 Los Angeles Olympics; the first was in 1928.
Option 4 is incorrect: India won its third Olympic hockey gold at the 1936 Berlin Olympics; the first was in 1928 Amsterdam.

Ancient History (1)

Indus Valley Civilisation · Artefacts and findings

Q38. Name the Harappan site known for its dockyard.

  1. (a) Mohenjodaro
  2. (b) Harappa
  3. (c) Lothal
  4. (d) Dholavira
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Lothal

Lothal (in present-day Gujarat) is the Harappan (Indus Valley Civilisation ) site famous for its ancient dockyard. Discovered in 1954 by S.R. Rao, Lothal's dockyard is considered one of the earliest known dock structures in the world (around 2400 BCE). The trapezoidal basin was connected to a river and had an elaborate inlet/outlet channel system, indicating sophisticated maritime trade with Mesopotamia and the Persian Gulf.
Option 1 is incorrect: Mohenjodaro (in present-day Pakistan) is famous for its Great Bath, granary, and planned urban layout; it is not specifically known for a dockyard.
Option 2 is incorrect: Harappa (in present-day Pakistan) is known for its granary and distinctive cemetery (R-37); it does not have a dockyard.
Option 4 is incorrect: Dholavira (in Gujarat) is known for its unique water conservation system and a signboard of the Indus script; it is not specifically famous for a dockyard.

Medieval History (1)

Delhi Sultanate · Sultanate economy and market reforms

Q39. Which ruler of the Delhi Sultanate introduced market control and price regulation policy?

  1. (a) Alauddin Khilji
  2. (b) Muhammad bin Tughlaq
  3. (c) Balban
  4. (d) Firoz Shah Tughlaq
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Alauddin Khilji

Alauddin Khilji (r. 1296–1316) of the Khilji dynasty implemented an extensive market control (price regulation) system in the Delhi Sultanate. He established four controlled markets in Delhi: the Grain Market (Shahana- i -Mandi), the Cloth Market, the Cattle and Horse Market, and the General Merchandise Market. He fixed prices for all commodities, appointed a Market Controller (Shahna), intelligence officers ( Barids ), and secret spies to ensure compliance. This was done to maintain a large army at affordable cost.
Option 2 is incorrect: Muhammad bin Tughlaq is known for other controversial policies like the token currency experiment and the forced transfer of capital to Daulatabad; he did not introduce the market control/price regulation system.
Option 3 is incorrect: Balban (r. 1266–1287) strengthened royal authority and introduced elaborate court protocol ( sijda , paibos ), but did not establish a market price control system.
Option 4 is incorrect: Firoz Shah Tughlaq (r. 1351–1388) was known for welfare works (canals, hospitals, cities) and a conciliatory policy toward nobles; he abolished price controls rather than establishing them.

Geography (2)

India - Drainage System · Lakes of India

Q40. Name the largest freshwater lake in the country.

  1. (a) Chilika Lake
  2. (b) Wular Lake
  3. (c) Dal Lake
  4. (d) Pulicat Lake
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Wular Lake

Wular Lake in Jammu & Kashmir (Bandipora district) is the largest freshwater lake in India and one of the largest freshwater lakes in Asia, covering an area of approximately 189 sq km (though it varies seasonally). It is formed by the Jhelum River and is an important wetland (Ramsar Site since 1990) providing habitat for migratory birds and supporting the local fishing economy.
Option 1 is incorrect: Chilika Lake in Odisha is India's largest coastal lagoon and the largest brackish water lake in Asia, but it is a saltwater/brackish lake — not a freshwater lake.
Option 3 is incorrect: Dal Lake in Srinagar, J&K is famous for its houseboats and shikaras and is an important wetland, but it is much smaller than Wular Lake.
Option 4 is incorrect: Pulicat Lake in Tamil Nadu/Andhra Pradesh is a brackish water lagoon (like Chilika); it is not a freshwater lake.
India - Drainage System · River origins and lengths

Q41. Which is the longest river in India?

  1. (a) Yamuna
  2. (b) Ganga
  3. (c) Godavari
  4. (d) Brahmaputra
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ganga

The Ganga (Ganges) river, approximately 2,525 km long, is the longest river that flows entirely within India. It originates at the Gangotri Glacier in Uttarakhand (as the Bhagirathi) and flows through Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, and West Bengal before draining into the Bay of Bengal. The Ganga basin is the most heavily populated river basin in the world and is considered sacred in Hinduism.
Option 1 is incorrect: The Yamuna is approximately 1,376 km long — a major tributary of the Ganga, it is not the longest Indian river.
Option 3 is incorrect: The Godavari (approximately 1,465 km) is the longest river in peninsular India and often called the 'Dakshin Ganga,' but it is shorter than the Ganga.
Option 4 is incorrect: The Brahmaputra is one of the longest rivers in Asia (about 2,900 km total), but only about 916 km of it flows through India (Arunachal Pradesh and Assam), making it shorter than the Ganga within Indian territory.

Chemistry (1)

Environmental Chemistry · Air pollutants and their sources

Q42. Which body releases the Air Quality Index (AQI) in India?

  1. (a) Environmental Pollution Authority (EPA)
  2. (b) Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)
  3. (c) World Health Organization (WHO)
  4. (d) NITI Aayog
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB)

The Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB) releases the Air Quality Index (AQI) in India under the National Air Quality Monitoring Programme (NAMP). The AQI measures eight pollutants: PM10, PM2.5, NO2, SO2, CO, O3, NH3, and Pb. The CPCB publishes real-time AQI data through the Sameer app and website. The AQI was launched in India in 2015 (initially as NAQI - National Air Quality Index).
Option 1 is incorrect: There is no regulatory body called 'Environmental Pollution Authority (EPA)' in India; this designation is used in the USA. India's pollution regulation falls under CPCB (central) and SPCBs (state level).
Option 3 is incorrect: The WHO sets global air quality guidelines but does not release India's national AQI; that is done by CPCB.
Option 4 is incorrect: NITI Aayog is a policy think tank; it does not monitor or release air quality data.

Current Affairs (6)

Awards and Honours - Current · National awards - current

Q43. Who is the senior IPS officer being honoured with the President's Police Medal in 2025 for combating examination paper leaks?

  1. (a) Rajesh Das – ADG, Tamil Nadu
  2. (b) V.K. Singh – Chief of Rajasthan SOG
  3. (c) Praveen Sood – Director, CBI
  4. (d) Sanjay Arora – Delhi Police Commissioner
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) V.K. Singh – Chief of Rajasthan SOG

V.K. Singh, Chief of the Rajasthan Special Operations Group (SOG), was honoured with the President's Police Medal in 2025 for his outstanding work in combating examination paper leak cases in Rajasthan. The Rajasthan SOG under his leadership successfully cracked down on multiple high-profile paper leak rackets that had affected competitive examinations, leading to numerous arrests and disruption of organised cheating syndicates.
Option 1 is incorrect: Rajesh Das as ADG Tamil Nadu was not the IPS officer specifically awarded the President's Police Medal in 2025 for combating examination paper leaks.
Option 3 is incorrect: Praveen Sood served as Director of CBI; his work pertains to broader investigative matters rather than this specific 2025 examination paper leak recognition.
Option 4 is incorrect: Sanjay Arora served as Delhi Police Commissioner; his role does not relate to examination paper leak cases in Rajasthan for which this award was given.
Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q44. Who took over as Secretary of the Department of Revenue on April 18, 2025?

  1. (a) Arvind Shrivastava
  2. (b) Anuradha Thakur
  3. (c) Vivek Aggarwal
  4. (d) Manoj Govil
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Arvind Shrivastava

Arvind Shrivastava, a senior IRS (Indian Revenue Service) officer, took over as the Secretary of the Department of Revenue (Ministry of Finance) on April 18, 2025. The Department of Revenue is responsible for matters relating to direct and indirect taxes, including CBDT (Central Board of Direct Taxes) and CBIC (Central Board of Indirect Taxes and Customs). Shrivastava brought extensive experience in tax administration to the role.
Option 2 is incorrect: Anuradha Thakur did not take over as Secretary of the Department of Revenue on April 18, 2025.
Option 3 is incorrect: Vivek Aggarwal held various government positions but was not appointed Secretary, Department of Revenue, on April 18, 2025.
Option 4 is incorrect: Manoj Govil was not the person who took charge as Secretary of the Department of Revenue on April 18, 2025.
State News · State schemes and events

Q45. Which state government in India launched the PARTH Yojana in early 2025?

  1. (a) Rajasthan
  2. (b) Madhya Pradesh
  3. (c) Uttar Pradesh
  4. (d) Gujarat
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Madhya Pradesh

The Madhya Pradesh government launched the PARTH (Parivar Arthik Sahayata ) Yojana in early 2025 to provide financial assistance to families facing economic hardship. The scheme reflects the Madhya Pradesh government's focus on social welfare and direct benefit transfer to vulnerable sections of society, building on a series of welfare schemes introduced in the state.
Option 1 is incorrect: Rajasthan did not launch the PARTH Yojana; the scheme was initiated by the Madhya Pradesh government.
Option 3 is incorrect: Uttar Pradesh did not launch the PARTH Yojana in early 2025.
Option 4 is incorrect: Gujarat did not launch the PARTH Yojana; it was launched by the Madhya Pradesh government.
Sports - Current · Olympics, Asian Games and Commonwealth Games - current

Q46. At the 2024 Paris Olympics, how many medals did India win and what was the medal composition?

  1. (a) 6 medals — 0 gold, 1 silver, 5 bronze
  2. (b) 7 medals — 1 gold, 0 silver, 6 bronze
  3. (c) 5 medals — 0 gold, 2 silver, 3 bronze
  4. (d) 6 medals — 0 gold, 2 silver, 4 bronze
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 6 medals — 0 gold, 1 silver, 5 bronze

India won 6 medals at the 2024 Paris Olympics (July 26 – August 11, 2024): 0 gold, 1 silver, and 5 bronze. The silver was won by Neeraj Chopra (javelin throw, 89.45m). The 5 bronze medals were won by: Manu Bhaker (10m air pistol women), Manu Bhaker & Sarabjot Singh (10m air pistol mixed team), Swapnil Kusale (50m rifle 3-position), Indian hockey team (men's), and Aman Sehrawat (wrestling, freestyle 57kg). Manu Bhaker became the first Indian to win 2 medals at a single Olympics.
Option 2 is incorrect: India did not win 7 medals or any gold at the 2024 Paris Olympics; the tally was 6 medals (0 gold, 1 silver, 5 bronze).
Option 3 is incorrect: India won 6 medals, not 5, with 1 silver and 5 bronze (not 2 silver and 3 bronze).
Option 4 is incorrect: India won 6 medals with 1 silver and 5 bronze (not 2 silver and 4 bronze).
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q47. Who inaugurated the Rising North East Investors Summit 2025 in May 2025?

  1. (a) Home Minister Amit Shah
  2. (b) President Droupadi Murmu
  3. (c) Prime Minister Narendra Modi
  4. (d) Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Prime Minister Narendra Modi

Prime Minister Narendra Modi inaugurated the Rising North East Investors Summit 2025 in New Delhi in May 2025. The Summit was organised to promote investment in the eight northeastern states of India (Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, Tripura). The event aimed to highlight investment opportunities in sectors like tourism, infrastructure, agriculture, and manufacturing in the region.
Option 1 is incorrect: Home Minister Amit Shah did not inaugurate the Rising North East Investors Summit 2025; it was inaugurated by Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
Option 2 is incorrect: President Droupadi Murmu did not inaugurate this Summit; PM Modi performed the inauguration.
Option 4 is incorrect: Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman may have participated in the event but did not inaugurate it; PM Modi was the inaugurating authority.
Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q48. Who was the Secretary General of the Lok Sabha included in the Indian delegation to the BRICS Parliamentary Forum in June 2025?

  1. (a) Desh Deepak Verma
  2. (b) P.C. Mody
  3. (c) Utpal Kumar Singh
  4. (d) Pramod Tiwari
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Utpal Kumar Singh

Utpal Kumar Singh, the Secretary General of the Lok Sabha, was part of the Indian parliamentary delegation to the BRICS Parliamentary Forum in June 2025. He has served as Secretary General of the Lok Sabha and has represented India at various inter-parliamentary forums. BRICS Parliamentary Forums are meetings of parliamentarians from BRICS member countries to discuss legislative cooperation and global issues.
Option 1 is incorrect: Desh Deepak Verma served as Secretary General of the Rajya Sabha; he was not the Lok Sabha Secretary General in the BRICS Parliamentary Forum delegation of June 2025.
Option 2 is incorrect: P.C. Mody is a former CBDT Chairman and Revenue Secretary; he is not the Lok Sabha Secretary General.
Option 4 is incorrect: Pramod Tiwari is a politician (Rajya Sabha member from Congress); he is not the Secretary General of the Lok Sabha.

Physics (1)

Electricity · Numericals on electricity

Q49. A circuit has a 12 V battery connected to a resistor of 6 Ω. What is the current flowing?

  1. (a) 1 A
  2. (b) 2 A
  3. (c) 3 A
  4. (d) 4 A
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 2 A

Using Ohm's Law: I = V / R, where I = current (amperes), V = voltage (volts), R = resistance (ohms). I = 12 V ÷ 6 Ω = 2 A. Therefore, the current flowing in the circuit is 2 Amperes.
Option 1 is incorrect: 1 A would require V = I × R = 1 × 6 = 6 V, not 12 V.
Option 3 is incorrect: 3 A would require V = I × R = 3 × 6 = 18 V, not 12 V.
Option 4 is incorrect: 4 A would require V = I × R = 4 × 6 = 24 V, not 12 V.
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