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Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 20 December 2025 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 48 GK / GS questions asked in Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 on 20 December 2025 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Polity, Economics, Static GK, Ancient History, Medieval History, Physics.

📚 48 questions🗓️ 20 December 2025⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Polity (8) · Economics (12) · Static GK (16) · Ancient History (1) · Medieval History (1) · Physics (2) · Geography (1) · Current Affairs (6) · Modern History (1)

Polity (8)

Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies · Finance Commission

Q1. In 2024, Arvind Panagariya was the 16th Chairman of the Finance Commission of India. Which of the following is correct regarding the responsibilities of the Finance Commission?

  1. (a) Conducting monetary policy and controlling inflation
  2. (b) Deciding the number of seats in the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
  3. (c) Recommending the distribution of financial resources between the Centre and States
  4. (d) Regulating share markets and financial intermediaries
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Recommending the distribution of financial resources between the Centre and States

The Finance Commission is constitutionally mandated (Article 280) to recommend the distribution of financial resources between the Centre and States. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Monetary policy and inflation control is the mandate of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), not the Finance Commission.
Option 2 is wrong: Deciding the number of seats in the Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha is the function of the Delimitation Commission, not the Finance Commission.
Option 4 is wrong: Regulating share markets and financial intermediaries is the mandate of SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India).
DPSP and Fundamental Duties · Important DPSP articles (39A, 40, 44, 45, 48A, 50, 51)

Q2. Fill in the blank: The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) aims to bring ______ laws under a single framework for all citizens.

  1. (a) Personal
  2. (b) Corporate
  3. (c) Educational
  4. (d) Agricultural
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Personal

The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) aims to bring Personal laws — governing matters like marriage, divorce, inheritance, and adoption — under a single national framework for all citizens regardless of religion. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: Corporate laws are already uniform and governed by statutes like the Companies Act; UCC does not target corporate law.
Option 3 is wrong: Educational laws are not governed by personal religious customs; UCC specifically targets personal religious laws.
Option 4 is wrong: Agricultural laws are governed by state legislation and land reform acts, unrelated to the UCC mandate.
Polity Miscellaneous · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q3. Which of the following colonial-era offenses was removed in the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita, 2023 (BNS), and replaced with a new offense related to national security?

  1. (a) Sedition
  2. (b) Treason
  3. (c) Riot
  4. (d) Blasphemy
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Sedition

The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) 2023 abolished the colonial-era offense of Sedition (Section 124A of the Indian Penal Code) and replaced it with Section 152, which penalizes acts endangering the sovereignty, unity, and integrity of India. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: Treason is not a separately defined offense removed by BNS; it overlaps with other national security provisions that were reformulated.
Option 3 is wrong: Riot (unlawful assembly and use of force) provisions have been retained and updated in BNS, not removed as a colonial holdover.
Option 4 is wrong: Blasphemy as a standalone colonial offense was not the subject of the major BNS reform; religious offense provisions are separately addressed.
Fundamental Rights · Fundamental Rights - general (Articles 12, 13)

Q4. Which of the following Article provides that laws inconsistent with Fundamental Rights shall be void?

  1. (a) Article 12
  2. (b) Article 13
  3. (c) Article 19
  4. (d) Article 32
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 13

Article 13 of the Indian Constitution declares that any pre-constitutional or post-constitutional law that is inconsistent with or abridges the Fundamental Rights guaranteed under Part III shall be void to the extent of such inconsistency. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Article 12 defines the term 'State' for the purposes of Part III (Fundamental Rights); it does not void laws inconsistent with FRs.
Option 3 is wrong: Article 19 guarantees six freedoms to citizens (speech, assembly, movement, etc.); it does not contain the provision making inconsistent laws void.
Option 4 is wrong: Article 32 provides the right to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights (the 'heart and soul' of the Constitution); it does not declare laws void.
DPSP and Fundamental Duties · Gandhian principles

Q5. Which of the following Directive Principles is inspired by Gandhian philosophy?

  1. (a) Article 40 - Organisation of village panchayats
  2. (b) Article 48A - Protection of environment
  3. (c) Article 44 - Uniform civil code
  4. (d) Article 39 - Equal pay for equal work
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 40 - Organisation of village panchayats

Article 40 ( Organisation of village panchayats) is directly inspired by Mahatma Gandhi's philosophy of Gram Swaraj (village self-rule) — his vision of decentralised governance rooted in self-sufficient villages. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: Article 48A (Protection of the environment, forests, and wildlife), added by the 42nd Amendment, is inspired by environmental consciousness, not specifically Gandhian philosophy.
Option 3 is wrong: Article 44 (Uniform Civil Code) is inspired by the principle of national unity and equal citizenship, rooted in liberal and nationalist thought rather than Gandhian philosophy.
Option 4 is wrong: Article 39 (equal pay for equal work) is inspired by socialist principles of economic equality, not Gandhian philosophy.
State Government · State Legislature - Legislative Assembly

Q6. Who decides on the question of whether a bill is a money bill in state legislature?

  1. (a) Speaker of the Legislative Assembly
  2. (b) Council of Ministers
  3. (c) Finance Minister
  4. (d) Governor
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Speaker of the Legislative Assembly

Under Article 199 of the Indian Constitution, the Speaker of the Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) has the final authority to decide whether a bill is a money bill in the state legislature, and that decision is conclusive. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: The Council of Ministers (Cabinet) proposes financial legislation but does not have the authority to certify a bill as a money bill.
Option 3 is wrong: The Finance Minister presents the budget and financial bills but does not have constitutional authority to certify money bills.
Option 4 is wrong: The Governor does not decide on money bill classification; under Article 200, the Governor may give assent or withhold it, but the Speaker certifies the bill's nature.
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q7. In which of the following cases does the Union have exclusive power?

  1. (a) Agriculture
  2. (b) Public health
  3. (c) Police
  4. (d) Banking
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Banking

Banking is listed in the Union List (List I, Entry 45) of the Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution, giving the Union Parliament exclusive legislative power over it. Option 4 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Agriculture is a State List subject (Entry 14), meaning state legislatures have primary authority over it.
Option 2 is wrong: Public health and sanitation are State List subjects (Entry 6), and states have primary jurisdiction over them.
Option 3 is wrong: Police is a State List subject (Entry 2); each state maintains its own police force, though there are central police organisations like CRPF under Union control.
Amendments and Important Articles · Major constitutional amendments

Q8. Which of the following constitutional amendments transferred "Education" to the Concurrent List?

  1. (a) 42nd Amendment
  2. (b) 44th Amendment
  3. (c) 73rd Amendment
  4. (d) 86th Amendment
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 42nd Amendment

The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 (during the Emergency under Indira Gandhi) transferred Education from the State List to the Concurrent List, enabling both Parliament and state legislatures to legislate on education. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: The 44th Amendment (1978) restored certain Fundamental Rights curtailed during the Emergency (e.g., restoring Article 19 protections); it did not deal with the transfer of Education.
Option 3 is wrong: The 73rd Amendment (1992) gave constitutional status to Panchayati Raj Institutions; it had nothing to do with the Education list transfer.
Option 4 is wrong: The 86th Amendment (2002) added the right to free and compulsory education for children (Article 21A) but did not change the placement of Education in the Concurrent List — that had already been done in 1976.

Economics (12)

National Income · Economic growth and development

Q9. What is the term used when the economy experiences negative growth for two consecutive quarters?

  1. (a) Depression
  2. (b) Stagflation
  3. (c) Recession
  4. (d) Inflation
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Recession

Recession is the technical term for two consecutive quarters of negative GDP growth. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Depression is a more severe and prolonged economic downturn, typically lasting years, not just two quarters.
Option 2 is wrong: Stagflation refers to a situation of high inflation combined with stagnant economic growth and high unemployment — not specifically two quarters of negative growth.
Option 4 is wrong: Inflation refers to a general rise in the price level, which can occur even during periods of positive growth.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Global indices - publishers and methodology

Q10. The Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) is released by:

  1. (a) World Bank
  2. (b) Transparency International
  3. (c) World Economic Forum
  4. (d) United Nations
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Transparency International

The Corruption Perceptions Index (CPI) is an annual index published by Transparency International, ranking countries by their perceived levels of public sector corruption. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: The World Bank publishes indices like the Doing Business Index and the Logistics Performance Index (LPI), not the CPI.
Option 3 is wrong: The World Economic Forum publishes the Global Competitiveness Report and the Human Capital Index, not the Corruption Perceptions Index.
Option 4 is wrong: The United Nations publishes the Human Development Index (HDI) through UNDP; it does not publish the Corruption Perceptions Index.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Global indices - publishers and methodology

Q11. The Logistics Performance Index (LPI) is released by:

  1. (a) World Bank
  2. (b) World Economic Forum
  3. (c) International Monetary Fund
  4. (d) World Trade Organization
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) World Bank

The Logistics Performance Index (LPI) is published by the World Bank every two years, ranking countries based on trade logistics efficiency including customs, infrastructure, and timeliness. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: The World Economic Forum publishes the Global Competitiveness Index and Travel & Tourism Competitiveness Index, not the LPI.
Option 3 is wrong: The International Monetary Fund (IMF) publishes the World Economic Outlook and financial stability reports, not the LPI.
Option 4 is wrong: The World Trade Organization (WTO) publishes world trade statistics and the World Trade Report, not the Logistics Performance Index.
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · Economic groupings (BRICS, G20, ASEAN)

Q12. In which year did South Africa first attend a BRICS Summit?

  1. (a) 2009
  2. (b) 2010
  3. (c) 2011
  4. (d) 2012
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 2011

South Africa officially joined BRICS and first attended the BRICS Summit in 2011, held in Sanya, China — transforming the grouping from BRIC to BRICS. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: The first BRIC Summit was held in 2009 in Yekaterinburg, Russia. South Africa was not a member at that time.
Option 2 is wrong: The 2010 BRIC Summit was held in Brasilia, Brazil. South Africa had not yet formally joined.
Option 4 is wrong: By 2012, South Africa was already a BRICS member (having joined in 2011), so 2012 was not its first attendance.
Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Sectors of the economy (primary, secondary, tertiary)

Q13. Software development and scientific research are activities associated with which sector of the economy?

  1. (a) Primary
  2. (b) Secondary
  3. (c) Tertiary
  4. (d) Quaternary
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Quaternary

Software development, scientific research, information technology, and knowledge-based services belong to the Quaternary sector of the economy, which involves intellectual and knowledge-based activities. Option 4 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: The Primary sector involves extraction of natural resources — agriculture, mining, fishing, and forestry.
Option 2 is wrong: The Secondary sector involves manufacturing and processing — transforming raw materials into finished goods.
Option 3 is wrong: The Tertiary sector covers services like trade, transport, banking, and retail — but software and scientific research are classified specifically under the Quaternary sector.
Industry and Infrastructure · Make in India, Startup India and PLI

Q14. What is the primary objective of the Make in India campaign?

  1. (a) To promote education in India
  2. (b) To enhance digital literacy
  3. (c) To boost manufacturing and encourage foreign direct investment (FDI)
  4. (d) To attract foreign tourists
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) To boost manufacturing and encourage foreign direct investment (FDI)

Make in India, launched in September 2014, has the primary objective of transforming India into a global manufacturing hub and encouraging both domestic and foreign companies to invest and manufacture in India. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Promotion of education is the mandate of the National Education Policy (NEP) 2020 and schemes like Samagra Shiksha, not Make in India.
Option 2 is wrong: Digital literacy is promoted through the Digital India programme (2015), not Make in India.
Option 4 is wrong: Attracting foreign tourists is the purpose of the Incredible India campaign run by the Ministry of Tourism, not Make in India.
Money and Banking · NPAs and banking reforms (Narasimham, SARFAESI, IBC)

Q15. The shift to market-determined interest rates aimed to:

  1. (a) Control inflation only.
  2. (b) Reduce foreign investment.
  3. (c) Increase public borrowing.
  4. (d) Encourage efficient allocation of financial resources.
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Encourage efficient allocation of financial resources.

The shift from administered (government-fixed) to market-determined interest rates, part of India's 1991 financial sector reforms ( Narasimham Committee), aimed to encourage efficient allocation of financial resources by allowing capital to flow to the most productive uses. Option 4 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Controlling inflation alone was not the stated aim of market-determined rates; the RBI uses monetary policy tools (repo rate, etc.) specifically for inflation targeting.
Option 2 is wrong: The shift to market rates was intended to attract more investment (domestic and foreign), not reduce it.
Option 3 is wrong: Increasing public borrowing was not an objective; in fact, the reforms aimed to reduce fiscal dominance and lower the crowding out of private investment.
Money and Banking · Monetary policy tools (repo, reverse repo, CRR, SLR, MSF, bank rate)

Q16. Which of the following reform led to the introduction of the LAF (Liquidity Adjustment Facility)?

  1. (a) Fiscal responsibility reforms
  2. (b) Banking sector reforms
  3. (c) External sector reforms
  4. (d) Capital market reforms
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Banking sector reforms

The Liquidity Adjustment Facility (LAF) was introduced by the RBI in 2000-01 as a direct outcome of the Banking Sector Reforms recommended by the Narasimham Committee (1991 and 1998). LAF allows banks to adjust their daily liquidity requirements through repo and reverse repo operations. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Fiscal responsibility reforms led to the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management (FRBM) Act, 2003 — focused on deficit reduction, not LAF.
Option 3 is wrong: External sector reforms liberalized trade policy and capital account convertibility; they did not directly result in the creation of LAF.
Option 4 is wrong: Capital market reforms led to SEBI strengthening, dematerialization of shares, and screen-based trading — not the introduction of LAF.
Industry and Infrastructure · Infrastructure sectors

Q17. The most significant feature of the New Telecom Policy (NTP) 1999 was:

  1. (a) Introduction of revenue-sharing licensing
  2. (b) 100% Foreign Direct Investment in telecom
  3. (c) Wireless monopoly of BSNL
  4. (d) Voice over Internet Protocol
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Introduction of revenue-sharing licensing

The most significant and defining feature of the New Telecom Policy (NTP) 1999 was the introduction of revenue-sharing licensing, which replaced the earlier fixed license fee regime that had led to financial difficulties for telecom operators and slowed sector growth. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: 100% FDI in telecom was not introduced by NTP 1999; FDI limits were progressively raised over the years and full FDI was permitted much later.
Option 3 is wrong: NTP 1999 actually promoted competition and did not grant any wireless monopoly to BSNL; BSNL was incorporated as a public sector company in 2000.
Option 4 is wrong: VoIP (Voice over Internet Protocol) regulation was a separate matter addressed later; it was not the defining feature of NTP 1999.
Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Market structures (perfect competition, monopoly, oligopoly)

Q18. What happens to firms under monopolistic competition in the short run?

  1. (a) Always incur losses
  2. (b) Must produce at minimum average cost
  3. (c) Can earn profits or losses depending on demand and cost conditions
  4. (d) Always earn abnormal profits.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Can earn profits or losses depending on demand and cost conditions

Under monopolistic competition in the short run, firms can earn supernormal profits, normal profits, or incur losses depending on where their demand curve and cost curves intersect. This flexibility is a key characteristic distinguishing monopolistic competition from perfect competition. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Firms do not always incur losses in monopolistic competition; if demand is high enough relative to costs, firms can earn supernormal profits in the short run.
Option 2 is wrong: Production at minimum average cost (allocative efficiency) is a feature of long-run perfect competition, not of monopolistic competition in the short run.
Option 4 is wrong: Firms do not always earn abnormal (supernormal) profits in monopolistic competition; in the long run, free entry erodes profits to normal levels.
National Income · GDP, GNP, NDP and NNP

Q19. Which of the following will increase the Gross Domestic Product but not the Gross National Product of a country?

  1. (a) Interest received from foreign government bonds
  2. (b) Profits of domestic companies earned abroad
  3. (c) Profits earned by a foreign company operating within the country
  4. (d) Increase in remittances from abroad
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Profits earned by a foreign company operating within the country

Profits earned by a foreign company operating within the country increase the country's GDP (which counts all production within territorial boundaries) but not GNP (which counts only production by nationals/residents). Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Interest received from foreign government bonds is income earned abroad by nationals, so it increases GNP but not GDP.
Option 2 is wrong: Profits of domestic companies earned abroad increase GNP (income of nationals) but are not counted in GDP (which excludes income earned outside the country's borders).
Option 4 is wrong: Remittances from abroad are transfer payments received by nationals from overseas; they increase national income (GNP) but are not counted as GDP since no production occurs within the country.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Government schemes - nodal ministries and mixed facts

Q20. Which State received the highest first-tranche release for infrastructure development in FY 2024-25 under PM eBus Sewa?

  1. (a) Odisha
  2. (b) Rajasthan
  3. (c) Bihar
  4. (d) Maharashtra
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Maharashtra

Maharashtra received the highest first-tranche release for infrastructure development in FY 2024-25 under the PM eBus Sewa scheme, which provides electric buses to cities for public transport. Option 4 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Odisha received a lower tranche amount compared to Maharashtra under the PM eBus Sewa scheme for FY 2024-25.
Option 2 is wrong: Rajasthan's release was lower than Maharashtra's in the first tranche under PM eBus Sewa for FY 2024-25.
Option 3 is wrong: Bihar received a release under PM eBus Sewa, but Maharashtra's first-tranche release was the highest among all states for FY 2024-25.

Static GK (16)

Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q21. Which of the following festivals in Kerala is best known for the traditional boat race, Vallam Kali?

  1. (a) Onam
  2. (b) Vishu
  3. (c) Thrissur Pooram
  4. (d) Karva Chauth
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Onam

Onam is the harvest festival of Kerala and is most famous for the Vallam Kali (snake boat race), especially at Aranmula and Punnamada Lake. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: Vishu is the Kerala New Year (usually April 14) and is associated with Vishukkani (auspicious sight) and firecrackers, not boat races.
Option 3 is wrong: Thrissur Pooram is a grand temple festival known for decorated elephants, percussion music, and fireworks — not boat races.
Option 4 is wrong: Karva Chauth is a North Indian festival observed by married Hindu women for the long life of their husbands; it has no connection to Kerala or boat races.
Sports · Sports terminology

Q22. 'Penalty Corner' is associated with which game?

  1. (a) Football
  2. (b) Hockey
  3. (c) Basketball
  4. (d) Cricket
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Hockey

A Penalty Corner (also called a short corner) is a set play in field Hockey, awarded when a defender commits a foul inside the shooting circle or deliberately hits the ball out over the back line. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: In Football, the equivalent set piece is called a Penalty Kick (from the penalty spot), not a Penalty Corner.
Option 3 is wrong: Basketball does not have a Penalty Corner; fouls result in free throws.
Option 4 is wrong: Cricket does not use the term Penalty Corner; runs can be awarded as penalty runs under specific Law violations.
Sports · Other sports and tournaments (tennis, chess, badminton, etc.)

Q23. Who is known as the 'Father of Kabaddi' in India?

  1. (a) Balwan Singh
  2. (b) Harjeet Brar
  3. (c) Sunil Dabas
  4. (d) Santosh Narwal
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Harjeet Brar

Harjeet Brar is widely recognized as the 'Father of Kabaddi' in India for his foundational role in organizing, promoting, and standardizing the sport nationally and internationally. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Balwan Singh is a known Kabaddi player but is not credited with the title 'Father of Kabaddi.'
Option 3 is wrong: Sunil Dabas is a prominent Kabaddi player and coach, not credited with founding the sport's organized structure.
Option 4 is wrong: Santosh Narwal is another well-known Kabaddi player, but not associated with the title 'Father of Kabaddi.'
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Painting styles and schools

Q24. The painting "Engagement Ring" (1961) by Roy Lichtenstein was based on a comic panel from which strip?

  1. (a) "Peanuts"
  2. (b) "Dilbert"
  3. (c) "Winnie Winkle"
  4. (d) "Blondie"
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) "Winnie Winkle"

Roy Lichtenstein's iconic pop art painting "Engagement Ring" (1961) was directly inspired by a panel from the comic strip "Winnie Winkle" by Martin Branner, published in the early 20th century. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: "Peanuts" is a comic strip by Charles M. Schulz featuring Charlie Brown and Snoopy; it was not the source for "Engagement Ring."
Option 2 is wrong: "Dilbert" is a workplace humor comic by Scott Adams, first published in 1989 — decades after Lichtenstein's 1961 painting.
Option 4 is wrong: "Blondie" is a domestic humor comic strip by Chic Young (1930), which was not the source panel for this Lichtenstein work.
Awards and Honours · Nobel Prize and international awards

Q25. Jasper Johns, known for his artworks featuring flags, maps, and targets, won which prestigious award in 1988?

  1. (a) National Medal of Arts
  2. (b) Presidential Medal of Freedom
  3. (c) Praemium Imperiale
  4. (d) Golden Lion at the Venice Biennale
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Golden Lion at the Venice Biennale

Jasper Johns won the Golden Lion for Lifetime Achievement at the Venice Biennale in 1988, recognizing his monumental contribution to modern art. Option 4 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Jasper Johns received the National Medal of Arts in 1990 — two years after the Venice Biennale Golden Lion.
Option 2 is wrong: The Presidential Medal of Freedom was awarded to Jasper Johns in 2011 — much later than 1988.
Option 3 is wrong: The Praemium Imperiale is a Japanese global arts prize; Jasper Johns received it in 1993, not in 1988.
National Symbols, Firsts and Superlatives · First in India - persons

Q26. Who was the first finance minister of independent India?

  1. (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
  2. (b) C. Rajagopalachari
  3. (c) Morarji Desai
  4. (d) R. K. Shanmukham Chetty
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) R. K. Shanmukham Chetty

R. K. Shanmukham Chetty was appointed the first Finance Minister of independent India on 15 August 1947. He presented the first Union Budget of free India on 26 November 1947. Option 4 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Jawaharlal Nehru was the first Prime Minister of India, not the Finance Minister.
Option 2 is wrong: C. Rajagopalachari (Rajaji) became the first Indian Governor-General of India in 1948; he was not the Finance Minister.
Option 3 is wrong: Morarji Desai served as Finance Minister later (1958-63 and 1967-69) and eventually as Prime Minister (1977-79), but was not the first Finance Minister.
National Symbols, Firsts and Superlatives · First in India - persons

Q27. Who is the first woman to command an Indian naval warship and appeared on the Kaun Banega Crorepati (KBC) Independence Day special in 2025?

  1. (a) Sofiya Qureshi
  2. (b) Anshula Kapoor
  3. (c) Vyomika Singh
  4. (d) Prerna Deosthalee
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Prerna Deosthalee

Lt. Commander Prerna Deosthalee became the first woman to command an Indian naval warship (INS Trinkat ) and was featured on KBC's Independence Day special in 2025. Option 4 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Sofiya Qureshi is a Brigade Commander in the Indian Army (recently in news for Operation Sindoor briefings) and has not commanded a naval warship.
Option 2 is wrong: Anshula Kapoor is a Bollywood celebrity and film producer, not a naval officer.
Option 3 is wrong: Vyomika Singh is an Indian Air Force helicopter pilot and was part of the Gaganyaan astronaut shortlist, but she is not the first woman to command a naval warship.
Personalities and Nicknames · Founders of companies and organisations

Q28. Which education entrepreneur founded Bachpan Play School and Academic Heights Public School?

  1. (a) Abhishek Mishra
  2. (b) Bhim Singh Bhavesh
  3. (c) Ajay Gupta
  4. (d) Darasing Khurana
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ajay Gupta

Ajay Gupta is the founder of Bachpan Play School and Academic Heights Public School, which have grown into one of India's largest pre-school and school networks. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Abhishek Mishra is not associated with founding Bachpan Play School or Academic Heights Public School.
Option 2 is wrong: Bhim Singh Bhavesh is not credited with founding these educational institutions.
Option 4 is wrong: Darasing Khurana is a known personality from the Kabaddi world and entertainment industry, not an education entrepreneur associated with these schools.
Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q29. Which classical dance is performed in the 'Ras Leela' style to depict stories of Krishna and Radha?

  1. (a) Kathakali
  2. (b) Manipuri
  3. (c) Kathak
  4. (d) Sattriya
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Manipuri

Manipuri classical dance is most prominently performed in the Ras Leela style to depict the divine love stories of Radha and Krishna, and is considered one of the purest expressions of the Vaishnava tradition. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Kathakali is a classical dance-drama from Kerala characterized by elaborate costumes and make-up, depicting stories from the Mahabharata and Ramayana — not specifically the Ras Leela tradition.
Option 3 is wrong: Kathak, from North India, also has Vaishnava themes and can depict Krishna stories, but the Ras Leela format is most distinctively associated with Manipuri.
Option 4 is wrong: Sattriya is a classical dance form from Assam rooted in the Vaishnava Sattras (monasteries), but the Ras Leela style is most specifically attributed to Manipuri.
Dances · Folk dances by state

Q30. Which folk dance form of Maharashtra is known for its powerful expressions and fast-paced rhythm?

  1. (a) Ghoomar
  2. (b) Lavani
  3. (c) Yakshagana
  4. (d) Garba
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Lavani

Lavani is the most popular folk dance of Maharashtra, known for its energetic and powerful expressions, fast-paced rhythm set to the dholak beat, and often performed by women in nauvari (nine-yard) saris. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Ghoomar is a traditional folk dance of Rajasthan, performed by Rajput women; it is characterized by graceful, swirling movements — not Maharashtra.
Option 3 is wrong: Yakshagana is a traditional folk dance-drama from Karnataka, known for its elaborate costumes and all-night performances — not Maharashtra.
Option 4 is wrong: Garba is a folk dance from Gujarat, performed in circular formation especially during Navratri — not a Maharashtra dance form.
Dances · Folk dances by state

Q31. Which of the following is not a folk dance from Gujarat?

  1. (a) Dandiya Raas
  2. (b) Garba
  3. (c) Tippani
  4. (d) Gidda
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Gidda

Gidda is a traditional folk dance of Punjab performed by women, characterized by clapping and singing folk songs ( boliyan ) — it is NOT from Gujarat. Option 4 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Dandiya Raas is a traditional folk dance of Gujarat, performed with decorated sticks, especially during Navratri — it IS a Gujarat dance.
Option 2 is wrong: Garba is one of the most iconic folk dances of Gujarat, performed in circular formations around a lamp or idol during Navratri — it IS a Gujarat dance.
Option 3 is wrong: Tippani is a traditional folk dance of Gujarat, originating among the Koli community, performed by women who strike the ground with a rod — it IS a Gujarat dance.
Sports · Sports terminology

Q32. The term "Parry" is used in ____.

  1. (a) fencing
  2. (b) polo
  3. (c) wrestling
  4. (d) shooting
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) fencing

In fencing, a "Parry" is a defensive action used to deflect or block an opponent's blade attack, preventing the opponent from scoring a touch. It is one of the fundamental techniques in the sport. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: Polo uses terms like 'chukker,' 'nearside,' 'offside,' and 'mallet'; the term 'Parry' is not used in polo.
Option 3 is wrong: Wrestling uses terms like 'takedown,' 'pin,' 'reversal,' and 'escape'; 'Parry' is not a standard wrestling term.
Option 4 is wrong: Shooting sports use terms like 'bore,' 'sight,' 'trigger pull,' and 'stance'; the term 'Parry' does not apply in shooting.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q33. Who is the author of the socio-philosophical work "The Religion of Man"?

  1. (a) Sarojini Naidu
  2. (b) Vinoba Bhave
  3. (c) Rabindranath Tagore
  4. (d) R. C. Dutt
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Rabindranath Tagore

"The Religion of Man" (1931) was written by Rabindranath Tagore, based on his Hibbert Lectures delivered at Oxford University in 1930. The work explores his philosophy of the divine within humanity and the spiritual dimension of human existence. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Sarojini Naidu (the Nightingale of India) was a celebrated poet and political leader; she did not write "The Religion of Man."
Option 2 is wrong: Vinoba Bhave was a social reformer and Gandhian leader known for the Bhoodan movement; he is not the author of this work.
Option 4 is wrong: R.C. Dutt was a civil servant, economist, and historian known for works on Indian economic history; "The Religion of Man" is not his work.
Sports · Number of players and field dimensions

Q34. How many players are on the court for each team at the start of a standard Kabaddi match?

  1. (a) 5
  2. (b) 7
  3. (c) 6
  4. (d) 8
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 7

In standard Kabaddi (as played at the national and international level, including the Pro Kabaddi League), each team has 7 players on the court at the start of the match, with up to 5 substitutes on the bench. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: 5 players per side on court is the standard for Basketball, not Kabaddi.
Option 3 is wrong: 6 players per side on court is the standard for Volleyball, not Kabaddi.
Option 4 is wrong: 8 players per side is not a standard team size in Kabaddi; the correct number is 7 per side on the court.
Sports · National championships - venues and winners

Q35. Which city hosted the first official All India Kho-Kho Championship?

  1. (a) Mumbai
  2. (b) Vijayawada
  3. (c) New Delhi
  4. (d) Hyderabad
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Vijayawada

Vijayawada (Andhra Pradesh) hosted the first official All India Kho-Kho Championship, organized by the Kho Kho Federation of India, marking a significant milestone in the organized promotion of the traditional sport. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Mumbai did not host the inaugural All India Kho-Kho Championship; it has been a venue for various national sports events but not this particular one.
Option 3 is wrong: New Delhi did not host the first All India Kho-Kho Championship; the inaugural event was held in Vijayawada.
Option 4 is wrong: Hyderabad did not host the first official All India Kho-Kho Championship; that honour belongs to Vijayawada.
Sports · Other sports and tournaments (tennis, chess, badminton, etc.)

Q36. The first Wrestling World Championships took place in:

  1. (a) Paris
  2. (b) Vienna
  3. (c) London
  4. (d) Prague
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Vienna

The first Wrestling World Championships (Greco-Roman wrestling) was held in Vienna, Austria in 1904. This marked the formal international organization of wrestling as a competitive sport. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Paris hosted the 1900 Summer Olympics (which included wrestling), but the first Wrestling World Championships specifically was in Vienna, not Paris.
Option 3 is wrong: London is associated with major sporting events including the 1908 and 2012 Olympics, but did not host the first Wrestling World Championships.
Option 4 is wrong: Prague is not historically associated with hosting the first Wrestling World Championships; Vienna, Austria was the host city in 1904.

Ancient History (1)

Mauryan Empire · Ashoka - Kalinga war and Dhamma

Q37. Name the Mauryan ruler who spread Buddhism outside the country.

  1. (a) Chandragupta Maurya
  2. (b) Bindusara
  3. (c) Ashoka
  4. (d) Brihadratha
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ashoka

Emperor Ashoka, after the devastating Kalinga War (261 BCE), embraced Buddhism and actively spread it beyond India's borders by sending missionaries to Sri Lanka, Central Asia, West Asia, and parts of Europe. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Chandragupta Maurya founded the Mauryan Empire and later embraced Jainism; he did not spread Buddhism outside India.
Option 2 is wrong: Bindusara expanded the Mauryan Empire southward but is not associated with spreading Buddhism internationally.
Option 4 is wrong: Brihadratha was the last Mauryan emperor, assassinated by Pushyamitra Shunga; he had no significant role in spreading Buddhism.

Medieval History (1)

Early Medieval North India · Muhammad Ghori and the battles of Tarain

Q38. The Battle of Tarain (1191) was fought between which two leaders?

  1. (a) Prithviraj Chauhan and Muhammad Ghori
  2. (b) Harsha and Pulakeshin II
  3. (c) Babur and Ibrahim Lodi
  4. (d) Akbar and Rana Pratap
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Prithviraj Chauhan and Muhammad Ghori

The First Battle of Tarain (1191) was fought between Prithviraj Chauhan (the Rajput king of Ajmer and Delhi) and Muhammad Ghori (Sultan of Ghor). Prithviraj won this battle. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: Harsha and Pulakeshin II fought the Battle of Narmada (circa 637 CE), not at Tarain .
Option 3 is wrong: Babur and Ibrahim Lodi fought the First Battle of Panipat (1526), which established the Mughal Empire.
Option 4 is wrong: Akbar and Rana Pratap fought the Battle of Haldighati (1576), not the Battle of Tarain .

Physics (2)

Sources of Energy · Renewable energy missions and targets

Q39. The National Solar Mission is a part of which larger national framework?

  1. (a) Make in India
  2. (b) National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC)
  3. (c) Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation
  4. (d) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC)

The National Solar Mission (Jawaharlal Nehru National Solar Mission) is one of eight national missions under the National Action Plan on Climate Change (NAPCC), launched in 2008 by the Government of India to address climate change challenges. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Make in India (2014) is a manufacturing and FDI promotion initiative; it does not encompass national climate missions.
Option 3 is wrong: AMRUT (Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban Transformation) focuses on urban infrastructure like water supply and sewerage, not solar energy.
Option 4 is wrong: Swachh Bharat Abhiyan is a cleanliness and sanitation mission; it is not related to solar energy or the NAPCC framework.
Electricity · Numericals on electricity

Q40. A 100 W bulb operates at 200 V. Find resistance of filament.

  1. (a) 200 Ω
  2. (b) 300 Ω
  3. (c) 400 Ω
  4. (d) 500 Ω
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 400 Ω

Using the power formula P = V²/R, we get R = V²/P = (200)²/100 = 40,000/100 = 400 Ω. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: 200 Ω would correspond to P = V²/R = (200)²/200 = 200 W, not 100 W.
Option 2 is wrong: 300 Ω would give P = (200)²/300 = 133.3 W, not 100 W.
Option 4 is wrong: 500 Ω would give P = (200)²/500 = 80 W, not 100 W.

Geography (1)

India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Forest types and distribution

Q41. What kind of forest is found in the Andaman Islands?

  1. (a) Temperate deciduous
  2. (b) Alpine
  3. (c) Thorn forest
  4. (d) Tropical evergreen
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Tropical evergreen

The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are covered by Tropical Evergreen forests (also called Tropical Rainforests), due to their hot, humid climate with heavy rainfall and no distinct dry season. Option 4 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Temperate deciduous forests grow in temperate regions with seasonal temperature variation, such as parts of Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand — not in the tropical Andaman Islands.
Option 2 is wrong: Alpine forests are found at high altitudes (above 3,000 m) in the Himalayan region; the low-lying Andaman Islands do not have alpine vegetation.
Option 3 is wrong: Thorn forests grow in dry, semi-arid regions with low rainfall (e.g., Rajasthan, parts of Deccan); the Andaman Islands have high rainfall unsuitable for thorn forests.

Current Affairs (6)

Appointments and Resignations · Heads of organisations

Q42. Which ex-athlete was appointed as the chairperson of the Athletics Federation of India's Athletes Commission in January 2025?

  1. (a) Anju Rathi Rana
  2. (b) Vinod Kumar Shukla
  3. (c) Bhim Singh Bhavesh
  4. (d) Anju Bobby George
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Anju Bobby George

Anju Bobby George — India's first and only World Athletics Championship medal winner (bronze, Paris 2003) — was appointed Chairperson of the Athletics Federation of India's Athletes Commission in January 2025. Option 4 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Anju Rathi Rana is a civil servant (IAS officer) and has held administrative roles, but is not related to the AFI Athletes Commission appointment.
Option 2 is wrong: Vinod Kumar Shukla is a sports administrator, not associated with this particular AFI Athletes Commission appointment.
Option 3 is wrong: Bhim Singh Bhavesh is not the athlete appointed to chair the AFI Athletes Commission in January 2025.
Awards and Honours - Current · National awards - current

Q43. Which language's 2024 Sahitya Akademi Award winner was the novel "Ik Hor Ashwathama" by Chaman Arora?

  1. (a) Dogri
  2. (b) Punjabi
  3. (c) Sindhi
  4. (d) Assamese
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Dogri

"Ik Hor Ashwathama" (Another Ashwathama) by Chaman Arora won the Sahitya Akademi Award 2024 for Dogri language, one of the 24 languages recognized by the Sahitya Akademi . Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: The 2024 Sahitya Akademi Award for Punjabi was awarded to a different work and author, not "Ik Hor Ashwathama."
Option 3 is wrong: The 2024 Sahitya Akademi Award for Sindhi was a different work; Chaman Arora writes in Dogri, not Sindhi.
Option 4 is wrong: The 2024 Sahitya Akademi Award for Assamese was a different work; "Ik Hor Ashwathama" is a Dogri-language novel.
Awards and Honours - Current · National awards - current

Q44. Who is the author of the 2024 Sahitya Akademi -winning Kannada work " Nudigala Alivu "?

  1. (a) K.V. Narayana
  2. (b) Lakshmisha Tolpadi
  3. (c) Mudnakudu Chinnaswamy
  4. (d) D.S. Nagabhushana
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) K.V. Narayana

" Nudigala Alivu " (Dissolution of Words) by K.V. Narayana won the Sahitya Akademi Award 2024 for Kannada literature, recognizing his significant contribution to Kannada literary criticism and writing. Option 1 is correct.
Option 2 is wrong: Lakshmisha Tolpadi is a noted Kannada poet and scholar but is not the author of " Nudigala Alivu ."
Option 3 is wrong: Mudnakudu Chinnaswamy is a Dalit poet and activist in Kannada literature, not the winner for " Nudigala Alivu ."
Option 4 is wrong: D.S. Nagabhushana is a Kannada literary critic and writer, but " Nudigala Alivu " is attributed to K.V. Narayana.
Awards and Honours - Current · International awards - current

Q45. Which leader received the highest civilian award of Mauritius, the G.C.S.K., in March 2025?

  1. (a) S. Jaishankar
  2. (b) Narendra Modi
  3. (c) Ram Nath Kovind
  4. (d) Rajnath Singh
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Narendra Modi

Prime Minister Narendra Modi received the G.C.S.K. (Grand Commander of the Order of the Star and Key of the Indian Ocean) — the highest civilian award of Mauritius — during his state visit to Mauritius in March 2025, conferred by President Dharambeer Gokhool. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: S. Jaishankar is India's External Affairs Minister; he did not receive the Mauritius G.C.S.K. in March 2025.
Option 3 is wrong: Ram Nath Kovind is a former President of India (2017-2022); he was not the recipient of this award in March 2025.
Option 4 is wrong: Rajnath Singh is India's Defence Minister; the G.C.S.K. was awarded specifically to Prime Minister Narendra Modi, not to Rajnath Singh.
Awards and Honours - Current · International awards - current

Q46. Who conferred the Grand Commander of the Order of the Star and Key of the Indian Ocean (G.C.S.K.) on PM Narendra Modi in March 2025?

  1. (a) Pravind Jugnauth
  2. (b) Dharambeer Gokhool
  3. (c) Anerood Jugnauth
  4. (d) Navin Ramgoolam
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Dharambeer Gokhool

President Dharambeer Gokhool of Mauritius conferred the G.C.S.K. award on PM Narendra Modi in March 2025 during his official state visit to Mauritius. Gokhool became President of Mauritius in 2025 after the November 2024 elections. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: Pravind Jugnauth was Prime Minister of Mauritius until November 2024, when his party lost the elections. He was not President and was not in office to confer the award in March 2025.
Option 3 is wrong: Sir Anerood Jugnauth, former President and Prime Minister of Mauritius, passed away in 2021 and could not have conferred any award in 2025.
Option 4 is wrong: Navin Ramgoolam became Prime Minister of Mauritius after the November 2024 elections; the President (not the PM) confers state honours , and the President was Dharambeer Gokhool.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · New government schemes and missions

Q47. In March 2025, the Union Cabinet approved the Incentive Scheme for promotion of low-value BHIM-UPI P2M transactions for FY 2024-25 with a total outlay of:

  1. (a) ₹1,000 crore
  2. (b) ₹1,500 crore
  3. (c) ₹2,000 crore
  4. (d) ₹2,500 crore
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) ₹1,500 crore

In March 2025, the Union Cabinet approved an outlay of ₹1,500 crore for the Incentive Scheme to promote low-value BHIM-UPI P2M (Person to Merchant) transactions for FY 2024-25, aimed at encouraging digital payments especially for small-value purchases. Option 2 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: ₹1,000 crore is the incorrect amount; the approved outlay was ₹1,500 crore for this scheme.
Option 3 is wrong: ₹2,000 crore is higher than the actual approved amount of ₹1,500 crore.
Option 4 is wrong: ₹2,500 crore is significantly higher than the ₹1,500 crore approved by the Cabinet for this incentive scheme.

Modern History (1)

British Administration and Policies · Education policies and commissions

Q48. Which of the following is the first Education Commission in independent India?

  1. (a) National Education Commission (1968)
  2. (b) Mudaliar Commission (1952-53)
  3. (c) University Education Commission (1948-49)
  4. (d) Kothari Commission (1964-66)
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) University Education Commission (1948-49)

The University Education Commission (1948-49), chaired by Dr. Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan, was the first Education Commission set up in independent India to review university education and recommend reforms. Option 3 is correct.
Option 1 is wrong: The National Education Commission (Kothari Commission) was set up in 1964-66 — over 15 years after the University Education Commission.
Option 2 is wrong: The Mudaliar Commission (Secondary Education Commission, 1952-53), chaired by Dr. A. Lakshmanswami Mudaliar, was set up after the University Education Commission.
Option 4 is wrong: The Kothari Commission (1964-66) is often called the most comprehensive education commission, but it was constituted much later than the 1948-49 University Education Commission.
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