Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 19 December 2025 Shift 1 GK Questions Asked – Question Paper with Answers & Solutions

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Subjects: Static GK (14) · Polity (9) · Geography (1) · Current Affairs (8) · Medieval History (1) · Economics (14) · Ancient History (1)

Static GK (14)

Monuments and Heritage · Temples and religious places

Q1. The Kailasanatha temple in Ellora was built by which dynasty?

(a) Chera
(b) Nagas
(c) Rashtrakutas
(d) Cholas

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Rashtrakutas

The Kailasanatha (Kailasa) temple at Ellora (Cave 16, Maharashtra) is one of the largest rock-cut cave temples in the world. It was built by the Rashtrakuta king Krishna I (r. 756-773 CE) in the 8th century. The temple is dedicated to Lord Shiva and is carved from a single massive rock. It is a UNESCO World Heritage Site.
Option 1 is incorrect: The Chera dynasty ruled in parts of South India (Kerala/Tamil Nadu) and is not associated with the Ellora temples.
Option 2 is incorrect: The Nagas were ancient tribes/dynasties not associated with the Kailasanatha temple at Ellora.
Option 4 is incorrect: The Cholas ruled primarily in Tamil Nadu and are known for their Dravidian-style temples; the Kailasanatha at Ellora was built by the Rashtrakutas.

Sports · Asian Games and Commonwealth Games

Q2. Which city hosted the 2010 Commonwealth Games?

(a) Delhi
(b) Mumbai
(c) Bangalore
(d) Kolkata

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Delhi

The 2010 Commonwealth Games (XIX Commonwealth Games) were hosted by New Delhi, India, from October 3 to 14, 2010. It was the first time India hosted the Commonwealth Games. The Games featured 71 countries/territories and over 4,000 athletes. India finished second in the overall medal tally with 101 medals (38 gold, 27 silver, 36 bronze).
Option 2 is incorrect: Mumbai has not hosted the Commonwealth Games.
Option 3 is incorrect: Bangalore (Bengaluru) has not hosted the Commonwealth Games.
Option 4 is incorrect: Kolkata has not hosted the Commonwealth Games.

Personalities and Nicknames · Nicknames and titles of persons

Q3. Who is the Indian hockey player famously referred to as the "Wizard of Hockey"?

(a) Dhyan Chand
(b) Dhanraj Pillay
(c) Balbir Singh Sr.
(d) Roop Singh

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Dhyan Chand

Major Dhyan Chand (August 29, 1905 - December 3, 1979) is famously known as the 'Wizard of Hockey' or 'The Magician' for his extraordinary ball control and goal-scoring ability. He won three Olympic gold medals for India (1928, 1932, 1936) and scored over 400 goals in international hockey. India celebrates National Sports Day on August 29, his birthday.
Option 2 is incorrect: Dhanraj Pillay is a celebrated Indian hockey player but is nicknamed 'The Magician' or 'Speedy' rather than the 'Wizard of Hockey.'
Option 3 is incorrect: Balbir Singh Sr. was an outstanding Indian hockey player who won Olympic gold in 1948, 1952, and 1956, but he is not called the 'Wizard of Hockey.'
Option 4 is incorrect: Roop Singh was Dhyan Chand's brother and also an excellent hockey player, but he was not called the 'Wizard of Hockey.'

Awards and Honours · Nobel Prize and international awards

Q4. Identify the Indian author whose work became the first Hindi novel to receive the International Booker Prize.

(a) Kiran Nagarkar
(b) Geetanjali Shree
(c) Anita Agnihotri
(d) Yashpal

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Geetanjali Shree

Geetanjali Shree is the Indian author whose Hindi novel 'Ret Samadhi' (translated into English as 'Tomb of Sand' by Daisy Rockwell) became the first Hindi novel to win the International Booker Prize in 2022. It was also the first Indian-language book to win this prize. The novel explores themes of old age, freedom, and Partition through the journey of an octogenarian woman.
Option 1 is incorrect: Kiran Nagarkar is an acclaimed bilingual author (Marathi and English) known for 'Cuckold' and 'God's Little Soldier'; he has not won the International Booker Prize.
Option 3 is incorrect: Anita Agnihotri is a Bengali writer and IAS officer known for social realist literature; she has not won the International Booker Prize.
Option 4 is incorrect: Yashpal (1903-1976) was a prominent Hindi novelist known for ' Jhootha Sach'; he passed away decades before the International Booker Prize era.

Awards and Honours · Nobel Prize and international awards

Q5. In which year did Jhumpa Lahiri win the Pulitzer Prize for Fiction?

(a) 1998
(b) 2000
(c) 2002
(d) 2004

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 2000

Jhumpa Lahiri won the Pulitzer Prize for Fiction in 2000 for her debut short story collection 'Interpreter of Maladies' (1999). This made her the first person of South Asian origin to win the Pulitzer Prize for Fiction. The collection explores the lives of Indian and Indian-American characters navigating cultural displacement and emotional distance.
Option 1 is incorrect: In 1998, Jhumpa Lahiri had not yet published 'Interpreter of Maladies'; the collection was published in 1999.
Option 3 is incorrect: In 2002, Jhumpa Lahiri published her novel 'The Namesake' but had already won the Pulitzer in 2000.
Option 4 is incorrect: 2004 is not the year of Lahiri's Pulitzer win; she won it in 2000.

Dances · Folk dances by state

Q6. Lavani is a traditional dance of which Indian state?

(a) Karnataka
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Punjab
(d) West Bengal

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Maharashtra

Lavani is a traditional folk music and dance genre of Maharashtra. It is known for its powerful rhythm, energetic movements, and lyrics that address social and political issues. Lavani is performed to the beat of the ' dholki ' (a two-headed drum) and is associated with the 'tamasha' folk theatre. The word 'Lavani' comes from the word 'Lavanya' meaning beauty.
Option 1 is incorrect: Karnataka has its own folk dance forms such as Yakshagana and Dollu Kunitha ; Lavani is not associated with Karnataka.
Option 3 is incorrect: Punjab is known for Bhangra and Giddha folk dances; Lavani is not a Punjabi dance form.
Option 4 is incorrect: West Bengal is known for Baul music, Chhau , and Gambhira; Lavani is not associated with West Bengal.

Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q7. Which dance is characterized by 'Lasya' graceful and feminine movements?

(a) Bharatanatyam
(b) Mohiniyattam
(c) Kathakali
(d) Sattriya

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Mohiniyattam

Mohiniyattam , the classical dance of Kerala, is characterized by the 'Lasya' style - graceful, gentle, swaying, and feminine movements. The name comes from 'Mohini' (the enchantress form of Lord Vishnu) and ' attam ' (dance). The dance features soft circular movements, gentle swaying of the body, and fluid hand gestures (mudras), making it one of India's most elegant classical dance forms.
Option 1 is incorrect: Bharatanatyam from Tamil Nadu uses both 'Nritta' (pure dance), 'Nritya' (expressive dance), and ' Natya ' (drama); it is characterized by geometric patterns and sharp movements rather than exclusively Lasya.
Option 3 is incorrect: Kathakali from Kerala is characterized by 'Tandava' style movements - vigorous, masculine, and dramatic - with elaborate costumes and makeup; it is the opposite of the gentle Lasya style.
Option 4 is incorrect: Sattriya from Assam was originally a masculine monastic dance performed by male monks ( bhokots ); while it has both Lasya and Tandava elements, it is not primarily characterized by Lasya.

Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q8. The novel " Baduku " won the Sahitya Akademi Award (Kannada) in 2004. Who wrote it?

(a) Geetha Nagabhushana
(b) Shantinath K. Desai
(c) B. Puttaswamayya
(d) S.L. Bhyrappa

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Geetha Nagabhushana

The Kannada novel ' Baduku ' (Life) was written by Geetha Nagabhushana and won the Sahitya Akademi Award for Kannada in 2004. Geetha Nagabhushana is a prominent Kannada author known for her feminist and humanist perspectives in literature. ' Baduku ' explores the human condition and the complexities of life in modern society.
Option 2 is incorrect: Shantinath K. Desai won the Sahitya Akademi Award for Kannada in 2000 for 'Om Namo', not ' Baduku '.
Option 3 is incorrect: B. Puttaswamayya is a Kannada literary figure but is not the author of ' Baduku '.
Option 4 is incorrect: S.L. Bhyrappa is one of the most celebrated Kannada novelists (known for 'Parva', ' Vamshavriksha ', etc.) but he did not write ' Baduku '.

Dances · Folk dances by state

Q9. Which state is associated with the folk dance form ' Chhau ', known for martial and acrobatic themes?

(a) Punjab
(b) West Bengal
(c) Kerala
(d) Karnataka

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) West Bengal

West Bengal is associated with the folk dance form ' Chhau ', particularly the Purulia Chhau style which is known for its vigorous martial and acrobatic movements, elaborate headgear, and colourful masks depicting characters from the Ramayana and Mahabharata. Chhau dance is practiced in three distinct styles: Purulia Chhau (West Bengal), Seraikela Chhau (Jharkhand), and Mayurbhanj Chhau (Odisha). All three are recognised by UNESCO as Intangible Cultural Heritage.
Option 1 is incorrect: Punjab is known for Bhangra and Giddha folk dances; Chhau is not associated with Punjab.
Option 3 is incorrect: Kerala is home to Mohiniyattam , Kathakali, and Theyyam ; Chhau is not associated with Kerala.
Option 4 is incorrect: Karnataka is known for Yakshagana and Dollu Kunitha ; Chhau is not a folk dance of Karnataka.

Sports · Sports terminology

Q10. "En Passant" is a special move in ____.

(a) tennis
(b) chess
(c) polo
(d) fencing

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) chess

'En Passant' (French for 'in passing') is a special pawn capture move in chess. It occurs when a pawn moves two squares forward from its starting position and passes an enemy pawn that could have captured it if it had moved only one square. The enemy pawn may capture it 'in passing' as if it had moved only one square, but this capture must be made immediately on the next move.
Option 1 is incorrect: Tennis does not have a move called 'En Passant'; tennis scoring uses terms like deuce, advantage, love, etc.
Option 3 is incorrect: Polo uses terms related to horseback riding and ball striking; 'En Passant' is not a polo term.
Option 4 is incorrect: Fencing uses terms like touche , parry, riposte, and lunge; 'En Passant' is not a fencing term.

Sports · Sports terminology

Q11. In archery, "Fletching" refers to __.

(a) The bowstring grip
(b) The feathers/vanes on the arrow
(c) The anchor point near the chin
(d) The wooden bow riser

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The feathers/vanes on the arrow

In archery, 'Fletching' refers to the feathers or plastic vanes attached to the rear end (nock end) of an arrow. Fletching stabilizes the arrow's flight by creating drag at the rear, making the arrow fly straight and true. Traditionally, fletching was made from bird feathers, but modern arrows use plastic vanes. Typically, three or four fletchings are attached to each arrow.
Option 1 is incorrect: The bowstring grip refers to how the archer holds or draws the bowstring; it is not called 'Fletching.'
Option 3 is incorrect: The anchor point is the consistent position where the drawing hand rests against the archer's face (usually near the chin or cheekbone); it is not called 'Fletching.'
Option 4 is incorrect: The bow riser is the central part (handle section) of the bow; it is not called 'Fletching.'

Sports · Asian Games and Commonwealth Games

Q12. How many gold medals did India win at the 1951 Asian Games?

(a) 12
(b) 14
(c) 15
(d) 16

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 15

India won 15 gold medals at the inaugural 1951 Asian Games, held in New Delhi from March 4-11, 1951. India topped the overall medal tally at those Games with 51 medals in total. India excelled particularly in athletics, wrestling, and cycling. The 1951 Asian Games were the first edition of the Games and were organised at the initiative of India's first Prime Minister, Jawaharlal Nehru.
Option 1 is incorrect: India won 15 gold medals, not 12, at the 1951 Asian Games.
Option 2 is incorrect: India won 15 gold medals, not 14, at the 1951 Asian Games. (14 was the candidate's wrong selection)
Option 4 is incorrect: India won 15 gold medals, not 16, at the 1951 Asian Games.

Sports · Asian Games and Commonwealth Games

Q13. What was India's overall medal rank at Asian Games 2023?

(a) 2nd
(b) 3rd
(c) 4th
(d) 5th

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 4th

India finished 4th in the overall medal standings at the 2023 Asian Games held in Hangzhou, China (September 23 - October 8, 2023). India won a record 107 medals (28 gold, 38 silver, 41 bronze) - its best-ever performance at the Asian Games. China topped the medal tally, followed by Japan (52G) and South Korea (42G), with India finishing 4th.
Option 1 is incorrect: India finished 4th, not 2nd. China and Japan were ahead of South Korea and India.
Option 2 is incorrect: India finished 4th, not 3rd. South Korea (with 42 gold) ranked 3rd and India ranked 4th.
Option 4 is incorrect: India finished 4th, not 5th, at the 2023 Asian Games with a record medal haul.

Sports · Sports and famous players

Q14. Which Indian sportsperson set a world-junior record of 86.48 m in javelin throw in 2016, becoming the first Indian to hold a world record in athletics?

(a) Kashinath Naik
(b) Neeraj Chopra
(c) Devendra Jhajharia
(d) Anil Kumar Singh

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Neeraj Chopra

Neeraj Chopra set the world under-20 (junior) record of 86.48 metres in javelin throw at the 2016 IAAF World U20 Championships in Bydgoszcz, Poland on July 23, 2016, becoming the first Indian to set a world record in track and field athletics. He later won India's first-ever Olympic gold medal in athletics at the Tokyo 2020 Olympics, throwing 87.58 metres .
Option 1 is incorrect: Kashinath Naik is an Indian javelin thrower but did not set the 86.48m world junior record.
Option 3 is incorrect: Devendra Jhajharia is a para-athlete javelin thrower who has won gold medals at the Paralympics; he did not set this world junior record in able-bodied athletics.
Option 4 is incorrect: Anil Kumar Singh is not the athlete associated with this world junior record in javelin throw.

Polity (9)

Parliament · Membership, qualifications and disqualifications

Q15. What is the minimum age required to become a Member of Lok Sabha?

(a) 18 years
(b) 21 years
(c) 25 years
(d) 30 years

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 25 years

Under Article 84(b) of the Indian Constitution, a person must be not less than 25 years of age to be eligible for membership of the Lok Sabha (House of the People). For Rajya Sabha membership, the minimum age is 30 years (Article 84(b)). For state Vidhan Sabha membership, the minimum age is also 25 years.
Option 1 is incorrect: 18 years is the voting age (as per Article 326), not the age for becoming a Member of Parliament.
Option 2 is incorrect: 21 years is not the minimum age for Lok Sabha membership.
Option 4 is incorrect: 30 years is the minimum age for becoming a Member of the Rajya Sabha, not the Lok Sabha.

Union Executive · Prime Minister

Q16. What is the minimum age to become the Prime Minister of India?

(a) 25 years
(b) 30 years
(c) 35 years
(d) 18 years

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 25 years

The Constitution of India does not prescribe a specific minimum age for the Prime Minister. However, the Prime Minister must be a member of either House of Parliament. The minimum age to be a member of the Lok Sabha is 25 years (Article 84), while for the Rajya Sabha it is 30 years. Therefore, the minimum possible age for becoming Prime Minister (if a Lok Sabha member) is 25 years.
Option 2 is incorrect: 30 years is the minimum age for Rajya Sabha membership, not specifically for the Prime Minister.
Option 3 is incorrect: 35 years is not specified anywhere in the Constitution in relation to Parliamentary membership or the Prime Minister's office.
Option 4 is incorrect: 18 years is the voting age; one cannot become a member of Parliament or Prime Minister at 18.

Special Provisions, Official Language and Miscellaneous Provisions · Services under the Union and States (All India Services)

Q17. Which of the following statements is correct about All India Services?

(a) Their creation requires a 2/3 majority resolution of the Rajya Sabha
(b) Their creation is based on an Inter-State Council recommendation
(c) Their creation requires a simple majority of Lok Sabha
(d) Their creation requires a Constitutional Amendment

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Their creation requires a 2/3 majority resolution of the Rajya Sabha

Under Article 312 of the Indian Constitution, Parliament can create new All India Services by passing a resolution supported by not less than 2/3 of the members present and voting, declaring it necessary in the national interest. This resolution must be passed by the Rajya Sabha (Council of States). Existing All India Services include IAS (Indian Administrative Service), IPS (Indian Police Service), and IFoS (Indian Forest Service).
Option 2 is incorrect: The Inter-State Council is a consultative body for Centre-State relations; it has no role in creating All India Services.
Option 3 is incorrect: A simple majority of Lok Sabha alone cannot create an All India Service; it requires a special 2/3 majority resolution of the Rajya Sabha.
Option 4 is incorrect: Creating new All India Services does not require a Constitutional Amendment; it requires only a Rajya Sabha resolution under Article 312.

Amendments and Important Articles · Major constitutional amendments

Q18. Which of the following constitutional Amendments made it mandatory for the state to provide free and compulsory education to children aged 6-14 years?

(a) 73rd Amendment
(b) 86th Amendment
(c) 93rd Amendment
(d) 97th Amendment

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 86th Amendment

The 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002 inserted Article 21A into the Constitution, making free and compulsory education a Fundamental Right for all children between 6 and 14 years of age. This led to the enactment of the Right to Education Act (RTE Act), 2009, which came into force on April 1, 2010. This amendment also amended Article 45 (Early Childhood Care for children below 6) and Article 51A(k) (Fundamental Duty of parents to provide education).
Option 1 is incorrect: The 73rd Amendment Act (1992) dealt with Panchayati Raj institutions, not education rights.
Option 3 is incorrect: The 93rd Amendment Act (2005) dealt with reservations for socially and educationally backward classes in educational institutions, not the fundamental right to education for 6-14 age group.
Option 4 is incorrect: The 97th Amendment Act (2011) dealt with cooperative societies; it is not related to the right to education.

Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q19. What is the subject matter of the Seventh Schedule of the Constitution?

(a) Distribution of revenues between Union and States
(b) Powers of constitutional authorities
(c) Duties of public servants
(d) Distribution of legislative subjects

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Distribution of legislative subjects

The Seventh Schedule of the Indian Constitution deals with the distribution of legislative subjects (powers) between the Centre and States. It contains three lists: Union List (List I) - 97 subjects on which only Parliament can legislate; State List (List II) - 66 subjects on which only State Legislatures can legislate; and Concurrent List (List III) - 47 subjects on which both Parliament and State Legislatures can legislate.
Option 1 is incorrect: The distribution of revenues between the Union and States is covered under Articles 268 to 281 (Part XII) of the Constitution, not the Seventh Schedule.
Option 2 is incorrect: Powers of constitutional authorities are described in the respective articles of the Constitution (Articles 52-151, etc.), not in the Seventh Schedule.
Option 3 is incorrect: Duties of public servants are governed by service rules and conduct rules, not by the Seventh Schedule.

Judiciary · Tribunals, Lok Adalats and legal services

Q20. Which of the following amendment created the Tribunals under Articles 323A and 323B?

(a) 42nd Amendment
(b) 44th Amendment
(c) 48th Amendment
(d) 52nd Amendment

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 42nd Amendment

The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976 (often called the 'Mini Constitution' as it made sweeping changes) added Part XIV-A to the Constitution (Articles 323A and 323B), which provides for the establishment of Administrative Tribunals. Article 323A deals with Administrative Tribunals for Central and State government service matters, while Article 323B deals with Tribunals for other matters like taxation, industrial disputes, etc.
Option 2 is incorrect: The 44th Amendment Act (1978) mainly restored civil liberties curtailed during Emergency and changed property from a Fundamental Right to a legal right; it did not create the Tribunal articles.
Option 3 is incorrect: There is no significant 48th Amendment relevant to Tribunals.
Option 4 is incorrect: The 52nd Amendment Act (1985) added the Tenth Schedule (Anti-Defection Law); it did not deal with Tribunals.

Constitutional and Non-Constitutional Bodies · Lokpal and Lokayukta

Q21. Who was sworn in as the Judicial Member of the Lokpal of India, with the oath administered by Justice A. M. Khanwilkar ?

(a) Shri Pankaj Kumar
(b) Shri Ajay Tirkey
(c) Justice Ritu Raj Awasthi
(d) Justice R. Banumathi

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Justice Ritu Raj Awasthi

Justice Ritu Raj Awasthi was sworn in as a Judicial Member of the Lokpal of India. The oath was administered by Justice A.M. Khanwilkar, who serves as the Chairperson of the Lokpal. Justice Ritu Raj Awasthi served as the Chief Justice of the Karnataka High Court and was known for landmark judgments including the hijab ban case.
Option 1 is incorrect: Shri Pankaj Kumar served as a non-judicial/expert Member of the Lokpal; he is not associated with the Judicial Member role sworn in by Justice Khanwilkar.
Option 2 is incorrect: Shri Ajay Tirkey served as a Member of the Lokpal (non-judicial) but was not sworn in as the Judicial Member by Justice Khanwilkar.
Option 4 is incorrect: Justice R. Banumathi is a former Supreme Court judge who has served on various bodies; she was not the one sworn in as Judicial Member of Lokpal by Justice Khanwilkar.

Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q22. Under the Bharatiya Nyaya (Second) Sanhita, 2023, adulteration of food or drink for sale is punishable with imprisonment up to six months. Which special law prescribes punishment up to life imprisonment for the manufacture or sale of unsafe food?

(a) Food Adulteration Act, 1954
(b) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006
(c) Essential Commodities Act, 1955
(d) Consumer Protection Act, 2019

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006

The Food Safety and Standards Act (FSSA), 2006 prescribes stringent punishments for unsafe food, including up to life imprisonment for adulterating food or drink so as to render it noxious, and up to life imprisonment for manufacturing or selling food in an unsafe manner when it results in grievous hurt or death. FSSA is the primary special legislation governing food safety in India and is enforced by the Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI).
Option 1 is incorrect: The Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954 was repealed and replaced by the FSSA 2006; it is no longer the operative law.
Option 3 is incorrect: The Essential Commodities Act, 1955 deals with supply and distribution of essential commodities; it does not specifically prescribe life imprisonment for unsafe food manufacture.
Option 4 is incorrect: The Consumer Protection Act, 2019 provides for consumer rights and product liability but does not specifically prescribe life imprisonment for unsafe food manufacture or sale.

Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q23. According to the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha (Second) Sanhita, 2023, which additional type of specimen may now be collected during investigation along with handwriting and finger impressions?

(a) Hair samples
(b) Voice samples
(c) Blood group
(d) DNA profiles

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Voice samples

Under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023, voice samples have been added as a new type of specimen that can be collected from an accused or arrested person during investigation. This is in addition to the existing provisions for collecting handwriting, signatures, and finger impressions. This provision enhances the toolkit available to investigators for forensic analysis and identification.
Option 1 is incorrect: Hair samples were not specifically added as the new specimen type under BNSS 2023 in this context.
Option 3 is incorrect: Blood group testing was not the specific new addition to the investigation specimen collection provisions under BNSS 2023.
Option 4 is incorrect: While DNA profiling is used in criminal investigation, DNA profiles were not the specific new type of specimen added alongside handwriting and fingerprints in this BNSS 2023 provision.

Geography (1)

Lithosphere - Earth's Interior and Landforms · Fluvial landforms

Q24. Which is the largest delta in the world?

(a) Ganga-Brahmaputra Delta
(b) Amazon Delta
(c) Mekong Delta
(d) Nile Delta

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Ganga-Brahmaputra Delta

The Ganga-Brahmaputra Delta (also called the Sundarbans Delta or Bengal Delta) is the largest delta in the world, covering approximately 100,000 sq km across Bangladesh and the Indian state of West Bengal. It is formed by the Ganga, Brahmaputra, and Meghna rivers. It is also home to the Sundarbans, the world's largest mangrove forest.
Option 2 is incorrect: The Amazon Delta in Brazil is large but not the world's largest delta.
Option 3 is incorrect: The Mekong Delta in Vietnam is a significant delta but much smaller than the Ganga-Brahmaputra Delta.
Option 4 is incorrect: The Nile Delta in Egypt is historically important but far smaller than the Ganga-Brahmaputra Delta in terms of area.

Current Affairs (8)

Awards and Honours - Current · International awards - current

Q25. What is the title of the Indian book shortlisted for the International Booker Prize 2025?

(a) Tomb of Sand
(b) Heart Lamp
(c) The God of Small Things
(d) Midnight's Children

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Heart Lamp

'Heart Lamp' (Hridaya Deepa) by Kannada author Banu Mushtaq, translated into English by Deepa Bhasthi, was shortlisted for the International Booker Prize 2025. The book is a collection of short stories exploring the lives of Muslim women in South India. It went on to win the International Booker Prize 2025, making it a landmark achievement for Kannada literature.
Option 1 is incorrect: 'Tomb of Sand' by Geetanjali Shree (translated by Daisy Rockwell) won the International Booker Prize in 2022, not 2025.
Option 3 is incorrect: 'The God of Small Things' by Arundhati Roy won the Man Booker Prize in 1997; it was not shortlisted for the 2025 International Booker Prize.
Option 4 is incorrect: 'Midnight's Children' by Salman Rushdie won the Booker Prize in 1981; it was not shortlisted for the 2025 International Booker Prize.

Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q26. Who is appointed as the Governor of Goa in 2025?

(a) Ashim Kumar Ghosh
(b) Kavinder Gupta
(c) Pusapati Ashok Gajapathi Raju
(d) V. Shanmuganathan

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Pusapati Ashok Gajapathi Raju

Pusapati Ashok Gajapathi Raju was appointed as the Governor of Goa in 2025. He is a veteran politician from Andhra Pradesh who served as Union Minister of Civil Aviation (2014-2016). His appointment as Governor of Goa continued a series of gubernatorial appointments in 2025.
Option 1 is incorrect: Prof. Ashim Kumar Ghosh was appointed as the Governor of Haryana in 2025, not Goa.
Option 2 is incorrect: Kavinder Gupta served as Governor of Mizoram; he was not appointed as Governor of Goa in 2025.
Option 4 is incorrect: V. Shanmuganathan served as Governor of Meghalaya (2015-2017) and is not the Goa Governor appointed in 2025.

Awards and Honours - Current · National awards - current

Q27. Which Assamese book won the Sahitya Akademi Award in 2024, in the poetry category?

(a) Bhool Satya - Manoj Kumar Goswami
(b) Pharingbore Bator Katha Jane - Sameer Tanti
(c) Iyat Ekhan Aaronya Asil - Anuradha Sarma Pujari
(d) Akashar Chhabi Aru Anyanya Galpa - Kula Saikia

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Pharingbore Bator Katha Jane - Sameer Tanti

' Pharingbore Bator Katha Jane' (Songs Along the Path) by Sameer Tanti won the Sahitya Akademi Award in 2024 in the Assamese poetry category. Sameer Tanti is a noted Assamese poet known for his distinctive voice and bold literary expressions. The Sahitya Akademi Award is India's second-highest literary honour , awarded annually in 24 languages.
Option 1 is incorrect: 'Bhool Satya' by Manoj Kumar Goswami is an Assamese literary work but did not win the 2024 Sahitya Akademi Award for poetry.
Option 3 is incorrect: 'Iyat Ekhan Aaronya Asil' by Anuradha Sarma Pujari is a well-known Assamese novel; it is not the 2024 poetry award winner.
Option 4 is incorrect: ' Akashar Chhabi Aru Anyanya Galpa ' by Kula Saikia is a short story collection; it did not win the 2024 Sahitya Akademi Award in the poetry category.

Appointments and Resignations · Heads of organisations

Q28. Who chaired the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) in 2024?

(a) P. D. Vaghela
(b) Anil Kumar Lahoti
(c) Subodh Kumar Singh
(d) A. K. Bhalla

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Anil Kumar Lahoti

Anil Kumar Lahoti chaired the Telecom Regulatory Authority of India (TRAI) in 2024. He was appointed as TRAI Chairman in 2023 and served in 2024. He is a 1988-batch IRS (Indian Revenue Service) officer with extensive experience in taxation and regulatory affairs.
Option 1 is incorrect: P.D. Vaghela served as TRAI Chairman from 2020 to 2023; his tenure ended before 2024.
Option 3 is incorrect: Subodh Kumar Singh has held various government positions but was not the TRAI Chairman in 2024.
Option 4 is incorrect: A.K. Bhalla is a senior IAS officer who served as Union Home Secretary; he was not the TRAI Chairman in 2024.

Books, Obituaries and Days - Current · Days and themes - current year

Q29. Who graced and addressed the 15th National Voters' Day celebrations held in New Delhi in 2025?

(a) Prime Minister Narendra Modi
(b) Chief Justice D. Y. Chandrachud
(c) President Droupadi Murmu
(d) Vice President Jagdeep Dhankhar

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) President Droupadi Murmu

President Droupadi Murmu graced and addressed the 15th National Voters' Day celebrations held in New Delhi on January 25, 2025. National Voters' Day is celebrated every year on January 25 to mark the foundation day of the Election Commission of India (established on January 25, 1950). The 15th National Voters' Day in 2025 carried the theme 'Nothing Like Voting, I Vote for Sure.'
Option 1 is incorrect: Prime Minister Narendra Modi did not address the 15th National Voters' Day celebrations; it was President Droupadi Murmu.
Option 2 is incorrect: Chief Justice D.Y. Chandrachud (CJI until November 2024) was not the chief guest at this event; President Murmu presided.
Option 4 is incorrect: Vice President Jagdeep Dhankhar was not the chief guest at the 15th National Voters' Day; President Droupadi Murmu graced the occasion.

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q30. The Mahila Sashaktikaran Mahasammelan, addressed by the Prime Minister in May 2025, marked the 300th birth anniversary of which historical figure?

(a) Rani Lakshmi Bai
(b) Devi Ahilyabai Holkar
(c) Savitribai Phule
(d) Rani Durgavati

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Devi Ahilyabai Holkar

The Mahila Sashaktikaran Mahasammelan addressed by Prime Minister Narendra Modi in May 2025 marked the 300th birth anniversary of Devi Ahilyabai Holkar (born May 31, 1725). Ahilyabai Holkar was the remarkable Holkar dynasty ruler of the Malwa Kingdom (present-day Madhya Pradesh) who was known for her just administration, philanthropic work, and restoration of many Hindu temples across India.
Option 1 is incorrect: Rani Lakshmi Bai of Jhansi was born in 1828; her 300th birth anniversary would be in 2128, not 2025.
Option 3 is incorrect: Savitribai Phule was born on January 3, 1831; her 300th birth anniversary would be in 2131, not 2025.
Option 4 is incorrect: Rani Durgavati (1524-1564) was a warrior queen of Gondwana; her 300th anniversary would have been much earlier.

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · New government schemes and missions

Q31. In February 2025, who launched the Mutual Credit Guarantee Scheme for MSMEs (MCGS-MSME)?

(a) Piyush Goyal
(b) Nirmala Sitharaman
(c) Rajeev Chandrasekhar
(d) Jyotiraditya Scindia

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Nirmala Sitharaman

Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman launched the Mutual Credit Guarantee Scheme for MSMEs (MCGS-MSME) in February 2025. The scheme provides credit guarantees to MSMEs to help them access formal credit without collateral. It was part of the government's broader initiative to support the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises sector, which is the backbone of India's economy.
Option 1 is incorrect: Piyush Goyal serves as Union Commerce Minister; while he oversees MSME policy matters, the MCGS-MSME was launched by Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman.
Option 3 is incorrect: Rajeev Chandrasekhar has held various Union Ministerial positions; he was not the one who launched MCGS-MSME in February 2025.
Option 4 is incorrect: Jyotiraditya Scindia has served as Union Minister for Civil Aviation and Steel; he was not involved in launching the MCGS-MSME scheme.

National Affairs and Government Initiatives · New government schemes and missions

Q32. Under the Ayushman Vay Vandana Scheme, senior citizens aged 70+ are eligible for free treatment benefits up to:

(a) Rs.1 lakh per year
(b) Rs.2 lakh per year
(c) Rs.3 lakh per year
(d) Rs.5 lakh per year

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Rs.5 lakh per year

Under the Ayushman Vay Vandana Scheme (Ayushman Bharat - Pradhan Mantri Jan Arogya Yojana for senior citizens aged 70 years and above), all senior citizens aged 70+ are eligible for free health coverage of up to Rs. 5 lakh per year per family for secondary and tertiary healthcare. This scheme was announced by PM Narendra Modi in 2024 and provides universal health coverage to elderly citizens regardless of their economic status.
Option 1 is incorrect: The coverage under the Ayushman Vay Vandana Scheme is Rs. 5 lakh per year, not Rs. 1 lakh per year.
Option 2 is incorrect: The coverage is Rs. 5 lakh per year, not Rs. 2 lakh per year.
Option 3 is incorrect: The coverage is Rs. 5 lakh per year, not Rs. 3 lakh per year.

Medieval History (1)

Mughal Empire · Babur and his battles

Q33. The Battle of Khanwa (1527) was fought between which two leaders?

(a) Babur and Rana Sanga
(b) Akbar and Rana Pratap
(c) Humayun and Sher Shah Suri
(d) Alauddin Khilji and Prithviraj Chauhan

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Babur and Rana Sanga

The Battle of Khanwa (March 16-17, 1527) was fought between Babur, the founder of the Mughal Empire, and Rana Sanga (Maharana Sangram Singh) of Mewar. Babur emerged victorious, consolidating Mughal power in North India. After this victory, Babur assumed the title 'Ghazi' (warrior of the faith).
Option 2 is incorrect: Akbar and Rana Pratap fought the Battle of Haldighati in 1576, not at Khanwa .
Option 3 is incorrect: Humayun and Sher Shah Suri fought the Battles of Chausa (1539) and Kanauj (1540), not at Khanwa .
Option 4 is incorrect: Alauddin Khilji and Prithviraj Chauhan did not fight each other; the Second Battle of Tarain (1192) was between Muhammad of Ghor and Prithviraj Chauhan.

Economics (14)

External Sector and International Economic Organisations · Economic groupings (BRICS, G20, ASEAN)

Q34. Which of the following countries is NOT listed among BRICS 'partner countries' as of 2025?

(a) Cuba
(b) Belarus
(c) Argentina
(d) Uganda

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Argentina

Argentina is NOT listed among the BRICS partner countries as of 2025. Argentina was invited to become a full BRICS member in 2023, but President Javier Milei's government officially declined the invitation in January 2024 and Argentina withdrew from joining BRICS. The BRICS partner countries (announced at the Kazan Summit, October 2024) include: Algeria, Belarus, Bolivia, Cuba, Indonesia, Kazakhstan, Malaysia, Nigeria, Thailand, Turkey, Uganda, Uzbekistan, and Vietnam.
Option 1 is incorrect: Cuba IS a BRICS partner country, having been invited and accepted at the 2024 Kazan Summit.
Option 2 is incorrect: Belarus IS a BRICS partner country, having been invited and accepted at the 2024 Kazan Summit.
Option 4 is incorrect: Uganda IS a BRICS partner country from Africa, having been invited and accepted at the 2024 Kazan Summit.

Industry and Infrastructure · Disinvestment

Q35. What was the aim of the Disinvestment policy post-1991?

(a) Reduce fiscal burden, improve efficiency, broaden ownership
(b) Stop public investment
(c) Fully privatize all Public Sector Undertakings
(d) Increase market concentration

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Reduce fiscal burden, improve efficiency, broaden ownership

The post-1991 Disinvestment policy in India aimed to: (1) Reduce the fiscal burden on the government by mobilising funds from sale of PSU shares; (2) Improve efficiency of PSUs by exposing them to market discipline and competition; and (3) Broaden ownership base by selling shares to the public, workers, and financial institutions. The policy was not about complete privatisation but about partial stake sale.
Option 2 is incorrect: The disinvestment policy did not aim to stop public investment; the government continued to invest in PSUs while also divesting stakes.
Option 3 is incorrect: The aim was not to fully privatize all PSUs. The policy involved strategic disinvestment in some cases and minority stake sales in others, not blanket privatisation .
Option 4 is incorrect: Increasing market concentration is the opposite of the intended effect; disinvestment was meant to promote competition and market efficiency.

Industry and Infrastructure · Infrastructure sectors

Q36. The New Telecom Policy 1999 introduced:

(a) State monopoly in telecom
(b) Nationalization of internet services
(c) Ban on private operators
(d) Migration to a revenue-sharing regime from a fixed license fee system

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Migration to a revenue-sharing regime from a fixed license fee system

The National Telecom Policy (NTP) 1999 introduced the migration from a fixed license fee system to a revenue-sharing regime. Under the earlier system, telecom operators paid a one-time fixed license fee. NTP 1999 replaced this with revenue sharing, where operators paid a percentage of their Adjusted Gross Revenue (AGR) to the government. This made the telecom sector more financially viable and led to the explosive growth of Indian telecom.
Option 1 is incorrect: NTP 1999 actually ended the state monopoly in telecom by encouraging private competition; the opposite of state monopoly.
Option 2 is incorrect: NTP 1999 did not nationalise internet services; it liberalised the internet service provider (ISP) sector, allowing multiple private players.
Option 3 is incorrect: NTP 1999 did not ban private operators; it actually facilitated the entry of more private telecom companies.

Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Indirect taxes and GST

Q37. What was the most important impact of the Goods and Services Tax (2017)?

(a) Privatization of Public Sector Undertakings
(b) Reduced direct taxes
(c) Creation of a unified national market with destination-based indirect taxation
(d) Abolition of customs duties

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Creation of a unified national market with destination-based indirect taxation

The Goods and Services Tax (GST), implemented on July 1, 2017, created a unified national market by replacing multiple Central and State indirect taxes (VAT, Service Tax, Central Excise, Entry Tax, etc.) with a single comprehensive tax. It introduced destination-based taxation (tax goes to the state where goods/services are consumed, not where they are produced), eliminating the cascading effect of taxes.
Option 1 is incorrect: GST is a tax reform; it has nothing to do with privatization of Public Sector Undertakings.
Option 2 is incorrect: GST is an indirect tax reform; it did not reduce direct taxes like income tax or corporate tax.
Option 4 is incorrect: GST did not abolish customs duties; customs duties on imports are a separate category and were not subsumed under GST.

Industry and Infrastructure · Infrastructure sectors

Q38. Which of the following reforms introduced the concept of "Open Access" in electricity distribution?

(a) Energy Act 1999
(b) Electricity Act 2003
(c) Power Trading Reform Policy 2001
(d) Ujwal DISCOM Assurance Yojana

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Electricity Act 2003

The Electricity Act 2003 introduced the concept of 'Open Access' in India's electricity sector. Under this provision, consumers (particularly large industrial and commercial users) can choose their electricity supplier and access the transmission/distribution network by paying wheeling charges. This promoted competition in the power sector by separating generation from transmission and distribution.
Option 1 is incorrect: There is no 'Energy Act 1999' in India's electricity sector reform history.
Option 3 is incorrect: There is no formal 'Power Trading Reform Policy 2001' that introduced Open Access in the electricity sector.
Option 4 is incorrect: Ujwal DISCOM Assurance Yojana (UDAY, 2015) was a scheme to improve the financial health of electricity distribution companies (DISCOMs); it did not introduce the concept of Open Access.

External Sector and International Economic Organisations · Foreign trade policy and EXIM

Q39. Which trade policy strategy was adopted by India in the 1950s-1960s?

(a) Foreign direct investment liberalization
(b) Free trade with developed nations
(c) Export-led growth
(d) Import substitution industrialization

Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Import substitution industrialization

India adopted Import Substitution Industrialization (ISI) as its trade policy strategy in the 1950s-1960s. This strategy involved: protecting domestic industries through high tariffs and import licensing; promoting self-sufficiency in manufacturing; restricting foreign investment; and developing heavy industries through public sector enterprises. While ISI helped build India's industrial base, it also led to inefficiencies and the 'License Raj.'
Option 1 is incorrect: FDI liberalization was part of India's post-1991 reform era, not the 1950s-60s policy.
Option 2 is incorrect: India maintained high import barriers and did not pursue free trade with developed nations in the 1950s-60s.
Option 3 is incorrect: Export-led growth became India's strategy after the 1991 economic reforms, not in the 1950s-60s.

Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q40. During which five year plan, the Steel Plants at Bhilai , Rourkela, and Durgapur were built?

(a) First Plan
(b) Second Plan
(c) Third Plan
(d) Plan Holiday

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Second Plan

The steel plants at Bhilai (Chhattisgarh), Rourkela (Odisha), and Durgapur (West Bengal) were built during the Second Five-Year Plan (1956-1961). These were set up with foreign collaboration: Bhilai with Soviet assistance, Rourkela with West German assistance, and Durgapur with British assistance. These plants symbolised India's heavy industrialisation drive and are considered iconic achievements of the Nehru era.
Option 1 is incorrect: The First Plan (1951-56) focused on agriculture and rehabilitation; no major steel plants were established then.
Option 3 is incorrect: The Third Plan (1961-66) further developed existing industries but the three major steel plants were already built in the Second Plan.
Option 4 is incorrect: The Plan Holiday (1966-69, three Annual Plans) followed the Third Plan; by then the Bhilai , Rourkela, and Durgapur plants were already operational.

Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Market structures (perfect competition, monopoly, oligopoly)

Q41. Which of the following is not a characteristic of oligopoly?

(a) Infinite sellers
(b) Mutual interdependence
(c) Homogeneous or differentiated products
(d) Few large firms

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Infinite sellers

'Infinite sellers' is NOT a characteristic of oligopoly. Oligopoly is a market structure characterized by: (1) Few large firms (small number of dominant sellers); (2) Mutual interdependence (each firm's decisions affect others); (3) Barriers to entry; (4) Products may be homogeneous (e.g., steel) or differentiated (e.g., automobiles). Examples of oligopolies include the automobile industry, mobile networks, and airline industry.
Option 2 is incorrect as an answer: Mutual interdependence IS a defining characteristic of oligopoly - firms are aware of each other's actions and react to them.
Option 3 is incorrect as an answer: Having homogeneous or differentiated products IS a characteristic of oligopoly markets.
Option 4 is incorrect as an answer: Few large firms IS the most fundamental characteristic of oligopoly. 'Infinite sellers' belongs to perfect competition, not oligopoly.

Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Cost, revenue and utility concepts

Q42. In the short run, a firm will shut down if:

(a) Marginal cost > Average cost
(b) Price < Average Total Cost
(c) Price < Average Variable Cost
(d) Total revenue < Total cost

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Price < Average Variable Cost

In the short run, a firm will shut down if Price < Average Variable Cost (AVC). When price falls below AVC, the firm cannot even cover its variable costs. In this case, it is better to shut down temporarily and incur only fixed costs, rather than produce and incur losses greater than fixed costs. The shutdown point is at the minimum point of the AVC curve. This is different from the long-run exit decision.
Option 1 is incorrect: Marginal cost > Average cost is not the shutdown condition; it simply indicates that MC is pulling AC up (which is normal above the minimum AC).
Option 2 is incorrect: Price < Average Total Cost (ATC) means the firm is making losses but should continue in the short run as long as it can cover variable costs (Price > AVC). It exits in the long run if this continues.
Option 4 is incorrect: Total revenue < Total cost means the firm is making an overall loss, but this alone doesn't mean it should shut down in the short run - as long as TR > TVC (i.e., P > AVC), the firm should continue to minimise losses.

Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Economic laws and terms (Gresham's, Say's, Engel's, etc.)

Q43. In the short-run Phillips Curve:

(a) Inflation and unemployment are negatively related
(b) Trade-off exists only in the long run
(c) Inflation and unemployment are positively related
(d) No relation exists

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Inflation and unemployment are negatively related

The short-run Phillips Curve shows a negative (inverse) relationship between inflation and unemployment. As unemployment decreases (more people employed, higher demand), inflation tends to increase, and vice versa. This trade-off was observed by A.W. Phillips in 1958 from UK data. In the short run, policymakers can choose between higher inflation with lower unemployment (expansionary policy) or lower inflation with higher unemployment (contractionary policy).
Option 2 is incorrect: The trade-off exists in the SHORT run, not just in the long run. In the long run (as per Friedman and Phelps), the Phillips Curve is vertical at the natural rate of unemployment with no inflation-unemployment trade-off.
Option 3 is incorrect: Inflation and unemployment are negatively related (not positively) in the short-run Phillips Curve.
Option 4 is incorrect: A clear inverse relationship does exist between inflation and unemployment in the short run; the relationship is well-documented in the Phillips Curve.

National Income · Methods of measuring national income

Q44. Which of the following components is excluded from Gross Domestic Product?

(a) Imports
(b) Net exports
(c) Government spending
(d) Investment

Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Imports

Imports are excluded from (subtracted in) the Gross Domestic Product calculation. The expenditure approach to GDP uses the formula: GDP = C + I + G + (X - M), where C = Private Consumption, I = Investment, G = Government Spending, X = Exports, and M = Imports. Imports are subtracted because they represent goods/services produced abroad and consumed domestically, not domestic production.
Option 2 is incorrect: Net exports (X - M) ARE included in GDP; they represent the external sector's contribution to domestic production.
Option 3 is incorrect: Government spending (G) IS included in GDP as it represents government's contribution to domestic output.
Option 4 is incorrect: Investment (I) IS included in GDP as it represents capital formation, a key component of domestic production.

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Youth development schemes

Q45. Under the National Youth Parliament Scheme (NYPS 2.0), students of Classes VI to XII can participate under which sub-category?

(a) Yuva Sabha
(b) Vidyarthi Sabha
(c) Kishore Sabha
(d) Samaj Sabha

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Kishore Sabha

Under the National Youth Parliament Scheme (NYPS 2.0), students of Classes VI to XII are classified under the 'Kishore Sabha' sub-category. NYPS 2.0 is managed by the Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs and aims to familiarise youth with the workings of Parliament. The scheme has three sub-categories: Kishore Sabha (Classes VI-XII), Tarun Sabha (undergraduate and postgraduate students), and Yuva Manch (for other youth).
Option 1 is incorrect: 'Yuva Sabha' is not the sub-category for Classes VI-XII students under NYPS 2.0.
Option 2 is incorrect: 'Vidyarthi Sabha' is not a recognised sub-category under the NYPS 2.0 framework.
Option 4 is incorrect: 'Samaj Sabha' is not a sub-category under NYPS 2.0; 'Kishore Sabha' is the correct category for school students of Classes VI to XII.

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Housing, sanitation and rural development schemes

Q46. Under the Amrit Sarovar initiative, each water body created or rejuvenated was generally planned to have a typical pondage area of approximately how much?

(a) 0.25 acre
(b) 0.5 acre
(c) 1 acre
(d) 2 acres

Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1 acre

Under the Amrit Sarovar initiative, launched on April 24, 2022 (National Panchayati Raj Day), each water body was planned to have a minimum pondage (storage) area of 1 acre. The initiative aimed to develop and rejuvenate 75 water bodies (one per district) in each district of India as part of Azadi Ka Amrit Mahotsav (75th year of India's Independence). By March 2023, over 50,000 Amrit Sarovars had been created/rejuvenated across India.
Option 1 is incorrect: The minimum pondage area planned was 1 acre, not 0.25 acre.
Option 2 is incorrect: The minimum pondage area planned was 1 acre, not 0.5 acre.
Option 4 is incorrect: The minimum pondage area planned was 1 acre, not 2 acres.

Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Financial inclusion schemes (PMJDY, PMJJBY, PMSBY, APY)

Q47. Which of the following schemes aims to provide working capital loans to street vendors?

(a) MUDRA Yojana
(b) PM SVANidhi
(c) DDU-GKY
(d) Stand Up India

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) PM SVANidhi

PM SVANidhi (Pradhan Mantri Street Vendor's AtmaNirbhar Nidhi) is specifically designed to provide affordable working capital loans to street vendors. Launched on June 1, 2020, it provides collateral-free loans of Rs. 10,000 (extended to Rs. 20,000 and then Rs. 50,000 for good repayment history) to street vendors to restart their businesses. It also promotes digital transactions.
Option 1 is incorrect: MUDRA Yojana (Micro Units Development and Refinance Agency) provides loans to micro-enterprises broadly under Shishu , Kishore, and Tarun categories; it is not specifically targeted at street vendors.
Option 3 is incorrect: DDU-GKY (Deen Dayal Upadhyaya Grameen Kaushalya Yojana) is a skill development programme for rural youth; it does not provide working capital loans to street vendors.
Option 4 is incorrect: Stand Up India provides loans to SC/ST entrepreneurs and women for setting up greenfield enterprises; it is not specifically for street vendors.

Ancient History (1)

Post-Gupta Period · Harshavardhana

Q48. The classical text "Harsha Charita", a biography of King Harsha, was authored by:

(a) Kalhana
(b) Banabhatta
(c) Ravikirti
(d) Bilhana

Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Banabhatta

Harsha Charita (Adventures of Harsha) was authored by Banabhatta (Bana), the court poet of King Harshavardhana (r. 606-647 CE) in the 7th century CE. It is written in Sanskrit prose and is considered one of the earliest examples of prose literature in Sanskrit. Banabhatta also wrote 'Kadambari', considered the world's first novel.
Option 1 is incorrect: Kalhana was a 12th-century Kashmiri poet who authored ' Rajatarangini ' (a chronicle of Kashmir's kings), not Harsha Charita.
Option 3 is incorrect: Ravikirti was the court poet of Chalukya king Pulakesi II and composed the Aihole inscription; he did not write Harsha Charita.
Option 4 is incorrect: Bilhana was an 11th-century Kashmiri poet who wrote ' Vikramankadevacharita '; he did not write Harsha Charita.

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