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Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 24 December 2025 Shift 2 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 50 GK / GS questions asked in Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 on 24 December 2025 Shift 2, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Polity, Economics, Geography, Current Affairs, Physics, Biology.

📚 50 questions🗓️ 24 December 2025⏰ Shift 2
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Subjects: Polity (7) · Economics (9) · Geography (9) · Current Affairs (8) · Physics (3) · Biology (3) · Static GK (8) · Ancient History (3)

Polity (7)

Constitutional Development and Making · Objectives Resolution, adoption and enactment dates

Q1. The Objectives Resolution was moved in the Constituent Assembly by:

  1. (a) Jawaharlal Nehru
  2. (b) Vallabhbhai Patel
  3. (c) B.R. Ambedkar
  4. (d) Rajendra Prasad
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Jawaharlal Nehru

The correct answer is Jawaharlal Nehru (Option 1).
The Objectives Resolution was moved by Jawaharlal Nehru in the Constituent Assembly on December 13, 1946. This resolution laid down the fundamental principles and philosophy of the Indian Constitution, declaring India as an Independent Sovereign Republic.
Option 2 - Vallabhbhai Patel: Patel chaired the Advisory Committee on Fundamental Rights and Minorities; he did not move the Objectives Resolution.
Option 3 - B.R. Ambedkar: Ambedkar was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution; he did not move the Objectives Resolution.
Option 4 - Rajendra Prasad: Rajendra Prasad was the President of the Constituent Assembly; he did not move the Objectives Resolution.
Constitutional Development and Making · Constituent Assembly - formation and members

Q2. Who was the temporary chairman of the Constituent Assembly?

  1. (a) B.N. Rau
  2. (b) Sachidanand Sinha
  3. (c) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
  4. (d) H.C. Mukherjee
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Sachidanand Sinha

The correct answer is Sachidanand Sinha (Option 2).
Sachidanand Sinha served as the temporary (pro tem ) chairman of the Constituent Assembly when it first met on December 9, 1946. He was the eldest member of the Assembly and thus presided over the initial proceedings until a permanent President was elected.
Option 1 - B.N. Rau: B.N. Rau served as the Constitutional Adviser to the Constituent Assembly and prepared the initial draft of the Constitution; he was not the temporary chairman.
Option 3 - Dr. Rajendra Prasad: Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected as the permanent President of the Constituent Assembly on December 11, 1946; he was not the temporary chairman.
Option 4 - H.C. Mukherjee: H.C. Mukherjee served as the Vice President of the Constituent Assembly; he was not the temporary chairman.
Constitutional Development and Making · Borrowed features - sources of the Constitution

Q3. Which of the following features of the Indian Constitution is borrowed from the U.S. Constitution?

  1. (a) Fundamental Rights
  2. (b) Emergency provisions
  3. (c) Directive Principles
  4. (d) Parliamentary system
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Fundamental Rights

The correct answer is Fundamental Rights (Option 1).
The concept of Fundamental Rights in the Indian Constitution is borrowed from the Bill of Rights of the United States Constitution. These rights guarantee basic civil liberties and freedoms to Indian citizens, protecting them from arbitrary government action.
Option 2 - Emergency provisions: Emergency provisions in the Indian Constitution are primarily borrowed from the Weimar Constitution of Germany.
Option 3 - Directive Principles: The Directive Principles of State Policy are borrowed from the Constitution of Ireland (Eire).
Option 4 - Parliamentary system: The Parliamentary system of government is borrowed from the British Constitution (Westminster model).
State Government · Governor - appointment and powers

Q4. Who is the constitutional head of a state?

  1. (a) Chief Minister
  2. (b) Governor
  3. (c) Prime Minister
  4. (d) President
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Governor

The correct answer is Governor (Option 2).
The Governor is the constitutional head of a state in India. Under Article 153 of the Indian Constitution, every state shall have a Governor who acts as the nominal executive head. The Governor is appointed by the President and holds office during the pleasure of the President.
Option 1 - Chief Minister: The Chief Minister is the real executive head of the state government, but not the constitutional (nominal) head.
Option 3 - Prime Minister: The Prime Minister is the real executive head of the Union government, not of a state.
Option 4 - President: The President is the constitutional head of India (the Union), not of individual states.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q5. Which of the following minor offences now qualifies for community service as a form of punishment under the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023?

  1. (a) Murder
  2. (b) Defamation
  3. (c) Terrorism
  4. (d) Money Laundering
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Defamation

The correct answer is Defamation (Option 2).
The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 introduces community service as a new form of punishment for certain petty/minor offences. Defamation is among the minor offences listed under BNS where community service can be awarded as a punishment, reflecting a shift towards reformative justice for non-serious offences.
Option 1 - Murder: Murder is a heinous offence under the BNS (Section 101) and attracts severe punishments including life imprisonment or the death penalty; community service is not applicable.
Option 3 - Terrorism: Terrorism is a very serious offence with severe punishments under the BNS and other special laws; community service is not applicable.
Option 4 - Money Laundering: Money Laundering is a financial crime governed by the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA); community service is not a prescribed punishment.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q6. What is the role of the Right to Information Act (RTI) in consumer protection?

  1. (a) To regulate consumer prices
  2. (b) To improve government services
  3. (c) To ensure transparency in government functions
  4. (d) To promote consumer organisations
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) To ensure transparency in government functions

The correct answer is To ensure transparency in government functions (Option 3).
The Right to Information (RTI) Act, 2005 empowers citizens to seek information from public authorities, thereby ensuring transparency and accountability in government functions. In consumer protection, it allows consumers to access information about government policies, decisions, and public service delivery, enabling informed decisions and holding authorities accountable.
Option 1 - Regulate consumer prices: Price regulation is done by bodies like the Competition Commission of India and sector-specific regulators, not through the RTI Act.
Option 2 - Improve government services: While RTI indirectly contributes to service improvement through accountability, its primary role is ensuring transparency, not direct service improvement.
Option 4 - Promote consumer organisations : Promoting consumer organisations is the role of the Consumer Protection Act, 2019 and the Department of Consumer Affairs, not the RTI Act.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q7. What is meant by secondary evidence in legal proceedings?

  1. (a) Only handwritten originals of documents.
  2. (b) Copies or substitutes of original documents accepted in special cases.
  3. (c) Verbal statements made without any documents.
  4. (d) Documents created only by government authorities.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Copies or substitutes of original documents accepted in special cases.

The correct answer is Copies or substitutes of original documents accepted in special cases (Option 2).
Under the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023 (and previously the Indian Evidence Act, 1872), secondary evidence refers to copies of documents or oral descriptions of their contents that are admissible when the original (primary evidence) cannot be produced. It includes certified copies, copies made from originals, and counterparts of documents.
Option 1 - Only handwritten originals of documents: Handwritten originals are primary evidence, not secondary evidence.
Option 3 - Verbal statements made without any documents: Verbal statements constitute oral evidence, not secondary evidence in the documentary context.
Option 4 - Documents created only by government authorities: Secondary evidence is not restricted to government documents; it covers copies of any documents regardless of who created the original.

Economics (9)

Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Sectors of the economy (primary, secondary, tertiary)

Q8. A steel manufacturing plant belongs to which sector of the economy?

  1. (a) Primary Sector
  2. (b) Secondary Sector
  3. (c) Tertiary Sector
  4. (d) Quaternary Sector
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Secondary Sector

The correct answer is Secondary Sector (Option 2).
A steel manufacturing plant belongs to the Secondary (Industrial) Sector of the economy. The secondary sector involves the processing of raw materials obtained from the primary sector into finished goods. Steel manufacturing transforms iron ore (a primary sector product) into steel through industrial processes.
Option 1 - Primary Sector: The primary sector involves direct extraction of natural resources, such as agriculture, mining, and fishing.
Option 3 - Tertiary Sector: The tertiary sector covers services like banking, transport, retail, education, and healthcare — not manufacturing.
Option 4 - Quaternary Sector: The quaternary sector involves knowledge-based activities such as information technology, research, and development.
Financial Markets and Institutions · SEBI and stock exchanges

Q9. What was the main role of the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) post-1992 reforms?

  1. (a) Manage fiscal deficit.
  2. (b) Control bank lending.
  3. (c) Regulate capital markets, protect investors, and ensure fair practices.
  4. (d) Fix interest rates.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Regulate capital markets, protect investors, and ensure fair practices.

The correct answer is Regulate capital markets, protect investors, and ensure fair practices (Option 3).
SEBI was given statutory powers in 1992 through the SEBI Act. Its primary role became regulating and developing the Indian securities markets, protecting the interests of investors, and ensuring fair and transparent trading practices, particularly following the Harshad Mehta securities scam.
Option 1 - Manage fiscal deficit: Fiscal deficit management is the responsibility of the Ministry of Finance and the RBI, not SEBI.
Option 2 - Control bank lending: Bank lending is regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), not SEBI.
Option 4 - Fix interest rates: Interest rates are determined by the RBI's Monetary Policy Committee, not by SEBI.
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Deficits (fiscal, revenue, primary)

Q10. What is Primary deficit?

  1. (a) Revenue deficit minus grants
  2. (b) Fiscal deficit minus interest payments
  3. (c) Fiscal deficit plus interest payments
  4. (d) None of these
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Fiscal deficit minus interest payments

The correct answer is Fiscal deficit minus interest payments (Option 2).
Primary Deficit is defined as the Fiscal Deficit minus the interest payments made by the government on its borrowings. It reflects the government's borrowing needs excluding interest obligations, indicating the extent to which current expenditure (other than interest) exceeds revenue.
Formula: Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit - Interest Payments
Option 1 - Revenue deficit minus grants: This is not the standard definition of Primary Deficit; Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure - Revenue Receipts.
Option 3 - Fiscal deficit plus interest payments: Adding interest payments to the fiscal deficit would give a larger number, not the Primary Deficit.
Option 4 - None of these: This is incorrect because Option 2 correctly defines Primary Deficit.
Industry and Infrastructure · Disinvestment

Q11. What is the primary goal of privatisation ?

  1. (a) To increase government control over public sector enterprises.
  2. (b) To improve financial discipline and facilitate modernisation .
  3. (c) To nationalize private companies and bring them under government control.
  4. (d) To restrict the role of private capital in the economy.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To improve financial discipline and facilitate modernisation .

The correct answer is To improve financial discipline and facilitate modernisation (Option 2).
The primary goal of privatisation is to improve financial discipline and operational efficiency in enterprises by transferring ownership and management from the government to private entities. Privatisation also facilitates modernisation by attracting private investment, better management practices, and technological upgradation.
Option 1 - Increase government control: Privatisation does the opposite — it reduces government control over enterprises.
Option 3 - Nationalise private companies: Nationalisation is the opposite of privatisation ; it involves bringing private companies under government ownership.
Option 4 - Restrict private capital: Privatisation encourages private capital participation; restricting it contradicts the privatisation objective.
Poverty, Unemployment and Human Development · Population and demographic dividend

Q12. Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
Statement 1: The Dependency Ratio is calculated by comparing the population aged 15-60 to the rest of the population.
Statement 2: The Base Population is defined as the total population of an area at the beginning of a specific time period.

  1. (a) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is incorrect.
  2. (b) Statement 2 is correct, but Statement 1 is incorrect.
  3. (c) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct.
  4. (d) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are incorrect.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Statement 2 is correct, but Statement 1 is incorrect.

The correct answer is Statement 2 is correct, but Statement 1 is incorrect (Option 2).
Statement 1 is incorrect: The Dependency Ratio is typically calculated using age groups 0-14 (children) and 65+ (elderly) as dependents, compared to the working-age population (15-64). The statement incorrectly uses 15-60 as the reference group, and also inverts the comparison direction.
Statement 2 is correct: The Base Population is indeed defined as the total population of a given area at the beginning of a specific time period (usually January 1 or the start of the reference year), used as the denominator for calculating demographic rates.
Option 3 - Both correct: This is wrong because Statement 1 has an incorrect age bracket definition.
Option 4 - Both incorrect: This is wrong because Statement 2 is accurate.
Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Sectors of the economy (primary, secondary, tertiary)

Q13. Fill in the blank: By 1990, the proportion of India's GDP contributed by the industrial sector increased from ________ in 1950-51.

  1. (a) 10%
  2. (b) 13%
  3. (c) 15%
  4. (d) 20%
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 13%

The correct answer is 13% (Option 2).
At the time of independence (1950-51), the industrial sector contributed approximately 13% to India's GDP. By 1990, following decades of industrialisation under Five-Year Plans emphasising heavy industry, this proportion had increased significantly, demonstrating the structural transformation of the Indian economy.
Option 1 - 10%: The industrial sector's share in 1950-51 was approximately 13%, not 10%.
Option 3 - 15%: 15% would overestimate the industrial sector's share at the start of India's planning era.
Option 4 - 20%: 20% would significantly overstate the industrial contribution in 1950-51 when India's economy was predominantly agrarian.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Plan holidays and rolling plan

Q14. Why were the Three Annual Plans (1966-69) introduced instead of the Fourth Five-Year Plan?

  1. (a) Successful agricultural growth
  2. (b) Failure of the Third Plan and rupee devaluation
  3. (c) High foreign investment in the economy
  4. (d) Large surplus in food production
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Failure of the Third Plan and rupee devaluation

The correct answer is Failure of the Third Plan and rupee devaluation (Option 2).
The Fourth Five-Year Plan was postponed and replaced by three Annual Plans (1966-69) due to the failure of the Third Five-Year Plan (caused by the 1962 Indo-China War, 1965 Indo-Pakistan War, and two consecutive droughts), combined with the devaluation of the Indian Rupee in 1966. These crises disrupted economic planning, requiring annual rather than five-year budgeting.
Option 1 - Successful agricultural growth: The period saw agricultural setbacks (drought in 1965-66), not success; this was not the reason for Annual Plans.
Option 3 - High foreign investment: High foreign investment did not lead to disrupted planning; the reasons were war, drought, and economic crisis.
Option 4 - Large surplus in food production: Food surplus was not the situation; India faced food shortages and depended on PL-480 wheat imports from the US.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q15. What were the two main objectives proposed in the Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-79)?

  1. (a) Industrialisation and privatisation
  2. (b) Removal of poverty and attainment of self-reliance
  3. (c) High-tech infrastructure and trade expansion
  4. (d) Agriculture-focused growth and foreign investment
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Removal of poverty and attainment of self-reliance

The correct answer is Removal of poverty and attainment of self-reliance (Option 2).
The Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974-79), drafted by D.P. Dhar, had two primary objectives: (1) Removal of Poverty ( Garibi Hatao — inspired by Indira Gandhi's slogan) and (2) Attainment of Self-Reliance. This plan also introduced the Minimum Needs Programme to ensure basic services for the poor.
Option 1 - Industrialisation and privatisation : Privatisation was not part of the objectives of the Fifth Plan, which was implemented during the socialist-leaning Indira Gandhi era.
Option 3 - High-tech infrastructure and trade expansion: These were not the stated objectives of the Fifth Plan; poverty removal and self-reliance were.
Option 4 - Agriculture-focused growth and foreign investment: While agriculture was important, foreign investment promotion was not a Fifth Plan objective; self-reliance (reducing foreign dependence) was the goal.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Social welfare schemes

Q16. The 'Mission Poshan 2.0' provides supplementary nutrition and care for children up to what specific age group?

  1. (a) Up to the age of 5 years
  2. (b) Up to the age of 6 years
  3. (c) Up to the age of 10 years
  4. (d) Up to the age of 14 years
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Up to the age of 6 years

The correct answer is Up to the age of 6 years (Option 2).
Mission Poshan 2.0 (Pradhan Mantri Poshan Shakti Nirman), launched in 2021, provides supplementary nutrition, health monitoring, and holistic development support for children up to 6 years of age, along with pregnant women and lactating mothers. It consolidates the Integrated Child Development Services (ICDS) scheme.
Option 1 - Up to 5 years: While malnutrition focus often targets under-5 children, Mission Poshan 2.0 covers children up to 6 years.
Option 3 - Up to 10 years: 10 years is beyond the age group targeted by Mission Poshan 2.0.
Option 4 - Up to 14 years: 14 years is the age group covered by other schemes like mid-day meals; Mission Poshan 2.0 targets children up to 6 years.

Geography (9)

India - Minerals, Energy and Industries · Power plants (thermal, hydro, nuclear, solar, wind)

Q17. The Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant, one of India's largest, is located in which state?

  1. (a) Karnataka
  2. (b) Kerala
  3. (c) Andhra Pradesh
  4. (d) Tamil Nadu
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Tamil Nadu

The correct answer is Tamil Nadu (Option 4).
The Kudankulam Nuclear Power Plant (KKNPP) is located in Tirunelveli district of Tamil Nadu. It is India's largest nuclear power plant in terms of installed capacity, built with Russian assistance under an agreement between India and Russia.
Option 1 - Karnataka: Karnataka does not host the Kudankulam plant; it has the Kaiga Nuclear Power Plant.
Option 2 - Kerala: Kerala does not host a nuclear power plant; Kudankulam is near the Kerala border but in Tamil Nadu.
Option 3 - Andhra Pradesh: Andhra Pradesh hosts the under-construction Kovvada Nuclear Power Plant; Kudankulam is in Tamil Nadu.
Geography Miscellaneous · Nicknames of places

Q18. Which city is historically known as the 'Manchester of India' due to its cotton textile industry?

  1. (a) Mumbai
  2. (b) Ahmedabad
  3. (c) Coimbatore
  4. (d) Surat
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ahmedabad

The correct answer is Ahmedabad (Option 2).
Ahmedabad is historically known as the 'Manchester of India' due to its thriving cotton textile industry. During the 19th and 20th centuries, Ahmedabad had a large number of textile mills and was the hub of India's cotton industry, drawing a parallel with Manchester, England's textile centre .
Option 1 - Mumbai: Mumbai is known as the 'Financial Capital of India' or 'City of Dreams', not the Manchester of India.
Option 3 - Coimbatore: Coimbatore is sometimes called the 'Manchester of South India' for its textile industry, but the original 'Manchester of India' title belongs to Ahmedabad.
Option 4 - Surat: Surat is known for its diamond cutting and polishing industry, not primarily for cotton textiles.
India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Forest types and distribution

Q19. 'Teak' and 'Sal' are the most important commercial trees of which forest type?

  1. (a) Tropical Evergreen Forests
  2. (b) Tropical Deciduous Forests
  3. (c) Alpine Forests
  4. (d) Mangrove Forests
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Tropical Deciduous Forests

The correct answer is Tropical Deciduous Forests (Option 2).
Teak (Tectona grandis) and Sal ( Shorea robusta) are the most commercially important trees found in Tropical Deciduous Forests (also called Monsoon Forests). These forests are found in areas receiving 70-200 cm of rainfall and shed their leaves during the dry season.
Option 1 - Tropical Evergreen Forests: These forests in very high-rainfall areas (over 200 cm) contain trees like rosewood, ebony, and mahogany — not Teak and Sal as the primary species.
Option 3 - Alpine Forests: Alpine forests are found at high altitudes in Himalayan regions and contain species like silver fir, pine, and juniper.
Option 4 - Mangrove Forests: Mangrove forests grow in tidal coastal areas and contain salt-tolerant species like Sundari, not Teak or Sal.
India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Soil types and distribution

Q20. Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
Statement 1: The process of soil formation involves both physical and chemical factors like temperature and rainfall.
Statement 2: Soil can only form in regions where there is abundant rainfall, and no other climatic factors matter.

  1. (a) Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect.
  2. (b) Statement 1 is incorrect, Statement 2 is correct.
  3. (c) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct.
  4. (d) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are incorrect.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect.

The correct answer is Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect (Option 1).
Statement 1 is correct: Soil formation (pedogenesis) is influenced by multiple physical factors (temperature, rainfall, wind) and chemical factors (mineral weathering, oxidation, carbonation). These factors work together to break down parent rock and accumulate organic matter.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Soil can form in various climatic conditions — from hot deserts to cold tundra. While water is important, soil also forms through physical weathering (freeze-thaw cycles, wind) without abundant rainfall. Multiple climatic factors including temperature, wind, and humidity matter.
Option 3 - Both correct: This is wrong because Statement 2 is factually incorrect about the exclusive role of abundant rainfall.
Option 4 - Both incorrect: This is wrong because Statement 1 is accurate.
India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Soil types and distribution

Q21. Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
Statement 1: The parent rock of an area determines the texture, composition, and mineral content of the soil formed in that region.
Statement 2: Soil composition is solely affected by human activity, without any influence from natural factors like parent rock.

  1. (a) Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect.
  2. (b) Statement 2 is correct, but Statement 1 is incorrect.
  3. (c) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct.
  4. (d) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are incorrect.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect.

The correct answer is Statement 1 is correct, Statement 2 is incorrect (Option 1).
Statement 1 is correct: The parent rock (bedrock or regolith) is a primary factor in soil formation. It determines the soil's texture (sandy, clayey, loamy), mineral composition, and nutrient content. For example, basaltic rocks form black cotton (regur) soil, while granite forms coarser sandy soils.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Soil composition is primarily determined by natural factors including parent rock, climate, topography, biological activity, and time. Human activity can modify soil but does not exclusively determine its composition; natural factors are fundamental.
Option 3 - Both correct: This is wrong because Statement 2 is factually incorrect.
Option 4 - Both incorrect: This is wrong because Statement 1 is accurate and scientifically established.
India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Peninsular plateau and hills

Q22. How is the peninsular plateau of India different from the Himalayan region in terms of geological stability?

  1. (a) The Peninsular Plateau is young, reshaped by volcanic activity.
  2. (b) The Peninsular Plateau is ancient and stable; the Himalayas are younger and changing.
  3. (c) The Peninsular Plateau has mostly sedimentary rocks and lacks Himalayan minerals.
  4. (d) The Himalayas are stable, while the Peninsular Plateau is still forming.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The Peninsular Plateau is ancient and stable; the Himalayas are younger and changing.

The correct answer is The Peninsular Plateau is ancient and stable; the Himalayas are younger and changing (Option 2).
The Peninsular Plateau is one of the oldest landmasses on Earth, formed from Precambrian crystalline and metamorphic rocks (about 2.5 billion years old). It is geologically stable (part of the ancient Gondwana land) and has no seismic activity. In contrast, the Himalayas are young fold mountains formed by the collision of the Indian and Eurasian plates about 50 million years ago and are still rising.
Option 1 - Peninsular Plateau is young, reshaped by volcanic activity: The Plateau is ancient, not young. The Deccan Traps show ancient volcanic activity, but the plateau itself is very old and stable.
Option 3 - Mostly sedimentary rocks: The Peninsular Plateau is predominantly composed of igneous and metamorphic rocks, not sedimentary.
Option 4 - Himalayas are stable, Plateau still forming: This is the complete opposite of geological reality.
Atmosphere and Climate · Composition and layers of the atmosphere

Q23. Which of the following statements is TRUE about the Stratosphere?

  1. (a) It is the layer directly above the Troposphere.
  2. (b) It is the region of Earth where most of its weather occurs.
  3. (c) It is the thickest and most dense layer of the atmosphere.
  4. (d) It experiences more turbulent air than the Troposphere.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) It is the layer directly above the Troposphere.

The correct answer is It is the layer directly above the Troposphere (Option 1).
The Stratosphere is the second layer of Earth's atmosphere, located directly above the Troposphere (which extends from the surface to about 12 km) and extending from about 12 km to 50 km altitude. The Stratosphere contains the ozone layer, which absorbs harmful ultraviolet radiation from the Sun.
Option 2 - Region where most weather occurs: Most weather phenomena (clouds, rain, storms) occur in the Troposphere, not the Stratosphere. The Stratosphere is characterised by stable, calm air.
Option 3 - Thickest and most dense layer: The Troposphere is the densest (containing ~80% of atmospheric mass), while the Thermosphere is the thickest in terms of altitude span. The Stratosphere is neither.
Option 4 - More turbulent air: The Stratosphere is actually known for its stable, calm air with little turbulence (which is why high-altitude aircraft fly there).
Atmosphere and Climate · Composition and layers of the atmosphere

Q24. Which of the following is a characteristic of the Thermosphere?

  1. (a) It is the coldest atmospheric layer.
  2. (b) Its temperature can rise above 2000°C.
  3. (c) It is characterized by stable and calm air.
  4. (d) It contains the most atmospheric mass.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Its temperature can rise above 2000°C.

The correct answer is Its temperature can rise above 2000°C (Option 2).
The Thermosphere, located between approximately 80 km and 700 km altitude, is characterised by extremely high temperatures — up to 2000°C or more — caused by the absorption of high-energy solar radiation (X-rays and UV). The International Space Station orbits within the Thermosphere.
Option 1 - Coldest atmospheric layer: The coldest layer is the Mesosphere (temperatures can reach -90°C at the mesopause), not the Thermosphere.
Option 3 - Stable and calm air: The Stratosphere is known for stable, calm conditions. The Thermosphere experiences very low density and is subject to solar particle bombardment.
Option 4 - Contains most atmospheric mass: The Troposphere contains about 75-80% of all atmospheric mass; the Thermosphere is very thin and contains very little mass.
Universe and Solar System · Moons and dwarf planets

Q25. Which celestial body in the Solar System has the highest known albedo?

  1. (a) Europa
  2. (b) Enceladus
  3. (c) Pluto
  4. (d) Triton
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Enceladus

The correct answer is Enceladus (Option 2).
Enceladus, Saturn's moon, has the highest known albedo (reflectivity) of any body in the Solar System, with an albedo of approximately 0.99 (reflecting nearly 99% of sunlight). Its extremely high albedo is due to its surface being covered with fresh, clean water ice and snow, constantly replenished by its cryovolcanic geysers.
Option 1 - Europa: Europa (Jupiter's moon) also has a high albedo due to its icy surface, but its albedo (~0.64) is significantly lower than Enceladus's.
Option 3 - Pluto: Pluto has a relatively high albedo (~0.49-0.72 depending on region), but this is lower than Enceladus's albedo of ~0.99.
Option 4 - Triton: Triton (Neptune's moon) has a high albedo (~0.76) due to its nitrogen ice surface, but it is still lower than Enceladus's remarkable 0.99 albedo.

Current Affairs (8)

Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q26. Which senior bureaucrat took office as the new Controller General of Defence Accounts (CGDA) in November 2025?

  1. (a) Vishwajit Sahay
  2. (b) S Sivakumar
  3. (c) Ashwani Lohani
  4. (d) Rajeev Verma
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Vishwajit Sahay

The correct answer is Vishwajit Sahay (Option 1).
Vishwajit Sahay assumed charge as the Controller General of Defence Accounts (CGDA) in November 2025. The CGDA heads the Defence Accounts Department and oversees the financial management and audit of the Indian Defence Forces.
Option 2 - S Sivakumar: S Sivakumar is a senior IFS officer and chairman of the Tea Board of India; he has not been identified as the CGDA in November 2025.
Option 3 - Ashwani Lohani: Ashwani Lohani is a retired IAS officer who previously headed Air India and Indian Railways; he was not appointed CGDA in November 2025.
Option 4 - Rajeev Verma: Rajeev Verma is associated with other government roles and was not identified as the CGDA appointee in November 2025.
State News · State schemes and events

Q27. Who addressed the inaugural event of Uttar Pradesh Day as the Chief Guest in January 2025?

  1. (a) President Droupadi Murmu
  2. (b) Vice-President Jagdeep Dhankhar
  3. (c) Defence Minister Rajnath Singh
  4. (d) Commerce Minister Piyush Goyal
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Vice-President Jagdeep Dhankhar

The correct answer is Vice-President Jagdeep Dhankhar (Option 2).
Vice-President Jagdeep Dhankhar addressed the inaugural event of Uttar Pradesh Day as the Chief Guest in January 2025. Uttar Pradesh Day is celebrated on January 24, commemorating the state's foundation day.
Option 1 - President Droupadi Murmu: President Murmu did not serve as Chief Guest at the UP Day inaugural event in January 2025.
Option 3 - Defence Minister Rajnath Singh: While Rajnath Singh is from UP, he was not identified as the Chief Guest for this specific event.
Option 4 - Commerce Minister Piyush Goyal: Piyush Goyal did not serve as Chief Guest at the UP Day inaugural event in January 2025.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q28. In January 2025, which Union Minister reviewed the schemes and programmes of the Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC)?

  1. (a) Nitin Gadkari
  2. (b) Jitan Ram Manjhi
  3. (c) Piyush Goyal
  4. (d) Rajnath Singh
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Jitan Ram Manjhi

The correct answer is Jitan Ram Manjhi (Option 2).
Union Minister Jitan Ram Manjhi, who heads the Ministry of Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises (MSME), reviewed the schemes and programmes of the Khadi and Village Industries Commission (KVIC) in January 2025. The KVIC functions under the MSME Ministry.
Option 1 - Nitin Gadkari: Nitin Gadkari heads the Ministry of Road Transport and Highways; KVIC is not under his portfolio.
Option 3 - Piyush Goyal: Piyush Goyal is the Commerce and Industry Minister; he does not oversee KVIC.
Option 4 - Rajnath Singh: Rajnath Singh is the Defence Minister; KVIC is outside his ministerial jurisdiction.
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q29. Who did Kidambi Srikanth lose to in the 2025 Syed Modi International men's singles final?

  1. (a) Jason Gunawan
  2. (b) Jonatan Christie
  3. (c) Lee Zii Jia
  4. (d) Viktor Axelsen
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Jason Gunawan

The correct answer is Jason Gunawan (Option 1).
Kidambi Srikanth lost to Jason Gunawan (Indonesia) in the men's singles final of the 2025 Syed Modi International Badminton Championships held in Lucknow, India. Despite reaching the final, Srikanth was unable to clinch the title against the Indonesian player.
Option 2 - Jonatan Christie: Jonatan Christie is an Indonesian ace badminton player but was not Srikanth's opponent in the 2025 Syed Modi final.
Option 3 - Lee Zii Jia: Lee Zii Jia is a top Malaysian badminton player; he was not identified as Srikanth's opponent in this final.
Option 4 - Viktor Axelsen: Viktor Axelsen is a Danish world champion player; he did not play against Srikanth in the 2025 Syed Modi International final.
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q30. How many total medals did India win at the 2025 Asian Youth Games in Manama?

  1. (a) 32
  2. (b) 48
  3. (c) 45
  4. (d) 55
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 48

The correct answer is 48 (Option 2).
India won a total of 48 medals at the 2025 Asian Youth Games held in Manama, Bahrain. This was India's best-ever performance at the Asian Youth Games, with medals across multiple sports disciplines.
Option 1 - 32: India's total of 32 medals would undercount its actual medal tally at Manama 2025.
Option 3 - 45: 45 medals underestimates India's medal haul at the 2025 Asian Youth Games.
Option 4 - 55: 55 medals overestimates India's actual medal count at these Games.
State News · State firsts

Q31. Which state launched its first dedicated cycad garden in May 2025, designed to preserve and promote these ancient seed plants?

  1. (a) Rajasthan
  2. (b) Himachal Pradesh
  3. (c) Madhya Pradesh
  4. (d) Uttarakhand
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Uttarakhand

The correct answer is Uttarakhand (Option 4).
Uttarakhand launched its first dedicated cycad garden in May 2025 to preserve and promote cycads — ancient seed plants that have existed for over 280 million years and are often called 'living fossils.' The garden aims to conserve these rare and endangered plants and promote awareness about plant biodiversity.
Option 1 - Rajasthan: Rajasthan did not launch a dedicated cycad garden in May 2025.
Option 2 - Himachal Pradesh: Himachal Pradesh was not reported as launching a cycad garden in May 2025.
Option 3 - Madhya Pradesh: Madhya Pradesh was not the state that launched India's first dedicated cycad garden in May 2025.
Environment and Climate - Current · Species discoveries and conservation news

Q32. The Central Government has approved India's first white tiger breeding centre . In which specific city/region and state is this centre being established?

  1. (a) New Delhi (Delhi)
  2. (b) Patna (Bihar)
  3. (c) Rewa (Madhya Pradesh)
  4. (d) Agra (Uttar Pradesh)
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Rewa (Madhya Pradesh)

The correct answer is Rewa (Madhya Pradesh) (Option 3).
India's first white tiger breeding centre has been approved to be established in Rewa, Madhya Pradesh. Rewa has a historic connection to white tigers — the first white tiger ever captured in the wild, Mohan, was found in Rewa in 1951. This breeding centre will help conserve this rare genetic variant of the Bengal tiger.
Option 1 - New Delhi: The national capital does not host wildlife breeding facilities of this kind; the white tiger centre is in Rewa.
Option 2 - Patna (Bihar): Bihar's Patna is not the location for India's first white tiger breeding centre .
Option 4 - Agra (Uttar Pradesh): Agra is known for the Taj Mahal; it is not the approved site for the white tiger breeding centre .
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q33. What are the start and end dates for the 5th Edition of the Khelo India University Games (KIUG)?

  1. (a) 10th November to 20th November 2025
  2. (b) 1st December to 15th December 2025
  3. (c) 24th November to 5th December 2025
  4. (d) 1st November to 10th November 2025
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 24th November to 5th December 2025

The correct answer is 24th November to 5th December 2025 (Option 3).
The 5th Edition of the Khelo India University Games (KIUG) was held from November 24 to December 5, 2025. The Khelo India University Games promote sports at the university level and are part of the Government of India's Khelo India initiative to develop sporting talent across the country.
Option 1 - 10th to 20th November 2025: This is not the correct date range for the 5th KIUG.
Option 2 - 1st to 15th December 2025: This date range does not match the announced schedule of the 5th KIUG.
Option 4 - 1st to 10th November 2025: This is also not the correct period for the 5th Edition of Khelo India University Games.

Physics (3)

Heat and Thermodynamics · Thermometers

Q34. What is the primary purpose of a maximum-minimum thermometer?

  1. (a) To measure the boiling point of liquids
  2. (b) To record the highest and lowest temperatures over a period
  3. (c) To measure the temperature of gases in industrial settings
  4. (d) To determine the temperature of chemical reactions
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) To record the highest and lowest temperatures over a period

The correct answer is To record the highest and lowest temperatures over a period (Option 2).
A maximum-minimum thermometer (also called Six's thermometer) is designed to record both the highest and lowest temperatures that occur over a specific time period (typically 24 hours). It is widely used in meteorology and agriculture to monitor daily temperature variations without continuous observation.
Option 1 - Measure boiling point: A thermometer to measure boiling points is used in laboratory settings; a maximum-minimum thermometer is not specifically designed for this.
Option 3 - Temperature of gases in industrial settings: Industrial gas temperature measurement uses specialized pyrometers or industrial thermometers.
Option 4 - Temperature of chemical reactions: Reaction temperatures are measured using lab thermometers or probes, not maximum-minimum thermometers.
Heat and Thermodynamics · Thermometers

Q35. What is the purpose of the kink in a clinical thermometer?

  1. (a) It increases the accuracy of the temperature reading.
  2. (b) It prevents the mercury level from falling on its own.
  3. (c) It helps in the quick measurement of body temperature.
  4. (d) It prevents the thermometer from breaking during use.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) It prevents the mercury level from falling on its own.

The correct answer is It prevents the mercury level from falling on its own (Option 2).
The kink (constriction) in a clinical thermometer is a narrow bend just below the bulb. When the thermometer is removed from the patient's body, the mercury column cannot flow back past the kink due to surface tension and gravity. This allows the temperature reading to remain fixed until the thermometer is manually reset (shaken).
Option 1 - Increases accuracy: The kink does not improve accuracy; it preserves the reading by preventing mercury from receding.
Option 3 - Helps in quick measurement: The kink plays no role in the speed of temperature measurement.
Option 4 - Prevents breaking: The kink's purpose is not structural protection against breakage; it serves to retain the mercury reading.
Heat and Thermodynamics · Conduction, convection and radiation

Q36. Which of the following methods of heat transfer does not require a medium?

  1. (a) Conduction
  2. (b) Convection
  3. (c) Radiation
  4. (d) Induction
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Radiation

The correct answer is Radiation (Option 3).
Radiation is the mode of heat transfer that does not require any medium (solid, liquid, or gas). Heat is transferred through electromagnetic waves (infrared radiation) and can travel through vacuum. This is how the Sun's heat reaches the Earth through the vacuum of space.
Option 1 - Conduction: Conduction requires a solid medium (or liquids/gases to a lesser extent) for heat to be transferred through particle-to-particle collision.
Option 2 - Convection: Convection requires a fluid medium (liquid or gas) where heat transfer occurs through the movement of bulk fluid masses.
Option 4 - Induction: Induction is a method of electromagnetic energy transfer (not a classical heat transfer mode); it also requires a conducting medium.

Biology (3)

Diseases, Immunity and Health · Health organisations and programmes

Q37. The Government of India aims to eliminate sickle cell anaemia by which year under the National Sickle Cell Elimination Mission?

  1. (a) 2027
  2. (b) 2035
  3. (c) 2040
  4. (d) 2047
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 2047

The correct answer is 2047 (Option 4).
The National Sickle Cell Elimination Mission was launched in 2023 with the goal of eliminating sickle cell disease from India by 2047 — coinciding with India's centenary of independence (India@100). The mission focuses on screening, counselling, and treatment of sickle cell anaemia , particularly in tribal populations.
Option 1 - 2027: 2027 is not the target year for the National Sickle Cell Elimination Mission; the target is 2047.
Option 2 - 2035: 2035 is also not the correct target year for this mission.
Option 3 - 2040: 2040 is not the correct year; the mission aims for elimination by 2047.
Cell - Structure and Function · Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells

Q38. Which of the following is a major structural difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

  1. (a) Presence of DNA
  2. (b) Presence of mitochondria
  3. (c) Presence of ribosomes
  4. (d) Presence of plasma membrane
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Presence of mitochondria

The correct answer is Presence of mitochondria (Option 2).
Mitochondria are membrane-bound organelles found only in eukaryotic cells (animal, plant, fungal cells) and are absent in prokaryotic cells (bacteria and archaea). Mitochondria are responsible for cellular respiration and energy production (ATP). This represents a major structural difference between the two cell types.
Option 1 - Presence of DNA: Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells contain DNA, so this is NOT a distinguishing difference.
Option 3 - Presence of ribosomes: Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells have ribosomes (though different in size: 70S in prokaryotes, 80S in eukaryotes), so ribosomes alone do not distinguish them.
Option 4 - Presence of plasma membrane: Both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells have a plasma membrane surrounding them, so this is NOT a structural difference.
Control and Coordination · Brain - parts and functions

Q39. Which of the following layers of the meninges is in direct contact with the brain tissue?

  1. (a) Dura mater
  2. (b) Arachnoid
  3. (c) Pia mater
  4. (d) Cerebrospinal fluid
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Pia mater

The correct answer is Pia mater (Option 3).
The meninges are the three protective membranes covering the brain and spinal cord. From outermost to innermost: Dura mater (tough outer layer), Arachnoid mater (middle layer), and Pia mater (innermost). The Pia mater is the delicate, thin layer that directly adheres to and covers the surface of the brain and spinal cord tissue.
Option 1 - Dura mater: The Dura mater is the outermost, toughest meningeal layer; it is farthest from the brain tissue.
Option 2 - Arachnoid: The Arachnoid is the middle meningeal layer; it is separated from the Pia mater by the subarachnoid space filled with cerebrospinal fluid.
Option 4 - Cerebrospinal fluid: CSF is a fluid (not a membrane layer of the meninges); it fills the subarachnoid space between the arachnoid and pia mater.

Static GK (8)

Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q40. Which Hindu festival is dedicated to worshipping the Sun God?

  1. (a) Diwali
  2. (b) Holi
  3. (c) Chhath Puja
  4. (d) Navratri
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Chhath Puja

The correct answer is Chhath Puja (Option 3).
Chhath Puja is a Hindu festival dedicated to Surya (the Sun God) and Chhathi Maiya (the sixth form of Goddess Shakti). It is primarily celebrated in Bihar, Jharkhand, and Uttar Pradesh. Devotees offer arghya (offerings) to the rising and setting sun, pray on riverbanks, and observe a 36-hour fast.
Option 1 - Diwali: Diwali (Festival of Lights) celebrates the return of Lord Rama to Ayodhya and is associated with Goddess Lakshmi; it is not primarily dedicated to the Sun God.
Option 2 - Holi: Holi is the festival of colours celebrating the victory of good over evil (burning of Holika) and the arrival of spring; it is not dedicated to the Sun God.
Option 4 - Navratri: Navratri is a nine-night festival dedicated to the nine forms of Goddess Durga; it is not a Sun God festival.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q41. Which statement about the festival of Buddha Purnima is correct?

  1. (a) It celebrates Buddha's birth, enlightenment, and death.
  2. (b) It is celebrated in January to mark the beginning of the New Year.
  3. (c) It is mainly celebrated in North-East India.
  4. (d) The festival is associated with the lunar eclipse.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) It celebrates Buddha's birth, enlightenment, and death.

The correct answer is It celebrates Buddha's birth, enlightenment, and death (Option 1).
Buddha Purnima (Vesak) is celebrated on the full moon day of the Vaisakha month (April/May) and commemorates three major events in Gautama Buddha's life: his birth (at Lumbini), his attainment of enlightenment (at Bodh Gaya), and his death/ parinirvana (at Kushinagar) — all of which occurred on a full moon day.
Option 2 - Celebrated in January: Buddha Purnima is celebrated in April or May (Vaisakha month) on the full moon, not in January.
Option 3 - Mainly in North-East India: Buddha Purnima is celebrated across India and internationally; it is not limited to North-East India.
Option 4 - Associated with lunar eclipse: Buddha Purnima is a full moon festival, not a lunar eclipse festival. The two are not related.
Music and Musical Instruments · Hindustani music (ragas, gharanas)

Q42. Which region is associated with Hindustani music?

  1. (a) South India
  2. (b) North India
  3. (c) East India
  4. (d) West India
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) North India

The correct answer is North India (Option 2).
Hindustani music is the classical music tradition of North India. It encompasses both vocal (Dhrupad, Khayal, Thumri) and instrumental traditions and is closely associated with states like Uttar Pradesh, Punjab, Rajasthan, and Maharashtra. Hindustani music was influenced by Persian and Mughal court music.
Option 1 - South India: South India is associated with Carnatic music, the other major classical music tradition of India.
Option 3 - East India: East India has rich folk and classical traditions (like Rabindra Sangeet in Bengal), but the primary classical tradition is Hindustani in North India.
Option 4 - West India: While Hindustani music is practiced in western states like Maharashtra and Gujarat, it originated and is primarily associated with North India.
Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q43. Which region is known for the traditional Sattriya dance?

  1. (a) Assam
  2. (b) Odisha
  3. (c) Kerala
  4. (d) Manipur
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Assam

The correct answer is Assam (Option 1).
Sattriya is a classical dance form that originated in Assam. It was created by the Vaishnavite saint Srimanta Shankardev in the 15th century as part of the neo-Vaishnavite bhakti movement. Originally performed in Sattras (Vaishnava monasteries), it was recognised by the Sangeet Natak Akademi as a classical dance form in 2000.
Option 2 - Odisha: Odisha is associated with Odissi, a classical dance form from the temples of Odisha.
Option 3 - Kerala: Kerala is known for Kathakali and Mohiniyattam , not Sattriya .
Option 4 - Manipur: Manipur is known for Manipuri dance, inspired by Vaishnavism and folk traditions of the region.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Fairs and melas

Q44. Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
Statement I: Pushkar Fair in Rajasthan is a livestock fair that also includes religious activities.
Statement II: The Sonepur Mela focuses primarily on elephant trading and circus performances.

  1. (a) Only Statement I is correct.
  2. (b) Only Statement II is correct.
  3. (c) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
  4. (d) Neither Statement I nor Statement II is correct.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only Statement I is correct.

The correct answer is Only Statement I is correct (Option 1).
Statement I is correct: The Pushkar Fair (Pushkar Camel Fair) is one of the world's largest cattle and camel fairs held in Pushkar, Rajasthan. It is a major livestock fair that simultaneously includes religious activities, as Pushkar is a sacred pilgrimage site with the famous Brahma Temple.
Statement II is incorrect: The Sonepur Mela (Harihar Kshetra Mela) in Bihar is one of Asia's largest livestock fairs, known primarily for elephant, horse, cattle, and bird trading. While circus performances may be part of the fair, it is NOT focused primarily on elephant trading and circus; it is a multifaceted religious-commercial fair.
Option 3 - Both correct: Wrong because Statement II overstates 'focuses primarily on elephant trading and circus.'
Option 4 - Neither correct: Wrong because Statement I is accurate.
Monuments and Heritage · Temples and religious places

Q45. Who built the famous rock-cut Shiva temple at Ellora?

  1. (a) Dantidurga
  2. (b) Krishna I
  3. (c) Amoghavarsha
  4. (d) Govinda III
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Krishna I

The correct answer is Krishna I (Option 2).
The Kailasa Temple at Ellora (Cave 16), the world's largest rock-cut monolithic temple dedicated to Lord Shiva, was built by Rashtrakuta king Krishna I in the 8th century CE. Carved from a single rock, it is a remarkable feat of ancient Indian engineering and sculpture.
Option 1 - Dantidurga : Dantidurga was the founder of the Rashtrakuta dynasty and Krishna I's uncle; he did not build the Kailasa Temple.
Option 3 - Amoghavarsha: Amoghavarsha I was a later Rashtrakuta ruler known for his literary contributions ( Kavirajamarga ); he did not build the Kailasa Temple.
Option 4 - Govinda III: Govinda III was another notable Rashtrakuta king who expanded the empire; the Kailasa Temple was built by his ancestor Krishna I.
Awards and Honours · Nobel Prize and international awards

Q46. Who won the 2023 Booker Prize for Prophet Song?

  1. (a) Paul Lynch
  2. (b) Barbara Kingsolver
  3. (c) Samantha Harvey
  4. (d) Shehan Karunatilaka
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Paul Lynch

The correct answer is Paul Lynch (Option 1).
Paul Lynch, an Irish author, won the 2023 Booker Prize for his novel 'Prophet Song.' The novel is set in a near-future Ireland descending into fascism and authoritarianism, following a woman whose husband is arrested by the secret police. It was praised as a powerful, urgent, and timely work.
Option 2 - Barbara Kingsolver: Barbara Kingsolver won the Booker Prize in 2022 for 'Demon Copperhead', not 2023.
Option 3 - Samantha Harvey: Samantha Harvey won the Booker Prize in 2024 for 'Orbital', not 2023.
Option 4 - Shehan Karunatilaka : Shehan Karunatilaka won the Booker Prize in 2022 for 'The Seven Moons of Maali Almeida', not 2023.
Books and Authors · International books and authors

Q47. Which novel by Barbara Kingsolver was awarded the Women's Prize in 2023?

  1. (a) The Poisonwood Bible
  2. (b) Demon Copperhead
  3. (c) The Lacuna
  4. (d) Flight Behaviour
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Demon Copperhead

The correct answer is Demon Copperhead (Option 2).
Barbara Kingsolver's 'Demon Copperhead' won the Women's Prize for Fiction in 2023. The novel reimagines Charles Dickens' 'David Copperfield' set in the Appalachian region of Virginia, exploring themes of poverty, the opioid crisis, and systemic failures. It also won the Pulitzer Prize for Fiction in 2023.
Option 1 - The Poisonwood Bible: 'The Poisonwood Bible' (1998) is one of Kingsolver's earlier acclaimed novels but did not win the Women's Prize in 2023.
Option 3 - The Lacuna: 'The Lacuna' (2009) won the Orange Prize for Fiction in 2010; it did not win the Women's Prize in 2023.
Option 4 - Flight Behaviour : 'Flight Behaviour ' (2012) is another of Kingsolver's novels; it did not win the Women's Prize in 2023.

Ancient History (3)

Post-Gupta Period · Hiuen Tsang

Q48. Which Chinese Buddhist pilgrim visited India during the reign of Harshavardhana and documented his experiences?

  1. (a) Xuanzang
  2. (b) Fa Hien
  3. (c) Yijing
  4. (d) Kumarajiva
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Xuanzang

The correct answer is Xuanzang (Option 1).
Xuanzang ( Hiuen Tsang), the Chinese Buddhist pilgrim, visited India from 629 to 645 CE during the reign of Emperor Harshavardhana. He studied at Nalanda University and documented his extensive travels in 'Great Tang Records on the Western Regions' (Si- yu -ki), providing invaluable historical information about 7th-century India.
Option 2 - Fa Hien: Fa Hien visited India during the Gupta period (399-414 CE) during the reign of Chandragupta II; he predates Harshavardhana by about 200 years.
Option 3 - Yijing : Yijing visited India and Southeast Asia in the late 7th century (671-695 CE) after Harshavardhana's reign had ended.
Option 4 - Kumarajiva: Kumarajiva was a Buddhist monk and scholar from Kucha (Central Asia) who translated Buddhist texts into Chinese; he did not visit India proper.
Mauryan Empire · Ashokan edicts and inscriptions

Q49. What was the primary focus of the inscriptions of Asoka?

  1. (a) Economic reforms and trade policies
  2. (b) Proclamation of dhamma and moral values
  3. (c) Military conquests and territorial expansion
  4. (d) Expansion of the Gupta Empire
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Proclamation of dhamma and moral values

The correct answer is Proclamation of dhamma and moral values (Option 2).
Emperor Ashoka's edicts and inscriptions (rock edicts, pillar edicts, minor edicts) primarily proclaimed his dhamma (righteous conduct), emphasizing moral values such as non-violence, truthfulness, compassion, respect for all religions, and welfare of humans and animals. These inscriptions were engraved across his vast empire to spread his philosophy of governance.
Option 1 - Economic reforms and trade policies: Ashokan inscriptions do not primarily focus on economic reforms; they are overwhelmingly moral and religious in content.
Option 3 - Military conquests and territorial expansion: Asoka explicitly moved away from military expansion after the Kalinga War; his inscriptions reflect remorse, not glorification of conquests.
Option 4 - Expansion of the Gupta Empire: Asoka was a Mauryan Emperor (3rd century BCE); the Gupta Empire came much later (4th-6th century CE).
Buddhism, Jainism and Other Sects · Buddhist teachings and texts

Q50. What does the Vinaya Pitaka primarily contain?

  1. (a) Philosophical teachings and doctrines
  2. (b) Rules and regulations for the monastic order
  3. (c) Historical accounts of the Buddha's life
  4. (d) Poetic and lyrical compositions by monks
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Rules and regulations for the monastic order

The correct answer is Rules and regulations for the monastic order (Option 2).
The Vinaya Pitaka is one of the three 'baskets' (Tipitaka) of the Pali Canon of Theravada Buddhism. It primarily contains the rules and regulations governing the Buddhist Sangha (monastic community) — covering conduct, discipline, procedures for ordination, handling disputes, and daily life of monks and nuns.
Option 1 - Philosophical teachings and doctrines: Philosophical teachings are primarily found in the Sutta Pitaka (discourses of the Buddha) and Abhidhamma Pitaka.
Option 3 - Historical accounts of the Buddha's life: Buddha's biographical accounts are found in texts like the Buddhacharita and the Jataka stories, not the Vinaya Pitaka.
Option 4 - Poetic and lyrical compositions: Poetic compositions by monks are found in the Theragatha and Therigatha , which are part of the Sutta Pitaka, not the Vinaya Pitaka.
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