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Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 24 December 2025 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 49 GK / GS questions asked in Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 on 24 December 2025 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Polity, Economics, Biology, Geography, Static GK, Ancient History.

📚 49 questions🗓️ 24 December 2025⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Polity (6) · Economics (6) · Biology (1) · Geography (7) · Static GK (11) · Ancient History (3) · Modern History (4) · Current Affairs (9) · Medieval History (2)

Polity (6)

Polity Miscellaneous · New criminal laws (BNS, BNSS, BSA)

Q1. Which law has replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC) of 1860 in India?

  1. (a) The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA)
  2. (b) The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)
  3. (c) The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS)
  4. (d) The Uniform Civil Code (UCC)
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS)

The correct answer is The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) (Option 2).
The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860. It came into force on July 1, 2024, modernising criminal law by introducing new offences, updating definitions, and rationalising penalties.
Option 1 - BSA: The Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (BSA), 2023 replaced the Indian Evidence Act, 1872, not the IPC.
Option 3 - BNSS: The Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 replaced the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC), 1973.
Option 4 - UCC: The Uniform Civil Code (UCC) is a proposed legislation for a common civil law across religions; it has not replaced the IPC.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q2. Under which section of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) is 'gender' defined in an inclusive manner, referring to male, female, and transgender?

  1. (a) Section 2(3)
  2. (b) Section 2(5)
  3. (c) Section 2(10)
  4. (d) Section 2(8)
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Section 2(10)

The correct answer is Section 2(10) (Option 3).
Under Section 2(10) of the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023, 'gender' is defined inclusively to encompass males, females, and transgender persons. This reflects a progressive recognition of gender identity in criminal law.
Option 1 - Section 2(3): Section 2(3) of BNS defines a different term and does not contain the inclusive definition of gender.
Option 2 - Section 2(5): Section 2(5) covers another provision in BNS unrelated to the definition of gender.
Option 4 - Section 2(8): Section 2(8) addresses yet another definition in BNS and is not the section defining gender.
Fundamental Rights · Cultural and Educational Rights (Articles 29-30)

Q3. Which Article of the Indian Constitution specifically provides for safeguarding the interests of minorities?

  1. (a) Article 31
  2. (b) Article 29
  3. (c) Article 28
  4. (d) Article 32
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 29

The correct answer is Article 29 (Option 2).
Article 29 of the Indian Constitution specifically provides for the protection of the interests of minorities. It grants any section of citizens with a distinct language, script, or culture the right to conserve the same, and prohibits discrimination in admission to educational institutions on grounds of religion, race, caste, or language.
Option 1 - Article 31: Article 31 (originally dealing with the right to property) was repealed by the 44th Constitutional Amendment (1978); it does not safeguard minority interests.
Option 3 - Article 28: Article 28 deals with freedom from attending religious instruction in certain educational institutions; it is a freedom applicable broadly, not specifically a minority protection article.
Option 4 - Article 32: Article 32 provides the constitutional right to move the Supreme Court for enforcement of Fundamental Rights; it applies to all citizens, not specifically minorities.
Union Executive · President - impeachment and succession

Q4. Which Article of the Indian Constitution specifies the procedure for impeaching the President?

  1. (a) Article 61
  2. (b) Article 70
  3. (c) Article 72
  4. (d) Article 68
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 61

The correct answer is Article 61 (Option 1).
Article 61 of the Indian Constitution prescribes the procedure for impeachment of the President. A charge can be preferred by either House of Parliament with a resolution supported by not less than two-thirds of the total membership of the House, after a 14-day notice. The other House then investigates the charge, and if sustained by a two-thirds majority, the President stands removed.
Option 2 - Article 70: Article 70 deals with the discharge of President's functions in contingencies (when neither the President nor Vice President is available); it is not about impeachment.
Option 3 - Article 72: Article 72 grants the President the power to grant pardons, reprieves, respites, and remissions of punishment; it has nothing to do with impeachment.
Option 4 - Article 68: Article 68 deals with the time of holding elections to fill vacancies in the office of the Vice President; it is unrelated to presidential impeachment.
Union, Territory and Citizenship · Reorganisation of states and new states

Q5. Under the Indian Constitution, which Article empowers the Parliament to alter the boundaries of states without a state's consent?

  1. (a) Article 3
  2. (b) Article 5
  3. (c) Article 6
  4. (d) Article 8
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 3

The correct answer is Article 3 (Option 1).
Article 3 of the Indian Constitution empowers Parliament to form new states, alter the boundaries of existing states, diminish the area of any state, and change names of states. Crucially, Parliament can do so without the consent of the concerned state legislature — the state legislature's views must only be ascertained within a specified time, but its consent is not required.
Option 2 - Article 5: Article 5 defines citizenship at the commencement of the Constitution; it has no connection to state boundaries.
Option 3 - Article 6: Article 6 grants rights of citizenship to those who migrated from Pakistan before July 19, 1948; it is unrelated to state boundary alterations.
Option 4 - Article 8: Article 8 gives rights of citizenship to persons of Indian origin living outside India; it does not deal with state boundaries.
Emergency and Centre-State Relations · Legislative relations and Seventh Schedule lists

Q6. Which House can authorize Parliament to legislate on a State List subject in national interest?

  1. (a) Lok Sabha by special majority
  2. (b) Rajya Sabha by special majority
  3. (c) Both Houses jointly by simple majority
  4. (d) Rajya Sabha by simple majority
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Rajya Sabha by special majority

The correct answer is Rajya Sabha by special majority (Option 2).
Under Article 249 of the Indian Constitution, the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) — representing the states — can pass a resolution by a special majority (two-thirds of members present and voting) declaring it expedient in the national interest for Parliament to make laws on a State List subject. This resolution empowers Parliament to legislate on that subject for one year (renewable).
Option 1 - Lok Sabha by special majority: Article 249 specifically vests this power in the Rajya Sabha, not the Lok Sabha. The Rajya Sabha acts as the guardian of states' interests.
Option 3 - Both Houses jointly by simple majority: The power is vested exclusively in the Rajya Sabha under Article 249, and it requires a special (two-thirds) majority, not a joint session or simple majority.
Option 4 - Rajya Sabha by simple majority: The resolution under Article 249 must be passed by a special majority (two-thirds of members present and voting), not a simple majority.

Economics (6)

Money and Banking · Money - functions and types

Q7. What was a key feature of the barter system that made it less efficient compared to using money?

  1. (a) Double Coincidence of Wants
  2. (b) Lack of Trade
  3. (c) Unfair Exchange
  4. (d) Limited Goods
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Double Coincidence of Wants

The correct answer is Double Coincidence of Wants (Option 1).
The barter system required a Double Coincidence of Wants — both parties had to simultaneously possess and want exactly what the other offered. This made exchange difficult, time-consuming, and limited the scope of trade, which money overcomes by acting as a universal medium.
Option 2 - Lack of Trade: Barter does involve trade; the problem was not absence of trade but the inefficiency of matching wants.
Option 3 - Unfair Exchange: While unfair exchange could occur, it is not the defining structural problem of barter; the double coincidence requirement is.
Option 4 - Limited Goods: Limited goods is not a structural flaw specific to barter; goods availability is a separate economic issue.
Industry and Infrastructure · LPG reforms of 1991

Q8. What term refers to the process of rapid integration or interconnection between countries due to greater foreign investment, trade, and movement of goods, services, and technology?

  1. (a) Glocalization
  2. (b) Globalization
  3. (c) Localization
  4. (d) Segregation
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Globalization

The correct answer is Globalization (Option 2).
Globalization is the process of rapid integration and interconnection between countries facilitated by greater foreign investment, international trade, and the movement of goods, services, capital, and technology across national borders, creating an increasingly interdependent global economy.
Option 1 - Glocalization: Glocalization is the practice of adapting globally available products or services to local cultures and tastes; it is distinct from globalization.
Option 3 - Localization: Localization refers to adapting a product or content to a specific local market, the opposite direction to globalization.
Option 4 - Segregation: Segregation refers to the separation or isolation of groups; it is the antithesis of integration and interconnection.
Public Finance - Budget and Taxation · Indirect taxes and GST

Q9. What was the goal of introducing GST in India?

  1. (a) Raise tax rates for all sectors
  2. (b) Create a unified tax system and single market
  3. (c) Impose higher taxes on businesses
  4. (d) Centralize all tax policies
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Create a unified tax system and single market

The correct answer is Create a unified tax system and single market (Option 2).
The primary goal of introducing the Goods and Services Tax (GST) in India (from July 1, 2017) was to replace the complex, fragmented system of multiple central and state taxes with a single unified tax system. This created a common national market, eliminated the cascading effect of taxes (tax on tax), and simplified compliance.
Option 1 - Raise tax rates: GST was not introduced to raise rates; it rationalized rates and in many cases reduced the overall tax burden by eliminating double taxation.
Option 3 - Impose higher taxes on businesses: GST was meant to reduce the hidden tax burden on businesses by allowing input tax credits and eliminating cascading taxes.
Option 4 - Centralize all tax policies: GST is administered by the GST Council, a cooperative federal body with both central and state representation; it does not centralize tax policy exclusively.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Planning Commission and NDC

Q10. Fill in the blank: In 1950, the __________ was set up with the Prime Minister as its Chairperson.

  1. (a) Reserve Bank of India
  2. (b) Planning Commission
  3. (c) Central Statistical Office
  4. (d) Ministry of Finance
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Planning Commission

The correct answer is Planning Commission (Option 2).
The Planning Commission was established on March 15, 1950, by a Cabinet Resolution, with the Prime Minister as its ex-officio Chairperson. It was responsible for formulating India's Five-Year Plans and advising the government on economic development until it was dissolved in 2014, replaced by NITI Aayog.
Option 1 - Reserve Bank of India: The RBI was established in 1935 (before independence) and is headed by a Governor appointed by the government; the PM is not its chairperson.
Option 3 - Central Statistical Office: The CSO is a government body under the Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation; it was not set up with the PM as chairperson.
Option 4 - Ministry of Finance: The Ministry of Finance is headed by the Finance Minister ; it is a part of the executive government, not an independent body set up with PM chairmanship.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Five-Year Plans - objectives and models

Q11. What was one of the challenges faced by the Second Five-Year Plan (1956-61)?

  1. (a) Excessive foreign exchange reserves
  2. (b) Acute shortage of foreign exchange
  3. (c) Rapid industrial growth
  4. (d) Decline in inflation
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Acute shortage of foreign exchange

The correct answer is Acute shortage of foreign exchange (Option 2).
The Second Five-Year Plan (1956-61), based on the Mahalanobis model, prioritised heavy industry development. This required importing large quantities of capital goods, machinery, and raw materials, leading to an acute shortage of foreign exchange reserves — a major challenge that forced India to seek external assistance.
Option 1 - Excessive foreign exchange reserves: The opposite was true; the Second Plan faced a serious depletion of forex reserves due to heavy import requirements.
Option 3 - Rapid industrial growth: While rapid industrial growth was the plan's goal, it also became a challenge as growth demands outpaced resources and foreign exchange.
Option 4 - Decline in inflation: Inflation actually increased during this period due to heavy government expenditure on industrialisation ; there was no decline in inflation.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Global indices - publishers and methodology

Q12. Which organization released the Doing Business Report (DBR) 2019?

  1. (a) United Nations Development Programme
  2. (b) International Monetary Fund
  3. (c) World Bank
  4. (d) World Economic Forum
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) World Bank

The correct answer is World Bank (Option 3).
The Doing Business Report (DBR) 2019 was published by the World Bank. The annual Doing Business report ranked countries on their ease of doing business based on regulatory indicators including starting a business, getting construction permits, accessing electricity, registering property, getting credit, and paying taxes.
Option 1 - UNDP: The UNDP publishes the Human Development Report (HDR), which measures human development, not ease of doing business.
Option 2 - International Monetary Fund: The IMF publishes the World Economic Outlook and Global Financial Stability Report, not the Doing Business Report.
Option 4 - World Economic Forum: The WEF publishes the Global Competitiveness Report and other indices, not the Doing Business Report.

Biology (1)

Ecology and Environment · Sustainable development and Earth's spheres

Q13. How does the increasing global population affect environmental functions?

  1. (a) It aids in efficient resource utilization.
  2. (b) It strengthens the environmental functions.
  3. (c) It places immense pressure on environmental resources.
  4. (d) It leads to better resource management practices.
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It places immense pressure on environmental resources.

The correct answer is It places immense pressure on environmental resources (Option 3).
An increasing global population leads to greater demand for food, water, energy, land, and natural resources. This overconsumption places immense pressure on environmental resources, leading to deforestation, biodiversity loss, water scarcity, pollution, and climate change.
Option 1: A larger population typically leads to overexploitation and inefficient use of resources, not more efficient utilization.
Option 2: Growing population generally weakens environmental functions by increasing pollution, habitat destruction, and resource depletion.
Option 4: Population growth tends to increase resource consumption and strain management systems rather than lead to better resource management.

Geography (7)

Universe and Solar System · Stars and their life cycle

Q14. The mass of the Chandrashekhar limit is how many times the mass of the Sun?

  1. (a) 1.4 times
  2. (b) 2.8 times
  3. (c) 1.2 times
  4. (d) 1.8 times
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) 1.4 times

The correct answer is 1.4 times (Option 1).
The Chandrasekhar limit is approximately 1.4 times the mass of the Sun (about 1.4 solar masses). It is the maximum mass a white dwarf star can have before gravitational collapse causes it to become a neutron star or black hole. This limit was calculated by Indian-American astrophysicist Subrahmanyan Chandrasekhar, who won the Nobel Prize in Physics in 1983 for this work.
Option 2 - 2.8 times: This is double the actual Chandrasekhar limit; 1.4 solar masses is the accepted value.
Option 3 - 1.2 times: This underestimates the Chandrasekhar limit by 0.2 solar masses.
Option 4 - 1.8 times: This overestimates the limit; the accepted value is 1.4 solar masses, not 1.8.
Atmosphere and Climate · Temperature distribution and inversion

Q15. Read the following statements and choose the correct option.
Statement 1: The difference between day and night temperatures is significant in the Thar Desert.
Statement 2: The Andaman and Nicobar Islands experience large day-night temperature variations.

  1. (a) Only Statement 1 is correct
  2. (b) Only Statement 2 is correct
  3. (c) Both Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct
  4. (d) Neither Statement 1 nor Statement 2 is correct
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only Statement 1 is correct

The correct answer is Only Statement 1 is correct (Option 1).
Statement 1 is correct: The Thar Desert (hot desert in Rajasthan) experiences extreme diurnal temperature variations — very hot during the day and very cold at night — due to dry air, sandy terrain, and absence of cloud cover that prevents heat retention.
Statement 2 is incorrect: The Andaman and Nicobar Islands have an equatorial/maritime climate moderated by the surrounding ocean. The sea acts as a thermal buffer, resulting in small day-night temperature differences throughout the year.
Option 2 - Only S2 correct: This is wrong since Statement 2 is factually incorrect about island temperature variation.
Option 3 - Both correct: This is wrong because Statement 2 is incorrect.
Option 4 - Neither correct: This is wrong because Statement 1 is accurate.
India - Population and Census · Urbanisation and migration

Q16. What proportion of the total population of India, based on the Census 2011 data cited, was reported as migrants based on the place of last residence?

  1. (a) Eighty five percent
  2. (b) Thirty seven percent
  3. (c) Twenty percent
  4. (d) Sixty five percent
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Thirty seven percent

The correct answer is Thirty seven percent (Option 2).
According to the Census 2011 data, approximately 37% (about 450 million people) of India's total population were recorded as migrants based on their place of last residence. This highlights the massive scale of internal migration in India, driven by economic opportunities, marriage, and education.
Option 1 - Eighty five percent: This vastly overestimates the migrant proportion; 85% would mean almost all Indians had migrated, which is not accurate.
Option 3 - Twenty percent: This underestimates the migrant proportion; the actual figure is approximately 37%.
Option 4 - Sixty five percent: This also significantly overestimates the migrant population; the Census 2011 data indicates approximately 37%.
India - Transport and Communication · Pipelines

Q17. What is the primary benefit of National Gas Grid (NGG) initiative?

  1. (a) Mandating the use of imported LNG exclusively
  2. (b) Restricting gas consumption only to the fertilizer sector
  3. (c) Ensuring clean, affordable, and continuous supply of gas
  4. (d) Phasing out of existing piped natural gas (PNG) networks
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Ensuring clean, affordable, and continuous supply of gas

The correct answer is Ensuring clean, affordable, and continuous supply of gas (Option 3).
The National Gas Grid (NGG) initiative aims to create a pan-India natural gas pipeline network that ensures a clean, affordable, and uninterrupted supply of natural gas to all regions of India, including previously underserved areas. It promotes natural gas as an environmentally cleaner fuel for households, industry, and transport.
Option 1 - Mandating use of imported LNG exclusively: The NGG utilizes both domestically produced and imported gas; it does not mandate exclusive use of imported LNG.
Option 2 - Restricting to fertilizer sector: The NGG serves multiple sectors including power, fertilizers, industry, city gas distribution, and households — not just the fertilizer sector.
Option 4 - Phasing out existing PNG networks: The NGG seeks to expand and integrate the existing piped natural gas network, not phase it out.
Atmosphere and Climate · Climate change and global warming

Q18. Under the Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS), entities that exceed their specified emission reduction targets can generate carbon credits. Who is the designated Regulator for the CCTS scheme, responsible for regulatory oversight and enforcement?

  1. (a) Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE)
  2. (b) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)
  3. (c) Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC)
  4. (d) Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC)

The correct answer is Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC) (Option 3).
The Central Electricity Regulatory Commission (CERC) is the designated Regulator for India's Carbon Credit Trading Scheme (CCTS), responsible for regulatory oversight, enforcement, and ensuring the integrity of the carbon credit market. The CCTS was notified by the Ministry of Power under the Energy Conservation Act.
Option 1 - Bureau of Energy Efficiency (BEE): BEE develops energy efficiency standards and labelling; while it is involved in CCTS administration, CERC is the designated regulator for trading oversight.
Option 2 - SEBI: SEBI regulates India's securities markets. While it can oversee carbon credit trading platforms on stock exchanges, CERC is specifically designated as the CCTS regulator.
Option 4 - Reserve Bank of India: The RBI is India's central bank and monetary regulator; it has no role in regulating the carbon credit trading scheme.
Environment and Protected Areas · Wildlife sanctuaries

Q19. The Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary, which is set to become India's new tiger reserve, is located in which district of Odisha?

  1. (a) Khordha
  2. (b) Puri
  3. (c) Sambalpur
  4. (d) Bargarh
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Bargarh

The correct answer is Bargarh (Option 4).
Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary is located in the Bargarh district of Odisha. It is set to become India's new tiger reserve, part of the National Tiger Conservation Authority's (NTCA) efforts to expand tiger habitats and conservation areas in India.
Option 1 - Khordha : Khordha is a district near Bhubaneswar, Odisha's capital. The Debrigarh Sanctuary is not located there.
Option 2 - Puri: Puri is a coastal district in Odisha, famous for the Jagannath Temple. The Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary is not in Puri.
Option 3 - Sambalpur: Sambalpur is an adjacent district to Bargarh in western Odisha. The Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary is specifically in Bargarh district, not Sambalpur.
World Geography · World resources, industries and cities

Q20. Which BRICS country is the largest producer of coffee?

  1. (a) India
  2. (b) Brazil
  3. (c) Russia
  4. (d) South Africa
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Brazil

The correct answer is Brazil (Option 2).
Brazil is by far the world's largest producer of coffee and is also a founding member of BRICS. Brazil produces approximately one-third of the world's coffee, primarily in the southeastern states of Minas Gerais, São Paulo, Espírito Santo, and Bahia. Brazilian coffee includes both Arabica and Robusta varieties.
Option 1 - India: India is a coffee producer (primarily in Karnataka, Kerala, and Tamil Nadu) but is not the largest producer among BRICS countries; Brazil far exceeds India's output.
Option 3 - Russia: Russia's climate is too cold for coffee cultivation; it is a major coffee-consuming nation but not a producer.
Option 4 - South Africa: South Africa has a limited coffee production history; it is not a significant coffee producer compared to Brazil.

Static GK (11)

Awards and Honours · Bharat Ratna

Q21. In which year was Sachin Tendulkar awarded the Bharat Ratna?

  1. (a) 2001
  2. (b) 2011
  3. (c) 2014
  4. (d) 2010
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 2014

The correct answer is 2014 (Option 3).
Sachin Tendulkar was awarded the Bharat Ratna — India's highest civilian honour — in 2014. He became the youngest recipient of the award (at age 40) and the first sportsperson to receive this prestigious honour .
Option 1 - 2001: Tendulkar may have received other accolades in 2001 (such as Padma Vibhushan), but the Bharat Ratna was awarded in 2014.
Option 2 - 2011: 2011 was the year India won the Cricket World Cup; Tendulkar did not receive the Bharat Ratna then.
Option 4 - 2010: The Bharat Ratna was not awarded to Tendulkar in 2010; the correct year is 2014.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Festivals by state

Q22. Which festival celebrates the harvest and the homecoming of Mahabali, according to the legend associated with it?

  1. (a) Onam
  2. (b) Pongal
  3. (c) Makar Sankranti
  4. (d) Durga Puja
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Onam

The correct answer is Onam (Option 1).
Onam is the major harvest festival of Kerala, celebrated in the Malayalam month of Chingam (August-September). According to legend, it marks the annual homecoming of the beloved demon king Mahabali ( Maveli ) from the netherworld to visit his subjects. The 10-day festival includes Pookkalam (flower carpets), Onam Sadhya (grand feast), and Vallam Kali (boat races).
Option 2 - Pongal: Pongal is a four-day harvest festival celebrated in Tamil Nadu in January, dedicated to the Sun God (Surya). It is not associated with Mahabali's homecoming.
Option 3 - Makar Sankranti: Makar Sankranti marks the sun's transition into Capricorn and is celebrated across India as a harvest festival; it has no connection to Mahabali.
Option 4 - Durga Puja: Durga Puja celebrates Goddess Durga's victory over Mahishasura and is the major festival of West Bengal and Eastern India; it is not related to Mahabali.
Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q23. The traditional dance form ' Sattriya ' originates from which region?

  1. (a) Assam
  2. (b) Tamil Nadu
  3. (c) Kerala
  4. (d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Assam

The correct answer is Assam (Option 1).
Sattriya is a classical dance form that originated in Assam. It was introduced in the 15th century by the Vaishnavite saint-scholar Srimanta Shankardev as part of his neo-Vaishnavite movement. Originally performed in the monasteries ( Sattras ) of Assam, it was recognized as one of India's classical dance forms by the Sangeet Natak Akademi in 2000.
Option 2 - Tamil Nadu: Tamil Nadu is associated with Bharatanatyam, a classical dance rooted in the Devadasi tradition and Natya Shastra.
Option 3 - Kerala: Kerala is associated with Kathakali and Mohiniyattam , not Sattriya .
Option 4 - Andhra Pradesh: Andhra Pradesh is the birthplace of Kuchipudi, not Sattriya .
Dances · Folk dances by state

Q24. Folk-dance forms are deeply rooted in specific social contexts and locations because they represent what aspect of the community?

  1. (a) Economic practices and trades
  2. (b) Beliefs, rituals, and symbolism
  3. (c) Political structures and leadership
  4. (d) Religious texts and philosophies
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Beliefs, rituals, and symbolism

The correct answer is Beliefs, rituals, and symbolism (Option 2).
Folk dances are deeply embedded in the beliefs, rituals, and symbolism of their communities. They are performed during religious festivals, seasonal celebrations, birth, marriage, and death rituals, and other community events, reflecting the values, spiritual beliefs, and cultural symbols unique to each group.
Option 1 - Economic practices and trades: While some folk dances may celebrate harvests or occupations, their primary roots are in beliefs and rituals, not economic practices.
Option 3 - Political structures and leadership: Folk dances rarely reflect political structures; they are community expressions of culture and spirituality.
Option 4 - Religious texts and philosophies: Classical dance forms are more directly connected to religious texts; folk dances are grounded in popular beliefs and lived rituals rather than formal philosophical texts.
Dances · Tribal dances

Q25. Where is the Gaud Maria dance, performed by the Bison Horn Maria community during occasions like births and marriages, primarily performed?

  1. (a) Nagaland
  2. (b) Koraput
  3. (c) Bastar
  4. (d) Thanjavur
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Bastar

The correct answer is Bastar (Option 3).
The Gaud Maria dance is a tribal dance performed by the Bison Horn Maria community, primarily in the Bastar district of Chhattisgarh (formerly part of undivided Madhya Pradesh). The dancers wear elaborate headdresses made of bison horns and perform during significant community events such as births, marriages, and festivals.
Option 1 - Nagaland: Nagaland is known for the tribal dances performed during the Hornbill Festival and other Naga cultural events, not the Gaud Maria dance.
Option 2 - Koraput: Koraput is a district in Odisha with its own rich tribal culture, but the Gaud Maria dance belongs to the Bastar region of Chhattisgarh.
Option 4 - Thanjavur: Thanjavur (Tanjore) in Tamil Nadu is famous for classical Bharatanatyam and Thanjavur paintings, not tribal folk dances like Gaud Maria.
Awards and Honours · Nobel Prize and international awards

Q26. Paul Lynch's 'Prophet Song' depicts an Ireland slipping into authoritarian rule. Which prize did it receive?

  1. (a) Hugo Award
  2. (b) Nobel Prize
  3. (c) Women's Prize for Fiction
  4. (d) Booker Prize 2023
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Booker Prize 2023

The correct answer is Booker Prize 2023 (Option 4).
Paul Lynch's 'Prophet Song' won the Booker Prize 2023. The novel depicts a near-future Ireland descending into authoritarianism and fascism, following a woman whose family is torn apart by a totalitarian government. It was praised for its urgency and literary power.
Option 1 - Hugo Award: The Hugo Award recognises the best science fiction and fantasy literature; 'Prophet Song' is a literary fiction novel, not sci-fi or fantasy.
Option 2 - Nobel Prize: The Nobel Prize in Literature is awarded to an author for their entire body of work; Paul Lynch won the Booker Prize for this specific novel, not the Nobel Prize.
Option 3 - Women's Prize for Fiction: The Women's Prize for Fiction is awarded to women writers; Paul Lynch is a male Irish author, making him ineligible for this award.
Awards and Honours · Literary awards (Jnanpith, Sahitya Akademi)

Q27. Neelum Saran Gour won the Sahitya Akademi Award (English) 2023 for a novel centred on:

  1. (a) A mountaineering expedition
  2. (b) A legendary classical singer's life
  3. (c) A journalist investigating climate fraud
  4. (d) Political satire in Delhi
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) A legendary classical singer's life

The correct answer is A legendary classical singer's life (Option 2).
Neelum Saran Gour won the Sahitya Akademi Award (English) 2023 for her novel 'Requiem in Raga Janki.' The novel is centred on the life of Janki Bai of Allahabad, a legendary thumri and ghazal singer from the early 20th century, exploring her art, love, and the changing social world around her.
Option 1 - A mountaineering expedition: 'Requiem in Raga Janki' does not involve mountaineering; it is set in the world of classical Hindustani music.
Option 3 - A journalist investigating climate fraud: Climate fraud investigation is not the theme of this novel; it focuses on the life of a historical classical singer.
Option 4 - Political satire in Delhi: Political satire is not the focus of 'Requiem in Raga Janki'; the novel is rooted in the Allahabad music world of the early 20th century.
Books and Authors · International books and authors

Q28. Which country's history is the focus of the novel 'The Promise' by Damon Galgut, which won the Booker Prize in 2021?

  1. (a) South Africa
  2. (b) India
  3. (c) France
  4. (d) Brazil
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) South Africa

The correct answer is South Africa (Option 1).
Damon Galgut's 'The Promise', which won the Booker Prize in 2021, is set in South Africa and focuses on the history and internal dynamics of a white Afrikaner family over several decades. The novel explores themes of racial inequality, broken promises, family dysfunction, and the legacy of apartheid.
Option 2 - India: Damon Galgut is a South African author and 'The Promise' is firmly set in South Africa, not India.
Option 3 - France: France is not the setting or historical focus of 'The Promise'.
Option 4 - Brazil: The novel has no connection to Brazil; it is rooted in South African history and society.
Sports · Asian Games and Commonwealth Games

Q29. Which athlete won silver in 'Men's skeet' at the 2023 Asian Games?

  1. (a) Anantjeet Singh Naruka
  2. (b) Sift Kaur Samra
  3. (c) Vishnu Saravanan
  4. (d) Ashi Chouksey
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Anantjeet Singh Naruka

The correct answer is Anantjeet Singh Naruka (Option 1).
Anantjeet Singh Naruka won the silver medal in Men's Skeet shooting at the 2023 Asian Games held in Hangzhou, China. He is a leading Indian clay target shooter who has represented India in multiple international competitions.
Option 2 - Sift Kaur Samra: Sift Kaur Samra is a prominent Indian rifle shooter who won gold in the 50m Rifle 3 Positions event at the 2023 Asian Games, not silver in Men's Skeet.
Option 3 - Vishnu Saravanan: Vishnu Saravanan is an Indian sailor who won medals in sailing events, not in skeet shooting.
Option 4 - Ashi Chouksey: Ashi Chouksey is a shooting athlete, but she did not win silver in Men's Skeet at the 2023 Asian Games.
Sports · Sports terminology

Q30. In Kho-Kho, what does 'Biped' refer to?

  1. (a) Zigzag runner
  2. (b) Uses hands and feet
  3. (c) Runs on two legs
  4. (d) Sits in one place
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Runs on two legs

The correct answer is Runs on two legs (Option 3).
In Kho-Kho, 'Biped' refers to a player (usually the chaser or active runner) who runs on two legs in the normal bipedal manner. The term is used in the context of Kho-Kho rules to describe the standard upright running motion of players during the game.
Option 1 - Zigzag runner: Biped specifically refers to the mode of locomotion (two-legged), not the pattern of movement (zigzag).
Option 2 - Uses hands and feet: Using hands and feet describes quadrupedal movement or crawling, which is not what 'Biped' means; biped strictly means moving on two legs.
Option 4 - Sits in one place: This is the opposite of what a biped does; bipeds are defined by upright locomotion on two legs.
Indian Railways · Railway stations and records

Q31. What is the primary operational objective of the One Station One Product (OSOP) scheme, in conjunction with promoting local GI and artisanal products, beyond commercial viability?

  1. (a) Converting all small and medium-sized railway stations into large retail shopping malls
  2. (b) Mandating FSSAI certification for all food items sold at railway stalls
  3. (c) Establishing duty-free trade zones for imported goods at all major stations
  4. (d) Providing livelihood opportunities and welfare for local artisans and marginalized communities
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Providing livelihood opportunities and welfare for local artisans and marginalized communities

The correct answer is Providing livelihood opportunities and welfare for local artisans and marginalized communities (Option 4).
The One Station One Product (OSOP) scheme, launched by Indian Railways, primarily aims to provide livelihood opportunities to local artisans, weavers, potters, and marginalized communities by giving them a dedicated platform at railway stations to sell their locally produced GI-tagged, artisanal, and indigenous products, thereby supporting rural and tribal economies.
Option 1 - Converting to shopping malls: OSOP does not aim to turn stations into large retail malls; it is a focused initiative for local artisan products, not commercial retail.
Option 2 - Mandating FSSAI certification: FSSAI certification requirements for food safety are separate regulations and are not the primary objective of the OSOP scheme.
Option 3 - Duty-free trade zones: Duty-free zones for imported goods are not part of OSOP's objectives; the scheme specifically promotes domestically produced artisanal goods.

Ancient History (3)

Ancient Art, Culture and Science · Stupas and chaityas

Q32. Which of the following was the primary focus of Buddhist architecture and sculpture during the second century B.C.E.?

  1. (a) Development of Hindu temples
  2. (b) Construction of Stupas, Chaitya halls, and caves
  3. (c) Expansion of Jain rock-cut temples
  4. (d) Creation of large-scale Mauryan sculptures
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Construction of Stupas, Chaitya halls, and caves

The correct answer is Construction of Stupas, Chaitya halls, and caves (Option 2).
During the second century B.C.E., Buddhist architecture focused on constructing Stupas (dome-shaped reliquary mounds), Chaitya halls (prayer/assembly halls), and rock-cut caves. Notable examples include the Sanchi Stupa, the Bharhut Stupa, and the early cave complexes at Ajanta and Bhaja.
Option 1 - Development of Hindu temples: Structural Hindu temples began to appear only later (around the Gupta period, 4th-6th century CE); they were not the focus of the second century B.C.E.
Option 3 - Expansion of Jain rock-cut temples: Jain cave temples were constructed in this period but were not the primary focus of Buddhist art and architecture.
Option 4 - Large-scale Mauryan sculptures: Mauryan imperial sculpture (Ashokan pillars) predates the second century B.C.E.; the focus during 2nd century B.C.E. was more on community-based Buddhist monuments.
Gupta Empire · Gupta rulers

Q33. Fill in the blank: Chandragupta I married a Lichchhavi princess named ________.

  1. (a) Kumari
  2. (b) Kumaradevi
  3. (c) Chandrani
  4. (d) Padmini
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Kumaradevi

The correct answer is Kumaradevi (Option 2).
Chandragupta I, the founder of the Gupta Empire (r. c. 319-335 CE), married Kumaradevi, a princess from the powerful Lichchhavi clan. This alliance was of great political significance and helped establish Gupta dominance in the Gangetic plains. The couple is depicted on Gupta gold coins, testifying to the importance of this alliance.
Option 1 - Kumari: Kumari is not recorded in historical sources as the name of the Lichchhavi princess who married Chandragupta I.
Option 3 - Chandrani: Chandrani is not the historically documented name of Chandragupta I's Lichchhavi queen.
Option 4 - Padmini: Padmini is the legendary Rajput queen associated with the 1303 siege of Chittorgarh; she has no connection to the Gupta period or the Lichchhavi dynasty.
Indus Valley Civilisation · Artefacts and findings

Q34. Terracotta models of the plough have been found at sites in which of the following locations?

  1. (a) Lothal and Dholavira
  2. (b) Mohenjo-Daro and Harappa
  3. (c) Cholistan and Banawali
  4. (d) Kalibangan and Rakhigarhi
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Cholistan and Banawali

The correct answer is Cholistan and Banawali (Option 3).
Terracotta models of the plough have been specifically found at the sites of Cholistan (in present-day Pakistan, part of the Hakra /Ghaggar region) and Banawali (in Haryana, India). These finds provide evidence of agricultural practices including ploughing in the Indus Valley Civilisation .
Option 1 - Lothal and Dholavira : Lothal is known for its dockyard and Dholavira for its water management; terracotta plough models are not specifically reported from these sites.
Option 2 - Mohenjo-Daro and Harappa: These are the largest Indus cities with many artefacts, but the terracotta plough models are specifically associated with Cholistan and Banawali .
Option 4 - Kalibangan and Rakhigarhi : Kalibangan is famous for evidence of ploughed fields (not terracotta models), and Rakhigarhi is a large site but not the specific location for the plough terracotta models.

Modern History (4)

Personalities, Newspapers, Books and Slogans · Freedom fighters and their titles

Q35. Consider the following statements about Potti Sriramulu: 1. He joined Gandhiji at the Sabarmati Ashram after enduring personal tragedies. 2. He refused to participate in the Salt Satyagraha. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. (a) Only 1
  2. (b) Only 2
  3. (c) Both 1 and 2
  4. (d) Neither 1 nor 2
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Only 1

The correct answer is Only 1 (Option 1).
Statement 1 is correct: Potti Sriramulu did join Mahatma Gandhi at the Sabarmati Ashram after facing personal tragedies including the death of his mother. He became a devoted follower of Gandhi's non-violent methods.
Statement 2 is incorrect: Potti Sriramulu actively participated in the Salt Satyagraha (Dandi March) launched by Gandhi in 1930. He was deeply involved in the civil disobedience movement; he did not refuse to participate.
Option 3 - Both correct: This is wrong because Statement 2 is factually incorrect about his participation in Salt Satyagraha.
Option 4 - Neither correct: This is wrong because Statement 1 accurately describes Sriramulu's association with Gandhi.
Swadeshi, Revolutionaries and Home Rule · Early revolutionary activities

Q36. Khudiram Bose was executed by the British for his involvement in which revolutionary act?

  1. (a) Kakori Train Robbery
  2. (b) Muzaffarpur bomb attack
  3. (c) Chittagong Armoury Raid
  4. (d) Delhi Assembly bombing
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Muzaffarpur bomb attack

The correct answer is Muzaffarpur bomb attack (Option 2).
Khudiram Bose was hanged on August 11, 1908 for his role in the Muzaffarpur bomb attack on April 30, 1908. Along with Prafulla Chaki, he threw a bomb at the carriage believed to belong to Magistrate Kingsford (who had ordered harsh punishments for nationalist leaders). The bomb tragically killed two British women instead.
Option 1 - Kakori Train Robbery: The Kakori Train Robbery (1925) was conducted by Ram Prasad Bismil, Ashfaqulla Khan, and others. Khudiram was executed in 1908, 17 years before this event.
Option 3 - Chittagong Armoury Raid: The Chittagong Armoury Raid (1930) was led by Surya Sen ( Masterda ); it occurred more than two decades after Khudiram's execution.
Option 4 - Delhi Assembly bombing: The Delhi Legislative Assembly bombing (1929) was carried out by Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutt; this was 21 years after Khudiram's martyrdom.
Swadeshi, Revolutionaries and Home Rule · Early revolutionary activities

Q37. At what age did Khudiram Bose become a martyr, making him one of the youngest revolutionaries in India's freedom struggle?

  1. (a) 16 years
  2. (b) 17 years
  3. (c) 18 years
  4. (d) 19 years
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 18 years

The correct answer is 18 years (Option 3).
Khudiram Bose was born on December 3, 1889, and was executed on August 11, 1908, at the age of 18 years. He is remembered as one of the youngest martyrs in India's freedom struggle, who went to the gallows with a smile and is believed to have carried the Bhagavad Gita in his hands.
Option 1 - 16 years: Khudiram was 18 years old at the time of his execution, not 16.
Option 2 - 17 years: Historical records confirm Khudiram was 18 years, 8 months old at the time of his execution; 17 years is incorrect.
Option 4 - 19 years: Born December 1889, executed August 1908 — he was 18 years old, not 19.
British Administration and Policies · Civil services, police and judiciary under the British

Q38. Why was there a furore over the Ilbert Bill in 1883?

  1. (a) It suggested the removal of Indian judges from the courts, replacing them with British judges.
  2. (b) It proposed equal rights for British and Indian judges, opposed by the British.
  3. (c) It allowed Indians to hold positions in the British army, giving them opportunities for higher-ranking roles.
  4. (d) It introduced new taxes on Indian businesses, increasing their financial burden.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) It proposed equal rights for British and Indian judges, opposed by the British.

The correct answer is Option 2: It proposed equal rights for British and Indian judges, opposed by the British.
The Ilbert Bill (1883), introduced by law member Courtenay Ilbert, proposed to allow qualified Indian judges and magistrates to try cases involving European British subjects in criminal courts. British colonists fiercely opposed this, refusing to be tried by Indian judges. The controversy forced the British government to significantly dilute the bill, but the episode awakened Indian nationalist sentiment.
Option 1: The bill did not remove Indian judges; on the contrary, it sought to extend the jurisdiction of Indian judges to include British defendants.
Option 3: The Ilbert Bill had nothing to do with Indians joining the British military; it was exclusively about judicial jurisdiction.
Option 4: The bill introduced no new taxes; it was purely a judicial reform measure about equality before the law.

Current Affairs (9)

Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q39. The NISAR spacecraft is built around which structural platform of ISRO?

  1. (a) I-6K
  2. (b) I-4S
  3. (c) I-3K
  4. (d) I-2K
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) I-3K

The correct answer is I-3K (Option 3).
NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar), a joint Earth observation satellite mission between NASA and ISRO, is built around the I-3K (I-3000) satellite bus — ISRO's structural platform for medium to heavy satellites. This bus provides the spacecraft's power, propulsion, and structural support systems.
Option 1 - I-6K: The I-6K is a heavier satellite bus used for larger geostationary satellites with more payload capacity than what NISAR requires.
Option 2 - I-4S: I-4S is an ISRO launch vehicle designation (a smaller rocket), not a satellite bus platform.
Option 4 - I-2K: The I-2K is a smaller satellite bus used for lighter satellites; NISAR requires the larger I-3K platform.
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q40. Which of the following correctly reflects the sustainability feature of EOS-09?

  1. (a) Use of solar sails for propulsion
  2. (b) Equipped with deorbiting fuel for safe disposal
  3. (c) Ability to self-repair in orbit
  4. (d) Radiation shielding layer for deep-space travel
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Equipped with deorbiting fuel for safe disposal

The correct answer is Equipped with deorbiting fuel for safe disposal (Option 2).
EOS-09 (Earth Observation Satellite-09), launched by ISRO in 2025, incorporates a sustainability feature in the form of deorbiting fuel. This fuel allows the satellite to safely lower its orbit at the end of its operational life, ensuring controlled re-entry and reducing space debris — an important step in responsible space operations.
Option 1 - Solar sails for propulsion: Solar sail propulsion is an advanced concept under development; it was not a feature of EOS-09.
Option 3 - Ability to self-repair in orbit: Self-repair capability in orbit is a future technology not yet implemented in operational satellites like EOS-09.
Option 4 - Radiation shielding for deep-space travel: EOS-09 is an Earth observation satellite in low Earth orbit; deep-space radiation shielding is not relevant to its mission.
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q41. Who won a bronze medal at the 2025 Asian Artistic Gymnastics Championships in the vault event?

  1. (a) Protistha Samanta
  2. (b) Yihan Zhang
  3. (c) Pranati Nayak
  4. (d) Nguyen Thi Quynh Nhu
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Pranati Nayak

The correct answer is Pranati Nayak (Option 3).
Pranati Nayak won the bronze medal in the vault event at the 2025 Asian Artistic Gymnastics Championships. She is India's top gymnast and has been representing India internationally for many years, competing at the Olympic Games and multiple Asian-level competitions.
Option 1 - Protistha Samanta: Protistha Samanta is an Indian gymnast, but she did not win the bronze in the vault event at this championship.
Option 2 - Yihan Zhang: Yihan Zhang is a Chinese gymnast; she did not win the bronze medal in this particular event.
Option 4 - Nguyen Thi Quynh Nhu: This Vietnamese gymnast did not win the bronze medal in the vault event at the 2025 Asian Artistic Gymnastics Championships.
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q42. What is India's position in the Global Peace Index (GPI) 2025?

  1. (a) 100th
  2. (b) 115th
  3. (c) 110th
  4. (d) 120th
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 115th

The correct answer is 115th (Option 2).
India was ranked 115th out of 163 countries in the Global Peace Index (GPI) 2025, released by the Institute for Economics and Peace (IEP). The GPI measures the relative peacefulness of nations based on societal safety, ongoing conflicts, and militarisation .
Option 1 - 100th: A ranking of 100th would indicate a significantly better peace standing than India's actual GPI 2025 position.
Option 3 - 110th: India's actual GPI 2025 ranking is 115th, not 110th.
Option 4 - 120th: A ranking of 120th would indicate a worse standing than India's actual GPI 2025 position of 115th.
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q43. At which venue did India achieve its best-ever performance at the 2025 Asian Youth Games?

  1. (a) Doha, Qatar
  2. (b) Manama, Bahrain
  3. (c) Jakarta, Indonesia
  4. (d) Tokyo, Japan
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Manama, Bahrain

The correct answer is Manama, Bahrain (Option 2).
India achieved its best-ever performance at the 2025 Asian Youth Games held in Manama, Bahrain. The Indian contingent won a record number of medals, making it India's most successful performance in the history of the Asian Youth Games.
Option 1 - Doha, Qatar: Doha hosted the 2006 Asian Games and various major international competitions, but the 2025 Asian Youth Games were held in Manama, Bahrain.
Option 3 - Jakarta, Indonesia: Jakarta co-hosted (with Palembang) the 2018 Asian Games; it was not the venue for the 2025 Asian Youth Games.
Option 4 - Tokyo, Japan: Tokyo hosted the 2020 Summer Olympics; it was not the venue for the 2025 Asian Youth Games.
Sports - Current · Tournaments and winners

Q44. What was the duration of the Boxing Federation of India Cup 2025?

  1. (a) 10th to 16th October 2025
  2. (b) 1st to 7th October 2025
  3. (c) 5th to 10th October 2025
  4. (d) 15th to 20th October 2025
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 1st to 7th October 2025

The correct answer is 1st to 7th October 2025 (Option 2).
The Boxing Federation of India Cup 2025 was held from October 1st to October 7th, 2025. This national-level boxing championship was organized by the Boxing Federation of India (BFI) and brought together top boxers from across the country.
Option 1 - 10th to 16th October 2025: This period does not correspond to the announced dates of the Boxing Federation of India Cup 2025.
Option 3 - 5th to 10th October 2025: This duration does not match the official dates of the competition.
Option 4 - 15th to 20th October 2025: This is not the correct period for the Boxing Federation of India Cup 2025.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q45. Who was the Brand Ambassador of the Viksit Bharat Buildathon 2025 launched by the Ministry of Education, in collaboration with the Atal Innovation Mission, NITI Aayog?

  1. (a) Ratan Tata
  2. (b) Shubhanshu Shukla
  3. (c) Anand Mahindra
  4. (d) Nandan Nilekani
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Shubhanshu Shukla

The correct answer is Shubhanshu Shukla (Option 2).
Shubhanshu Shukla, the Indian astronaut selected for the Axiom Space Mission 4 (Ax-4) to the International Space Station, was designated as the Brand Ambassador for the Viksit Bharat Buildathon 2025. This initiative by the Ministry of Education and Atal Innovation Mission aimed to inspire young innovators and entrepreneurs across India.
Option 1 - Ratan Tata: Ratan Tata was the legendary industrialist and philanthropist who passed away in October 2024; he was not the Brand Ambassador for this 2025 initiative.
Option 3 - Anand Mahindra: Anand Mahindra is the chairman of Mahindra Group; he was not appointed as Brand Ambassador for the Viksit Bharat Buildathon 2025.
Option 4 - Nandan Nilekani: Nandan Nilekani is the co-founder of Infosys and architect of Aadhaar; he was not the Brand Ambassador for this specific initiative.
Appointments and Resignations · Heads of organisations

Q46. Who has recently taken charge as the Managing Director of the Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) in December 2025?

  1. (a) Ramakrishnan Chander
  2. (b) Siddhartha Mohanty
  3. (c) Dr. B. N. Gangadhar
  4. (d) Uma Kanjilal
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Ramakrishnan Chander

The correct answer is Ramakrishnan Chander (Option 1).
Ramakrishnan Chander took charge as the Managing Director of the Life Insurance Corporation of India (LIC) in December 2025. LIC is India's largest life insurer and a significant public sector financial institution.
Option 2 - Siddhartha Mohanty: Siddhartha Mohanty served as Chairman & MD of LIC in an earlier period; he does not represent the December 2025 appointment.
Option 3 - Dr. B. N. Gangadhar: Dr. Gangadhar is an eminent psychiatrist and academic who chairs the National Medical Commission; he has no role as LIC's Managing Director.
Option 4 - Uma Kanjilal: Uma Kanjilal is not publicly associated with the December 2025 Managing Director appointment at LIC.
Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q47. Who assumed the charge of Chairman, ISRO on the afternoon of 13th January 2025?

  1. (a) Dr. S. Somnath
  2. (b) Dr. V. Narayanan
  3. (c) Dr. K. Sivan
  4. (d) Dr. A. Rajarajan
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Dr. V. Narayanan

The correct answer is Dr. V. Narayanan (Option 2).
Dr. V. Narayanan assumed charge as Chairman of the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) on the afternoon of January 13, 2025, succeeding Dr. S. Somnath. Dr. Narayanan is a specialist in cryogenic rocket engines and has contributed significantly to ISRO's launch vehicle programs, including the GSLV series.
Option 1 - Dr. S. Somnath: Dr. S. Somnath was ISRO Chairman from January 2022 to January 2025; he handed over charge to Dr. V. Narayanan on January 13, 2025.
Option 3 - Dr. K. Sivan: Dr. K. Sivan served as ISRO Chairman from January 2018 to January 2022; he had already completed his tenure before this appointment.
Option 4 - Dr. A. Rajarajan: Dr. A. Rajarajan has not been publicly identified as the ISRO Chairman who assumed charge on January 13, 2025.

Medieval History (2)

Early Medieval North India · Tripartite struggle (Palas, Pratiharas, Rashtrakutas)

Q48. Who is regarded as the founder of the Pala Empire?

  1. (a) Dharmapala
  2. (b) Devapala
  3. (c) Gopala
  4. (d) Mahipala
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Gopala

The correct answer is Gopala (Option 3).
Gopala (r. c. 750-770 CE) is regarded as the founder of the Pala Empire. He was elected king by the local chieftains of Bengal to end the ' matsyanyaya ' (rule of the fish — anarchy where the strong devour the weak). He established the Pala dynasty, which ruled Bengal and Bihar for nearly four centuries and was a great patron of Buddhism.
Option 1 - Dharmapala: Dharmapala was the second Pala king and the greatest ruler of the dynasty, who vastly expanded the empire; he was Gopala's son, not the founder.
Option 2 - Devapala: Devapala was the third Pala king (son of Dharmapala), who maintained the empire's strength; he was not the founder.
Option 4 - Mahipala: Mahipala I (c. 988-1038 CE) was a later Pala ruler who revived Pala power after a period of decline; he was not the dynasty's founder.
Delhi Sultanate · Lodi dynasty

Q49. What was the primary reason for the conflict between Rana Sanga and Ibrahim Lodi?

  1. (a) To gain control over eastern Rajasthan and Malwa.
  2. (b) To establish dominance over the Delhi Sultanate.
  3. (c) To enhance the Mughal Empire's influence in India.
  4. (d) To prevent Babur's entry into India.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) To gain control over eastern Rajasthan and Malwa.

The correct answer is To gain control over eastern Rajasthan and Malwa (Option 1).
The primary reason for the conflict between Rana Sanga (Maharana Sangram Singh of Mewar) and Ibrahim Lodi (Sultan of Delhi) was territorial ambition. Rana Sanga sought to expand Mewar's control over eastern Rajasthan and Malwa, which were either under Lodi suzerainty or disputed territory, making repeated clashes inevitable.
Option 2 - Establish dominance over Delhi Sultanate: While Rana Sanga had broader ambitions, the immediate cause was control over specific territories, not dominance over the entire Sultanate.
Option 3 - Mughal Empire's influence: The Mughal Empire under Babur was not yet established in India during the conflict between Rana Sanga and Ibrahim Lodi; Babur invaded after Ibrahim Lodi's defeat at Panipat.
Option 4 - Prevent Babur's entry: Rana Sanga actually invited Babur to help defeat Ibrahim Lodi; preventing Babur's entry was not the reason for the Rana Sanga-Ibrahim Lodi conflict.
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