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Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 30 December 2025 Shift 1 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 49 GK / GS questions asked in Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 on 30 December 2025 Shift 1, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Biology, Geography, Current Affairs, Ancient History, Economics, Polity.

📚 49 questions🗓️ 30 December 2025⏰ Shift 1
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Subjects: Biology (1) · Geography (9) · Current Affairs (8) · Ancient History (1) · Economics (10) · Polity (2) · Static GK (13) · Modern History (4) · Medieval History (1)

Biology (1)

Biology Miscellaneous · Biologists and their discoveries

Q1. Acharya Jagdish Chandra Bose is famous for which of the following contributions?

  1. (a) Discovering the theory of evolution in plants
  2. (b) Demonstrating that plants can respond to stimuli and "feel" pain and pleasure
  3. (c) Developing the first theory on plant genetics
  4. (d) Inventing the first microscope for studying plants
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Demonstrating that plants can respond to stimuli and "feel" pain and pleasure

J.C. Bose demonstrated that plants have a nervous system similar to animals and can respond to stimuli such as light, heat, and injury, concluding they can feel pain and pleasure. He invented the crescograph to measure plant growth and responses to stimuli.
(a) Incorrect: J.C. Bose did not discover the theory of evolution in plants; Charles Darwin is associated with evolutionary theory.
(c) Incorrect: Developing the first theory on plant genetics is associated with Gregor Mendel, not J.C. Bose.
(d) Incorrect: J.C. Bose did not invent the first microscope for studying plants; he invented instruments to study plant physiology and responses.

Geography (9)

India - Population and Census · Literacy rate

Q2. Which of the following correctly defines literacy as per the Census of India?

  1. (a) Ability to read and write in English only
  2. (b) Ability to read and write any language with understanding
  3. (c) Ability to read but not write in any language
  4. (d) Completion of primary education
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ability to read and write any language with understanding

According to the Census of India, a person aged 7 years and above who can both read and write with understanding in any language is considered literate. The definition does not restrict literacy to any particular language and does not require formal schooling.
(a) Incorrect: The Census definition is not restricted to English; literacy in any language counts.
(c) Incorrect: Being able to only read without writing does not qualify as literacy under the Census definition; both reading and writing are required.
(d) Incorrect: Completion of primary education is not the criterion; a person can be literate without attending school if they can read and write with understanding.
India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Indian monsoon - mechanism

Q3. Which of the following is responsible for the seasonal variation of the monsoon in India?

  1. (a) Differential heating of land and ocean
  2. (b) Earth's rotation
  3. (c) Moon's gravitational pull
  4. (d) Solar flares
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Differential heating of land and ocean

The seasonal variation of the Indian monsoon is primarily caused by the differential heating of land and ocean. In summer, land heats up faster than the ocean, creating a low pressure zone over the Indian subcontinent, which draws moisture-laden winds from the Indian Ocean, producing the southwest monsoon.
(b) Incorrect: Earth's rotation influences wind deflection (Coriolis effect) and cyclone patterns but is not the primary cause of the seasonal variation of monsoon.
(c) Incorrect: The Moon's gravitational pull causes ocean tides but does not cause the seasonal variation of the monsoon.
(d) Incorrect: Solar flares are disturbances on the Sun's surface that affect space weather and communications; they do not cause the Indian monsoon's seasonal variation.
India - Agriculture · Cropping seasons (kharif, rabi, zaid)

Q4. The short summer cropping season between the Rabi and Kharif seasons is known as?

  1. (a) Barani
  2. (b) Zaid
  3. (c) Jhum
  4. (d) Garma
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Zaid

Zaid (also called Zayad ) is the short-duration cropping season in India between the Rabi and Kharif seasons, roughly from March to June. Crops like watermelon, muskmelon, cucumber, and vegetables are grown in this season using irrigation.
(a) Incorrect: Barani refers to rain-fed (unirrigated) farming dependent on rainfall, not a cropping season between Rabi and Kharif.
(c) Incorrect: Jhum (or Jhoom) is a traditional shifting cultivation practice followed in northeast India, not the name of a cropping season.
(d) Incorrect: Garma is a regional term used in some states for the hot-season crop, but the standard national term for the inter-season is Zaid.
Geography Miscellaneous · Nicknames of places

Q5. Which state is often called the 'Spice Garden of India'?

  1. (a) Karnataka
  2. (b) Kerala
  3. (c) Tamil Nadu
  4. (d) Andhra Pradesh
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Kerala

Kerala is known as the 'Spice Garden of India' due to its abundant production of spices like black pepper, cardamom, cloves, cinnamon, nutmeg, and ginger. Kerala has been a major spice trading hub since ancient times and played a key role in India's spice trade with Arab and European merchants.
(a) Incorrect: Karnataka is known for its coffee, silk, and sandalwood production; it is not typically called the 'Spice Garden of India'.
(c) Incorrect: Tamil Nadu is known for rice, cotton, and banana cultivation; it is not called the 'Spice Garden of India'.
(d) Incorrect: Andhra Pradesh is known for red chillies (Guntur) and rice; it is not specifically called the 'Spice Garden of India'.
India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Extreme points and area facts

Q6. The southernmost point of the Indian Union, 'Indira Point', is located in?

  1. (a) Tamil Nadu
  2. (b) Lakshadweep Islands
  3. (c) Great Nicobar Island
  4. (d) Little Andaman
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Great Nicobar Island

Indira Point (also known as Pygmalion Point) is the southernmost tip of India, located on Great Nicobar Island in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands union territory. It lies at approximately 6°45'N latitude and was partially submerged after the 2004 Indian Ocean earthquake and tsunami.
(a) Incorrect: Tamil Nadu's southernmost point is Kanyakumari (Cape Comorin); Indira Point is on Great Nicobar Island, not Tamil Nadu.
(b) Incorrect: Lakshadweep Islands are in the Arabian Sea, off India's west coast; Indira Point is in the Andaman and Nicobar Islands in the Bay of Bengal.
(d) Incorrect: Little Andaman is an island in the Andaman group, but Indira Point is specifically located on Great Nicobar Island, the southernmost island of the chain.
India - Minerals, Energy and Industries · Industrial regions and cities

Q7. Which city in Uttar Pradesh is famous for its lock-making industry?

  1. (a) Moradabad
  2. (b) Aligarh
  3. (c) Kanpur
  4. (d) Meerut
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Aligarh

Aligarh in Uttar Pradesh is world-famous for its lock-making industry, producing about 80% of India's total lock output and exporting locks to many countries. It is called the 'City of Locks' (Tala Nagri). The industry dates back to the 19th century when British influence introduced industrial manufacturing.
(a) Incorrect: Moradabad is known as the 'Brass City' ( Peetal Nagri) for its brass metalware and handicraft exports, not for lock-making.
(c) Incorrect: Kanpur is known as the 'Manchester of the East' for its leather and textile industries; it is not famous for lock-making.
(d) Incorrect: Meerut is known for sports goods, scissors, and musical instruments; it is not famous for lock-making.
Geography Miscellaneous · Nicknames of places

Q8. Which city is known as the 'Brass City' of India for its brass handicrafts industry?

  1. (a) Jaipur
  2. (b) Moradabad
  3. (c) Jodhpur
  4. (d) Aligarh
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Moradabad

Moradabad in Uttar Pradesh is known as the 'Brass City' or ' Peetal Nagri' of India. It is one of the world's largest exporters of metal handicrafts, producing intricate brassware items exported globally. The city accounts for a significant share of India's handicraft exports.
(a) Incorrect: Jaipur is known as the 'Pink City' and is famous for gems, jewellery , block printing, and blue pottery; it is not called the 'Brass City'.
(c) Incorrect: Jodhpur is known as the 'Blue City' and the 'Sun City'; it is famous for furniture, handicrafts, and its historic fort, not specifically brass manufacturing.
(d) Incorrect: Aligarh is known as the 'City of Locks' for its lock-making industry, not as the 'Brass City'.
India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Soil types and distribution

Q9. Which type of soil is deficient in nutrients and mainly found in tropical and subtropical climates?

  1. (a) Red soil
  2. (b) Arid soil
  3. (c) Black soil
  4. (d) Laterite soil
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Laterite soil

Laterite soil is formed in tropical and subtropical regions with high temperature and alternating wet and dry seasons. Due to intense leaching, silica is washed away and iron and aluminum oxides accumulate, making it poor in nutrients like nitrogen, phosphorus, potassium, and calcium. It is found in parts of Kerala, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Meghalaya, and Odisha.
(a) Incorrect: Red soil is also found in tropical areas but its deficiency is mainly in nitrogen, phosphorus, and humus; it is not specifically described as the most deficient soil mainly found in tropical and subtropical climates in the context of laterization.
(b) Incorrect: Arid soil (desert soil) is found in arid and semi-arid regions (Rajasthan, Gujarat) and is deficient in organic matter; it is not associated primarily with tropical-subtropical climates.
(c) Incorrect: Black soil (Regur) is rich in calcium, magnesium, and iron; it is highly productive and is not deficient in major nutrients; it is found mainly in the Deccan Plateau.
India - Population and Census · Census 2011 - population and growth

Q10. Which single core component of population growth is defined as the movement of people across regions and territories?

  1. (a) Mortality
  2. (b) Migration
  3. (c) Fertility
  4. (d) Urbanisation
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Migration

Migration is defined as the movement of people from one place to another across regions and territories (internal or international). Along with fertility and mortality, migration is one of the three core components of population change.
(a) Incorrect: Mortality refers to death rates; it does not involve movement of people.
(c) Incorrect: Fertility refers to birth rates; it relates to reproduction, not movement.
(d) Incorrect: Urbanisation is a phenomenon (rural-to-urban shift), not a core demographic component defined as movement across regions.

Current Affairs (8)

State News · State schemes and events

Q11. Which Delhi official introduced in 2025 the concept of mini secretariats and gaushala districts?

  1. (a) Atishi Marlena
  2. (b) Raghav Chadha
  3. (c) Arvind Kejriwal
  4. (d) Rekha Gupta
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Rekha Gupta

Delhi Chief Minister Rekha Gupta introduced the concept of mini secretariats in each district along with gaushala districts in 2025, aiming to improve grassroots governance and facilitate cow protection.
(a) Incorrect: Atishi Marlena was the Education and Finance Minister in the earlier AAP government; she did not introduce mini secretariats in 2025.
(b) Incorrect: Raghav Chadha is a Rajya Sabha MP and is not a Delhi government official responsible for this initiative.
(c) Incorrect: Arvind Kejriwal is the former Delhi CM who lost the 2025 election; this initiative was launched by the new BJP-led government under Rekha Gupta.
Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q12. Who took oath as the Chief Justice of the Gauhati High Court on 21 July 2025?

  1. (a) Justice Dipak Misra
  2. (b) Justice Handyala Lakshmi Narayanswamy Dattu
  3. (c) Justice Ashutosh Kumar
  4. (d) Justice Vijay Bishnoi
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Justice Ashutosh Kumar

Justice Ashutosh Kumar was sworn in as the Chief Justice of the Gauhati High Court on 21 July 2025, appointed by the President of India on the recommendation of the Supreme Court Collegium.
(a) Incorrect: Justice Dipak Misra is a former Chief Justice of India (2017-18); he did not take oath as CJ of Gauhati HC on 21 July 2025.
(b) Incorrect: Justice H.L. Dattu is a former Chief Justice of India (2014-15); he is not associated with the Gauhati HC appointment in 2025.
(d) Incorrect: Justice Vijay Bishnoi is associated with the Rajasthan High Court, not the Gauhati High Court appointment in 2025.
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q13. What scientific advantage does NISAR's dual-frequency radar (L + S band) provide?

  1. (a) Only better colour images
  2. (b) Ability to penetrate vegetation/soil and detect very small ground movements (deformation)
  3. (c) It only increases communication capacity
  4. (d) It reduces satellite weight drastically
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Ability to penetrate vegetation/soil and detect very small ground movements (deformation)

NISAR (NASA-ISRO Synthetic Aperture Radar) uses L-band (longer wavelength) and S-band (shorter wavelength) dual-frequency radar. The L-band penetrates vegetation and soil to detect subsurface changes, while the S-band captures surface deformations. Together they can measure ground movement as small as a centimeter, enabling monitoring of earthquakes, landslides, glaciers, and crop conditions.
(a) Incorrect: Colour imaging is not the scientific advantage of dual-frequency radar; SAR produces radar images, and the advantage lies in its ability to penetrate surfaces and detect deformation.
(c) Incorrect: Communication capacity is not the purpose of NISAR's dual-frequency radar; it is a science mission for Earth observation, not a communication satellite.
(d) Incorrect: Having two radar frequencies does not reduce satellite weight; in fact, carrying two radar systems adds to the satellite's mass and complexity.
Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q14. Which senior IPS officer of the 1986 batch had his term extended as Director of the CBI in May 2025?

  1. (a) Praveen Sood
  2. (b) Rajwinder Singh Bhatti
  3. (c) Praveen Ranjan
  4. (d) Rishi Kumar Shukla
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Praveen Sood

Praveen Sood, an IPS officer of the 1986 batch from the Karnataka cadre, was appointed as the Director of the Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) in May 2023 and had his term extended.
(b) Incorrect: Rajwinder Singh Bhatti is an IPS officer from Punjab cadre; he is not associated with the CBI directorship.
(c) Incorrect: Praveen Ranjan is an IPS officer but was not appointed or extended as CBI Director in May 2025.
(d) Incorrect: Rishi Kumar Shukla was a former CBI Director (2019-2021) from the 1983 batch; he is not the officer whose term was extended in May 2025.
Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q15. Who was appointed as Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India in November 2024?

  1. (a) K. Sanjay Murthy
  2. (b) Rajiv Mehrishi
  3. (c) Vinod Rai
  4. (d) Shashi Kant
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) K. Sanjay Murthy

K. Sanjay Murthy was appointed as the Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) of India in November 2024, succeeding Girish Chandra Murmu. He is a 1989 batch IAS officer from the Himachal Pradesh cadre.
(b) Incorrect: Rajiv Mehrishi was the CAG from 2017 to 2020; he was not appointed in November 2024.
(c) Incorrect: Vinod Rai was the CAG from 2008 to 2013; he gained prominence for the 2G spectrum and Commonwealth Games audit reports.
(d) Incorrect: Shashi Kant is associated with judicial administration, not the office of CAG.
Appointments and Resignations · National appointments

Q16. Who was appointed as the new Chief State Election Commissioner (SEC) of Rajasthan in September 2025?

  1. (a) Madhukar Gupta
  2. (b) Rajeshwar Singh
  3. (c) Jhabar Singh Kharra
  4. (d) Haribhau Bagde
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Rajeshwar Singh

Rajeshwar Singh was appointed as the Chief State Election Commissioner (SEC) of Rajasthan in September 2025, responsible for superintending and directing elections to panchayats and municipalities in the state.
(a) Incorrect: Madhukar Gupta is a former IPS officer; he was not appointed as Rajasthan's Chief SEC in September 2025.
(c) Incorrect: Jhabar Singh Kharra is associated with Rajasthan administration but was not appointed as Chief State Election Commissioner in September 2025.
(d) Incorrect: Haribhau Bagde is the Governor of Rajasthan; he is a constitutional head of state, not the Chief State Election Commissioner.
National Affairs and Government Initiatives · National events and launches

Q17. The Industry Dialogue on the Promotion of Research and Innovation in the Pharma-MedTech Sector (PRIP) Scheme was held in which city on 13 March 2025?

  1. (a) Bengaluru
  2. (b) Hyderabad
  3. (c) Mumbai
  4. (d) New Delhi
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Mumbai

The PRIP Scheme Industry Dialogue was held in Mumbai on 13 March 2025, organized by the Department of Pharmaceuticals under the Ministry of Chemicals and Fertilizers.
(a) Incorrect: Bengaluru is India's biotech hub, but the PRIP dialogue on 13 March 2025 was held in Mumbai.
(b) Incorrect: Hyderabad has a significant pharmaceutical cluster, but the PRIP dialogue was held in Mumbai.
(d) Incorrect: New Delhi is the administrative capital, but the PRIP scheme dialogue on 13 March 2025 was specifically held in Mumbai.
Sports - Current · Venues and hosts

Q18. Where was the 57th Senior National Kho-Kho Championship 2024-25 held?

  1. (a) District Sports Complex, Puri, Odisha
  2. (b) Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium, New Delhi
  3. (c) Indira Gandhi Stadium, Patiala
  4. (d) Khel Gaon, Surat
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) District Sports Complex, Puri, Odisha

The 57th Senior National Kho-Kho Championship 2024-25 was held at the District Sports Complex in Puri, Odisha, bringing together teams from across India's states and union territories.
(b) Incorrect: Jawaharlal Nehru Stadium in New Delhi was not the venue for this championship.
(c) Incorrect: Indira Gandhi Stadium in Patiala was not the host venue for the 57th National Kho-Kho Championship 2024-25.
(d) Incorrect: Khel Gaon in Surat, Gujarat was not the venue; the championship was held in Puri, Odisha.

Ancient History (1)

Indus Valley Civilisation · Discovery and excavators

Q19. The Indus Valley Civilization (IVC) is also known as the?

  1. (a) Mesopotamian Civilization
  2. (b) Harappan Civilization
  3. (c) Vedic Civilization
  4. (d) Aryan Civilization
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Harappan Civilization

The Indus Valley Civilization is also known as the Harappan Civilization, named after its most prominent excavated site Harappa, discovered in present-day Pakistan. It is one of the world's earliest urban civilizations (c. 3300–1300 BCE).
(a) Incorrect: Mesopotamian Civilization refers to the civilization between the Tigris and Euphrates rivers (modern Iraq), not the Indus Valley.
(c) Incorrect: The Vedic Civilization refers to the culture associated with the Vedas, which came after the IVC; they are considered distinct civilizations.
(d) Incorrect: Aryan Civilization is a term sometimes used for the Vedic culture brought by Indo-Aryan migrants; it is not another name for the IVC.

Economics (10)

Inflation · Types of inflation (demand-pull, cost-push, stagflation)

Q20. A situation with a very high rate of inflation, where money loses its value very quickly, is called?

  1. (a) Deflation
  2. (b) Disinflation
  3. (c) Stagflation
  4. (d) Hyperinflation
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Hyperinflation

Hyperinflation refers to an extremely high and typically accelerating rate of inflation, where the general price level increases rapidly and the currency loses its value very quickly. Classic examples include Zimbabwe (2000s) and Germany in the 1920s (Weimar Republic).
(a) Incorrect: Deflation is a decrease in the general price level; it is the opposite of inflation, not a very high rate of inflation.
(b) Incorrect: Disinflation refers to a slowing in the rate of inflation (prices still rising but more slowly); it is not the same as very high inflation.
(c) Incorrect: Stagflation refers to the simultaneous occurrence of stagnant economic growth and high inflation; it does not specifically mean an extremely high rate of inflation where money loses value very quickly.
Financial Markets and Institutions · SEBI and stock exchanges

Q21. What does 'SEBI' stand for?

  1. (a) Securities and Exchange Board of India
  2. (b) Stock Exchange Bank of India
  3. (c) Savings and Earnings Board of India
  4. (d) State Economy Bureau of India
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Securities and Exchange Board of India

SEBI stands for Securities and Exchange Board of India. It was established in 1988 and given statutory powers through the SEBI Act, 1992. SEBI regulates the securities and commodity markets in India to protect investors and promote the development of these markets.
(b) Incorrect: 'Stock Exchange Bank of India' is not a real institution; SEBI is a regulatory board, not a bank.
(c) Incorrect: 'Savings and Earnings Board of India' is an incorrect expansion of the acronym SEBI.
(d) Incorrect: 'State Economy Bureau of India' is not a real institution; SEBI is a market regulator, not a state economic bureau.
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · Balance of payments and current account

Q22. What is a 'Trade Deficit'?

  1. (a) When imports are equal to Exports
  2. (b) When imports are greater than Exports
  3. (c) When Exports are greater than Imports
  4. (d) When there is no trade
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) When imports are greater than Exports

A trade deficit (or negative trade balance) occurs when a country's total value of imports exceeds its total value of exports over a given period. It is the opposite of a trade surplus. India has historically maintained a trade deficit.
(a) Incorrect: When imports equal exports, it is called a balanced trade or zero trade balance, not a trade deficit.
(c) Incorrect: When exports are greater than imports, it is called a trade surplus (positive trade balance), not a trade deficit.
(d) Incorrect: When there is no trade, neither a deficit nor a surplus exists; a trade deficit specifically requires imports exceeding exports.
Planning and NITI Aayog · Plan holidays and rolling plan

Q23. A period of 'Plan Holiday' in India's planning history occurred when?

  1. (a) After the First Plan
  2. (b) After the Second Plan
  3. (c) After the Third Plan
  4. (d) After the Fifth Plan
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) After the Third Plan

India experienced a 'Plan Holiday' (period of Annual Plans instead of a Five-Year Plan) after the Third Five-Year Plan (1961–66). Due to the financial strain of the India-China War (1962) and India-Pakistan War (1965), coupled with economic instability and drought, three Annual Plans were implemented (1966–67, 1967–68, 1968–69) before the Fourth Plan began in 1969.
(a) Incorrect: No Plan Holiday occurred after the First Plan (1951–56); the Second Five-Year Plan followed directly.
(b) Incorrect: No Plan Holiday occurred after the Second Plan (1956–61); the Third Five-Year Plan followed directly.
(d) Incorrect: No Plan Holiday occurred after the Fifth Plan (1974–79); the Sixth Five-Year Plan (or Rolling Plans) followed depending on the government's decision.
Industry and Infrastructure · MSME sector

Q24. The 'Karve Committee', constituted in 1955, is specifically associated with the development of which sector?

  1. (a) Heavy Industries
  2. (b) Small-Scale Industries
  3. (c) Agriculture
  4. (d) Banking
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Small-Scale Industries

The Karve Committee (officially the Village and Small-Scale Industries Committee), constituted in 1955 under the chairmanship of D.G. Karve, was tasked with studying and recommending policies for the promotion and development of small-scale and cottage industries in India. Its recommendations shaped India's industrial policy regarding small industries.
(a) Incorrect: Heavy Industries were promoted through the Second Five-Year Plan based on the Nehru- Mahalanobis model; this was not the focus of the Karve Committee.
(c) Incorrect: Agriculture was addressed through the Community Development Programme and other committees; the Karve Committee specifically focused on small-scale industries.
(d) Incorrect: The banking sector was studied by the All India Rural Credit Survey (1954) and later the Narasimham Committee; the Karve Committee focused on small-scale industries, not banking.
Industry and Infrastructure · Industrial Policy Resolutions (1948, 1956, 1991)

Q25. Which specific industry is still reserved for the Public Sector and has not been fully opened to the private sector?

  1. (a) Textiles
  2. (b) Automobiles
  3. (c) Atomic Energy
  4. (d) Tourism
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Atomic Energy

Atomic Energy remains reserved exclusively for the Public Sector in India under the Atomic Energy Act, 1962. The government has maintained state monopoly over nuclear power and atomic energy generation, unlike most other industries that were delicensed after the 1991 economic liberalization. Currently, only one industry — atomic energy — remains in the public sector reserved list.
(a) Incorrect: The Textiles industry has been fully open to private sector participation and delicensed since 1991; it is not reserved for the public sector.
(b) Incorrect: The Automobile industry has been completely opened to private and foreign investment; major private players like Tata, Maruti, and foreign OEMs operate freely.
(d) Incorrect: Tourism has been fully open to the private sector; there is no reservation of tourism for the public sector.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Youth development schemes

Q26. YUVA 2.0, launched in October 2022, focused on which core theme?

  1. (a) Environment
  2. (b) Democracy
  3. (c) Digital Innovation
  4. (d) Cultural Heritage
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Democracy

YUVA 2.0 (Young, Upcoming and Versatile Authors), a PM's mentoring programme for young authors, was launched in October 2022 with the theme of 'Democracy' ( Loktantra ). It is implemented by the National Book Trust under the Ministry of Education.
(a) Incorrect: Environment was not the theme of YUVA 2.0; Democracy was the core theme.
(c) Incorrect: Digital Innovation was not the theme; the programme focused on writing about democracy.
(d) Incorrect: Cultural Heritage was not the declared theme of YUVA 2.0 launched in October 2022.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Youth development schemes

Q27. Which organisation is responsible for constituting the selection committee for the YUVA scheme?

  1. (a) Sahitya Akademi
  2. (b) National Book Trust
  3. (c) NITI Aayog
  4. (d) Ministry of Culture
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) National Book Trust

The National Book Trust (NBT) under the Ministry of Education is responsible for implementing the YUVA scheme and constituting its selection committee.
(a) Incorrect: Sahitya Akademi promotes Indian literature but did not constitute the YUVA scheme's selection committee.
(c) Incorrect: NITI Aayog is a policy think-tank and does not implement literary mentorship programmes like YUVA.
(d) Incorrect: The Ministry of Culture handles cultural programmes ; YUVA is under the Ministry of Education implemented by NBT.
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · WTO

Q28. What was the name of the organization that set global trade rules before the World Trade Organization (WTO)?

  1. (a) UNCTAD
  2. (b) GATT
  3. (c) World Bank
  4. (d) IMF
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) GATT

GATT (General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade), established in 1947, governed global trade rules before being replaced by the WTO on 1 January 1995. GATT focused on reducing tariffs and resolving trade disputes through multilateral negotiation rounds.
(a) Incorrect: UNCTAD (1964) promotes trade for developing countries but did not set global trade rules in the way GATT did.
(c) Incorrect: The World Bank provides development loans; it does not set global trade rules.
(d) Incorrect: The IMF oversees the international monetary system; it does not govern global trade rules.
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · Foreign trade policy and EXIM

Q29. What was India's pre-1991 policy of trying to produce all goods domestically instead of importing them called?

  1. (a) Export Promotion
  2. (b) Import Substitution
  3. (c) Globalization
  4. (d) Privatization
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Import Substitution

Import Substitution Industrialization (ISI) was India's pre-1991 economic strategy of building domestic industries to produce goods previously imported, reducing import dependence and achieving self-reliance.
(a) Incorrect: Export Promotion is the opposite policy; India shifted toward this more after 1991.
(c) Incorrect: Globalization refers to integration with the global economy; India avoided deep globalization before 1991.
(d) Incorrect: Privatization refers to transferring government enterprises to private ownership; it is not the term for India's pre-1991 domestic production strategy.

Polity (2)

Union Executive · Council of Ministers and Cabinet

Q30. Which of the following constitutional amendments made the Council of Ministers collectively responsible to the Lok Sabha?

  1. (a) 42nd Amendment
  2. (b) 44th Amendment
  3. (c) 52nd Amendment
  4. (d) Not by amendment; it's already in the constitution
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Not by amendment; it's already in the constitution

The collective responsibility of the Council of Ministers to the Lok Sabha is enshrined in Article 75(3) of the original Constitution of India (1950) and was not introduced by any constitutional amendment. This is a fundamental feature of the parliamentary system adopted from the Westminster model.
(a) Incorrect: The 42nd Amendment (1976) dealt with fundamental duties, curtailing judicial review, and expanding Parliament's powers; it did not create collective responsibility of CoM to the Lok Sabha.
(b) Incorrect: The 44th Amendment (1978) restored rights reduced by the 42nd Amendment; it did not introduce collective ministerial responsibility.
(c) Incorrect: The 52nd Amendment (1985) introduced the Tenth Schedule (anti-defection law); it has no connection to collective ministerial responsibility.
Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q31. When was the Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS) enacted?

  1. (a) 1st January 2024
  2. (b) 25th December 2023
  3. (c) 15th June 2024
  4. (d) 31st December 2024
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 25th December 2023

The Bharatiya Nyaya Sanhita (BNS), 2023 received Presidential assent and was enacted on 25th December 2023. It replaced the Indian Penal Code (IPC), 1860 and came into force on 1st July 2024 along with the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (replacing CrPC) and the Bharatiya Sakshya Adhiniyam (replacing Indian Evidence Act).
(a) Incorrect: The BNS was not enacted on 1st January 2024; it received Presidential assent on 25th December 2023.
(c) Incorrect: 15th June 2024 is not the enactment date of BNS; the BNS came into force (was implemented) on 1st July 2024, but was enacted on 25th December 2023.
(d) Incorrect: 31st December 2024 is not the enactment date; the BNS was enacted in December 2023, not December 2024.

Static GK (13)

Books and Authors · International books and authors

Q32. Nobel laureate who authored "Disgrace", often cited as one of the finest post- apartheid works?

  1. (a) Nadine Gordimer
  2. (b) J.M. Coetzee
  3. (c) Wole Soyinka
  4. (d) Imre Kertesz
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) J.M. Coetzee

J.M. Coetzee (John Maxwell Coetzee), the South African-born Nobel laureate in Literature (2003), authored "Disgrace" (1999). The novel is widely considered one of the finest works of post-apartheid South African literature and won the Booker Prize in 1999, making Coetzee the first author to win the Booker Prize twice.
(a) Incorrect: Nadine Gordimer is a South African Nobel laureate (1991) who wrote "July's People" and "Burger's Daughter"; she did not write "Disgrace".
(c) Incorrect: Wole Soyinka is a Nigerian Nobel laureate (1986) known for plays and poetry; he did not write "Disgrace".
(d) Incorrect: Imre Kertesz is a Hungarian Nobel laureate (2002) known for " Fatelessness ", a Holocaust novel; he did not write "Disgrace".
Awards and Honours · Nobel Prize and international awards

Q33. The 2020 International Booker Prize was awarded to which Dutch novel?

  1. (a) The Discomfort of Evening – Marieke Lucas Rijneveld
  2. (b) Hurricane Season – Fernanda Melchor
  3. (c) The Memory Police – Yoko Ogawa
  4. (d) The Enlightenment of the Greengage Tree – Shokoofeh Azar
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) The Discomfort of Evening – Marieke Lucas Rijneveld

"The Discomfort of Evening" (original Dutch title: De avond is ongemak ) by Marieke Lucas Rijneveld, translated into English by Michele Hutchison, won the 2020 International Booker Prize. It was the first Dutch-language novel to win the prize and one of the shortest novels ever to win a major literary award.
(b) Incorrect: "Hurricane Season" by Fernanda Melchor (Mexico) was shortlisted for the 2020 International Booker Prize but did not win; it is a Mexican novel, not Dutch.
(c) Incorrect: "The Memory Police" by Yoko Ogawa (Japan) was shortlisted but did not win; it is a Japanese novel, not Dutch.
(d) Incorrect: "The Enlightenment of the Greengage Tree" by Shokoofeh Azar (Iran) was shortlisted but did not win; it is an Iranian novel, not Dutch.
Awards and Honours · Nobel Prize and international awards

Q34. Which Indian-origin literary work holds the distinction of being the first Indian-language winner in the history of the International Booker Prize?

  1. (a) Tomb of Sand
  2. (b) Heart Lamp
  3. (c) Mai
  4. (d) When the Moon Shines by Day
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Tomb of Sand

"Tomb of Sand" (original Hindi title: Ret Samadhi) by Geetanjali Shree, translated into English by Daisy Rockwell, won the 2022 International Booker Prize. It became the first Hindi-language and the first Indian-language novel to win this prestigious award.
(b) Incorrect: "Heart Lamp" (Hridaya Deeepam) is a Malayalam literary work; it did not win the International Booker Prize and is not the first Indian-language winner.
(c) Incorrect: "Mai" is a Hindi novel by Geetanjali Shree (1993) but it is not the International Booker Prize winner; "Tomb of Sand" is the award-winning title.
(d) Incorrect: "When the Moon Shines by Day" (Jab Chandni Ho Din Mein) is not the International Booker Prize winner; "Tomb of Sand" holds that distinction.
Sports · Asian Games and Commonwealth Games

Q35. How many times has India finished second in the Commonwealth Games medal table?

  1. (a) One
  2. (b) Two
  3. (c) Three
  4. (d) Four
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) One

India has finished second in the Commonwealth Games medal table only once — at the 2010 Commonwealth Games held in New Delhi, where India won 101 medals (38 gold, 27 silver, 36 bronze), finishing second behind Australia. As the host nation, India benefited from home advantage and delivered its best-ever Commonwealth Games performance.
(b) Incorrect: India has not finished second in the Commonwealth Games medal table twice; it has achieved this milestone only once, in 2010.
(c) Incorrect: India finishing second three times in the Commonwealth Games medal table is historically incorrect; it has happened only once.
(d) Incorrect: India has not finished second four times; only the single instance of 2010 in New Delhi stands as India's second-place finish.
Sports · Asian Games and Commonwealth Games

Q36. At the 2010 Commonwealth Games, how many silver medals did India secure?

  1. (a) 20
  2. (b) 24
  3. (c) 26
  4. (d) 27
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 27

At the 2010 Commonwealth Games held in New Delhi, India secured 27 silver medals, contributing to a total medal tally of 101 medals (38 gold, 27 silver, 36 bronze). This was India's best-ever performance at the Commonwealth Games and helped India finish second in the overall medal standings.
(a) Incorrect: India won 27 silver medals at the 2010 Games, not 20; 20 is a significantly lower and incorrect figure.
(b) Incorrect: India did not win 24 silver medals; the correct number is 27 silver medals at the 2010 New Delhi Commonwealth Games.
(c) Incorrect: India's silver medal count was 27, not 26; 36 was the number of bronze medals India won at the 2010 Commonwealth Games.
Books and Authors · Modern Indian books and authors

Q37. The novel "The Serpent and the Rope," which integrates Indian metaphysics with Western thought, was written by:

  1. (a) K.K. Narayan
  2. (b) Raja Rao
  3. (c) Arun Joshi
  4. (d) Nirad C. Chaudhuri
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Raja Rao

"The Serpent and the Rope" (1960) was written by Raja Rao, one of the most celebrated Indian English novelists. The novel integrates Indian philosophy (particularly Advaita Vedanta — the concept of Maya, where the world is an illusion like a rope mistaken for a serpent) with Western intellectual tradition, exploring the spiritual quest of a young Indian scholar in France.
(a) Incorrect: K.K. Narayan (R.K. Narayan) is known for novels set in the fictional Malgudi (e.g., Swami and Friends, The Guide); he did not write "The Serpent and the Rope".
(c) Incorrect: Arun Joshi is known for "The Foreigner" and "The Strange Case of Billy Biswas"; he did not write "The Serpent and the Rope".
(d) Incorrect: Nirad C. Chaudhuri is known for "The Autobiography of an Unknown Indian"; he did not write "The Serpent and the Rope".
Sports · Football and hockey

Q38. Which statement regarding the start of play in hockey is correct?

  1. (a) A coin toss is made before the game, with the winner selecting the team to play for.
  2. (b) A coin toss is made before the start of the game, with the winner choosing the side to attack.
  3. (c) The first team to score decides the side of play.
  4. (d) The umpire chooses the side of play for each team.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) A coin toss is made before the start of the game, with the winner choosing the side to attack.

In field hockey, before the match, a coin toss is conducted. The captain who wins the toss chooses which end their team will attack in the first half. The other team gets the option to have the first centre pass.
(a) Incorrect: The coin toss winner chooses the side to attack, not the team to play for; teams are fixed before the toss.
(c) Incorrect: The side of play is decided by the coin toss before the match, not by the first team to score.
(d) Incorrect: The umpire does not choose the side of play; it is determined by the coin toss.
Sports · Football and hockey

Q39. Women's field hockey was first introduced in the Olympics in:

  1. (a) 1972 Munich
  2. (b) 1976 Montreal
  3. (c) 1980 Moscow
  4. (d) 1984 Los Angeles
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1980 Moscow

Women's field hockey made its Olympic debut at the 1980 Moscow Olympics. Zimbabwe won the gold medal, Czechoslovakia won silver, and the Soviet Union took bronze.
(a) Incorrect: The 1972 Munich Olympics did not feature women's field hockey; only men's field hockey was played.
(b) Incorrect: The 1976 Montreal Olympics also did not include women's field hockey; the debut was in 1980.
(d) Incorrect: The 1984 Los Angeles Olympics were the second Olympics to feature women's field hockey, not the first.
Sports · Football and hockey

Q40. India won its first Hockey World Cup gold in:

  1. (a) 1971
  2. (b) 1973
  3. (c) 1975
  4. (d) 1978
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 1975

India won its first Hockey World Cup gold at the 3rd Men's World Cup in Kuala Lumpur, Malaysia (1975), defeating Pakistan 2-1 in the final. This remains India's only Hockey World Cup gold.
(a) Incorrect: The first Hockey World Cup (1971, Barcelona) was won by Pakistan, not India.
(b) Incorrect: The second Hockey World Cup (1973, Amsterdam) was won by the Netherlands, not India.
(d) Incorrect: The 1978 Hockey World Cup (Buenos Aires) was won by Pakistan, not India.
Music and Musical Instruments · Folk music and songs by state

Q41. Consider the following statements regarding the Rajasthan International Folk Festival (RIFF), Jodhpur and choose the correct option:
Statement I: The festival is recognized by UNESCO for promoting creativity and sustainable development.
Statement II: The primary musical focus of RIFF is the exclusive showcasing of Manganiyars and Langas, without international artistic involvement.

  1. (a) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.
  2. (b) Statement I is incorrect, but Statement II is correct.
  3. (c) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
  4. (d) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Statement I is correct, but Statement II is incorrect.

Statement I is correct: RIFF at Mehrangarh Fort, Jodhpur has been recognized by UNESCO as a platform promoting creativity and sustainable development.
Statement II is incorrect: RIFF is not exclusively focused on Manganiyars and Langas; it features international musicians alongside Rajasthani folk performers.
(b) Incorrect: Statement I is correct (UNESCO recognition), making this option wrong.
(c) Incorrect: Statement II is incorrect (RIFF features international artists), so both cannot be correct.
(d) Incorrect: Statement I is factually correct, so both statements cannot be incorrect.
Dances · Classical dances and their states

Q42. Which of the following best describes the Sattriya dance?

  1. (a) A dance performed only during festivals
  2. (b) A dance with specific grammar and emotive facial expressions
  3. (c) A dance performed solely by female dancers
  4. (d) A casual form of entertainment in Assam
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) A dance with specific grammar and emotive facial expressions

Sattriya is one of the eight classical dance forms of India from Assam, instituted by Srimanta Sankardeva in the 15th century CE. It is characterized by specific grammar, codified movements, emotive facial expressions (abhinaya), and borgeet musical compositions. Recognized by Sangeet Natak Akademi in 2000.
(a) Incorrect: Sattriya is not restricted to festivals; it originated in Sattras for year-round devotional worship and is a full-fledged classical art form.
(c) Incorrect: Historically Sattriya was performed by male monks; today both genders perform it, but it was never solely a female dance.
(d) Incorrect: Sattriya is not casual entertainment; it is a highly codified classical dance with centuries-old spiritual tradition.
Organisations and Headquarters · Regional groupings (SAARC, ASEAN, BIMSTEC, SCO, G20)

Q43. Which Japanese Prime Minister coined the phrase "Asia's Democratic Security Diamond," linking Quad partners strategically?

  1. (a) Yasuo Fukuda
  2. (b) Shinzo Abe
  3. (c) Taro Aso
  4. (d) Yoshihide Suga
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Shinzo Abe

Former Japanese PM Shinzo Abe coined "Asia's Democratic Security Diamond" in a 2012 article, proposing a diamond-shaped framework linking Japan, Australia, India, and the US (the Quad) to safeguard the maritime commons from the Indian Ocean to the Western Pacific.
(a) Incorrect: Yasuo Fukuda was PM from 2007-2008; he was not associated with the Democratic Security Diamond concept.
(c) Incorrect: Taro Aso was PM from 2008-2009; while a Quad supporter, the specific phrase was coined by Shinzo Abe.
(d) Incorrect: Yoshihide Suga was PM from 2020-2021; he continued Abe's Quad legacy but did not coin the phrase.
Organisations and Headquarters · Regional groupings (SAARC, ASEAN, BIMSTEC, SCO, G20)

Q44. What is unique about the institutional status of the Quad compared to NATO?

  1. (a) Quad is treaty-based; NATO is informal
  2. (b) Quad has a permanent headquarters
  3. (c) Quad is informal diplomacy, not a formal alliance
  4. (d) Quad mandates military interoperability
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Quad is informal diplomacy, not a formal alliance

Unlike NATO (founded on the legally binding North Atlantic Treaty, 1949, with a permanent HQ in Brussels and Article 5 collective defense), the Quad has no founding treaty, no permanent secretariat, and no binding mutual defense commitments.
(a) Incorrect: This reverses the facts; the Quad is informal and lacks a treaty, while NATO is treaty-based.
(b) Incorrect: The Quad has no permanent headquarters; it operates through periodic leader summits and foreign minister meetings.
(d) Incorrect: The Quad does not mandate military interoperability; it is an informal diplomatic dialogue without binding military requirements.

Modern History (4)

Swadeshi, Revolutionaries and Home Rule · HRA, HSRA, Bhagat Singh and Kakori

Q45. Ram Prasad Bismil was associated with which freedom movement ideology?

  1. (a) Non-violent resistance
  2. (b) Revolutionary nationalism
  3. (c) Constitutional reforms
  4. (d) Social reform movements
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Revolutionary nationalism

Ram Prasad Bismil was a founding member of the Hindustan Republican Association (HRA) and led the Kakori Train Robbery (1925). He championed revolutionary nationalism — armed resistance against British rule — and was executed on 19 December 1927.
(a) Incorrect: Non-violent resistance was Gandhi's ideology; Bismil actively participated in armed revolutionary activities.
(c) Incorrect: Constitutional reforms were sought by moderates; Bismil rejected constitutional means in favour of revolution.
(d) Incorrect: Social reform movements were led by Raja Ram Mohan Roy, Phule etc.; Bismil's focus was political independence through revolutionary action.
British Administration and Policies · Constitutional Acts under British rule

Q46. Which system was introduced by the Indian Councils Act of 1861, assigning members to specific government departments?

  1. (a) Parliamentary system
  2. (b) Portfolio system
  3. (c) Federal system
  4. (d) Executive system
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Portfolio system

The Indian Councils Act of 1861 introduced the Portfolio System, under which members of the Viceroy's Executive Council were assigned specific departments (portfolios) and made individually responsible, laying the foundation for cabinet-style governance in India.
(a) Incorrect: The Parliamentary system evolved gradually and was fully established with the Constitution of 1950; it was not introduced by the 1861 Act.
(c) Incorrect: The Federal system was partially introduced by the Government of India Act 1935; the 1861 Act introduced the Portfolio system.
(d) Incorrect: 'Executive system' is not a specific administrative term introduced by the Indian Councils Act of 1861.
British Administration and Policies · Press acts and other laws

Q47. What was the purpose of the Vernacular Press Act of 1878?

  1. (a) To promote Indian-language newspapers
  2. (b) To allow free criticism of the British government
  3. (c) To restrict criticism by seizing newspaper assets
  4. (d) To foster a free and independent press in India
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) To restrict criticism by seizing newspaper assets

The Vernacular Press Act of 1878 ('Gagging Act'), enacted by Lord Lytton, empowered magistrates to seize printing presses and assets of Indian-language newspapers publishing seditious content against British policies. It was repealed in 1882 by Lord Ripon.
(a) Incorrect: The Act was enacted to suppress, not promote, Indian-language newspapers; it was a censorship law.
(b) Incorrect: The Act specifically prevented free criticism of the British government; it was restrictive, not permissive.
(d) Incorrect: The Vernacular Press Act worked against a free and independent press, giving authorities power to seize press assets.
Gandhian Era · Rowlatt Act and Jallianwala Bagh

Q48. Where did the Rowlatt Satyagraha begin in 1919?

  1. (a) Surat, Gujarat
  2. (b) Mumbai, Maharashtra
  3. (c) Kolkata, West Bengal
  4. (d) Amritsar, Punjab
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Mumbai, Maharashtra

The Rowlatt Satyagraha was launched on 6 April 1919 against the Rowlatt Act. Gandhi called for a nationwide hartal (general strike) beginning in Bombay (Mumbai), where the first organised protests were held before the movement spread across India.
(a) Incorrect: Surat was significant in Congress history (1907 split) but the Rowlatt Satyagraha began in Bombay.
(c) Incorrect: Kolkata witnessed protests during this period, but the movement was launched in Bombay under Gandhi.
(d) Incorrect: Amritsar saw the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre (13 April 1919) during this period, but the Satyagraha itself began in Bombay.

Medieval History (1)

Mughal Empire · Mughal administration (mansabdari, zabt)

Q49. What was the role of the 'mir bakhshi ' in Akbar's administration system?

  1. (a) Responsible for organizing military campaigns.
  2. (b) Responsible for managing the military salaries and promotions.
  3. (c) Head of the judiciary and legal matters.
  4. (d) In charge of royal agriculture and land management.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Responsible for managing the military salaries and promotions.

The Mir Bakhshi was the head of the Diwan- i -Arz (military department) under Akbar, responsible for maintaining muster rolls of soldiers, managing military salaries and promotions, branding of horses, and recruiting troops for the mansab system.
(a) Incorrect: Organizing military campaigns in the field was a commander's role; the Mir Bakhshi managed military administration and records.
(c) Incorrect: The head of judiciary was the Qazi-ul- Quzat (Chief Justice); the Mir Bakhshi had no judicial responsibilities.
(d) Incorrect: Agriculture and land revenue was managed by the Diwan (Chief Finance Minister), not the Mir Bakhshi.
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