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Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 29 December 2025 Shift 3 GK Questions – with answers & solutions

All 50 GK / GS questions asked in Delhi Police Constable 2025-26 on 29 December 2025 Shift 3, with correct answers and short solutions, subject-wise: Modern History, Static GK, Ancient History, Geography, Polity, Current Affairs.

📚 50 questions🗓️ 29 December 2025⏰ Shift 3
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Subjects: Modern History (4) · Static GK (13) · Ancient History (2) · Geography (8) · Polity (5) · Current Affairs (7) · Economics (5) · Medieval History (2) · Physics (1) · Biology (2) · Chemistry (1)

Modern History (4)

Peasant, Tribal and Civil Uprisings · Early civil and tribal revolts

Q1. Fill in the blank:
The tribal leader who led the Santhal rebellion against British rule was ___.

  1. (a) Tantia Tope
  2. (b) Birsa Munda
  3. (c) Sidhu Murmu
  4. (d) Mangal Pandey
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Sidhu Murmu

The Santhal Rebellion (1855-56) was a peasant uprising against British East India Company rule and local moneylenders, led by Sidhu Murmu and his brother Kanhu Murmu of the Santhal tribe. It was one of the first major anti-colonial revolts in India.
(a) Incorrect: Tantia Tope was a commander associated with the 1857 Revolt, not the Santhal rebellion.
(b) Incorrect: Birsa Munda led the Munda Ulgulan (Munda Uprising) of 1899-1900, a different tribal revolt.
(d) Incorrect: Mangal Pandey was an Indian sepoy who sparked the 1857 Revolt at Barrackpore.
British Administration and Policies · Land revenue systems (Permanent, Ryotwari, Mahalwari)

Q2. The 'Permanent Settlement' (1793), a land revenue system, was introduced by Lord Cornwallis in which region?

  1. (a) Bengal and Bihar
  2. (b) Madras Presidency
  3. (c) Bombay Presidency
  4. (d) North-West Provinces
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Bengal and Bihar

The Permanent Settlement (Zamindari System) was introduced in 1793 by Governor-General Lord Cornwallis in Bengal and Bihar (and later Odisha). It permanently fixed the land revenue that zamindars had to pay to the East India Company, making zamindars the permanent owners of land. It was later extended to parts of Madras Presidency.
(b) Incorrect: Madras Presidency had the Ryotwari system (Lord Munro) which dealt directly with peasant cultivators.
(c) Incorrect: Bombay Presidency had the Ryotwari system, not the Permanent Settlement.
(d) Incorrect: The North-West Provinces had a different system of Mahalwari settlement, not Permanent Settlement.
British Administration and Policies · Governors-General and Viceroys - events

Q3. Who was the last Viceroy of British India and the first Governor-General of independent India?

  1. (a) Lord Wavell
  2. (b) Lord Linlithgow
  3. (c) Lord Mountbatten
  4. (d) Lord Canning
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Lord Mountbatten

Lord Louis Mountbatten was the last Viceroy of British India (February 1947 - August 1947) and became the first Governor-General of independent India (August 1947 - June 1948). He oversaw the transfer of power and the partition of India into two nations — India and Pakistan. C. Rajagopalachari ('Rajaji') became the first Indian Governor-General.
(a) Incorrect: Lord Wavell was Viceroy from 1943-1947, before Mountbatten.
(b) Incorrect: Lord Linlithgow was Viceroy from 1936-1943, before Wavell.
(d) Incorrect: Lord Canning was the first Viceroy of India (1858) after the Crown took over from the East India Company.
Post-Independence India · Economic and social milestones

Q4. Who initiated the 'Bhoodan Movement' in 1951?

  1. (a) Mahatma Gandhi
  2. (b) Jawaharlal Nehru
  3. (c) Vinoba Bhave
  4. (d) Jayaprakash Narayan
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Vinoba Bhave

The Bhoodan (land gift) Movement was initiated by Vinoba Bhave in 1951 at Pochampally village in Telangana (then Andhra Pradesh). He walked across India on foot, requesting landowners to voluntarily donate a portion of their land to landless peasants. Over 4 million acres of land was donated. Vinoba Bhave was known as Acharya Vinoba Bhave and was a disciple of Mahatma Gandhi.
(a) Incorrect: Mahatma Gandhi was Vinoba Bhave's spiritual mentor, but Bhoodan was started after Gandhi's assassination in 1948.
(b) Incorrect: Jawaharlal Nehru was the Prime Minister; he did not initiate the Bhoodan Movement.
(d) Incorrect: Jayaprakash Narayan (JP) later associated with the movement but did not initiate it.

Static GK (13)

Dances · Folk dances by state

Q5. Which of the following is a dance-drama form of Karnataka based on stories from epics?

  1. (a) Yakshagana
  2. (b) Kuchipudi
  3. (c) Mohiniyattam
  4. (d) Garba
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Yakshagana

Yakshagana is a traditional theatre and dance-drama form from Karnataka, performed based on stories from Hindu epics like the Mahabharata, Ramayana, and Bhagavata. It is known for its elaborate costumes, headgear, face paint, and vocal music.
(b) Incorrect: Kuchipudi is a classical dance-drama form from Andhra Pradesh, not Karnataka.
(c) Incorrect: Mohiniyattam is a classical dance form from Kerala.
(d) Incorrect: Garba is a folk dance from Gujarat performed during Navratri, not Karnataka.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Tribal festivals

Q6. The Hornbill Festival, known as the 'Festival of Festivals' in India, is held in which state?

  1. (a) Arunachal Pradesh
  2. (b) Nagaland
  3. (c) Mizoram
  4. (d) Manipur
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Nagaland

The Hornbill Festival, named after the great Indian hornbill bird (revered by Naga tribes), is held annually from December 1-10 in Kohima, Nagaland. It is called the 'Festival of Festivals' as it showcases the culture, traditions, music, and dances of all Naga tribes under one roof.
(a) Incorrect: Arunachal Pradesh has its own tribal festivals; Hornbill Festival belongs to Nagaland.
(c) Incorrect: Mizoram has festivals like Chapchar Kut; Hornbill is held in Nagaland.
(d) Incorrect: Manipur has festivals like Yaoshang and Ningol Chakouba; Hornbill is in Nagaland.
Festivals, Fairs, Paintings and Crafts · Tribal festivals

Q7. Which festival in Nagaland is celebrated by the Angami tribe to invoke prosperity and ward off evil spirits before the sowing season?

  1. (a) Sekrenyi
  2. (b) Moatsu
  3. (c) Hornbill
  4. (d) Tuluni
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Sekrenyi

Sekrenyi (also called 'Phousanyi') is a ten-day purification festival celebrated by the Angami Naga tribe in February, just before the sowing season, to invoke prosperity and ward off evil spirits. Rituals include cleansing ceremonies, prayers, and community feasting.
(b) Incorrect: Moatsu is a spring festival celebrated by the Ao Naga tribe in May, not the Angami tribe.
(c) Incorrect: Hornbill is a government-organized multi-tribe cultural festival, not an Angami-specific pre-sowing ritual.
(d) Incorrect: Tuluni is celebrated by the Sumi Naga tribe in July after the first harvest.
Books and Authors · International books and authors

Q8. The novel 'Half of a Yellow Sun', depicting the Nigerian Biafran War, was written by:

  1. (a) Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie
  2. (b) Ngugi wa Thiong'o
  3. (c) Wole Soyinka
  4. (d) Chinua Achebe
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie

'Half of a Yellow Sun' (2006) was written by Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie, a Nigerian author and feminist. The novel depicts the Nigerian Civil War (Biafran War, 1967-70) through three characters — twin sisters and a British man — exploring love, culture, politics, and the tragedy of conflict. It won the Orange Broadband Prize for Fiction 2007.
(b) Incorrect: Ngugi wa Thiong'o is a Kenyan author known for 'Weep Not, Child' and 'A Grain of Wheat'.
(c) Incorrect: Wole Soyinka is a Nigerian Nobel Prize-winning playwright, not the author of this novel.
(d) Incorrect: Chinua Achebe wrote 'Things Fall Apart'; 'Half of a Yellow Sun' is by Adichie.
Personalities and Nicknames · Nicknames and titles of persons

Q9. The scientist popularly called the 'Missile Man of India' for his leadership in India's missile programs and contributions to space and defense research is:

  1. (a) V.K. Saraswat
  2. (b) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam
  3. (c) K. Kasturirangan
  4. (d) R. Chidambaram
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) A.P.J. Abdul Kalam

Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam (Avul Pakir Jainulabdeen Abdul Kalam) is popularly called the 'Missile Man of India' for his leadership in developing India's ballistic missile program (Agni, Prithvi) and for his contributions to India's first Satellite Launch Vehicle (SLV-III). He later served as the 11th President of India (2002-2007) and is also known as the 'People's President'.
(a) Incorrect: V.K. Saraswat is a DRDO scientist but is not known as the Missile Man.
(c) Incorrect: K. Kasturirangan is a former ISRO chairman known for space science, not the Missile Man title.
(d) Incorrect: R. Chidambaram was a nuclear physicist and Scientific Adviser to the Government, not the Missile Man.
Dances · Tribal dances

Q10. 'Bagurumba' is a folk dance associated with which Indian state, performed by the Bodo community during local festivals with lively steps and colorful attire?

  1. (a) Assam
  2. (b) West Bengal
  3. (c) Odisha
  4. (d) Maharashtra
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Assam

Bagurumba is a traditional folk dance of the Bodo community of Assam, performed during festivals like Bwisagu (Bodo New Year) and other celebrations. Known for its graceful movements inspired by nature — butterflies, birds, and rivers — the dance features colorful traditional attire called 'dokhona'. It is one of the most recognized cultural symbols of the Bodo people.
(b) Incorrect: West Bengal has folk dances like Chhau and Baul; Bagurumba belongs to Assam.
(c) Incorrect: Odisha has folk forms like Gotipua and Sambalpuri; Bagurumba is not from Odisha.
(d) Incorrect: Maharashtra has folk dances like Lavani and Tamasha; Bagurumba is from Assam.
Books and Authors · International books and authors

Q11. Who wrote 'The Remains of the Day', a novel examining memory, duty, and personal regret through the reflections of a British butler on his past life?

  1. (a) Kazuo Ishiguro
  2. (b) Ian McEwan
  3. (c) Salman Rushdie
  4. (d) Haruki Murakami
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Kazuo Ishiguro

'The Remains of the Day' (1989) was written by Kazuo Ishiguro, a British-Japanese novelist. The novel follows Stevens, an English butler who reflects on his devoted service to a morally compromised employer, exploring themes of memory, duty, emotional repression, and regret. The novel won the Booker Prize in 1989. Ishiguro won the Nobel Prize in Literature 2017.
(b) Incorrect: Ian McEwan is a British author known for 'Atonement' and 'Saturday'; he did not write The Remains of the Day.
(c) Incorrect: Salman Rushdie is known for 'Midnight's Children' and 'The Satanic Verses'; he is not the author.
(d) Incorrect: Haruki Murakami is a Japanese author known for 'Norwegian Wood' and '1Q84'; he did not write this novel.
Organisations and Headquarters · Regional groupings (SAARC, ASEAN, BIMSTEC, SCO, G20)

Q12. Which of the following countries is NOT a member of the Mekong-Ganga Cooperation initiative aimed at strengthening economic, cultural, and tourism links in Asia?

  1. (a) Laos
  2. (b) India
  3. (c) Vietnam
  4. (d) Pakistan
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Pakistan

The Mekong-Ganga Cooperation (MGC) initiative, launched in 2000 at Vientiane, Laos, has six member countries: India, Thailand, Myanmar, Cambodia, Laos, and Vietnam. Pakistan is NOT a member. MGC aims to promote cooperation in tourism, culture, education, and people-to-people contacts between India and five ASEAN countries along the Mekong river.
(a) Incorrect: Laos is a founding member of MGC; the initiative was launched in Vientiane, Laos.
(b) Incorrect: India is a core member of MGC, with the Ganga river representing India's side.
(c) Incorrect: Vietnam is a member of MGC, being one of the five ASEAN nations in this framework.
Sports · National championships - venues and winners

Q13. The 32nd edition of the National Games in 2002 was organized to strengthen national sports competitions. Which state hosted this edition to promote multi-sport participation?

  1. (a) Tamil Nadu
  2. (b) Andhra Pradesh
  3. (c) Punjab
  4. (d) Hyderabad
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Andhra Pradesh

The National Games of 2002 were hosted by Andhra Pradesh (Hyderabad). The games were organized to promote multi-sport participation and sports infrastructure development. Hyderabad, as the capital of erstwhile Andhra Pradesh, provided the venues. Note: Hyderabad is now the capital of Telangana state (formed 2014), but at the time of the 2002 National Games it was part of Andhra Pradesh.
(a) Incorrect: Tamil Nadu did not host the 2002 National Games.
(c) Incorrect: Punjab did not host the 2002 National Games.
(d) Incorrect: Hyderabad is a city, not a state; Andhra Pradesh is the correct state answer.
Sports · Other sports and tournaments (tennis, chess, badminton, etc.)

Q14. In Olympic weightlifting, which lift is no longer part of competitions, having been removed after 1972 due to changes in rules and judging criteria for lifts?

  1. (a) Snatch
  2. (b) Clean and Jerk
  3. (c) Clean and Press
  4. (d) None of these
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Clean and Press

The Olympic Press (Clean and Press / Military Press) was removed from Olympic weightlifting competitions after the 1972 Munich Olympics due to judging difficulties — athletes were using excessive back arching and leg drive, making it difficult to judge. Since 1973, Olympic weightlifting has only two recognized lifts: the Snatch and the Clean and Jerk.
(a) Incorrect: Snatch is still an active lift in Olympic weightlifting; the lifter pulls the barbell from floor to overhead in one movement.
(b) Incorrect: Clean and Jerk is still an active lift; the lifter cleans the barbell to shoulders, then jerks it overhead.
(d) Incorrect: 'None of these' is wrong because Clean and Press was indeed removed after 1972.
Space, Defence and Technology · Indian space missions

Q15. Which payload is NOT included on Aditya-L1, although it is part of another ISRO mission for X-ray studies?

  1. (a) SUIT (Solar UV Imaging Telescope)
  2. (b) VELC (Visible Emission Line Coronagraph)
  3. (c) POLIX (X-ray polarimeter)
  4. (d) SoLEXS (Soft X-ray Spectrometer)
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) POLIX (X-ray polarimeter)

POLIX (X-ray Polarimeter) is NOT part of Aditya-L1. POLIX is the primary instrument on ISRO's XPoSat (X-ray Polarimeter Satellite), launched in December 2023, for studying X-ray polarimetry of cosmic sources. Aditya-L1's seven payloads include VELC, SUIT, SoLEXS, HEL1OS, ASPEX, PAPA, and MAG for solar studies from the L1 Lagrange point.
(a) Incorrect: SUIT (Solar UV Imaging Telescope) IS on Aditya-L1; it images the Sun in ultraviolet light.
(b) Incorrect: VELC (Visible Emission Line Coronagraph) IS on Aditya-L1; it studies the solar corona.
(d) Incorrect: SoLEXS (Soft X-ray Spectrometer) IS on Aditya-L1; it monitors solar X-ray emissions.
Sports · Sports bodies and headquarters

Q16. The World Rowing Federation is responsible for international rowing competitions. What is the official name of this governing body?

  1. (a) FISA
  2. (b) FIFA
  3. (c) FIH
  4. (d) IAAF
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) FISA

FISA (Federation Internationale des Societes d'Aviron), officially rebranded as 'World Rowing', is the international governing body for the sport of rowing. Founded in 1892, FISA organizes the World Rowing Championships, the Rowing World Cup, and oversees rowing at the Olympic Games. The abbreviation FISA continues to be widely used.
(b) Incorrect: FIFA (Federation Internationale de Football Association) is the governing body for football (soccer), not rowing.
(c) Incorrect: FIH (Federation Internationale de Hockey) governs international field hockey, not rowing.
(d) Incorrect: IAAF (International Association of Athletics Federations), now called World Athletics, governs track and field; not rowing.
Sports · Olympic Games

Q17. In which Olympic Games did the tradition of the Olympic torch relay begin, symbolizing continuity between ancient and modern games?

  1. (a) Berlin 1936
  2. (b) London 1948
  3. (c) Rome 1960
  4. (d) Athens 1896
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Berlin 1936

The Olympic torch relay tradition was introduced at the 1936 Berlin Summer Olympics, conceived by Carl Diem and sanctioned by IOC President Henri de Baillet-Latour. The flame was lit at Olympia, Greece using a curved mirror and sunlight, and carried by 3,331 relay runners from Olympia to Berlin, creating a symbolic link between the ancient Greek Olympics and the modern games.
(b) Incorrect: London 1948 Games used the torch relay tradition established in 1936; they did not originate it.
(c) Incorrect: Rome 1960 also used the relay tradition; the tradition began in 1936, not Rome.
(d) Incorrect: Athens 1896 were the first modern Olympics but had no torch relay; that tradition started only in 1936.

Ancient History (2)

Post-Gupta Period · Chalukyas of Badami

Q18. Harshavardhana was defeated on the banks of the Narmada River by which southern king?

  1. (a) Pulakeshin I
  2. (b) Mahendravarman I
  3. (c) Pulakeshin II
  4. (d) Narasimhavarman I
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Pulakeshin II

Harshavardhana (606-647 CE), ruler of the Vardhana dynasty, was defeated on the banks of the Narmada River by Pulakeshin II, the great Chalukya king of Vatapi (Badami). This battle (around 618-619 CE) halted Harsha's southward expansion. This victory is described in the Aihole inscription composed by the court poet Ravikirti.
(a) Incorrect: Pulakeshin I was an earlier Chalukya ruler; the battle was fought by Pulakeshin II.
(b) Incorrect: Mahendravarman I was a Pallava king who was defeated by Pulakeshin II, not the king who defeated Harsha.
(d) Incorrect: Narasimhavarman I (Pallava king) was a rival of Pulakeshin II; he did not defeat Harsha.
Post-Mauryan Period · Sangam literature

Q19. The famous Tamil grammar book, 'Tolkappiyam', is the oldest surviving work of the Sangam period. Who wrote it?

  1. (a) Agattiyar
  2. (b) Tolkappiyar
  3. (c) Ilango Adigal
  4. (d) Tiruvalluvar
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Tolkappiyar

Tolkappiyam, the oldest surviving grammar of the Tamil language, was written by Tolkappiyar during the Sangam period (approximately 300 BCE - 300 CE). It covers phonology (ezhuttu), grammar (sol), and poetics/semantics (porul). It is a foundational text for Tamil linguistics.
(a) Incorrect: Agattiyar (Agastya) is a legendary Tamil grammarian said to have formulated an earlier grammar, but Tolkappiyam is attributed to Tolkappiyar.
(c) Incorrect: Ilango Adigal wrote the Sangam epic 'Silappatikaram', not the grammar Tolkappiyam.
(d) Incorrect: Tiruvalluvar wrote the Thirukkural, a classic Tamil text on ethics, politics, and love.

Geography (8)

India - Drainage System · Dams and river valley projects

Q20. The Bhakra-Nangal Dam, a major hydroelectric project, is built on which river?

  1. (a) Ganga
  2. (b) Yamuna
  3. (c) Sutlej
  4. (d) Brahmaputra
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Sutlej

The Bhakra-Nangal Dam is built on the Sutlej river — Bhakra Dam in Bilaspur, Himachal Pradesh and Nangal Dam in Punjab. It is one of the highest straight gravity dams in India at 226 metres. The dam creates the Gobind Sagar reservoir. PM Jawaharlal Nehru inaugurated it in 1963 and called it a 'Temple of Modern India'.
(a) Incorrect: Ganga flows through Uttarakhand, UP, and Bihar; the Bhakra-Nangal is on Sutlej.
(b) Incorrect: Yamuna flows from Uttarakhand through Delhi and Agra; not the river of Bhakra-Nangal.
(d) Incorrect: Brahmaputra flows through Arunachal Pradesh and Assam; it is not the river of Bhakra-Nangal.
India - Location, Physiography and Neighbours · Location, extent and Standard Meridian

Q21. Which meridian has been designated as India's Standard Meridian?

  1. (a) 80°30'E
  2. (b) 82°30'E
  3. (c) 83°30'E
  4. (d) 84°30'E
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 82°30'E

India's Standard Meridian is 82°30'E longitude, passing through Mirzapur/Naini near Prayagraj in Uttar Pradesh. Indian Standard Time (IST) is UTC +5:30 hours. This meridian was chosen as it approximately bisects the country from north to south, ensuring a uniform time for all of India despite its longitudinal extent of about 29°.
(a) Incorrect: 80°30'E passes through western parts of the country and is not the Standard Meridian.
(c) Incorrect: 83°30'E is not India's Standard Meridian.
(d) Incorrect: 84°30'E passes through eastern regions; it is not the designated Standard Meridian.
Environment and Protected Areas · Elephant reserves and other conservation projects

Q22. 'Project Dolphin' was launched by the Indian government to conserve which type of dolphins?

  1. (a) Only river dolphins
  2. (b) Only oceanic (sea) dolphins
  3. (c) Both river and oceanic dolphins
  4. (d) Dolphins in aquariums
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Both river and oceanic dolphins

Project Dolphin was launched by the Indian government in 2020 (announced on Independence Day) to protect both river dolphins (Gangetic dolphins, India's National Aquatic Animal) and oceanic/marine dolphins. The project aims to assess dolphin populations, reduce threats like illegal fishing, and strengthen conservation measures under the Wildlife Protection Act.
(a) Incorrect: Project Dolphin covers both river and oceanic dolphins, not only river dolphins.
(b) Incorrect: Project Dolphin also includes river dolphins, especially the Gangetic river dolphin.
(d) Incorrect: Conservation of dolphins in aquariums is not the focus; the project targets wild dolphin populations.
India - Climate, Soils and Natural Vegetation · Wildlife of India

Q23. The 'Namdapha flying squirrel', a critically endangered species 'rediscovered' after 42 years, is found only in which state?

  1. (a) Assam
  2. (b) Arunachal Pradesh
  3. (c) Meghalaya
  4. (d) Sikkim
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Arunachal Pradesh

The Namdapha flying squirrel (Biswamoyopterus biswasi), a critically endangered species, was first described in 1888 and was rediscovered after 42 years in the Namdapha National Park, located in Changlang district of Arunachal Pradesh. Named after the Namdapha river, this species is found only in this specific forest ecosystem in India.
(a) Incorrect: Assam's Kaziranga and Manas are famous reserves, but the Namdapha flying squirrel is in Arunachal Pradesh.
(c) Incorrect: Meghalaya is known for Nokrek Biosphere Reserve; the Namdapha squirrel is not found there.
(d) Incorrect: Sikkim's Khangchendzonga Biosphere Reserve is famous; the Namdapha squirrel is unique to Arunachal Pradesh.
India - Transport and Communication · Roadways and National Highways

Q24. What is 'FASTag', an initiative under the National Electronic Toll Collection (NETC) program?

  1. (a) A card for high-speed rail travel
  2. (b) An electronic tag for automatic toll payments
  3. (c) A digital ID card for all citizens
  4. (d) A fast-charging port for electric vehicles
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) An electronic tag for automatic toll payments

FASTag is an RFID (Radio Frequency Identification) based electronic tag affixed to vehicle windscreens that enables automatic toll payments via the National Electronic Toll Collection (NETC) program. When a vehicle passes through a toll plaza, the RFID reader scans the tag and the toll amount is automatically deducted from the linked prepaid account or wallet. It was made mandatory for all four-wheelers in India from February 2021.
(a) Incorrect: FASTag is for road toll payments at highway booths, not for rail travel.
(c) Incorrect: FASTag is a vehicle-linked tag for toll collection, not a digital identity card for citizens.
(d) Incorrect: FASTag is unrelated to electric vehicle charging infrastructure.
World Geography · World transport and communication routes

Q25. The 'Karakoram Highway' is a strategically significant road that mainly connects Pakistan with which neighbouring country through the mountainous region?

  1. (a) Iran
  2. (b) Afghanistan
  3. (c) China
  4. (d) Kazakhstan
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) China

The Karakoram Highway (KKH) connects Abbottabad/Hasan Abdal in Pakistan with Kashgar in China's Xinjiang province, passing through the Karakoram and Pamir mountain ranges. At elevations reaching 4,693 metres, it is considered the highest paved international road in the world. It passes through Pakistan-administered Gilgit-Baltistan and is part of the China-Pakistan Economic Corridor (CPEC).
(a) Incorrect: Iran is to Pakistan's west; the Karakoram Highway goes northeast to China.
(b) Incorrect: Afghanistan borders Pakistan's northwest; Karakoram Highway connects to China, not Afghanistan.
(d) Incorrect: Kazakhstan does not share a direct border with Pakistan; the highway connects Pakistan to China.
Universe and Solar System · Planets and their features

Q26. Which planet has the 'Great Red Spot', a massive, persistent storm that has lasted over 300 years and is visible through telescopes in the planet's atmosphere?

  1. (a) Jupiter
  2. (b) Saturn
  3. (c) Neptune
  4. (d) Uranus
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Jupiter

The Great Red Spot is a massive, persistent anticyclonic storm on Jupiter, located in its southern hemisphere. It has been observed continuously for over 300 years (first recorded in the 17th century). The storm is large enough to contain the entire Earth within it and appears red due to complex atmospheric chemistry involving sulfur and phosphorus compounds.
(b) Incorrect: Saturn has a distinctive hexagonal polar storm but not the Great Red Spot.
(c) Incorrect: Neptune has the Great Dark Spot (a transient storm), but the persistent Great Red Spot is on Jupiter.
(d) Incorrect: Uranus is known for its extreme axial tilt (98°) and featureless atmosphere; it does not have the Great Red Spot.
India - Population and Census · Urbanisation and migration

Q27. What is cited as the most common reason for migration among females in India?

  1. (a) Employment
  2. (b) Education
  3. (c) Marriage
  4. (d) Business
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Marriage

According to Census data and studies on migration in India, marriage is the most common reason for female migration. A large proportion of women in India move to their husband's home (village, town, or city) after marriage, often crossing inter-village, inter-district, or inter-state boundaries. This pattern is deeply embedded in social customs of patrilocal residence in India.
(a) Incorrect: Employment is the primary reason for male migration in India, not the most common for females.
(b) Incorrect: Education-related migration is more prominent among young males; for females, marriage dominates.
(d) Incorrect: Business is a minor reason for migration compared to marriage for women in India.

Polity (5)

Polity Miscellaneous · Important acts and rights laws (RTI, RTE, etc.)

Q28. The 'Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Samhita' (BNSS) now allows for a 'Zero FIR'. What is the main benefit of a Zero FIR?

  1. (a) It costs zero money
  2. (b) It can be filed without a lawyer
  3. (c) It can be filed in any police station, regardless of the crime's location
  4. (d) It does not require a signature
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) It can be filed in any police station, regardless of the crime's location

The Zero FIR provision under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Samhita (BNSS) 2023 allows a complaint to be filed at any police station, regardless of where the crime occurred. The receiving station must transfer it to the jurisdictional station within 15 days. This eliminates delays caused by jurisdictional disputes, especially critical in serious crimes like sexual assault.
(a) Incorrect: The cost of filing an FIR is not the key feature; jurisdictional freedom is.
(b) Incorrect: An FIR can always be filed without a lawyer; this is not specific to Zero FIR.
(d) Incorrect: A signature or thumb impression is still required on a Zero FIR.
Fundamental Rights · Right to Freedom (Articles 19-22)

Q29. Right to Education was added to our constitution mentioned in which of the following article?

  1. (a) Art 51
  2. (b) Art 51A
  3. (c) Art 21
  4. (d) Art 21A
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Art 21A

Article 21A was inserted in the Constitution by the 86th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2002. It provides for free and compulsory education to all children between 6-14 years of age as a Fundamental Right. The Right to Education (RTE) Act 2009 was enacted to implement Article 21A.
(a) Incorrect: Art 51 deals with promotion of international peace and security (Directive Principle).
(b) Incorrect: Art 51A lists the Fundamental Duties of citizens.
(c) Incorrect: Art 21 provides the Right to Life and Personal Liberty; Art 21A specifically addresses Right to Education.
Union Executive · President - impeachment and succession

Q30. When the office of the President remains vacant, what is the deadline to conduct new election and appoint new President?

  1. (a) 3 months
  2. (b) 15 days
  3. (c) 1 year
  4. (d) 6 months
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) 6 months

Under Article 62(2) of the Indian Constitution, when the office of the President falls vacant (due to death, resignation, or removal), a Presidential election must be held within 6 months of the vacancy occurring. Until then, the Vice-President acts as President. The Chief Justice of India discharges Presidential functions if the Vice-President's office is also vacant.
(a) Incorrect: 3 months is insufficient; the Constitution provides 6 months.
(b) Incorrect: 15 days is far too short a period to conduct a Presidential election.
(c) Incorrect: 1 year is too long; the Constitution mandates 6 months as the maximum period.
Union, Territory and Citizenship · Reorganisation of states and new states

Q31. Under which Article does Parliament have the power to create a new State or alter boundaries of existing States, with President's recommendation and potential ratification by States?

  1. (a) Article 2
  2. (b) Article 3
  3. (c) Article 4
  4. (d) Article 368
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Article 3

Article 3 of the Indian Constitution gives Parliament the power to: (a) form new states by separating territory from existing states or uniting states, (b) increase or diminish area of states, and (c) alter boundaries or change names of states. The President must recommend the Bill to Parliament, and the concerned state Legislature must be given time to express its views.
(a) Incorrect: Article 2 deals with admission or establishment of new states into the Union (i.e., territories not yet part of India).
(c) Incorrect: Article 4 deals with laws made under Articles 2 and 3 (consequential amendments to Schedules I and IV).
(d) Incorrect: Article 368 deals with the procedure for amending the Constitution itself, not for creating new states.
Union Executive · President - powers (executive, legislative, veto, pardon, ordinance)

Q32. Which Article deals with the extent of executive power of the Union, defining the scope and limitations of the Union Government's authority in administration?

  1. (a) Article 73
  2. (b) Article 74
  3. (c) Article 75
  4. (d) Article 77
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Article 73

Article 73 of the Indian Constitution defines the extent of executive power of the Union. It states that the executive power of the Union extends to matters in respect of which Parliament has the power to make laws and to the exercise of rights, authority, and jurisdiction exercisable by Government of India under any treaty or agreement.
(b) Incorrect: Article 74 deals with the Council of Ministers — the President acts on the aid and advice of the Council of Ministers.
(c) Incorrect: Article 75 deals with the appointment and responsibilities of the Prime Minister and other ministers.
(d) Incorrect: Article 77 deals with conduct of business of the Government of India — rules for authentication of Government orders.

Current Affairs (7)

International Affairs and Summits · Bilateral agreements and visits

Q33. During his visit to India in February 2025, which former Australian Prime Minister toured the NAFED Millet Experience Centre in New Delhi as part of an agri-food diplomacy initiative?

  1. (a) Scott Morrison
  2. (b) Kevin Rudd
  3. (c) Anthony John Abbott
  4. (d) Malcolm Turnbull
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Anthony John Abbott

Former Australian Prime Minister Anthony John Abbott (Tony Abbott, PM 2013-2015) visited the NAFED Millet Experience Centre in New Delhi in February 2025 as part of an agri-food diplomacy initiative, underscoring India-Australia agricultural cooperation and India's leadership in promoting millets globally.
(a) Incorrect: Scott Morrison served as Australian PM from 2018-2022; he did not make this visit.
(b) Incorrect: Kevin Rudd was PM in 2007-2010 and 2013; he later served as Australia's Ambassador to the US.
(d) Incorrect: Malcolm Turnbull served as PM from 2015-2018; he did not make this specific visit.
Awards and Honours - Current · National awards - current

Q34. Who conferred the 58th Jnanpith Award in May 2025?

  1. (a) Rajnath Singh
  2. (b) Smriti Irani
  3. (c) G. Kishan Reddy
  4. (d) Droupadi Murmu
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Droupadi Murmu

The 58th Jnanpith Award, India's highest literary honour, was conferred by President Droupadi Murmu in May 2025. The Jnanpith Award is given annually by the Bharatiya Jnanpith to authors for outstanding contributions to Indian literature. It includes a cash prize of Rs 11 lakh, a citation, and a bronze replica of Vagdevi (Saraswati).
(a) Incorrect: Rajnath Singh is the Defence Minister; awards like Jnanpith are conferred by the President.
(b) Incorrect: Smriti Irani is a former minister; she does not confer the Jnanpith Award.
(c) Incorrect: G. Kishan Reddy is a Cabinet Minister; the Jnanpith Award is conferred by the President.
Reports, Indices and Rankings · Global indices and India's rank

Q35. In the IQAir 2024 global air-quality assessment, what rank did India receive among the world's most polluted countries considering annual PM2.5 concentrations across monitored regions?

  1. (a) 2nd
  2. (b) 3rd
  3. (c) 5th
  4. (d) 7th
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) 5th

According to the IQAir 2024 World Air Quality Report, India ranked 5th among the world's most polluted countries based on annual PM2.5 concentrations. Bangladesh ranked as the most polluted country globally. Delhi ranked among the most polluted capital cities in the world. IQAir is a Swiss air quality technology company that monitors air pollution worldwide.
(a) Incorrect: India did not rank 2nd in the IQAir 2024 report.
(b) Incorrect: India did not rank 3rd in the IQAir 2024 global ranking.
(d) Incorrect: India did not rank 7th; it ranked 5th in the 2024 IQAir report.
Sports - Current · Venues and hosts

Q36. The 38th National Games, scheduled for 2025, were allotted to a state to organize and host the event. Which state received this allotment?

  1. (a) Uttarakhand
  2. (b) Madhya Pradesh
  3. (c) Andhra Pradesh
  4. (d) Karnataka
Answer & solution

Answer: (a) Uttarakhand

The 38th National Games were allotted to Uttarakhand and scheduled for 2025. Uttarakhand prepared venues across Dehradun, Haridwar, and other cities to host this multi-sport event. The National Games are organized by the Indian Olympic Association (IOA) and feature athletes from all Indian states and union territories competing in various Olympic and non-Olympic sports.
(b) Incorrect: Madhya Pradesh did not receive the 38th National Games allotment.
(c) Incorrect: Andhra Pradesh did not get the 38th Games; they hosted an earlier edition.
(d) Incorrect: Karnataka has hosted National Games earlier (36th), but the 38th were allotted to Uttarakhand.
State News · State schemes and events

Q37. The Uttarakhand UCC Bill, 2024, exempts which group from its provisions?

  1. (a) Hindus
  2. (b) Muslims
  3. (c) Christians
  4. (d) Scheduled Tribes
Answer & solution

Answer: (d) Scheduled Tribes

The Uttarakhand Uniform Civil Code (UCC) Bill 2024 was the first UCC enacted by any Indian state. While it applies uniformly to most residents regarding marriage, divorce, inheritance, and succession, it explicitly exempts Scheduled Tribes (ST) communities from its provisions, thereby preserving their customary personal laws, traditions, and practices as protected under the Fifth and Sixth Schedules of the Constitution.
(a) Incorrect: Hindus are covered by the Uttarakhand UCC; they are not exempted.
(b) Incorrect: Muslims residing in Uttarakhand are covered by the UCC; they are not explicitly exempted.
(c) Incorrect: Christians in Uttarakhand are also covered by the UCC provisions; Scheduled Tribes are the exempted group.
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q38. What is the approximate launch mass of ISRO's CMS-03 communication satellite?

  1. (a) 2400 kg
  2. (b) 4400 kg
  3. (c) 5400 kg
  4. (d) 6400 kg
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) 4400 kg

ISRO's CMS-03 (Communication Satellite-03) has an approximate launch mass of 4400 kg. It belongs to India's communication satellite series providing direct-to-home broadcasting and VSAT connectivity services. ISRO's LVM3 (Launch Vehicle Mark-3) with a payload capacity of approximately 4000 kg to Geostationary Transfer Orbit is the primary launch vehicle for such heavy communication satellites.
(a) Incorrect: 2400 kg is below the typical mass range for ISRO's advanced geostationary communication satellites.
(c) Incorrect: 5400 kg exceeds the approximate launch mass of CMS-03.
(d) Incorrect: 6400 kg is significantly above the approximate launch mass of CMS-03.
Science, Technology and Space - Current · Space missions - current

Q39. Into which orbit was ISRO's CMS-03 satellite placed after its launch?

  1. (a) Low Earth Orbit
  2. (b) Geostationary Orbit
  3. (c) Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit
  4. (d) Polar Orbit
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit

After launch by LVM3 (GSLV Mk III), ISRO's CMS-03 was initially placed in Geosynchronous Transfer Orbit (GTO) — an elliptical orbit with a low perigee (around 200 km) and a high apogee (around 35,786 km). The satellite's onboard propulsion system subsequently raises it to its operational Geostationary Orbit (GEO) at 35,786 km altitude for communication services.
(a) Incorrect: Low Earth Orbit (160-2000 km) is used for Earth observation and navigation satellites; communication satellites go to GTO/GEO.
(b) Incorrect: Geostationary Orbit is the final operational orbit; GTO is the intermediate orbit after launch.
(d) Incorrect: Polar Orbit is used for Earth observation satellites passing over the poles; not used for geostationary communication satellites.

Economics (5)

Industry and Infrastructure · Disinvestment

Q40. The sale of 'BALCO' (Bharat Aluminium Company) in 2001 to a private company is an example of?

  1. (a) Liberalization
  2. (b) Privatization
  3. (c) Globalization
  4. (d) Nationalization
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Privatization

The sale of BALCO (Bharat Aluminium Company) in 2001 to Sterlite Industries (part of Vedanta Group) is a classic example of Privatization — the process by which the government sells its equity in public sector undertakings to private parties. The government sold its 51% stake in BALCO for Rs 551.5 crore.
(a) Incorrect: Liberalization means removing government controls and restrictions from businesses; it is not about selling government assets.
(c) Incorrect: Globalization refers to integration of economies; it does not mean selling PSUs.
(d) Incorrect: Nationalization is the reverse process — government taking over private companies (e.g., bank nationalization in 1969).
National Income · GDP, GNP, NDP and NNP

Q41. GDP at current prices is calculated using:

  1. (a) Constant base-year prices
  2. (b) Prices of the current year
  3. (c) International market rates
  4. (d) Wholesale price index
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Prices of the current year

GDP at current prices (Nominal GDP) is calculated using the prices prevailing in the current year itself. This reflects the actual market values in that period, including inflationary effects. In contrast, GDP at constant prices (Real GDP) uses prices of a fixed base year to measure actual growth after removing inflation.
(a) Incorrect: Constant base-year prices are used for calculating Real GDP (GDP at constant prices), not GDP at current prices.
(c) Incorrect: International market rates are not used to calculate domestic GDP.
(d) Incorrect: Wholesale Price Index measures inflation; it is not directly used to calculate GDP at current prices.
Basic Concepts and Economic Systems · Economic systems (capitalist, socialist, mixed)

Q42. Under the 'Laissez-faire' economic theory, what is the role of the government?

  1. (a) Total control of the economy
  2. (b) Minimum interference in economic affairs
  3. (c) Setting prices for all goods
  4. (d) Owning all industries
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Minimum interference in economic affairs

'Laissez-faire' (French for 'let it be/let it go') is an economic theory advocating for minimum government interference in economic affairs. It supports free markets, private enterprise, voluntary exchange, and minimal regulation. Adam Smith's 'Invisible Hand' concept underpins this theory — markets self-regulate through supply and demand.
(a) Incorrect: Total control of the economy is characteristic of Communism or Command economies, the opposite of laissez-faire.
(c) Incorrect: Setting prices for all goods is a hallmark of planned economies; laissez-faire allows market-determined prices.
(d) Incorrect: Owning all industries is a Socialist/Communist policy; laissez-faire favors private ownership.
Government Schemes and Economic Reports · Skill development and employment schemes

Q43. The 'PM Vishwakarma' scheme is designed to provide support to which group of people?

  1. (a) Farmers growing cash crops
  2. (b) Students going abroad for studies
  3. (c) Traditional artisans and craftspeople
  4. (d) Scientists in research labs
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Traditional artisans and craftspeople

PM Vishwakarma Scheme (launched September 17, 2023 on Vishwakarma Jayanti) provides holistic support to traditional artisans and craftspeople (Vishwakarma communities) engaged in 18 traditional trades like blacksmiths, goldsmiths, potters, weavers, and carpenters. The scheme offers skill training, modern tools (up to Rs 15,000), credit support (up to Rs 3 lakh at 5% interest), and market linkages.
(a) Incorrect: Farmers are covered under schemes like PM-KISAN; PM Vishwakarma targets artisans.
(b) Incorrect: Students going abroad are covered by schemes like National Overseas Scholarship, not PM Vishwakarma.
(d) Incorrect: Scientists in research labs are supported through DST, CSIR funding; not PM Vishwakarma.
External Sector and International Economic Organisations · Foreign trade policy and EXIM

Q44. What is meant by a 'Special Economic Zone' (SEZ) in India?

  1. (a) A historical monument
  2. (b) An area with tax benefits to promote exports
  3. (c) A government-owned factory
  4. (d) A national park
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) An area with tax benefits to promote exports

A Special Economic Zone (SEZ) in India is a geographically delimited area where special business and trade regulations apply, distinct from the rest of the country, specifically designed to promote exports and attract investment. SEZs offer income tax holidays, duty-free imports, simplified customs, and better infrastructure. India's SEZ Act was passed in 2005. Examples include Noida SEZ, SEEPZ Mumbai, and Mundra SEZ.
(a) Incorrect: A historical monument is a heritage site; an SEZ is an economic policy instrument.
(c) Incorrect: An SEZ is not a government-owned factory; it is a designated zone hosting multiple private and public enterprises.
(d) Incorrect: A national park is a protected conservation area for wildlife; an SEZ is an economic promotion zone.

Medieval History (2)

Mughal Empire · Akbar's Navratnas and Din-i-Ilahi

Q45. What was the 'Ibadat Khana' (House of Worship) built by Akbar at Fatehpur Sikri?

  1. (a) A mosque for Friday prayers
  2. (b) A hall for religious debates and discussions
  3. (c) A private prayer room for Akbar
  4. (d) A tomb for a Sufi saint
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) A hall for religious debates and discussions

The Ibadat Khana (House of Worship) was built by Emperor Akbar at Fatehpur Sikri in 1575 as a hall for religious debates and discussions. Initially intended for Islamic scholars, Akbar later opened it to Hindus, Christians, Jains, Zoroastrians, and scholars of all religions. This reflected his policy of Sulh-i-kul (universal peace) and his spirit of religious enquiry.
(a) Incorrect: Ibadat Khana was not a mosque; it was a multi-faith discussion hall.
(c) Incorrect: Ibadat Khana was not a private prayer room; it was a hall for inter-faith debates.
(d) Incorrect: The Dargah of Salim Chishti at Fatehpur Sikri is a Sufi shrine; Ibadat Khana served a different purpose.
Medieval Culture, Literature and Travellers · Foreign travellers

Q46. The Persian scholar 'Al-Biruni' came to India with Mahmud of Ghazni and wrote which book about India?

  1. (a) Shahnameh
  2. (b) Rihla
  3. (c) Kitab-ul-Hind
  4. (d) Tarikh-i-Firoz Shahi
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Kitab-ul-Hind

Al-Biruni (Abu Rayhan al-Biruni), the great Persian scholar, came to India with Mahmud of Ghazni in the 11th century and wrote 'Kitab-ul-Hind' (Book of India / Tahqiq ma lil-Hind), a comprehensive encyclopedia covering Indian philosophy, science, astronomy, mathematics, and culture in Arabic. It remains a remarkable work of comparative study.
(a) Incorrect: Shahnameh ('Book of Kings') is an epic poem written by Firdausi about Persian history.
(b) Incorrect: Rihla was the travel account of Moroccan traveler Ibn Battuta who visited India during Muhammad bin Tughluq's reign.
(d) Incorrect: Tarikh-i-Firoz Shahi was written by Ziauddin Barani during the Delhi Sultanate period.

Physics (1)

Electricity · Electric charge and Coulomb's law

Q47. The unit of electric flux is represented by which quantity derived from the product of electric field and surface area?

  1. (a) Joule
  2. (b) Weber
  3. (c) Newton meter² per coulomb
  4. (d) Tesla
Answer & solution

Answer: (c) Newton meter² per coulomb

Electric flux (Φ) is defined as Φ = E × A × cosθ, where E = electric field (unit: N/C) and A = surface area (unit: m²). Therefore, unit of electric flux = N/C × m² = N·m²/C (Newton meter squared per coulomb). Equivalently, this can be written as Volt·metres (V·m) since V = N·m/C.
(a) Incorrect: Joule is the unit of energy or work (N·m or kg·m²/s²); not the unit of electric flux.
(b) Incorrect: Weber is the unit of magnetic flux (Φ_B); not electric flux.
(d) Incorrect: Tesla is the unit of magnetic field strength (B); it is not the unit of electric flux.

Biology (2)

Control and Coordination · Endocrine glands and hormones

Q48. Which hormone is secreted by the pineal gland and regulates sleep-wake cycles in humans?

  1. (a) Cortisol
  2. (b) Melatonin
  3. (c) Insulin
  4. (d) Oxytocin
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Melatonin

Melatonin is a hormone secreted by the pineal gland (a small endocrine gland in the brain) that regulates the circadian rhythm (sleep-wake cycle). Its secretion increases in darkness and decreases in bright light, signaling the body when it is time to sleep. Disruption of melatonin production (e.g., by artificial light) can cause sleep disorders.
(a) Incorrect: Cortisol is produced by the adrenal cortex; it is a stress hormone that regulates metabolism and immune response.
(c) Incorrect: Insulin is produced by beta cells of the pancreatic islets of Langerhans; it regulates blood glucose levels.
(d) Incorrect: Oxytocin is produced by the hypothalamus and stored in the posterior pituitary; it is associated with bonding, childbirth, and lactation.
Nutrition and Digestion · Digestive enzymes and juices

Q49. Which organ serves as the storage site for bile, releasing it into the small intestine when fats are ingested for proper digestion?

  1. (a) Liver
  2. (b) Gall bladder
  3. (c) Pancreas
  4. (d) Stomach
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) Gall bladder

The gall bladder is a small pear-shaped organ located beneath the liver that stores bile (produced by the liver). When fatty foods are consumed, cholecystokinin (CCK) stimulates the gall bladder to contract and release bile into the small intestine (via the common bile duct) to emulsify and aid in the digestion of dietary fats.
(a) Incorrect: The liver produces bile but does not store it; the gall bladder is the storage organ.
(c) Incorrect: The pancreas produces digestive enzymes (lipase, amylase, protease) and insulin; it does not store bile.
(d) Incorrect: The stomach produces hydrochloric acid and gastric enzymes for protein digestion; it does not store bile.

Chemistry (1)

Environmental Chemistry · Air quality management (AQI, NAAQS, NCAP, GRAP)

Q50. What determines the overall AQI for a location?

  1. (a) The average concentration of all pollutants.
  2. (b) The worst sub-index value among the pollutants.
  3. (c) The total number of pollutants measured.
  4. (d) The concentration of only the most harmful pollutant.
Answer & solution

Answer: (b) The worst sub-index value among the pollutants.

The overall Air Quality Index (AQI) for a location is determined by the worst (highest) sub-index value among all the pollutants measured — including PM2.5, PM10, NO2, SO2, CO, Ozone (O3), Ammonia (NH3), and Lead (Pb). Each pollutant gets its own sub-index, and the AQI equals the highest of these values. This ensures the AQI always reflects the most severe pollution concern at that location.
(a) Incorrect: AQI is not the average of all pollutant concentrations; it takes the worst value, not the mean.
(c) Incorrect: The number of pollutants measured is not how AQI is determined; it is the worst sub-index.
(d) Incorrect: AQI is not based solely on one pollutant; all measured pollutants are assessed and the worst sub-index is used.
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